Eligibility [MD/MS/M.Ch.(6 YRS)/DM (6 YRS)/MDS

The information on this page is only a part of the prospectus. To download the complete prospectus click here.

2. ELIGIBILITY

a) A candidate must possess MBBS degree for MD/MS and BDS degree for MDS courses of a University recognized by the Medical Council of India/Dental Council of India and must have completed the required period of 12 months compulsory rotating Internship/Practical training on or before 30th July, 2019 [As per DCI endorsement No.DE-130-2011/B-4978, dated 13.12.2011, candidature will be as per DCI Revised BDS Course (4th Amendment) Regulation-2011 published in Gazettee notification (Extraordinary) Part-III, Section-4, dated 9.12.2011]. Candidates who complete their internship after 30th July, 2019 are not eligible for Registration in this examination.

b) In case it is found that a candidate who does not fulfill the eligibility qualification / criteria (such as Internship Completion dates etc.) has provided false information solely for appearing in the examination for practice purpose, the candidate shall be debarred from appearing in AIIMS Entrance Examination in future. Selected candidate will be verified against previously available data for further action as above.

c) Minimum Marks in MBBS/ BDS or equivalent Examinations The candidate must have obtained a minimum of the following marks in aggregate in all the MBBS/BDS professional examinations

(i) For candidates belonging to the SC/ST Categories 50% marks in aggregate (ii) For all other categories including OBC Category 55% marks in aggregate (iii) For Persons with Bench-mark Disabilities [PWBD] candidates the minimum aggregate as

provided in (i) and (ii) for the category to which the candidate belongs shall apply.

(iv) Sponsored Candidates . The eligibility of Sponsored Candidates with respect to the minimum marks in aggregate in all

the MBBS/BDS professional examinations will be the same as for candidates as mentioned from (i) to (iii) above

(v) Foreign National candidates Please obtain the certificate of grading system from your University / Institution to determine the

value of grading in percentage to be produced. After getting the certificate, calculate total and obtained marks from the certificate then fill "Marks Column" and complete Final Registration before due date.

(vi) Graduated from Foreign Universities Indian National candidates who have been graduated from foreign Universities must fill their

MCI screening exam % in the online form. Candidate must have obtained 55% for UR/OBC, 50% for SC/ST categories, in FMGE exam conducted by NBE, Govt. of India, Delhi

3. COMPETETIVE ENTRANCE EXAMINATION

The Entrance Examination shall be conducted through a Computer Based Test (CBT). • The examination shall be held on Sunday, the 5th May, 2019. • The duration of the examination shall be 3 hours (Three hours/180 minutes) for MD/MS/MDS Courses. • The Online (CBT) Entrance Examination will be conducted in one shift:

Timing - MD/MS/MDS: 09:00 AM to 12:00 Noon The examination centres are tentatively proposed in 64 cities all over India

4. TYPE OF PAPER:

The Competitive Entrance Examination will have one paper in English consisting of For MD /MS / MDS: 200 (Two hundred) Objective Type (Multiple Choice type) questions

5. SUBJECTS: • The entrance test for MD/MS will consist of multiple-choice questions covering all the subjects

taught at M.B.B.S. level • The entrance test for MDS, will consist of multiple-choice questions covering all the subjects

taught at BDS level.

7. TYPE OF QUESTIONS

The Questions for MD/MS/MDS Entrance Examinations are of the objective type and consist of 200 Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs). The MCQs shall be of the following types and indicative examples of each are provided:

1. Single Best Answer Type • Each question / statement shall have four alternatives / statements of which only and one best response is to be selected /marked

The nerve that controls salivary secretion from the Parotid Gland is 1. Glossopharyngeal nerve 2. Facial nerve 3. Hypoglossal nerve 4. Chorda tympani

• Correct answer: +1 and Incorrect answer:-1/3

2. Multiple True-False Type • Each question shall have a stem followed by five alternatives/ statements and

every alternative/ statement will have to be marked as either True or False The following statements are true / false regarding currently applicable modified Jones criteria for the diagnosis of Rheumatic Fever 1. Major criteria are similar for both Low Risk and High-Risk populations 2. Doppler echocardiography is recommended for confirming subclinical carditis 3. Monoarthritis is included as one of the major criteria in Low Risk population 4. Three minor criteria are sufficient to diagnose subsequent episodes of disease 5. Fever ≥ 37.5°C is a minor criterion

• Correct answer: +1/5 for each alternative/statement and Incorrect answer: -1/5 for each alternative/statement

3. Match the Following Type • Each question shall have two columns with four items in one column (A) that need

to be matched appropriately with the best alternative available in the next column(B).

• Correct answer: +1/4 for each

alternative and Incorrect answer: -1/4 for each alternative 4. Sequential Arrangement Type • Each question shall have a list of items that need to be arranged sequentially or in

order as indicated Arrange the following bone tumours / lesions sequentially in the order of prevalence with regard to age : Tumour/ lesion occurring in the youngest age group first and the oldest age group last. 1. Osteosarcoma 2.Ewings Tumour 3. Multiple Myeloma. 4. Osteoclastoma

Column A 1. Lassa fever 2. Nipah virus fever 3. Kyasanur Forest disease 4. Japanese encephalitis

Column B a. Fruit flies b. Culex mosquitoes c. Multimammate rat d. Fruit bats e. Hard ticks f. Cackling Goose

• Correct answer (full sequence correct); +1, Incorrect Answer (Sequence in correct) : - 1

5. Multiple Completion Type • Each question / statement shall have four alternatives / statements of which one

or more may be correct and need to be marked using the following key: (1) If a, b, c are correct

(2) If a and c are correct (3) If b and d are correct (4) If all four (a, b, c, & d) are correct

Clinical features of neonatal tetanus includes a. Stiffness of neck muscles b. Painful body spasms c. Difficulty in swallowing d. Bulging fontanelle

• Correct answer: +1/4 and Incorrect answer: -1/4

6. Reason Assertion Type • Each question shall have two statements: Assertion (A) and Reason (B) connected

by the term “because”. The appropriate answer should be marked using the following

key: • (1) Both Assertion and Reasons are independently true / correct statements and

the Reason is the correct explanation for the Assertion (2) Both Assertion and Reasons are independently true / correct statements, but the

Reason is not the correct explanation for the Assertion

(3) Assertion is independently a true / correct statement, but the Reasons is independently a false

/ incorrect statement (4) Assertion is independently a false / incorrect statement, but the Reasons is

independently a true / correct statement (5) Both Assertion and Reasons are independently false / incorrect statements

(A) Serum insulin levels in untreated Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus is low (B) In Type 1 Diabetes mellitus the β cells in pancreas are destroyed In the above question Statement (A) is the Assertion and Statement (B) is the Reason that

explains the Assertion (Statement A)

• Correct answer: +1/4 and Incorrect answer: -1/4

7. Extended Matching Items / Questions (EMI /EMQ) Each EMI /EMQ will broadly have the following components. • Theme & Focus • Answer option list • Lead in question • Scenarios or Vignettes There will be two or more scenario / viginette related to the overall Theme & Focus of the

question • The candidate should select the best possible answer from the Answer Option List.

Theme & Focus Fatigue

Answer Option List A. Thalassemia B. Acute Leukemia

C. Hereditary Spherocytosis D. Non-Hodgkins Lymphoma E. Hodgkin Disease F. Multiple Myeloma G. Megaloblastic Anemia H. Chronic Myeloid Leukemia

Lead in question For each of the following patients as described in the scenarios below, identify the cause from the above Answer Option List Case 1 A 30-year-old male presented with fatigue and pain abdomen of six months duration. On examination, he is anemia and has multiple, cervical lymph nodes around 1cms in size, hepatomegaly to the extent of 2 cms below costal margin and a spleen that is enlarged to 10 cms below costal margin. Laboratory examination reveals Hemoglobin of 7G/dL, Total Leukocyte Count of 85.6 X109 /L and Platelet Count of 326 X109 /L. The peripheral smear showed mild anisocytosis and poikilocytosis of Red Cells. Normoblasts were not seen. There were increased numbers of neutrophils and neutrophil precursors and few basophils were identified. Occasional blasts were seen. The Differential Count was: Blasts 1%, Promyelocytes 1%, Myelocytes 8%, Metamyelocytes 7%, Band Forms 22%, Neutrophils 41%, Eosinophils 2% Basophils 2%, Lymphocytes 12% and Monocytes 4%. Numerous platelets were identified singly or in clumps. What is your diagnosis? Case 2 A 25 year old male was detected to have pallor and mild icterus by his Family Physician whom he consulted for fatigue since about a year. He gives a history of cholecystectomy for gall-stone disease. He could not give any detailed family history except that his father and paternal grand-father were known to be “anemic”. Neither he nor his family members ever needed blood transfusions. On Physical Examination, his spleen was palpable 3 cms below costal margin. Laboratory investigations revealed: RBC 3.62 x 1012/L HGB 10.3 G/dL HCT 30.1 % MCV 85.1 fL MCH 27.6 pg MCHC 32.6 g/dL RDW 17.9 Reticulocyte count was 15.6% Serum Iron Studies did not reveal any abnormality Hemoglobin electrophoresis was normal Total Bilirubin was 3.2 mg/dL and the Conjugated Bilirubin was 0.5 mg/dL. What is your diagnosis? Correct answer: (+) No of scenarios /1 and Incorrect answer: (-) No of scenarios /1

The number of scenarios may vary

8 SCHEME OF MARKING • Please see the individual explanations above and the table below. • No credit will be given for the questions not answered or marked for review (Questions

marked for review shall be considered as unanswered. • Percentile scores are generated for the entire examination separately for MD /MS and for MDS.

* For each alternative / response in the MCQ ** If Two Scenarios in each question (see page 10 also) MAJORITY OF THE MCQS FOR THE JULY 2019 MD/MS/MDS EXAMINATION SHALL BE OF THE SINGLE BEST RESPONSE TYPE

If any discrepancy in any question is found in the Entrance Examination, the candidate is advised to write to Associate Dean (Exam), AIIMS, New Delhi – 110 608 within 24 hours on the following E-mail subdeanexamsaiims@hotmail.com. This mail will only be used for discrepancy related to question. However, for another query please mail on aiims.pgexams@gmail.com. If any mail related to discrepancy in questions are sent other than subdeanexamsaiims@hotmail.com will not be considered & entertained.

9 MINIMUM CUT-OFF SCORES In accordance with decision of the Governing Body, AIIMS dated 14 September 2013, the

minimum cut-off necessary in the Entrance Examination to determine eligibility for admission is 50th

Percentile.

Single Best Response +1 -1/3 0 0 Multiple True False* +1/5 -1/5 0 0 Match the Following* +1/4 -1/4 0 0

Multiple Completion +1/4 - 1/4 0 0

Reason Assertion +1/4 -1/4 0 0

Extended Matching** +1/2 -1/2 0 0

Sequential Arrangement +1 -1 0 0

Type of MCQ

WRONG CORRECT FOR REVIEW

NOT ANSWERED

10 PERCENTILE SCORES

Percentile scores are scores based on the relative performance of all those who appear for the examination Basically, the marks obtained are transformed into a scale ranging from 100 to 0 for each group of examinees The Percentile Score indicates the percentage of candidates that have scored EQUAL TO OR BELOW that particular Percentile in that examination. The highest score is converted to a Percentile score of 100. The marks obtained in between the highest and lowest scores are also converted to appropriate Percentiles The Percentile Scores would be converted to 3 decimal places to avoid bunching effect and therefore reduce ties

The following is a further explanation of the interpretation of the scores in an examination with 100 candidates.

• If candidate A’s Percentile score is 100, it indicates that amongst those who have taken the examination, 100% have scored either EQUAL TO OR LESS THAN the candidate A. It also indicates that no candidate has scored more that candidate A.

• If candidate B’s Percentile score is 90, it indicates that 90% of the candidates who have taken the examination have scored either EQUAL TO OR LESS than candidate B. It also indicates that remaining candidates have scored more than candidate B.

• If candidate C’s Percentile score is 50, it indicates that 50% of the candidates who have taken the examination have scored either EQUAL TO OR LESS than candidate C. It also indicates that remaining half of those who took the examination have scored more than candidate C.

• If candidate D’s Percentile score is 30, it indicates that 30% of the candidates who have taken the examination have scored either EQUAL TO OR LESS than candidate D. It also indicates that remaining have scored more than candidate D.

• If candidate E’s Percentile score is 1, it indicates that none of the candidates who have taken the examination have scored either EQUAL TO OR LESS than candidate E. It also indicates that all remaining candidates who took the examination have scored more than candidate.

11 METHOD OF RESOLVING TIES

The overall merit / ranking shall be based on the Percentile scores. The method adopted for breaking ties (similar Percentiles) shall be: (i) Candidates obtaining higher aggregate marks in all the MBBS/BDS Professional

Examinations shall be placed higher than candidates with lower aggregate marks in MBBS/BDS Professional Examinations.

(ii) In case there is still a tie, after step (i) above, according to age (Date of birth), the older candidate shall get preference over the younger one.

12. PREPARATION OF MERIT LIST Merit list shall be prepared based on the Percentile Scores and applying the above method for resolving ties Overall and Category-wise merit Lists shall be prepared accordingly.

13. RESERVATION OF SEATS (i) 49.5% of the total Post-Graduate seats (15% for SC, 7.5% ST and 27% for OBC)

excluding those for Sponsored/Foreign National candidates are reserved for the candidates belonging to the Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes and the Other Backward Classes (Non-creamy layer).

(ii) EWS Reservation: - Matter regrading Reservation for EWS in AIIMS, New Delhi & Bhubaneswar is under consideration by the competent authorities, Notification will be uploaded on the AIIMS website www.aiimsexams.org subsequently.

At AIIMS Patna, Implementation of EWS-UR not possible due to pending academic & Financial approval.

No institutional preference be given to students at AIIMS, Raipur

Reservation for the Persons with Benchmark Disabilities (PWBD) a) For MD/MS:

• As per provisions (Chapter VI Clause 32) of the Rights of the Persons with Disabilities Act. 2016 Five percent of seats shall be reserved for Persons (Indian nationals) with Benchmark Disabilities (PWBD) The reservation will be provided on horizontal basis, as per their rank in order of merit in examination.

• Vacant seat, if any, shall be offered to the candidate from the general/relevant category.

b) For MDS: As per 100-point roster, number of seat(s) for reserved for Persons (Indian Nationals) with Benchmark Disabilities (PWBD) for the July 2019 session will be announced later.

c) CRITERIA FOR PERSONS WITH BENCHMARK DISABILITY (PWBD) (Common to AIIMS, New Delhi & Eight other AIIMS):

SUMMARY OF EXAMINATION PATTERN (Please see the text for details and explanations)

01 Mode of Examination Computer Based Test (CBT) / Online

02 Duration of Examination MD/MS: 3 hours (Three hours / 180 minutes) MDS: 3 hours (Three hours / 180 minutes)

03 Date of Examination Sunday, the 5th May, 2019

04 Number of Shifts 01 (One)

05 Timing of Examination MD /MS: 09.00 AM to 12.00 Noon MDS: 09.00 AM to 12.00 Noon

06 Location of Examination Centres Tentatively 64 cities in India

07 Language of Paper English

08 Type of Examination Objective Type

09 Number of Questions MD /MS: One Paper of 200 MCQ (Two hundred) MDS: One Paper of 200 MCQs (Two hundred)

10 Type of Objective Questions Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) Please see Section 7 and 8 above for details 11 Marking Scheme

12 Method of Cut-Off Percentile: 50th Percentile

13 Method of determining merit Overall merit by ranking of Percentiles

14 Method of resolving ties Higher aggregate in all subjects in MBBS /BDS Seniority by age

In accordance with the provisions of the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016, 5% seats of the annual sanctioned intake capacity shall be filled up by candidates with benchmark disabilities, based on the merit list of AIIMS PG Entrance Examination, July/January session. For this purpose, the Specified Disability contained in the Schedule to the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016 is annexed in APPENDIX-IV. The candidate must possess a valid document certifying his/her physical disability. The disability certificate should be certified by a duly constituted and authorized Medical Board of the State or Central Govt. Hospitals/Institutions. All PWBD candidates shall be evaluated by a Medical Board of the Institute to determine eligibility.

For detailed distribution of seats, category-wise please see the tables in page 2 and 3.

14. INSTITUTIONAL PREFERENCE FOR AIIMS GRADUATES

(a) By way of institutional preference the institutional candidates i.e. those who have graduated from All India Institute of Medical Sciences, New Delhi shall be preferred for admission against 50% of total MBBS seats of AIIMS of the open general seats without any discipline wise preference, in accordance with the judgment of the Hon'ble Supreme Court and subsequent judgment dated 07-05-2004 of the Supreme Court in Saurabh Chaudhary Vs. Union of India W.P. (C) No. 29 of 2003 and connected matters.

(b) Similarly graduates of other AIIMS shall be eligible for preferential allotment of seats in the respective AIIMS only.

(c) Any seat left vacant out of the AIIMS preferential seats or any other reserved seats shall be available to other open general category candidate in order of merit.

15. CONTRACT

1. Each Junior Resident will be on contract service for a period of three years.

2. Original certificates of any candidate who opts for a confirmed seat will be retained in the Academic Section. The same will not be returned to the candidate before completion of the course unless he/she deposits a sum of Rs.3,00,000/- (Rupees Three Lakh only) once seat has been confirmed irrespective of the fact whether he/she joins the course or not. If any candidate who joins the MD/MS/MDS & M.Ch./DM (direct 6 years) courses, leaves the said course within six months of joining, he/she shall be liable to pay a sum of Rs.3,00,000/- (Rupees Three Lakh only) and any candidate who joins the PG courses and leaves after six months of joining shall be liable to pay a sum of Rs.5,00,000/- (Rupees Five Lakh only) as compensation for losses incurred by the AIIMS due to such midstream departure. The salary for the month in which his/her resignation from the PG seat becomes effective, shall also stand forfeited.

16. OTHER TERMS & CONDITIONS

A. EMOLUMENTS Junior Residents/Demonstrators (three years tenure period) will be paid a sum of

Rs.15600 + Rs.5400 Grade Pay + NPA and other allowances as admissible under the rules in the first year of the residency or revised pay scale as per 7th CPC as applicable.

B. SELECTION OF SPONSORED/FOREIGN NATIONAL CANDIDATES A combined merit list of the sponsored/foreign national candidates will be made. Seats will be

allotted purely on merit on the basis of performance in the Entrance Test. Detailed requirements for Sponsored/Foreign National candidates are given on next pages under the heading “IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS APPLICABLE TO ALL EXAMINATIONS”.

C. DUTIES AND RESPONSIBILITIES Duties and responsibilities of Junior Residents will be fixed by the Institute from time to time.

They will be required to perform such work as may be needed in the legitimate interest of patient care in the hospital.

D. LEAVE

During the term of his/her employment, he/she will be entitled for leave as under:

First year 30 days leave

The competent authority has decided that the JR (Acad,) will be entitled to the leave calculated on Pro- rata basis i.e. JR Acad. during the first year of their tenure they will be sanctioned leave for only that much number of days which they have already earned.

Second year 36 days leave.

Third year 36 days leave.

As per rule, leave cannot be carried forward and they are not entitled to any other leave except the above-mentioned leave. However, can be accumulated for the purpose of leave encashment on completion of tenure. Further, the residency period as well as exam of residents, who avail leave over & above their entitlement, will be extended.

E. ASSESSMENT At the end of first six months of the admission, each Junior Resident will be assessed and, in

case his/her performance is not found satisfactory, his/her registration may be cancelled.

F. SUBMISSION OF PROTOCOL AND THESIS The Junior Residents/Demonstrators registered for MD/MS/MDS course shall be required to

get his/her plan of thesis protocol approved by his/her departmental faculty within 4 months of enrolment and submit it to Academic Section. If a candidate fails to submit the thesis protocol within the prescribed period, his/her registration will stand cancelled. The last date for submission of thesis for the students registered for MD/MS/MDS degree will be 30th June for those appearing at the December examination and 30th November for those appearing at the May examination.

G. INTERNAL ASSESSMENT Internal assessment/progress report should be evaluated periodically by the faculty members

of the concerned department on the theoretical knowledge and practical skills of a candidate. The Head of the Department should send such an internal assessment/progress report of each candidate on regular basis i.e. six monthly and send to the Academic Section for official records. The weightage of the internal assessment/progress report i.e. 20% marks of the candidate will be added in his/her final examination. [Ref. Notification No.4-7/2015-Acad.1 dated 22.06.2015].

H. Research Methodology Course

MD/MS/DM(6years)/MCH(6years)/MDS candidates shall be required to attend the Research Methodology Course within one year of their joining and must clear the exit examination of the courses to be eligible for appearing for the final MD/MS/DM(6years)/MCH(6years)/MDS examination. Additional mandatory courses, as notified from time to time, may also be subject to the same conditions.

17. PROCESS OF ONLINE COUNSELLING/SEAT ALLOCATION

a) In each category the number of candidates call for online seat allocation/counseling will be 8 times the number of seats.

b) The Mock round of online Counselling/seat allocation is expected to begin on 17.05.2019 followed by subsequent rounds of counselling. The details will be available at www.aiimsexams.org. Online seat allocation/counseling will be held as per schedule given under “IMPORTANT DATES AT A GLANCE”.

c) The sponsored/Foreign National candidates are not required to participate in the Online Counselling/Seat Allocation process. Seat allocation process will have already been done in the result notification.

d) The candidate who will confirm seat have to go to respective AIIMS and their verification, biometric verification will be done at the time of joining.

e) In case there is any doubt about identity during such verification, such candidates will not be allowed to participate in further round of counselling.

f) All the candidates must bring the original certificates at the time of joining i.e. “Offer Letter,

Date of birth (matriculation certificate), proof of belonging to SC/ST/OBC (if applicable), MBBS/BDS mark sheets (including separate mark sheet for each of the professional examinations), Degree, Internship Completion Certificate, Permanent Medical Registration Certificate etc.”

g) The selected candidates shall undergo a medical examination by the Board appointed by the Institute and if found medically fit will join the course on 1st July, 2019 after depositing the requisite fee. Last date of admission: 31th August, 2019 beyond which no candidate will be admitted. Candidate selected & allotted confirmed seat must join by the date given in admission letter.

h) While reporting for admission, candidates must bring all the relevant certificates/documents, in original. These original documents will be kept with the institute till his/her completion of the course.

i) No TA/DA will be paid by the Institute to the candidate for appearing in entrance examination and for attending the joining the course.

j) Please note that the candidates who have already joined/pursuing MD/MS/MDS in any subject at the time of counseling shall be considered for counselling of MD/MS/MDS courses. Those who have already done MD/MS/M.Ch.(6 years)/DM (6 years)/MDS are not eligible.

k) Candidate must have Provisional OR Permanent Registration of MCI/DCI for Online Final Registration. Those who have not registered with Medical/Dental Council of India are not eligible for apply AIIMS PG Entrance Examination.

l) The schedule and process of 1st, 2nd & 3rd Round of Online Seat Allocation / Counselling, allocation of seats etc. will be notified separately on the website www.aiimsexams.org

m) All disputes pertaining to the conduct of the examination by the AIIMS, and the allocation of seats in various subjects by counselling will be subject to the jurisdiction in the High Court of Delhi.

18. Open Counselling to be held on 22.08.2019 (Thursday)

• There will be Open Counselling for the seats that remain vacant after 3rd Round of online Seat Allocation/Counseling.

• In addition to that any seat vacated by the candidate, who had been allotted confirmed seat in 1st/2nd/3rd Round of online Seat Allocation/Counseling, by way of surrender resignation/ cancellation/mismatch of biometric verification etc. by 1:00 PM on 21st August, 2019 (Wednesday) will be included in the vacant seats available as mentioned in the preceding point for Open Counselling. The list of all the vacant seats including seats vacated as mentioned above will be displayed on AIIMS website by 5:00 PM on 21th August, 2019 (Wednesday).

• The number of seat displayed at the time of declaration of result shall be final for admission in that session. No seat shall be added after declaration of result.

• Any seat failing vacant after declaration of result will be advertised in the next session i.e. July, 2019.

• The candidates who are interested in attending open counselling on the scheduled date will be required to register themselves online for Open Counselling on the AIIMS website i.e.www.aiimsexams.org. The online registration will open on 14.08.2019 (Wednesday) at 11:00 A.M. and close on 17.08.2019 (Saturday) at 5:00 P.M. & on the day of counseling they will have to produce printout of the slip issued to them at the time of online registration for open counselling alongwith all original certificates of qualification.

(i) Spot Counselling

If seats are vacant after open counselling, the seats will be filled by spot counselling at the respective AIIMS separately & information will be given in newspaper & will also be displayed on website of respective AIIMS. The date will be decided later on by the respective AIIMS, if required.

Note: 1. Candidates will not be allowed to attend open counselling without the production of print out of registration Slip issued for open counselling at the time of online registration.

2. Candidate applying under OBC category must possess valid caste certificate issued within last one year by the competent authority & before the date of 1st counseling. The certificate must be valid for admission in Central Govt. Institution. Date of validity of certificate shall be considered as 16.05.2019 (one-day prior the Mock Round of Counseling).

M.Ch. (6 years) / DM (6 years) ELIGIBILITY

The candidate must possess a MBBS degree and should have completed the required period of one-year compulsory Internship. He/she must have obtained at least 55% marks in aggregate in all the MBBS professional examinations. The eligibility criteria are same as specified for MD/MS (3 years) courses.