Department: BSC.IT

Exam Type: Regular

Semester: V

Subject: SOFTWARE PROJECT MANAGEMENT

1. Which of the following is not project management goal?

A. Keeping overall costs within budget.

B. Delivering the software to the customer at the agreed time.

C. Maintaining a happy and well-functioning development team.

D. Avoiding costumer complaints.

2. According Fred Brooks’ view the software product have certain characteristic’s

A. People, Quality, Process and Productivity

B. Performance, Robustness, Maintainability and Reusability

C. Complexity, Conformity, Changeability and Invisibility

D. Accuracy, Testability, Visibility and Changeability.

3. ____ is a temporary endeavor undertaking to create a unique product, service, or result.

A. Project

B. Task

C. Job

D. Plan

4. A ___ is a central document that defines the fundamental information abou a project.

A. Product Charter

B. Project Charter

C. Project Chart

D. Product Report

5. ___ are people who have interest in the project.

A. Managers

B. Directors

C. Stakeholders

D. Citizens

6. What does SMART stand for?

A. Spectacular, Measurable, Actionable, Resourced, Timely

B. Specific, Measurable, Achievable, Relevant, Timely

C. Suitable, Measurable, Actionable, Reviewed, Timely

D. Standardized, Measurable, Actionable, Resourced, Timely

7. Which of the following is not part of SDLC Phase?

A. Costing

B. Analysis

C. Maintenance

D. Testing

8. Change management is also known as ___

A. Release Management

B. Scope Management

C. Configuration Management

D. Quality Management

Answer. C

9. Who suggests W5HH Principle?

A. Boehm

B. Stallman

C. Henry

D. Bob

10. Which is not the main project attributes listed below?

A. Cost

B. Duration

C. Effort

D. Feedback

11. Which one of the following is not the output for project scope verification?

A. Accepted Deliverables

B. Change Request

C. Recommend corrective action

D. Process Verification

12. Which of the following is not addressed under scope control?

A. Scope Grope

B. Scope Creep

C. Scope Leap

D. Scope of the Code

13. __________ describes the Project team inability to define the project scope.

A. Scope Grope

B. Scope Creep

C. Scope Leap

D. Scope of the Code

14. _________ is also called as requirement creep, function creep or feature creep.

A. Scope Grope

B. Scope Creep

C. Scope Leap

D. Scope of the Code

15. __________ is a complete change in the scope, objective and focus of the project.

A. Scope Grope

B. Scope Creep

C. Scope Leap

D. Scope of the Code

16. RAD stands for

A. Rapid Application Development

B. Repeated Application Development

C. Ready Application Development

D. Relative Application Development

17. SDLC stands for?

A. Software Design Life Cycle

B. Software Development Life Cycle

C. System design Life Cycle

D. System Development Life Cycle

18. Waterfall Model is not called as

A. Linear Sequential Model

B. Classic Life Cycle Model

C. One Shot

D. Iterative Model

19. The Spiral Model of software development

A. Ends with the delivery of the software product

B. Is more chaotic than Incremental Model

C. Includes project risks evaluation during each stage

D. Excludes requirements of customer addressed later on.

20. Which is not identified in Evolutionary Software Process Model?

A. Iterative in nature

B. Can easily accommodate product requirement change

C. Do not generally follow Throw Away Approach

D. Increments as and when needed

21. CPM stands for

A. Critical Planning Method

B. Crucial Path Method

C. Critical Path Method

D. Crucial Path Management

22. Which of the following is NOT related to Network Planning Methods?

A. GANTT Chart

B. CPM

C. PERT

D. Precedence Network

23. GANTT Chart is NOT used for

A. Scheduling

B. Staffing

C. Resource Allocation

D. Deciding Priorities

24. Which of the following is most useful to decompose big projects into smaller modules or

tasks?

A. PERT Chart

B. GANTT Chart

C. Task Network

D. Work Breakdown Structure

25. In PERT Chart Dummy activity is required if:

A. Two or more activities have same ending events

B. Two or more activities have identical starting and ending events

C. Two or more activities have different ending events

D. Two or more activities have same starting events

26. Which of the following is TRUE for Critical Path?

A. It is a path having maximum number of Tasks

B. It is shortest Path in terms of Time

C. It is the longest Path in terms of Time

D. It is the path with largest amount of float

27. Lagged Activities are used when

A. Two activities can be started in parallel provided there is a delay between 2 activities

B. when activities can be completed later

C. When activities are not required

D. when activities are very important

28. Hammock Activities have

A. Maximum Duration

B. Zero Duration

C. Optimum Duration

D. Negative Duration

29. Critical Path is that Path where:

A. Delay in any one of the activities on this path can delay the project

B. there is maximum float

C. attention is not required

D. Float has to be greater than 5

30. To shorten Project Duration

A. Duration of activities on Non Critical Path should be reduced

B. It’s not possible

C. More resources should be allotted to activities on non-critical Path

D. Duration of activities on Critical Path should be reduced

31. Stages in contract placement are

A. collection

B. requirements analysis

C. implementation

D. designing

32. Contract should always reflect requirement and expectation of

A. client

B. supplier

C. client and supplier

D. consumer

33. Contract checklist doesn’t include

A. commitment

B. environment

C. standard

D. costing

34. Tenders are judged on

A. scope

B. price

C. quality

D. time

35. Acceptance criteria will be included in

A. supplier management

B. contract management

C. total management

D. customer management

36. Fee could be paid for technical proposals by

A. supplier

B. customer

C. stakeholder

D. vendors

37. Bidder can make response to

A. client

B. supplier

C. invitation to tenders

D. stakeholder

38. Requirement documents doesn’t include

A. system requirements

B. deadlines

C. future strategy and plan

D. agreement deeds

39. By which means is a contractor able to control costs overruns due to changing

requirements

A. project data review

B. change order

C. change control

D. contract negotiations

40. The __ specification describes, defines or specifies the goods/services to be supplied.

A. performance

B. functional

C. technical

D. Bid

41. __________ refers to the factor that gives upwards compatibility between old software

components and the new one"

A. Coexistence

B. Adaptability

C. Ability to Install

D. Ability to Replaces

42. Which of the following is not based on three level characteristics in Boehm's model?

A. As-in Utility

B. Maintainability

C. Testability

D. Portability

43. ___________ aims at reengineering the way business is carried out in an organization

A. BPR

B. CMM

C. PSP

D. CMMI

44. At which maturity level in CMM, organization usually practice some basic project

management practices such as planning and tracking cost and budget.

A. Level 1

B. Level 2

C. Level 3

D. Level 4

45. Name the process that helps in developing personal skills and methods by estimating,

planning and tracking performance against plans, and provides a defined process which can

be tuned by individuals

A. Personal Software process"

B. Six Sigma

C. Test automation

D. Reliability Metrics

46. ___________ model was introduced as an extension to the waterfall process model

A. RAD model

B. Incremental model

C. Spiral Model

D. V-process Model

47. __________ is the process of determining whether the output of one phase of software

development conforms to that of its previous phase

A. Validation

B. Verification

C. Testing

D. Test Care

48. The objective of _________ testing is to check whether the modules have any errors

pertaining to interfacing with each other.

A. Unit Testing

B. Integration Testing

C. System Testing

D. Maintenance Testing

49. Name the testing which checks whether the unmodified functionalities still continue to

work correctly

A. Resolution testing

B. Regression Testing

C. Load Testing

D. User Acceptance Testing

50. Name the model which allows for negative reliability growth to reflect the fact that when

a repair is carried out, it may introduce additional errors.

A. Jelinski and Moranda Model

B. Goel-Okutomo Model

C. Littlewood and Verall's Model

D. Software Developemt Model

Answer Key

Q.NO ANSWER Q.NO ANSWER Q.NO ANSWER Q.NO ANSWER Q.NO ANSWER

1 A 11 A 21 B 31 A 41 C

2 D 12 D 22 A 32 B 42 A

3 A 13 A 23 A 33 D 43 B

4 B 14 C 24 B 34 A 44 C

5 C 15 A 25 A 35 C 45 D

6 B 16 C 26 C 36 A 46 C

7 A 17 B 27 A 37 D 47 C

8 D 18 A 28 B 38 B 48 D

9 A 19 B 29 A 39 A 49 C

10 D 20 C 30 D 40 A 50 A

Department: BSC.IT

Exam Type: Regular

Semester: V

Subject: INTERNET OF THINGS

1. A ________ is a device that detects and responds to some type of input from the

physical environment.

a. Sensor

b. Actuator

c. Repeater

d. Amplifier

2. Internet of Things first became popular in the year _____.

a. 1998

b. 1999

c. 2000

d. 2001

3. A _________is a device that converts an electrical signal to a physical output.

a. Sensor

b. Actuator

c. Transistor

d. Repeater

4. _________ are designed to operate at a particular level in the networking stack.

a. Protocols

b. Procedures

c. Guidelines

d. Circuits

5. Technological advances progress with enabling and controlling the _________of

people.

a. Advancement

b. Movement

c. Changes

d. Development

6. ______ develops as a movement of goods from a place where they are plentiful and

cheap to one where they are rare and valuable.

a. Trade

b. Changes

c. Business

d. Information

7. Information becomes key, too—hence, the development of______ to communicate

technology to others.

a. Gesture

b. Language

c. Human being

d. IOT

8. The invention of______ makes the communication more important and allows human

lives to be preserved in words by and about writers from the ancient philosophers and poets

to the present day.

a. Language

b. Communication

c. Technology

d. Writing

9. Nowadays we have broadband subscriptions providing always-on connectivity to

the_______.

a. Computers

b. Internet

c. Cities

d. Routers

10. _______provides fairly plug-and-play networking experience but most home routers

today also offer Wi-Fi which removes the need of running cables everywhere.

a. Objects

b. Wired Ethernet

c. Browsers

d. Hardware

11. Which of the following language is preferred for IoT analytics ?

a. Python

b. S

c. R

d. Java

12. Raspbian is:

a. Assembler

b. Language

c. Compiler

d. OS

13. How many types of arduinos do we have?

a. 5

b. 6

c. 8

d. 9

14. Which is the software or a programming language used for controlling of Arduino?

a. Assembly Language

b. C Languages

c. JAVA

d. Any Language

15. A program written with the IDE for Arduino is called _________

a. IDE source

b. Sketch

c. Cryptography

d. Source code

16. How many digital pins are there on the UNO board?

a. 14

b. 12

c. 16

d. 20

17. How many analog pins are used in Arduino Mega board?

a. 14

b. 12

c. 16

d. 8

18. How power supply is done to RPi?

a. USB connection

b. Internal battery

c. Charger

d. Adapter

19. How many digital pins are there on the UNO board?

a. 12

b. 14

c. 16

d. 20

20. By default, the GPIO pins in Raspberry Pi are configured as?

a. Input except pins 14 and 15

b. Output except pins 14 and 15

c. Bcm

d. GPIO

21. Which of the following is not a non-digital method to make physical prototype?

a. Modelling clay

b. Epoxy putty

c. CNC milling

d. Extruded polystyrene

22. _______ is a mouldable silicon rubber.

a. Sugru

b. Epoxy putty

c. Polystyrene

d. Modelling clay

23. Which of the following comes in two parts, one clay like material and other one is

hardener?

a. Modelling clay

b. Sugru

c. Epoxy putty

d. Expanded polystyrene

24. For making physical prototype of material around 25mm to 165mm thick, which of

the following can be used?

a. Foam core

b. Foamboard

c. Extruded polystyrene

d. Cardboard

25. Bed in laser cutter contains _____________

a. Two-axis mechanism with mirrors and lens

b. Laser beam

c. Two-axis mechanism with beam and mirrors

d. Flat platform and lens

26. _________ controls two-axis positioning mechanism and power of the laser beam

a. Designer

b. Bed

c. Laser beam

d. Computer

27. 40W laser can cut up to _____ thick acrylic

a. 10mm

b. 40mm

c. 100mm

d. 200mm

28. By using laser cutter which of the following can be performed?

a. Cutting

b. Etching

c. Cutting and etching

d. Cutting and welding

29. The width of the cut made by the laser is known as _____

a. Etch

b. Kerf

c. Stroke

d. Joint

30. Lattice hinges, integrated elastic clips, bolted tenon joints are well known techniques

of

a. CNC milling

b. 3D printing

c. Non digital method

d. Laser printing

31. ____________ stores or retains data after power off is called-

a. Volatile storage

b. Non-volatile storage

c. Sequential storage

b. Direct storage

32. A permanent memory, which requires data and instruction for start-up the computer and

does not erase data after power off.

a. Network interface card

b. HDD

c. RAM

d. ROM

33. ___________ memories must be refreshed hundred times per second?

a. EPROM

b. ROM

c. Static RAM

d. Dynamic RAM

34. USB belongs to which type of storage devices?

a. Secondary

b. Axillary

c. Tertiary

d. Primary

35. Which device is used to back up the data?

a. Floppy Disk

b. Tape

c. Pen drive

b. d.CD Drive

36. Primary Memory of any computer is -

a. Internal

b. External

c. Internal and External

d. Auxiliary

37. __________ is referred as permanent memory inbuilt into your computers

a. RAM

b. ROM

c. CPU

b. CD-ROM

38. What operations can be performed over CD?

a. read

b. write

c. read and write

d. either read or write

39. Hard disc drives are considered.........storage-

a. Flash

b. Non-volatile

c. Temporary

b. Non-permanent

40. Permanent instructions that the computer uses that cannot be

changed by other instructions are ______________________

a. ROM

b. RAM

c. ALU

d. CPU

41. What is the first step towards selling your idea as a IOT product is

to provide it as ___.

a. Kit

b. Design.

c. Logic

d. Both A and B.

42. Which process combines component placement and routing to define

electrical connectivity on a manufactured board?

a. PCB

b. Board

c. Design

d. Software.

43. Which possibility is the highest contributor to cost overhead for

manufacturing facilities?

a. Transportation and logistics

b. Energy and utilities

c. Plant control flow operation

d. Energy management and resource optimization

44. The manufacturing elements provide _________ manufacturing processes.

a. Automated

b. Intelligent

c. Streamlined

d. Automated, Intelligent, and Streamlined.

45. In which view you layout the component logically and make the necessary connection

without having to worry about exactly where they will sit in Physical space.

a. Hardware view.

b. Random view.

c. Hardware and Random view

d. Schematic view

46. What are the two views for creating designing process?

a. Schematic view.

b. Board view.

c. Schematic and Board View

d. random view

47. Complete Device will contain?

a. Assembled Electronic board.

b. Printed circuit boards.

c. Shield of copper.

d. Assembled Electronic Board and PCB.

48. Informed _________ will better manage complexities and enable more efficient

manufacturing of goods.

a. Product

b. People

c. Processes

d. Infrastructure.

49 .Which process involved printing out the design from your PCB design software onto a

stencil?

a. Etching Boards.

b. Milling Boards.

c. Etching and Milling Boards

d. Serial boards

50. Which possibility is based on combination of materials and information flow during the

time of manufacturing?

a. Automotive.

b. Energy and utilities.

c. Transportation and logistics.

d. Connected supply chain.

Answer Key

Q.NO

ANSWER

Q.NO

ANSWER

Q.NO

ANSWER

Q.NO

ANSWER

Q.NO ANSWER

1 A 11 A 21 C 31 B 41 A

2 B 12 D 22 A 32 B 42 B

3 B 13 C 23 C 33 D 43 D

4 A 14 D 24 C 34 A 44 D

5 B 15 B 25 A 35 C 45 D

6 A 16 A 26 D 36 A 46 C

7 B 17 C 27 A 37 B 47 D

8 D 18 A 28 C 38 A 48 D

9 B 19 B 29 B 39 B 49 A

10 B 20 A 30 D 40 A 50 C

Department: BSC.IT

Exam Type: Regular

Semester: V

Subject: ADVANCED WEB PROGRAMMING

1. CLR full form is _________.

a) Java Virtual Machine

b) Common Language Runtime

c) Common Type System

d) Common Language Specification

2. All C# applications begin execution by calling the _____ method.

a) Class( )

b) Main( )

c) main( )

d) Namespace( )

3. A _______ is an identifier that denotes a storage location.

a) Constant

b) Reference type

c) Variable

d) Object

4. An _______ is a symbol that tells the computer to perform certain mathematical or logical

manipulations.

a) Operator

b) Expression

c) Condition

d) Logic

5. An ____ is a group of contiguous or related data items that share a common name.

a) Operator

b) Integer

c) Exponential

d) Array

6. _______ variables are visible only in the block they are declared.

a) System

b) Global

c) Local

d) Console

7. The methods that have the same name, but different parameter lists and different

definitions is called______.

a) Method Overloading

b) Method Overriding

c) Method Overwriting

d) Method Overreading

8. In Microsoft Visual Studio, ______ technology and a programming language such as C# is

used to create a Web based application.

a) JAVA

b) J#

c) VB.NET

d) ASP.NET

9. C# does not support........

a) abstraction

b) polymorphism

c) multiple inheritance

d) inheritance

10. Which of the following jobs are NOT performed by Garbage Collector?

1.)Freeing memory on the stack.

2.)Avoiding memory leaks.

3.)Freeing memory occupied by unreferenced objects.

4.)Closing unclosed database collections.

5.)Closing unclosed files.

a) 1, 2, 3

b) 1, 4, 5

c) 3, 5

d) 3, 4

11. Which programming model should you implement if you want to separate your server-

side code from your client-side layout code in a Web page?

a) Single-file model

b) Code-behind model

c) Inline model

d) Client-server model

12. Which of the following is NOT an ASP.NET page event?

a) Init

b) Load

c) Import

d) PreInit

13. To implement a specified .NET Framework interface which directive is used?

a) @Register

b) @Control

c) @Reference

d) @Implements

14. What is the name of the Page object’s property that determines if a Web page is being

requested without data being submitted to server?

a) IsCallback

b) IsReusable

c) IsValid

d) IsPostBack

15. Choose the form in which Postback occur.

a) HTMLForms

b) Webforms

c) Winforms

d) C#forms

16. Web.config file is used…

a) Configures the time that the server-side code behind module is called

b) To store the global information and variable definitions for the application

c) To configure the web server

d) To configure the web browser

17. Which is the first event triggers in an aspx page ?

a) Page_Init( )

b) Page_Load( )

c) Page_click( )

d) Page_start( )

18. File extension used for ASP.NET web form files.

a) .web

b) .asp

c) .aspx

d) .ascx

19. An alternative way of displaying text on web page using.

a) asp:label

b) asp:listitem

c) asp:button

d) asp:listbox

20. Which of the following control is used to validate that two fields are equal?

a) RegularExpressionValidator

b) CompareValidator

c) equals( ) method

d) RequiredFieldValidator

21. Which of these keywords is not a part of exception handling?

a) try

b) finally

c) thrown

d) catch

22. Which of these keywords are used for the block to handle the exceptions generated by try

block?

a) try

b) catch

c) throw

d) check

23. Which among the following is NOT an exception?

a) Stack Overflow

b) Arithmetic Overflow or underflow

c) Incorrect Arithmetic Expression

d) Devide by Zero

24. Select the correct statement about an Exception?

a) It occurs during loading of program

b) It occurs during Just-In-Time compilation

c) It occurs at run time

d) Its always the mistake of User

25. Which of the following keyword can be used to rethrow an exception in C#:

a) return

b) throw

c) re-throw

d) create

26. ___________ uses a hidden field that ASP.NET automatically inserts in the final,

rendered HTML of a web page.

a) Caption

b) View state

c) Button state

d) Application State

27. The ________ is a dictionary collection, which means every item is stored in a separate

“slot” using a unique string name.

a) StateBag

b) Variable

c) Datatype

d) View

28. ASP.NET uses a _______ to make sure your view-state information can’t be altered

without your knowledge.

a) view code

b) app code

c) password

d) hash code

29. A ________ postback is a technique that extends the postback mechanism.

a) pageing

b) Cookies

c) URL encoding

d) cross-page

30. The _______ is the portion of the URL after the question mark.

a) string

b) URL encoding

c) query string

d) app string

31. ------IS technology used to design asp.net program for data access

a) ADO SQL ACCESS

b) ADO.NET

c) ORACLE

d) SQL

32. TO design WEB APPLICATION WE NEED

a) SQL

b) DBMS

c) RDBMS

d) ORACLE

33. -----EXPLORER IS USED TO CREATE DATABASE

a) SERVER

b) SOLUTION

c) TOOLBAR

d) DATABASE

34. TO Creat new dataconnection which data source we require

a) server client

b) microsoft sql client

c) microsoft sql server(sqlClient)

d) sql server

35. sql is standard data access language used to interact with--------database

a) access

b) sql

c) relational

d) oracle

36. following is not standard symbol used in query

a) *

b) %

c) C)

d) :

37. following is NOT a SQL aggregate fucntion

a) avg

b) sum

c) mul

d) count

38. which namespace is not used for ado.net

a) system.data

b) system.data.sqlcommand

c) system.data.sqlClient

d) system.sql

39. to read data from dataset ----- class is used.

a) data reader

b) data adpter

c) adapter

d) fill

40. open( ) and close( ) are methods of--------- class.

a) sqlcommand

b) sqlconnection

c) sqldata

d) sqlreader

41. What s the full form of XML?

a) XML markup language

b) B Extensible markup language

c) Xaml markup language

d) Example markup language

42. What is the main use of XML?

a) To transport data

b) To verify data

c) To design data

d) To validate data

43. Which attribute is used to define namespace?

a) XMLattribute

b) Xmlns

c) XMLNamespace

d) XMLDocument

44. XML Schema consists

a) Properties & Methods

b) Elements & Attributes

c) Structure & Data

d) Tables & Relationships

45. In XML, what is identified by a URI reference?

a) XML namespace

b) XSLT

c) Schema

d) DLT

46. __________ is the default authentication type provided for Asp.Net.

a) Form Authentication

b) Windows Authentication

c) Passport Authentication

d) Profile Authentication

47. Which event is not there for Login control

a) LoggingIn

b) LoggedIn

c) LoginError

d) LoginStatus

48. Which tool is used to manage all the security settings for application in ASP.Net

a) Website Administration Tool

b) Website User Tool

c) Authentication Tool

d) Page Administration Tool

49. How to implement authentication via web.config?

a) Include the authentication element

b) Include the authorization element.

c) Include the identity element.

d) Include the deny element.

50. Where do you set authentication mode in ASP.Net application?

a) Using global.asax file

b) Using cookies

c) Using webconfig file

d) Using web services

Answer Key

Q.NO ANSWER Q.NO ANSWER Q.NO ANSWER Q.NO ANSWER Q.NO ANSWER

1 B 11 B 21 C 31 B 41 B

2 B 12 C 22 B 32 C 42 A

3 c 13 D 23 C 33 A 43 B

4 A 14 D 24 C 34 C 44 B

5 D 15 B 25 B 35 C 45 A

6 C 16 B 26 B 36 D 46 B

7 A 17 A 27 A 37 C 47 D

8 D 18 C 28 D 38 D 48 A

9 C 19 A 29 D 39 A 49 B

10 B 20 B 30 A 40 B 50 C

Department: BSC.IT

Exam Type: Regular

Semester: V

Subject: ARTIFICIAL INTELLIGENCE

1. Artificial Intelligence helps to build machines that are

A. Soft

B. Manual

C. Autonomous

D. Hard

2. When a system does right thing it is termed as

A. Smart

B. Expert

C. Fast

D. Rational

3. Turing test was proposed in year

A. 1950

B. 1955

C. 1960

D. 1965

4. The branch of Artificial Intelligence which helps for computation

A. Economics

B. Mathematics

C. Language

D. Neuroscience

5. The branch of Artificial Intelligence which helps for thinking

A. Psychology

B. Linguistics

C. Economics

D. Mathematics

6. The area of making artifacts in Artificial Intelligence

A. Control Theory

B. Psychology

C. Linguistics

D. Neuroscience

7. Turing Test was proposed by

A. Henna Turing

B. Sam Turing

C. John Turing

D. Alan Turing

8. The cognitive approach applies to thinking

A. Rationally

B. Humanly

C. Logically

D. Atomically

9. The state of art of Artificial Intelligence to understand satellite images

A. Image Engineering

B. Image Making

C. Image Analysis

D. Image Drawing

10. Which agent receives keystrokes, file contents, and network packets as sensory inputs

the agent is known as

A. Hardware Agent

B. Software Agent

C. Manual Agent

D. Robotic Agent

11. __________ is the process of looking to sequence of actions

A. Problem

B. Location

C. Search

D. Cost

12. The lowest path among all the solutions is referred as

A. Smallest Path

B. Basic Path

C. Path

D. Optimal Path

13. The execution algorithm performance will depend on

A. Time Complexity

B. Space Complexity

C. Optimality

D. Completeness

14. The maximum number of successors in a tree is known as

A. Depth

B. Branching Factor

C. Height

D. Successors

15. The uninformed search in which exploration happens only in one direction is

A. Breadth First Search

B. Depth First Search

C. Unidirectional Search

D. IDDFS

16. The search in which there are two parallel explorations is described by

A. Iterative Search

B. Bidirectional Search

C. Uniform Cost Search

D. Depth First Search

17. The value in the state space which defines the relevancy of state with respect to the

goal state

A. Cost

B. Value

C. Heuristics

D. State value

18. The limitations of Hill Climbing are

A. Local Minimum and Global Minimum

B. Local Maxima and Global Maxima

C. Local Flat Space

D. Local Maxima and Ridges

19. The search which consumes fixed amount of memory

A. Uninformed Search

B. Informed Search

C. Local Search

D. Cost Search

20. The time complexity of Breadth First Search is

A. bd

B. bg

C. b+m

D. b*g

21. The search which helps to find states in opponent to one other

A. Breadth First Search

B. Depth First Search

C. Adversarial Search

D. Local Search

22. In MINMAX MAX will choose the state with

A. With greater heuristics

B. With less heuristics

C. With equal heuristics

D. With no heuristics

23. The test which is true at the leaf nodes of Game Tree

A. Final test

B. Solution test

C. Terminal test

D. Path test

24. The value of utility function will be positive when

A. MAX wins

B. MIN wins

C. Draw Game

D. MAX lose

25. The value of utility function will be negative when

A. Draw Game

B. MAX wins

C. MIN wins

D. MIN lose

26. The value of utility function will be zero when

A. MIN wins

B. MAX wins

C. Draw Game

D. MAX lose

27. The game which combines luck and skill is known as

A. Sequential Game

B. Partial Game

C. Adversarial Game

D. Stochastic Game

28. The example of stochastic game is

A. Chess

B. N Queens

C. Tower of Hanoi

D. Backgammon

29. The example of Partially observable game is

A. TicTacToe

B. Chess

C. Card game

D. N Queens

30. MiniMax algorithm works on

A. Forward Chaining

B. Backtracking

C. Exploration

D. Node Visit

31. The first order logic for "All birds Fly"

A. ∀xBird(x) → Fly (x)

B. ∀xFly(Bird) → Fly (x)

C. ∀xBird(x) → Fly (Bird)

D. ∀xBird(x)=Fly (x)

32. ∀x man(x) → drink (x, coffee)

A. There are all x where x is a man who drink coffee

B. All are men

C. All are coffee

D. All are men with coffee

33. Some boys play cricket is represented in First Order Logic as

A. ∃x boys(x) → play(x, cricket).

B. ∃x boys(y) → play(x, cricket).

C. ∃x boys(y) → play (z, cricket).

D. ∃x boys(x) → play(y, cricket).

34. First Order Logic Contains

A. Constants

B. Predicates

C. Functions

D. Connectives, Constants, Predicates, Functions

35. The process where knowledge engineer works with domain experts

A. Knowledge Representation

B. Knowledge Graph

C. Knowledge Acquisition

D. Knowledge Process

36. CNF stands for

A. Conjunctive Normal Form

B. Common Normal Form

C. Creative Normal Form

D. Caller Normal Form

37. The properties of Equality are

A. Distributive

B. Transitive

C. Associative

D. Negation

38. X.Y. person(X) has(X,Y) heart(Y) is skolemised to

A. person(X) has(X,f(X)) heart(f(X))

B. person(X) has(X,f(X)) heart(f(Y))

C. person(X) has(Y,f(X)) heart(f(X))

D. person(Y) has(X,f(X)) heart(f(X))

39. Resolution method was published by

A. Thomas Alan

B. Alan Robinson

C. Alan Turing

D. John Thomas

40. The step for knowledge engineering projects are

A. Design

B. Decide on vocabulary

C. Problem specification

D. Task Design and Planning

41. PDDL stands for

A. Planning Domain Definition Language

B. Planning Degree Domain Language

C. Planning Domain Distort Language

D. Plan Declare Define Language

42. The properties of Backward State Space Search

A. It is hard

B. It is complete

C. It is sound and complete

D. It is hard and complete

43. The algorithm developed by Avrim Blum and Merick Furst

A. PlanG

B. GRAPHPLAN

C. SEARCHPLAN

D. TREEPLAN

44. GRAPHPLAN takes input planning problem expressed in form of

A. STEPS

B. STRIPS

C. ROTATION

D. VISITS

45. A clause which contains at least one positive literal is known as

A. Truth Clause

B. Single Clause

C. Main Clause

D. Horn Clause

46. CSP stands for

A. Complete Satisfiable Problem

B. Constraint Sucess Problem

C. Constraint Satisfaction Problem

D. Complete Satisfaction Problem

47. A _______ resource which is occupied during the action but becomes available when

action is finished

A. Used

B. Reused

C. Consumable

D. Distributable

48. The method used to determine possible start and end times of each action

A. Path Cost Method

B. Path Method

C. Critical Path Method

D. Optimal Path Method

49. The flocking behavior of birds is an of

A. Operative Behavior

B. Multigent behavior

C. Co-operative multiagent behavior

D. Seamless Behavior

50. The properties of objects which do not retain their behavior are

A. Intrinsic Properties

B. Extrinsic Properties

C. Strong Properties

D. Weak Properties

Answer Key

Q.NO ANSWER Q.NO ANSWER Q.NO ANSWER Q.NO ANSWER Q.NO ANSWER

1 C 11 C 21 C 31 A 41 A

2 D 12 D 22 A 32 A 42 C

3 A 13 A 23 C 33 A 43 B

4 B 14 B 24 A 34 D 44 B

5 A 15 B 25 C 35 C 45 D

6 A 16 B 26 C 36 A 46 C

7 D 17 C 27 D 37 B 47 B

8 B 18 D 28 D 38 A 48 C

9 C 19 C 29 C 39 B 49 C

10 B 20 A 30 B 40 B 50 B

Department: BSC.IT

Exam Type: Regular

Semester: V

Subject: ENTERPRISE JAVA

1. What is the Latest Version of JDK?

a)JDK 8

b)JDK 7

c)JDK 12

d)JDK 14

2. What does EE Stands for ___________________

a)Enterprise Edition

b)Edition Enterprise

c)Easter Egg

d)Electrically Erasable

3. J2EE is an extended version of:

a)J2SE

b)J2ME

c)J2SM

d)J2SS

4. The __________ defines an API for communication between the Web server and the

application program.

a) Servlet

b) Server

c) Program

d) Randomize

5. How many JDBC driver types does Sun define?

a) One

b) Two

c) Three

d) Four

6. Which interface is used for Request and Response from the following and it should be

protocol specific.

a)HttpServletRequest and HttpServletResponse

b)HttpRequest and HttpResponse

c)ServletRequest and ServletResponse

d)Request and Response

7. Which html tag can be used to send the request to the servlet?

a)<action>

b)<form>

c)<input>

d)<a>

8. Which packages provide different interfaces and classes for servlet API which should be

protocol specific?

a)Javax.servlet

b)Javax.servlet.http

c)java.servlet

d)java.servlet.*

9. Which class is protocol-independent in Servlet API?

a)GenericServlet

b)HttpServlet

c)HttpServletRequest

d)HttpServletResponse

10. Which one is correct for the lifecycle of a servlet?

a. Servlet class is loaded

b. Servlet instance is created

c. loading, creation, init,Service,destroy method is invoked

d. Loading, creation

11. RequestDispatcher presents the __________ package.

a.javax.servlet.http.*

b.javax.servlet.*

c.java.servlet.*

d.java.servlet.http.*

12. When the control is passed from one servlet to another servlet without coming back to the

server and involving a network is known as ____________

a.Servlet Request

b.Servlet Response

c.Servlet Chaining

d.Servlet Session

13. When RequestDispatcher interface exchange the information among different servlets

over the network within a Java application is known as ____________

a.Servlet Collaboration

b.Servlet Chaining

c.Servlet Dispatching

d.Servlet Request

14. Which of the following methods, forwards a request from a one servlet to another

resource on the server.

a.public void forward(ServletRequest request, ServletResponse response)

b.public void include(ServletRequest request, ServletResponse response)

c.public void send(ServletRequest request, ServletResponse response)

d.public void receive(ServletRequest request, ServletResponse response)

15. How to get the object of RequestDispatcher, which of the following is correct?

a.getRequest()

b.getResponse()

c.getRequestDispatcher()

d.getInclude()

16.__________are text files placed on the client computer by the application which is meant

for keeping various information used for tracking reasons by the server.

a.Cookies.

b.Session

c.URL Rewriting

d.XML Format

17. ____________ type of Cookie is valid for only a single session.

a.Persistent Cookie

b.Non Persistent Cookie

c.Session

d.URL Rewriting

18. ____________ package can be used to access various functionalities of cookies.

a. javax.servlet.http.*

b. javax.servlet.*

c. java.servlet.http.*

d. java.servlet.*

19. ______________will create a cookie with a specific name and value.

a.Cookie(String name, String value)

b.Cookie()

c.Cookie(String name=value)

d.Cookie(String value=name)

20. Give method to set maximum age of Cookie from the following:

a.public void setMaxAge(int expiry)

b.public void setMaxAge()

c.public void setMax(int expiry)

d.public void setMax()

21. ___________ is a technology to Servlet which allows the mixing of dynamic and

static web contents.

a. Servlet

b. JSP

c. EJB

d. JSF

22. JSP technology is consisting of the following feature ______________

a. WORA

b. Platform Dependent

c. Inefficient

d. Inconvenient

23. In MVC Architecture, JSP work as:

a. Model

b. Controller

c. View

d. Presentation Layer

24. In JSP, Initialization is done by calling the________ method.

a. jspDestroy()

b. jspInit()

c. jspService()

d. jspInitialization

25. A server side comments is of the form:

a. <%-- comments --%>

b. <!-- comments ...

c. <%= ------- %>

d. <%@ directive attribute="value" %>

26. Identify the Scripting element for replacing out.print statement in JSP from the following:

a. JSP Scriptlet tag

b. JSP Expression tag

c. JSP Declaration tag

d. JSP Comment tag

27. <%= statement %> is the following tag:

a. Scriptlet tag

b. Declarative tag

c. Expression tag d. Comment tag

28. Identify the type of Directive is used for importing java statements in JSP from the given

following options:

a. Scriptlet

b. Include

c. Page

d. Taglib

29. The _________ attribute from JSP Directive is used to declare that the current page is the

error page.

a. Errorpage

b. isErrorPage c. errorPage

d. ErrorPage

30. Standard JSP tags begin with the ________ prefix

a. Jsp:

b. Jsp:forward

c. Jsp:include

d. jsp:start

31. ______ is the java API for SOAP web services.

a. JAX-WS

b. JAX-RS

c. JAX-RW

d. JAX-WR

32. EJB applications utilize the _____________ to look up for references to utilize all EJB-

based functionality.

a. JNDI

b. Remote EJB interfaces

c. Home EJB interfaces

d. EJB JavaBeans

33. Contract the term JMS?

a. Java Message Service

b. Java Monitor Service

c. Java Message Session

d. Java Monitor Session

34. Which module does the Entity bean represent the persistent data that is available in the

database?

a. Server-side component

b. Client-side component

c. Home Interface

d. Remote Interface

35. Which of the following is responsible to maintain the state of Session Beans:

a. Stateless

b. Stateful

c. Singleton

d. Message Driven

36. The whole life cycle of session bean is maintained by the _________

a. EJB Server

b. EJB Container

c. EJB Interfaces

d. EJB Bean

37. Which middleware administrations are given by EJB?

a. Security

b. Efficiency

c. Consistency

d. Performance

38. _________ method is invoked for each message that is consumed by the bean.

a. onMessage(Message)

b. onMessage()

c. Message(Message)

d. Message()

39. At the end of the JSP MessageDriven Bean lifecycle, the container calls the method

denoted as ________ for garbage collection

a. @PreDestroy

b. @Destroy

c. @PostDestroy

d. @Destroy

40. _______ helps to inject custom logics into the request processing pipeline

a. Interceptors

b. Struts

c. JSP

d. JSF

41________ in java means storing data in a RDBMS.

a. Persistence

b. ORM

c. Mapping

d. COM

42. When a RDBMS needs to be transformed into an OOP model known as

_________________

a. Impedance mismatch

b. ORM

c. Persistence

d. COM

43_________________ provide API to retrieve objects of Java from RDBMS

a. Impedance mismatch

b. ORM

c. Persistence

d. COM

44. Which of the following is the advantages of ORM:

a. System Architecture

b. poorly-optimized SQL queries

c. Automated mapping of relational databases

d. leaky abstractions

45. ____________ represents persistence annotations which helps you to define mapping

metadata.

a. JPA

b. EJB

c. ORM

d. JSF

46. Which of the following is the Java Persistence types:

a. Hibernate

b. Servlet

c. JSP

d. EJB

47. _________________ is a type of persistence which will allow you to write persistence

class by using OO classes

a. Idiomatic

b. Non-persistence

c. Mapping

d. Context Param

48. POJO stands for

a. Plain Old Java Object

b. Performance of Java Object

c. Part of Java Object

d. Performance Old Java Object

49. Which of the following is the mapping file of Object Relational Mapping

a. ORM.xml

b. OR.xml

c. Web.xml

d. context-param

50. Which of the following is used to create and manage number of instances of JPA

a. EntityManagerFactory

b. EntityTransaction

c. EntityManager

d. Persistence

Answer Key

Q.NO ANSWER Q.NO ANSWER Q.NO ANSWER Q.NO ANSWER Q.NO ANSWER

1 D 11 B 21 B 31 A 41 A

2 A 12 C 22 A 32 A 42 A

3 A 13 A 23 C 33 A 43 B

4 A 14 A 24 B 34 A 44 A

5 D 15 C 25 A 35 B 45 A

6 A 16 A 26 B 36 B 46 A

7 B 17 B 27 C 37 A 47 A

8 B 18 A 28 C 38 A 48 A

9 A 19 A 29 B 39 A 49 A

10 C 20 A 30 A 40 A 50 A