CWS_MockSNAP-2

1 Coffee with SIBM| An Aspirant Relations Team Initiative

MOCK SNAP 2011 – SET 2

Time: 120 Minutes

Instructions:

1. For every wrong answer you will score 25% negative marks. 2. All questions in a section carry equal marks. 3. The sequence of the sections may differ but the weightage remains the same as mentioned in the SNAP bulletin.

Sections Total Marks No. Of Questions

Analytical & Logical Reasoning 60 30

General Awareness 40 40

Quantitative, Data Interpretation, Data Sufficiency 40 40

General English 40 40

**Please note, this is just a mock paper and in no way predicts the exact nature of the actual paper on 18th December, 2011. Use this as a means to prepare and test yourself.


SECTION – I: ANALYTICAL AND LOGICAL REASONING

Directions for questions 1 and 2: Refer the data below and answer the questions that follow:

A and B are siblings. One of them has a son and a daughter, and the other has two daughters. A’s grand-

daughter, C if the daughter of B’s only niece.

1. Given A is a male and B is a female. Now if the family includes all the above people and their spouses

(consider all the people in the family married), then how many males are there in the family?

a. 5

b. 6

c. 7

d. 8

2. Considering the data in the above question, how many males are married into the family?

a. 5

b. 6

c. 7

d. 8

Directions for questions 3 to 7: Select the correct alternatives from the given choices.

3. If 3*1 = 2, 4*2=0 and 3*2= 1 then 3*4=

a. 15

b. 16

c. 17

d. 18

4. If 24/8=4 and 16/7=3, then 35/10 =

a. 1

b. 2

c. 3

d. 5


5. How is A’s son’s father’s father’s wife’s only daughter-in-law related to A?

a. Wife

b. Herself

c. Sister-in-law

d. Either 1 or 2

6. How many such pairs of digit are there in the number 52683719, each of which has as many digits in

between them in the number as when they are arranged in the ascending order?

a. 1

b. 2

c. More than 4

d. 4

7. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word TRIANGLE which has as many letters between

them in the word as when these letters are arranged in the alphabetical order?

a. 2

b. 3

c. 5

d. 6

Directions for questions 8 to 12: Refer the data below and answer the questions that follow.

A, B, C, D and E are five friends, who have earned a total of Rs 192. They belong to Delhi, Mumbai,

Bangalore, Hyderabad and Pune, not necessarily in the same order.

i) E doesnot stay in Pune or Bangalore.

ii) The one with the lowest amount belongs to Bangalore and has got a dozen one rupee notes

with him.

iii) A has got the highest amount and he does not stay in Pune or Hyderabad.

iv) There are two men who have Rs. 35 with them and one of them belongs to Pune.

v) The one from Delhi has Rs. 47 with him.

vi) C has got lesser amount than B.Niether of them stay in Hyderabad nor do they have the

same income as anyone else.

8. Who has the second highest income?

a. A

b. B

c. D

d. E


9. Who has the least income?

a. C

b. D

c. E

d. B

10. What is the income of D?

a. Rs. 12

b. Rs.35

c. Rs.47

d. Rs.63

11. Who is the person from Pune?

a. C

b. E

c. A

d. D

12. Who stays in Hyderabad?

a. C

b. E

c. A

d. D

Directions for questions 13 and 14: Each question has 5 statements. Choose the option containing the

set of three statements where the third statement can be concluded from the first two.

13. a) A is a pilot b) All pilots are captains.

c) B and A are friends. d) A is a captain.

e) B is a captain.

a. abd

b. abe

c. dec

d. ade


14. a) All children laugh and cry. b) Some children laugh as well as cry.

c) Some children cry. d) Some kids cry.

e) All children laugh.

a. edb

b. eca

c. ecb

d. ace

Directions for questions 15-18: Find the odd man out.

15. 1, 5, 6, 8, 21

a. 1

b. 6

c. 8

d. 5

16. B, F, C, J, P

a. C

b. F

c. J

d. P

17. 8, 9, 27, 1000, 1331.

a. 8

b. 9

c. 27

d. 1000

18. A, O, H, X, T.

a. A

b. O

c. H

d. X


Directions for Questions 19 and 20: Read the following information carefully and then answer the

questions given below.

X+Y means X is the father of Y.

X-Y means X is the mother of Y.

X*Y means X is the brother of Y.

X/Y means X is the sister of Y.

19. If P-Q+R*S, then P is S’s

a. Grandfather

b. Grandmother

c. Sister

d. Father

20. Which of the following shows that P is the aunt of T?

a. P*Q-R+S/T

b. P/Q+R/S*T

c. P+Q/R-S*T

d. P-Q*R/S+T

Directions for Questions 21 to 25: Read the following information given carefully and answer the

questions that follow.

In each question, a statement is followed by two assumptions I and II. Consider the statement and the

following assumptions to decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.

Mark your answer as

1) If only assumptions 2 is implicit.

2) If only assumptions 1 is implicit

3) If both are implicit

4) If none are implicit.

21. Statement: Like a student, I decided to do the homework.

Assumptions

I I am a student.

II I am not a student.


22. Statement: If it is easy to become an engineer, I don’t want to become a doctor.

Assumptions

I An individual aspires to become a doctor.

II One desires to achieve a thing when it is touch to learn.

23. Statement: All the employees are notified that the organization will provide canteen facilities at half

the cost, except for those who have been provided food allowance.

Assumptions:

I Most of the employees will use the canteen facilities.

II Those who are provided food allowance will not read such notice.

24. Statement: An advertisement of a paint company: Want to paint your house? Just dial out home

service and we will be at your doorsteps.

Assumptions:

I There is a sections of people who require such service.

II Now a days expert advice from the company is very much needed.

25. Statement: I can complete the work in half the actual time but then you must pay me more than the

normal charges.

Assumptions:

I Normally it will take more time to complete the work.

II Normally people do not want to pay extra money for the work.

Directions for questions 26 to 30: Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.

Two cubes of equal dimensions are joined face to face and are coloured red on all available open faces.

The first cube is then divided into 8 equal parts and the other cube into 27 equal parts.

26. How many cubes have 3 faces coloured?

a. 2

b. 8

c. 9

d. 12


27. How many cubes have only 2 faces coloured?

a. 10

b. 12

c. 16

d. 18

28. How many cubes have at least one face coloured?

a. 24

b. 30

c. 33

d. 35

29. How many cubes have no faces coloured?

a. 0

b. 2

c. 2

d. 4

30. How many cubes have only one face coloured?

a. 1

b. 3

c. 7

d. 9


SECTION-II: GENERAL AWARENESS

31. Former Colombian rebel Gustavo Petro was elected mayor of Bogota. Which one of the following countries has Bogota as its capital?

a. Colombia

b. Russia

c. Brazil

d. Mexico 32. Palestine won the membership of UNESCO( United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organisation). UNESCO is the ___ UN agency Palestine has joined as a full member.

a. First

b. Second

c. Third

d. Fourth 33. Name the Former Salgaocar FC coach who was confirmed as the new head coach of the senior India football team on 25th October 2011.

a. Savio Medeira

b. Bob Houghton

c. Armando Colaco d. Kushal Das

34. Finance Minister Pranab Mukherjee on 31st October 2011 inaugurated a fully secure government e-payment system. Which of the following facts regarding the e-payment system is not true?

1. E-payment system will enable the Central government to directly credit dues into the accounts of beneficiaries.

2. It has been developed by Comptroller & Auditor general of India. 3. It has been designed to serve as middleware between COMPACT (computerised payment and accounts) application at PAOs and the core banking solution (CBS) of the agency banks/Reserve Bank of India, to facilitate paperless transaction. 4. The e-payment system will save both time and effort in effecting payments and also facilitate the elimination of physical cheques and their manual processing.

a. 1 & 2

b. Only 1

c. Only 2

d. 1 & 3


35. According to joint study by industry association FICCI and Ernst & Young predicted Indian mobile devices market to reach which of the following marks annually by 2020?

a. 300 million

b. 350 million

c. 375 million

d. 430 million 36. Sebastian Vettel who stood third in the Formula 1 race became the youngest double world champion with four races to spare on 9 October 2011. To which of the following teams does he belong?

a. Red Bull

b. McLaren

c. Ferrari

d. Mercedez 37. Who won the 2011 man Booker Prize for his short novel The Sense of an Ending?

a. Carol Birch

b. Patrick deWitt

c. Julian Barnes

d. AD Miller 38. Thomas cup is related to which of the following sports

a. Badminton b. Lawn tennis c. Football d. Table Tennis

39. A market situation in which there are many producers producing goods which are close substitutes of each other is called

a. Monopoly b. Oligopoly c. Monopolistic competition d. Perfect competition

40. Which among the following is known as the "Land of White Elephant"

a. Thailand b. Myanmar c. Indonesia d. Sri Lanka


41. Who among the following is known to have produced a piece of art titled "Portrait Francoise"

a. Mac Adams b. Pablo Picasso

c. Paul Ondrusch d. John Greer

42. When we buy a 22 carat gold, it means we are buying gold of purity

a. 95.50 % b. 99.70 % c. 91.67 % d. 90 %

43. Which tennis player retained his Shanghai Masters title by defeating David Ferrer 7-5 6-4 in the final on 16 October 2011?

a. Rafael Nadal

b. Roger Feder

c. Andy Murray

d. Novak Djokovic 44. The Agriculture Ministry on 20 October 2011 proposed a hike of Rs 115 per quintal in the minimum support price (MSP) of wheat to what sum per quintal to cover rising farm input cost and encourage farmers to increase acreage?

a. Rs 1251 per quintal

b. Rs 1293 per quintal

c. Rs 1285 per quintal

d. Rs 1233 per quintal 45. Scientists are set to begin a six-week mission to explore the Indian Ocean's underwater mountains. Name the ship, which will carry out the mission.

a. RRS James Cook

b. RRS Ernest Shackleton

c. RRS James Clark Ross d. Royal Research Ship


46. Name the Irish poet and human rights activist who was named Ireland’s ninth president on 30 October 2011 after winning 57% of votes in the final count of the presidential election held on 27 October 2011.

a. Michael D Higgins

b. Mary McAleese

c. Douglas Hyde

d. Mary Robinson 47. According to the data released by the commerce and industry ministry on 31 October 2011, the eight core infrastructure industries growth slowed down to what percentage for September 2011 as against 3.3 per cent in September 2010?

a. 3.1%

b. 2.3%

c. 2%

d. 1.8% 48. The Department of Telecom (DoT) slapped Rs 50 crore fine on which of the following cellular companies for suppressing information, violating licence agreement and renting out more than 3,600 pre-activated post-paid SIM cards in bulk to a Delhi-based company that further subrented them?

a. Bharti Airtel

b. MTNL

c. Idea Cellular

d. Vodafone Essar 49. Ryder cup is related to which sport?

a. Polo b. Golf c. Badminton d. Lawn Tennis

50. At which of the following places was the first summit of SAARC held?

a. Islamabad b. New Delhi c. Kathmandu d. Dhaka


51. What is the average density of Earth in g/cm^3

a. 5.515 b. 4.415 c. 4.515 d. 6.515

52. "Fermi" is a unit of

a. Mass b. Length c. Frequency d. Radioactivity

53. The reports of the Comptroller and Auditor general of India relating to the accounts of the states are submitted to

a. The President b. The Governor c. The Parliament d. The Chief Minister

54. Which of the following McLaren’s driver won the Japanese Grand Prix in his adopted homeland, Japan on 9 October 2011?

a. Sebastian Vettel

b. Max Webber

c. Jenson Button

d. Fernando Alonso 55. According to the WPI data released by the Commerce and Industry Ministry on 3 November 2011, food inflation surged to what per cent for the week ended 22 October 2011 owing to soaring prices of various edibles such as vegetables, fruits, pulses, milk and all other protein-rich items?

a. 11.55 %

b. 12.25 %

c. 12.21 %

d. 11.12 %


56. Nabum Tuki was sworn in as the Chief Minister of Arunachal Pradesh on 1 November 2011. He is the__ Chief Minister of Arunachal Pradesh?

a. Seventh

b. Sixth

c. Fifth

d. Fourth 57. East India Hotels, which runs the Oberoi Hotels chain, inducted Nita Ambani, wife of Reliance Industries chairman Mukesh Ambani on its boardpaving the way for her to attend corporate board meetings. What percentage of share did RIL acquire in EIH in August 2010?

a. 23.5 %

b. 21.22 %

c. 14.9 %

d. 17 % 58. Bharti Enterprises, the parent company of Airtel floated a new joint venture with Japanese internet firm for offering mobile internet services in India. Name the firm.

a. SoftBank Corp

b. Aichi Bank

c. Arc System Works

d. Bridgestone 59. Rajasthan government on 19 October 2011 launched a web based Social Security Pension system. At which one of the following places the system was launched?

a. Jaipur

b. Jodhpur

c. Bikaner

d. Ajmer 60. Name the Rajasthan Water Resources Minister who was dropped from the Cabinet on 16 October 2011 in the wake of allegations about his involvement in a case of mysterious disappearance of an auxiliary nurse midwife, Bhanwari Devi.

a. Mahipal Maderna

b. Bharat Singh

c. Aimaduddin Ahmad

d. Bharat Singh


61. Which among the following is the best soil for plant growth?

a. Loam

b. Clay

c. Sand d. Silt

62. Who among the following has written the book "Cricket My Style"?

a. Sunil Gavaskar

b. Kapil Dev

c. Anil Kumble d. None of the Above

63. The constellation in Indian Mythology called "Sapta Rishi" is conterminous with which of the following

a. Orion

b. Scorpio

c. Ursa Major d. Ursa Minor

64. In India public sector is most prominent in which sector?

a. Steel

b. Transport

c. Finance d. Others

65. Who among the following was the first women judge of India?

a. Leila Seth

b. Anna Chandy

c. Fathima Beevi d. Sujata Manohar


66. Scientists identified the bug, which caused the Bubonic plague (Black Death) in Europe between 1347 and 1351. Consider the following statements on Bubonic plague:

i) Bubonic plague still strikes somewhere between 1000 and 3000 people.

ii) Bubonic plague is caused by Yersinia pestis. Choose the right option:

a. Both i and ii are correct.

b. Only i is correct.

c. Only ii is correct. d. Neither i nor ii is correct.

67. India and Iran agreed to set up a mechanism for payment of crude oil. Consider the following statements:

i) Iran is second only to Saudi Arabia as an oil supplier to India.

ii) India is Iran’s second biggest crude buyer after China.

Choose the right option:




68. Nobel peace prize winner and environmentalist Wangari Maathai died on 25th September 2011. She won the Nobel peace prize in___.

a. 2004

b. 2005

c. 2003 d. 2007

69. Delhi state government on 8th October 2011, launched Micro Finance project for women. Consider the following statements:

i) The project aims at providing financial support to over one lakh vulnerable women in New Delhi.

ii) The project will be implemented by the Samajik Suvidha Sangam in collaboration with Delhi chapter of SEWA.

Choose the right option:





70. The Supreme Court on 1 September 2011 ordered Delhi’s private hospitals to provide free treatment to the poor. The bench asked the city hospitals to reserve __ percent of their out-patient department capacity and __ percent of beds at the indoor level for free treatment of the poor.

a. 25; 10

b. 35; 20

c. 10; 25

d. 25; 25


SECTION-III: QUANTITATIVE, DATA INTERPRETATION AND SUFFICIENCY

71. The sum of 20 terms of the series -12 + 22 - 32 + 42 - 52 + 62.... is:

a. 210

b. 519

c. 190

d. 420

Q 72-76: Study the following table and answer the questions based on it.

Expenditures of a Company (in Lakh Rupees) per Annum Over the given Years.

Year

Item of Expenditure

Salary Fuel and Transport Bonus Interest on Loans Taxes

1998 288 98 3.00 23.4 83

1999 342 112 2.52 32.5 108

2000 324 101 3.84 41.6 74

2001 336 133 3.68 36.4 88

2002 420 142 3.96 49.4 98

72. What is the average amount of interest per year which the company had to pay during this period?

a. Rs. 32.43 lakhs

b. Rs. 33.72 lakhs

c. Rs. 34.18 lakhs

d. Rs. 36.66 lakhs

73. The total amount of bonus paid by the company during the given period is approximately what

percent of the total amount of salary paid during this period?

a. 0.1%

b. 0.5%

c. 1%

d. 1.25%


74. Total expenditure on all these items in 1998 was approximately what percent of the total

expenditure in 2002?

a. 62%

b. 66%

c. 69%

d. 71%

75. The total expenditure of the company over these items during the year 2000 is?

a. Rs. 544.44 lakhs

b. Rs. 501.11 lakhs

c. Rs. 446.46 lakhs

d. Rs. 478.87 lakhs

76. The ratio between the total expenditure on Taxes for all the years and the total expenditure on Fuel

and Transport for all the years respectively is approximately?

a. 4:7

b. 10:13

c. 15:18

d. 5:8

77. A and B working together can finish a job in T days. If A works alone and completes the job, he will

take T + 5 days. If B works alone and completes the same job, he will take T + 45 days. What is T?

a. 25 days

b. 60 days

c. 15 days

d. 24 days

78. In a triangle ABC, the lengths of the sides AB and AC equal 17.5 cm and 9 cm respectively. Let D be a

point on the line segment BC such that AD is perpendicular to BC. If AD = 3 cm, then what is the radius

(in cm) of the circle circumscribing the triangle ABC?

a. 17.05

b. 27.85

c. 22.45

d. 26.25


79. How many scalene triangles exist whose sides a, b and c are natural numbers less than 8?

a. 13

a. 14

b. 15

c. 16

80. From the following choices what is the equation of a line whose x intercept is half as that of the line

3x + 4y = 12 and y intercept is twice as that of the same line.

a. 3x + 8y = 24

b. 8x + 3y = 24

c. 16x + 3y = 24

d. 3x + y = 6

Q 81-85: Study the following pie-diagrams carefully and answer the questions given below it:

Percentage Composition of Human Body


81. What percent of the total weight of human body is equivalent to the weight of the proteins in skin in

human body?

a. 0.016

b. 1.6

c. 0.16

d. Data inadequate

82. What will be the quantity of water in the body of a person weighing 50 kg?

a. 20 kg

b. 35 kg

c. 41 kg

d. 42.5 kg

83. What is the ratio of the distribution of proteins in the muscles to that of the distribution of proteins

in the bones?

a. 1 : 18

b. 1 : 2

c. 2 : 1

d. 18 : 1

84. To show the distribution of proteins and other dry elements in the human body, the arc of the circle

should subtend at the centre an angle of:

a. 54 o

b. 126 o

c. 108 o

d. 252 o

85. In the human body, what part is made of neither bones nor skin?

a. 1/4

b. 3/80

c. 2/5

d. None of these


86. In how many ways can 5 different toys be packed in 3 identical boxes such that no box is empty, if

any of the boxes may hold all of the toys?

a. 20

b. 30

c. 25

d. 600

87. In how many different ways can the letters of the word 'OPTICAL' be arranged so that the vowels

always come together?

a. 120

b. 720

c. 4320

d. 2160

88. A gentleman buys every year Bank's cash certificates of value exceeding the last year's purchase by

Rs. 300. After 20 years, he finds that the total value of the certificates purchased by him is Rs. 83,000.

Find the value of the certificates purchased by him in the 13th year.

a. Rs.4900

b. Rs.6900

c. Rs.1300

d. None of these.

89. The sum of the first 50 terms common to the Arithmetic Sequence 15, 19, 23..... and the Arithmetic

Sequence 14, 19, 24..... is.

a. 25450

b. 24550

c. 50900

d. 49100

Q 90-92: A and B are running along a circular course of radius 7 km in opposite directions such that

when they meet they reverse their directions and when they meet, A will run at the speed of B and

vice-versa. Initially, the speed of A is thrice the speed of B. Assume that they start from M0 and they

first meet at M1, then at M2, next at M3, and finally at M4.


90. What is the shortest distance between M1 and M2?

a. 11 km

b. (7^1/ 2) km

c. 7 km

d. 14 km

91. What is the shortest distance between M1, and M3 among the course?

a. 22 km

b. (14^1/ 2) km

c. (22^1/ 2) km

d. 14 km

92. Which is the point that coincides with M0?

a. M1

b. M2

c. M3

d. M4

Q 93-95: For the questions given below:

Mark a, if the question can be answered with the help of I alone,

Mark b, if the question can be answered with the help of II alone,

Mark c, if the question can be answered only with the help of both I and II,

Mark d, if the question cannot be answered even with the help of both statements.

93. Is the distance from the office to home less than the distance from the cinema hall to home?

I. The time taken to travel from home to office is as much as the time taken from home to the cinema

hall, both distances being covered without stopping.

II. The road from the cinema hall to home is bad and speed reduces, as compared to that one the road

from home to the office.


94. A and B work at digging a ditch alternately for a day each. If A can dig a ditch in ‘a’ days and B can dig

it in ‘b’ days, will work get done faster if A begins the work?

I. n is a positive integer such that n(1/a + 1/b) = 1

II. b > a

95. If twenty sweets are distributed among some boys and girls such that each girl gets two sweets and

each boys gets three sweets, what is the number of boys and girls?

I. The number of girls is not more than five.

II. If each girl gets 3 sweets and each boy gets 2 sweets, the number of sweets required for the children

will still be the same.

96. The sum of the series: 1² + 2² + 3² + 4² + ……+ 15² is

a. 1080

b. 1240

c. 1460

d. 1620

97. If 1/(b – a) + 1/(b – c) = 1/a + 1/c, then a, b, c form a/an

a. Arithmetic progression

b. Geometric progression

c. Harmonic progression

d. None of these

98. What is the value of m which satisfies 3m² - 21m + 30 < 0?

a. m < 2, or m > 5

b. m > 2

c. 2 < m < 5

d. m < 5


99. 5^6 - 1 is divisible by

a. 13

b. 31

c. 5

d. None of these

100. There are 12 pipes that are connected to a tank. Some of them are fill pipes and the others are

drain pipes. Each of the fill pipes can fill the tank in 8 hours and each of the drain pipes can drain the

tank completely in 6 hours. If all the fill pipes and drain pipes are kept open, an empty tank gets filled in

24 hours. How many of the 12 pipes are fill pipes?

a. 6

b. 8

c. 7

d. 5

101. A pump can be used either to fill or to empty a tank. The capacity of the tank is 3600 m3. The

emptying capacity of the pump is 10 m3/min higher than its filling capacity. What is the emptying

capacity of the pump if the pump needs 12 more minutes to fill the tank than to empty it?

a. 50 m3 / min

b. 60 m3 / min

c. 45 m3 / min

d. 90 m3 /min

102. A person who has a certain amount with him goes to the market. He can buy 50 oranges or 40

mangoes. He retains 10% of the amount for taxi fare and buys 20 mangoes, and of the balance he

purchases oranges. The number of oranges he can purchase is:

a. 36

b. 40

c. 15

d. 20


103. Two-fifths of the voters promise to vote for P and the rest promise to vote for Q. Of these, on the

last day, 15% of the voters went back on their promise to vote for P and 25% of voters went back of

their promise to vote for Q, and P lost by 2 votes. Then the total number of voters is:

a. 100

b. 110

c. 90

d. 95

104. Two positive integers differ by 4 and the sum of their reciprocals is 10/21. One of the numbers is:

a. 3

b. 1

c. 5

d. 21

Q 105-109: Study the following graph carefully and answer the questions given below:

Distribution of candidates who were enrolled for MBA entrance exam and the candidates (out of

those enrolled) who passed the exam in different institutes:


105. What percentage of candidates passed the Exam from institute T out of the total number of

candidates enrolled from the same institute?

a. 50%

b. 62.5%

c. 75%

d. 80%

106. Which institute has the highest percentage of candidates passed to the candidates enrolled?

a. Q

b. R

c. V

d. T

107. The number of candidates passed from institutes S and P together exceeds the number of

candidates enrolled from institutes T and R together by

a. 228

b. 279

c. 399

d. 407

108. What is the percentage of candidates passed to the candidates enrolled for institutes Q and R

together?

a. 68%

b. 80%

c. 74%

d. 65%

109. What is the ratio of candidates passed to the candidates enrolled from institute P?

a. 9 : 11

b. 14 : 17

c. 6 : 11

d. 9 : 17


110. If A and B work together, they will complete a job in 7.5 days. However, if A works alone and

completes half the job and then B takes over and completes the remaining half alone, they will be able

to complete the job in 20 days. How long will B alone take to do the job if A is more efficient than B?

a. 20 days

b. 40 days

c. 36 days

d. 30 days


SECTION-IV: GENERAL ENGLISH

111. Old customs are dying ____ the onslaught of modernity.

a. over

b. in

c. for

d. under

112. Neeta could ____ make it to the finish line.

a. barely

b. rarely

c. lately

d. shortly

113. Choose the sentence with the correct pronouns.

a. They asked him and I to join the staff.

b. They asked he and me to join the staff.

c. They asked him and me to join the staff.

d. They asked he and I to join the staff.

114. Oblivious means:

a. enthusiasic

b. unaware

c. habitual

d. suppressed

115. Mark the odd one out:

a. Teenage

b. Infancy

c. Adulthood

d. Old man


116. Match the proverbs with the right endings:

A. Many hands i. in the mouth

B. Too many cooks ii. out of a molehill

C. Don’t make a mountain iii. make light work

D. Don’t look a gift horse iv. spoil the broth

a. A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i

b. A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii

c. A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii

d. A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i

117. Select the correctly spelt word:

a. Eflorescence

b. Efllorescence

c. Efflorescence

d. Efflorascence

Q 118-119: From among the choices, identify the word that can be associated with all four capitalized

words.

118. WATER, DOWN, BRIDGE, CONSTRUCTION

a. jet

b. under

c. river

d. dam

119. PIECE, PHONE, PLUG, RING

a. ear

b. talk

c. sound

d. ground

120. Rashmi has ____ memories of her time spent in Spain.

a. much

b. more

c. lot

d. many


121. I felt ____ alone in a room full of people.

a. as though I was

b. as if I was

c. as though I were

d. as if even I were

Q 122-123: Find the answer that best matches the underlined word or phrase.

122. Please (submit) your application before two o'clock.

a. hand in

b. hand down

c. hand off

d. hand out

123. Nitika (resembles) her mother more than her father.

a. takes after

b. goes after

c. looks after

d. calls after

124. A good teacher always has a ____ for knowledge and tries to ____ the same in his students.

a. need, send

b. thirst, instill

c. interest, create

d. desire, make

125. Women have come to ____ that they are individuals with real ____ and not just dependent

members of the family.

a. realise, potential

b. appreciate, needs

c. revise, strength

d. recognize, aura

Q 126-127: Each question consists of two words which have a certain relationship to each other

followed by four pairs of related words. Select the pair which has the same relationship.


126. GRAVITY : PULL

a. iron : metal

b. north pole : directions

c. magnetism : attraction

d. dust : desert

127. PORK : PIG

a. rooster : chicken

b. mutton : goat

c. steer : beef

d. lobster : crustacean

Q 128-129: In the following questions four alternatives are given for the idiom/phrase italicised and

underlined in the sentence. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of idiom/phrase.

128. When she tells stories about herself, she is inclined to draw the long bow.

a. understate

b. get emotional

c. exaggerate

d. get excited

129. It is time that professors came down from their ivory towers and studied students’ needs.

a. Detachment and seclusion

b. A tower made of ivory

c. Prison

d. Dream lands

130. Choose the correct form of the sentence:

a. Matthew’s grades are better than all the students in his class.

b. Matthew’s grades are better than all the other students in his class.

c. Matthew’s grades are better than any other student in his class.

d. Matthew’s grades are better than those of any other student in his class.

131. Is that book ____?

a. your

b. yours’

c. your’s

d. yours


132. Which punctuation mark is missing from the following sentence:

When I finish here I will be glad to help you.

a. semicolon

b. colon

c. comma

d. apostrophe

133. ____ is used to separate clauses which contain commas.

a. semicolon

b. colon

c. hyphen

d. period

For questions 134-139, read the passage below and answer with reference to it.

The establishment of the third Reich influenced events in American history by starting a chain of events

which culminated in war between Germany and the United States. The complete destruction of

democracy, the persecution of laws, the war on religion, the cruelty and barbarism of the Nazis and

especially, the plans of Germany and her allies, Italy and Japan, for world conquest caused great

indignation in this country and brought on fear of another world war. While speaking out against Hitler's

atrocities, the American profile generally favoured isolationist policies and neutrality. The neutrality acts

of 1935 and 1936 prohibited trade with any belligerents or loans to them. In 1937 the President was

empowered to declare an arms embargo in wars between nations at his discretion

American opinion began to change somewhat after President Roosevelt's aggressive speech at Chicago

(1937) in which he severely criticized Hitler's policies. Germany's seizure of Austria and Munich pact for

the partition of Czechoslovakia (1938) also aroused the American people. The conquest of

Czechoslovakia in March 1939 was another rude awakening to the menace of the third Reich. In August,

1939, came the shock of the Nazi - Soviet pact and in September the attack on Poland and the outbreak

of European war.

The United States’ attempt to maintain neutrality in spite of sympathy for the democracies arranged

against the Third Reich. The Neutrality act of 1939 repeated the arms embargo and permitted 'cash' and

'carry' exports of arms to belligerent nations. A strong national defence program was begun. A draft act

was passed (1940) to strengthen the military services. A Lend - Lease Act (1940) authorized the

president to sell, exchange or lend materials to any county deemed necessary by him for the defence of

the United States. Help was given to Britain territory in the western Hemisphere. In August 1941,

President Roosevelt and Prime Minister Churchill met and issued the Atlantic Charter, which proclaimed

the kind of a world which should be established after the war. In December 1941, Japan launched the


unprovoked attack on the United States at Pearl Harbour. Immediately thereafter, Germany declared

war on the United States.

134. The Neutrality Act of 1939 favored Great Britain because

a. the British had command of the sea

b. the law permitted U.S.A. to trade only with the allies

c. it antagonized Japan

d. it agreed with the British on the principle of the Atlantic Charter

135. An event that did not occur in 1939 was the

a. invasion of Poland

b. invasion of Czechoslovakia

c. passing of the Neutrality Act

d. passing of the Land - Lease act

136. One item occurring 1937 that the author does not mention in the list of actions that alienated

the American Public was

a. The persecution of religious groups

b. The burning of the Reich tag

c. The pacts with Italy

d. Nazi barbarism

137. The Neutrality Act of 1939

a. restated America's isolationist policies

b. proclaimed American neutrality

c. permitted the selling of arms to belligerent nations

d. was the cause of USA's entrances in to World War II

138. During the years 1933-36, American policy may be described as having been

a. watchful

b. isolationist

c. pacific

d. incorrect

139. USA entered the war against Germany

a. because Pearl Harbour was attacked

b. after peaceful efforts had failed

c. because Germany declare war against it

d. because Japan was an ally of Germany


140. ____ the last five years alone, several helicopters have crashed ____ mountains.

a. for, on

b. since, among

c. in, into

d. till, in

141. Pollution control can no longer be viewed as a national problem to be ____ by individual

countries; every nation has a ____ stake in the environmental practices and policies of its

neighbours.

a. solved, convincing

b. seen, proper

c. met, overall

d. addressed, legitimate

Q 142-144: Rearrange the following five sentences in proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph

and answer the questions given below.

(I) Indeed, the mutations that the family has undergone in this century have been more

challenging than at any time of its evolution.

(II) Thus, we have nuclear families, single parent families, surrogate families and global families

to name just a few.

(III) How these changes have reduced our world view is an interesting field of study in

themselves.

(IV) What we often forget is that the family as it exists today has expanded its orthodox

definition to include several variations.

(V) Each of these has brought its own attitudes and priorities.

142. Which sentence should come fourth in the paragraph?

a. I

b. II

c. III

d. IV

143. Which sentence should come second in the paragraph?

a. I

b. II

c. III

d. IV


144. Which sentence should come fifth in the paragraph?

a. I

b. II

c. III

d. V

145. The non-cooperative attitudes of the members can only ____ the image of the society.

a. spoil

b. improve

c. degrade

d. defame

146. “Deity” means:

a. a god

b. a ludicrous and complete failure

c. extravagantly romantic or idealistic; highly impractical

d. evenness of temper or mind

147. The fugitive ____the police for a month.

a. alluded

b. illuded

c. eluded

d. eluded

Q 148-150: Select the word which is OPPOSITE in meaning to the given word

148. CRUDE

a. Cruel

b. Sophisticated

c. Malevolent

d. Ancient

149. DULL

a. Fascinating

b. Sad

c. Ghastly

d. Horrible


150. PASSIVE

a. Kind

b. Cumbersome

c. Assertive

d. Soft


ANSWER KEY

Section – I

1(c) 2(a) 3(c) 4(d) 5(d) 6(c) 7(c) 8(b) 9(a) 10(b) 11(d) 12(b) 13(a)

14(c) 15(b) 16(a) 17(b) 18(a) 19(b) 20(b) 21(a) 22(d) 23(d) 24(b) 25(c) 26(b)

27(c) 28(c) 29(c) 30(d)

Section-II

31(a) 32(a) 33(a) 34(c) 35(b) 36(a) 37(c) 38(a) 39(c) 40(a) 41(b) 42(c) 43(c)

44(c) 45(a) 46(a) 47(b) 48(c) 49(b) 50(d) 51(a) 52(b) 53(b) 54(c) 55(c) 56(a)

57(c) 58(a) 59(a) 60(a) 61(a) 62(b) 63(c) 64(b) 65(b) 66(a) 67(a) 68(a) 69(a)

70(a)

Section-III

71(a) 72(d) 73(c) 74(c) 75(a) 76(b) 77(c) 78(d) 79(a) 80(d) 81(b) 82(b) 83(c)

84(c) 85(d) 86(c) 87(d) 88(a) 89(a) 90(d) 91(a) 92(d) 93(d) 94(a) 95(b) 96(b)

97(c) 98(c) 99(b) 100(c) 101(b) 102(d) 103(a) 104(a) 105(c) 106(b) 107(c) 108(b) 109(c)

110(d)

Section-IV

111(d) 112(a) 113(c) 114(b) 115(d) 116(d) 117(c) 118(b) 119(a) 120(d) 121(c) 122(a) 123(a)

124(b) 125(a) 126(c) 127(b) 128(c) 129(a) 130(d) 131(d) 132(c) 133(a) 134(a) 135(d) 136(b)

137(c) 138(b) 139(c) 140(c) 141(d) 142(b) 143(c) 144(d) 145(a) 146(a) 147(c) 148(b) 149(a)

150(c)

CWS_MockSNAP-2

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