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C P T _ J u n e _ 2 0 1 0 _ S e s s i o n 1

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No.1 for CA/CWA & MEC/CEC M a s t e r M i n d s CPT June 2010 Question Paper (Based on Memory)

1st session Marks: 100 Marks Time: 2 hrs.

Part A - Accountancy

Journal

1. Discount allowed by Arun to Varun. Which is the Correct entry to be made by Arun?a) Credit Varun A/c & Debit Discount allowed A/c b) Debit Varun A/c & Credit Discount Received A/cc) Credit Arun A/c & Debit Discount Allowed A/c d) Debit Arun A/c & Credit Discount Received A/c

Subsidiary Books

2. Rent due for the month of March is recorded ____ in cash booka) On receipts side b) On payments side c) As contra d) No where

Cash Book

3. When two aspects in one transaction are recorded in the cash book it self it is called ____a) Debit entry b) Double entry c) Single entry d) Contra entry

Final Accounts

4. Salaries paid Rs.2,00,000 includes Rs.10,000 for last year, Rs.20,000 for next year and current yearsoutstanding salaries Rs.15,000. Amount of salaries to be debited to P & L A/c of current is ____a) Rs.2,00,000 b) Rs.1,85,000 c) Rs.2,15,000 d) Rs.2,30,000

5. Total Debtors of a firm is Rs.48000 before deduction of bad debts and after allowing discount. Bad debtsRs.2000 and discount allowed Rs.100. PBD is to be created at 5%. The amount to be debited to P&L A/Cfor PBD is_____a) Rs.3000 b) Rs.2300 c) Rs.2305 d) None

6. Accounting treatment for Accrued Income ____a) It will be recorded on assets side as a current asset in the Balance Sheetb) It will be recorded on the liabilities side as a current liability in the Balance Sheetc) It will be recorded on debit side of the Trading Account as an expensed) It will be recorded on credit side of Profit & Loss A/c as an income

7. The Gross Profit of a firm is Rs.1750, Carriage inward Rs.150, Bad debts Rs.120, Proprietors personalexpenses Rs.750. Carriage outwards Rs.175, net profits is ___a) 1455 b) 1305 c) 555 d) 705

Bills of Exchange

8. Kumar draws a bill on Rajat for Rs.50,000 and they agree to share the proceeds in the ratio of 3:2. Kumargot it discounted for Rs. 47,500. What will be the amount remitted to Rajat by Kumara) 28,500 b) 19,000 c) 30,000 d) 20,000

9. Indian Currency is a ____a) Bill b) Promissory Note c) Cheque d) Draft

10. The Acceptor of a Bills of Exchange is the ____a) Debtor b) Creditor c) Seller d) None

11. Bills receivable discounted is entered ina) Journal b) Ledger c) Cash Book (Bank) d) No Where

12. A draws a bill on B on 12th

May 2008 for Rs.20,000 for 3 months. What will be the due date?a) 13th

Aug 2008 b) 14th

Aug 2008 c) 12th

Aug 2008 d) 15th

Aug 2008

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No.1 for CA/CWA & MEC/CEC M a s t e r M i n d s Depreciation

13. Depletion method of depreciation is applied in case of ___a) Intangible Assets b) Tangible Assets c) Wasting Assets d) Current Assets

14. Meaning for the entry given belowMachinery A/c Dr 4000

To Depreciation A/c 4000a) Depreciation Provided for Year ended Rs.4000 b) Depreciation is Reversedc) Machinery Appreciated d) None

15. ____ method of depreciation takes into account the element of interest on capital outlay and sees to write offthe asset and the interest cost over the life of asseta) Annuity b) Sinking fund c) Straight line d) Written down value

Rectification of Errors

16. A Cloth merchant purchased furniture and recorded it in purchase day book. It is an error of ____a) Commission b) principle c) concept d) none

Consignment

17. X Consigned goods to Y Costing Rs.30000 at Cost plus 25%. These Goods are to be sold at Invoice PricePlus 10%. Y sold a part of goods for Rs.33000. What will be the Value of Stock lying with Y to be shown byX at the Closing of Accountsa) Rs.8250 b) Rs.6000 c) Rs.7500 d) Rs.8000

18. X sends 400 bags to Y costing Rs.200 each to be sold at cost + 45%. X draw a bill on Y equivalent to 60%on sale value. Then what will be the amount of bill?a) 69,600 b) 60,000 c) 61,250 d) 63,000

Partnership Accounts

19. A, B & C were partners in a firm. For financial year 2008-09 the profits were Rs.18,000. The partners sharedthe profits in the ratio of 2:2:1. There is no partnership deed of the firm in this regard. The adjustment entrywill be ___a) P & L Adjustment A/c Dr. 18,000 b) P & L Adjustment A/c Dr. 18,000

To As Capital A/c 7,200 To As Capital A/c 6,000To Bs Capital A/c 7,200 To Bs Capital A/c 6,000To Cs Capital A/c 3,600 To Cs Capital A/c 6,000

c) As Capital A/c Dr.1,200Bs Capital A/c Dr.1,200

To C Capital A/c 2,400 d) None of these

20. P, Q, R are partners in a firm with capitals of Rs.50,000, Rs.30,000 and 25,000 respectively sharing profits &

Losses in the ratio of 2:2:1. General reserve Rs.15,000, Good will Rs.30,000 revaluation profit Rs.7,050 Q isRetiring from the firm. Amount payable to Q is ____a) 70,820 b) 50,820 c) 25,820 d) 20,820

21. A, B, C are partners sharing profits in the ratio of 7:5:4. The profits of the firm for the year ended 31-3-2009were estimated as Rs.2,40,000. C died on 30

thJune 2008. What is share of C in profits in financial year

2008-09?a) Rs.15,000 b) Rs.18,000 c) Rs.24,000 d) Rs.20,000

22. In the absence of Agreement, interest on Capitals of partners to be allowed is ____a) 6% b) 8% c) 9% d) None

23. Premium paid by the partnership firm on the joint life policy of partners is

a) Debited to the Capital A/c of each partner b) Credited to the profit and loss A/c of firmc) Credited to the Capital A/c of Partners d) Debited to the Profit And Loss A/c of Firm

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No.1 for CA/CWA & MEC/CEC M a s t e r M i n d s 24. Partnership firm can raise capital

a) By the issue of Equity Shares b) By the issue of Preference Sharesc) By the Issue of Non- preference Shares d) None of the above

25. In Partnership if rate of interest on loan is not given, then _______ is to be takena) 6% b) 5% c) 9% d) 16%

26. When any assets and liabilities are revalued?a) On admission of a partner b) On death of a partnerc) On retirement of a partner d) All of the above

Company Accounts

27. Debenture holders are ____a) Creditors b) Debtors c) Both d) None

28. Reserve Capital mean ___a) Part of subscribed but uncalled capital b) Accumulated profitsc) A part of capital reserve d) A part of capital redemption reserves

29. Z & Co forfeited 100 shares of Rs.10 each for non payment of final call of Rs.2 each. These shares werereissued at Rs.9 per share. What is the amount to be transferred to capital reserve A/c?a) Rs.700 b) Rs.800 c) Rs.900 d) Rs.1000

30. Debentures are shown under ____a) Secured Loans b) Unsecured Loans c) Current Liabilities d) Current Assets

31. Premium on issue of shares is shown under the head ____a) Reserves and Surplus b) Current Liabilities and Provisionc) Capital Reserve d) None of these

32. In order to arrive paid up capital, which one of the following is to be deducted?a) Calls in advance b) Calls in arrearsc) Discount on issue of shares d) Subscribed capital

33. A Ltd. Company acquired assets worth Rs.11,25,000 from B Ltd. and issued shares of Rs.100 each towardsconsideration at a premium of 25%. How many shares shall be issued?a) 9,000 shares b) 7,500 shares c) 10,000 shares d) None

34. Redeemable preference shares must be redeemed with in ____ yearsa) 24 b) 30 c) 35 d) 20

35. According to Companies Act 1956 Balance Sheet is prepared as pera) Part II schedule VI b) Part I schedule VIc) Part II schedule VII d) Part I schedule VII

36. Capital Reserve comes undera) Part of uncalled capital b) CRR c) Accumulated profits d) Reserve capital

37. A Company issues shares at Rs.10 per share and forfeited shares on which Rs.8 each had been paid up.Minimum price of re-issue is ___a) 10 b) 8 c) 5 d) 2

Inventory Valuation

38. The cost of inventory on April 20th

was computed as Rs.5,25,000. The purchase of goods from April 1st

to20

thwere 3,25,000 which include cash purchase of Rs.75,000 and goods costing Rs.50,000 not yet received.

The value of closing stock for year ending 31st

March would be ____

a) 2,00,000 b) 2,50,000 c) 3,25,000 d) 5,00,000

39. The revised AS -2 permits the use of which of the following methods for computation of cost of inventory?a) Lifo b) Standard cost method c) Fifo d) None

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No.1 for CA/CWA & MEC/CEC M a s t e r M i n d s 40. If the opening stock is overstated by Rs.10,000 and closing stock is understated by Rs.15,000, the effect on

profit will be ____a) Understated by Rs.5,000 b) Understated by Rs.25,000c) Overstated by Rs.25,000 d) Overstated by Rs.5,000

41. If the closing inventory represents the latest purchases, the method of valuation followed is ____a) LIFO b) FIFO c) Straight line d) None of these

42. Calculate Closing StockOpening stock 60000Purchases 90000Sales 120000Gross Profit on Cost 33 1/3%Cost of goods lost in Rs.15000. Insurance Claim Received Rs.5000a) Rs.40,000 b) Rs.45,000 c) Rs.55,000 d) Rs.60,000

43. Mr. A Sold Goods for Rs.50,000 which includes a sale to a customer for Rs.5,500 at cost + 10%, but thesegoods were still in godown at the risk of buyer. The Total Sales to be recorded is ____a) Rs.50,000 b) Rs.50,500 c) Rs.49,450 d) Rs.49,400

44. The success of perpetual inventory system depends upona) Placing order for materials an regular intervalsb) Exercising control over the issue of materialsc) Recording the receipts and issue of materials immediately after transactiond) Recording the receipt of material at fixed interval

Goods sent on Sale or Return Basis

45. Mr. X send the goods costing Rs.55,000 to Mr. Y on approval basis. Goods costing Rs.5,000 were damagedduring transit. X claims Rs.3,000 from insurance company. Then cost of goods sent on approval to Y will be:a) Rs.57,000 b) Rs.53,000 c) Rs.52,000 d) Rs.50,000

Accounting an Introduction

46. According to which concept, the proprietor pays interest on drawingsa) Accrual concept b) Conservatism conceptc) Entity concept d) Dual Aspect concept

47. Cost concept basically recognises ____a) Fair Market value b) Historical cost c) Realisable value d) Replacement cost

48. If the Market value of closing Inventory is less than its cost price, inventory will he shown at ____a) Marketable value b) Fair Market value c) Both d) none

49. The Market price of good declined than the cost price. Then the concept that plays a key role is ____

a) Materiality b) Going concern concept c) Realization d) Consistency

50. Fixed assets are double the current assets and half the capital. The current assets are Rs.3,00,000 andinvestments are Rs.4,00,000. Then the current liabilities recorded in balance sheet will bea) 2,00,000 b) 1,00,000 c) 3,00,000 d) 4,00,000

Contingent Assets & Liabilities

51. Which of the following is not a contingent liabilitya) Gaurantee given to a creditorb) Claims against the firm not acknowledged as debtc) Undisputed claim payable to creditor d) None of these

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No.1 for CA/CWA & MEC/CEC M a s t e r M i n d s Part B - M.Law

Meaning & Nature of Contract

52. Drawing Amount from ATM is _____a) Tacit Contract b) Executed Contract c) Executory Contract d) Formal Contract

53. A Contract is _____a) An agreement between a Indian National & Alien enemyb) An agreement enforces by parties themselvesc) An agreement enforceable by law d) Not an agreement by law

54. X says Y to repair his watch. Here arises ___a) Express Contract b) Implied Contract c) Tacit Contract d) Quasi Contract

Offer and Acceptance

55. A Price list belongs to the category of ___a) A offer b) Invitation to offer c) Answer to queries d) Acceptance to offer

Legal Object & Consideration

56. According to Contract Act, consideration must be _____a) real b) adequate c) illusory d) none of the above

Capacity to Contract

57. A minor enters into a contract for the purchase of certain necessaries. In such a case:a) he is not personally liable to pay. b) he is liable to pay.c) his estate is liable to pay. d) his guardian is liable to pay.

58. X is a lunatic. He can enter into a contract when he is______a) Under medical treatment b) Of sound mind

c) Of unsound mind d) None of these

59. According to Indian Contract Act 1872, a person can enter into contracta) After attaining majority b) Of Sound Mindc) Not disqualified by law d) All of the above

Free Consent

60. A entered into a contract with B. B obtained As consent by fraud here contract is ______a) Valid b) Void c) Voidable d) none of the above

61. Mistake of fact is ____a) Illegal b) Valid c) Void d) Void abinitio

62. Mistake of Indian Law _____a) Valid b) Void c) Voidable d) None of the above

Void Agreements & Quasi Contracts

63. A says to B that he will give Rs.500 to him if it rains and if does not rain B will give him Rs.500. Which typeof contract is this _____a) Wagering Contract b) Contingent Contract c) Valid Contract d) Quasi Contract

64. A Contingent contract is a / ana) Conditional Contract b) Uncertain Contract c) unenforce by law d) Absolute Contract

Discharge of Contract

65. The original contract comes do an end when ____a) Novation of Contract b) Alteration of Contract c) Rescission of Contract d) All of the above

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No.1 for CA/CWA & MEC/CEC M a s t e r M i n d s Indian Partnership Act, 1932

66. A Partnership is formed for a specific purpose but also even continue after that purpose. This is called as _a) Particular Partnership b) Specific Partnership c) Partnership at will d) None of the above

67. In absence of an agreement, the interest allowed on capital of the partners is___a) 8% b) 6% c) 5% d) None of these

68. If a partnership exceeds the minimum number of persons then that associate becomes _____a) Illegal b) legal c) unlawful d) company

69. Johnson is employed as a Finance controller in a Partnership Firm ABC brothers. Johnson is entitled to amonthly salary of Rs.2,00,000 & 20% of the profits of the firm only if profits of the firm exceeds Rs.1 crore inthat year. Johnson shall be called _____a) Only a partner in a firm b) Only an employee of a firmc) An employee and partner of a firm d) None of the above

70. To open Joint Bank A/c by a partner on his own name on behalf of firm is not a /an____a) Implied Authority b) Partnership deedc) Indian Contract Act, 1872 d) None of these

71. A introduced B to C as a partner. A incurs some liability. B remains silent, he is _____a) Dormant partners b) Partner by Holding out/ Estoppelc) Sleeping Partner d) Sub partner

72. Mutual agency under the Indian partnership act 1932 meansa) Sharing profits of firm among the partnersb) Right of partner to act as an agent & principle of other partnersc) Mutual co operation among partners d) Joint liability of all partners

73. Under partnership act, In the absence of agreement, the profits should be shared in the ratioa) Capital contributed by partners b) Equallyc) Any ratio which they like d) None of these

74. A partnership of banking business is valid, when the number of partners exceedsa) 5, but does not exceed 10 b) 10, but does not exceed 20c) 20, but does not exceed 40 d) 20, but does not exceed 50

75. Partnership starts with ______a) A major & 2 minors b) two minors c) A major & minor d) two majors

76. When assets and liability are revalued?a) on admission of a partner b) on death of a partnerc) on retirement of a partner d) all of the above

77. When reconstitution of firm happens ____a) Partner retires b) Partner admits c) Partner dies d) All of the above

The Sale of Goods Act, 1930

78. A Sale is a Right in Rema) Yes b) No c) Discretion of court d) None of these

79. Right of seller against buyer is calleda) Right in personam b) Right in Rem c) Both d) None of these

80. Unpaid seller has a right of ____a) Right of lien b) Right of stoppage of goods c) to resell the goods d) All of the above

81. Risk in sale of goods followsa) Only when delivery of goods to agent of buyer takes placeb) Only when property of goods passes to the buyerc) Only when price is paid d) All of these

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No.1 for CA/CWA & MEC/CEC M a s t e r M i n d s 82. Goods under sale of goods act include ____

a) Equity shares b) Trees c) Gross d) All of the above

83. A warranty is a stipulation which is _____ to the main purpose of a contracta) Collateral b) optional c) contingent d) Essential

84. Under sale of goods act 1930, the essential element of sale is

a) Price b) Exchange of goods c) possession d) None of the above

The end

Key - Part A ACCOUNTS

1. A 2. D 3. D 4. B 5. B

6. A 7. A 8. B 9. B 10. A

11. C 12. B 13. C 14. B 15. A

16. B 17. B 18. A 19. C 20. B

21. A 22. D 23. D 24. D 25. A

26. D 27. A 28. A 29. A 30. A

31. A 32. B 33. A 34. D 35. B

36. C 37. D 38. B 39. C 40. B

41. B 42. B 43. A 44. C 45. D

46. C 47. B 48. A 49. C 50. B

51. C

Part B - M.LAW

52. A 53. C 54. A 55. B 56. A

57. C 58. B 59. D 60. C 61. C

62. A 63. A 64. B 65. D 66. C

67. D 68. A 69. B 70. A 71. B

72. B 73. B 74. A 75. D 76. D

77. D 78. A 79. A 80. D 81. B

82. D 83. A 84. A 85. 86.

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No.1 for CA/CWA & MEC/CEC M a s t e r M i n d s CPT June 2010 Question Paper (Based on Memory)

2nd Session Marks: 100 Marks Time: 2 hrs.

Part A - Economics

Introduction to Economics

1. Micro Economics is also calleda) Demand theory b) price theory c) economic theory d) none of these

2. If opportunity cost is constant then____a) PPC is concave b) PPC is convex c) PPC is straight line d) None of these

Analysis of Demand

3. Which goods are named after sir Giffena) Superior b) Normal c) Luxury d) Inferior

Elasticity of Demand

4. Find Income elasticity of demand when demand increases by 20% and income decreased by 10%a) -2 b) 3 c) 2 d) 4

5. In case of luxury goods income elasticitya) Positive b) Negative c) Positive but >1 d) Positive but

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No.1 for CA/CWA & MEC/CEC M a s t e r M i n d s Price & Output Determination under different Markets

14. Price rigidity exists in which of the following type of markets?a) Perfect Competition b) Monopolyc) Monopolistic Competition d) Oligopoly

15. Which of the following is not a feature of imperfect competition ____a) Homogenous product b) Price warc) Product differentiation d) None of these

16. Price discrimination is found in ___a) Perfect Competition b) Monopolistic Competition c) Monopoly d) Oligopoly

Nature of Indian Economy

17. A developed economy uses ____ techniques of productiona) Labour intensive b) Capital intensive c) Home based d) Traditional

Role of different sectors in Indian Economy

18. In which five year plan the importance given to basic and heavy industries?a) 1

stfive year plan b) 2

ndfive year plan c) 3

rdfive year plan d) 4

thfive year plan

19. In the occupational structure, the major contribution is provided by which sector?a) Agriculture b) Industry c) Service d) Animal Husbandary

20. Tourism sector includes in ____a) Primary sector b) Tertiary sector c) Secondary sector d) None of these

21. Which of the following is associated with the land reforms introduced after independencea) Abolition of intermediaries b) Tenancy reformsc) Ceiling on Land holdings d) All of these

National Income In India

22. GDPFC = GDPMP ( ) + subsidiesa) Direct Taxes b) Indirect Taxes c) Both (a) and (b) d) none

23. Real NNPFC is valued at ____a) Current prices b) Constant prices c) Both (a) & (b) d) None

Unemployment

24. The unemployment which is caused by the introduction of new machines, improved production techniques,labour saving devices etc called

a) Frictional b) Technological c) Casual d) Structural

Poverty

25. In uban areas a person is said to be below the poverty line, if his daily consumption of calories is less than_a) 2400 b) 2100 c) 2600 d) 2800

Balance of Payment

26. Difference between visible imports and visible exports of a nation ___a) Balance of trade b) Balance of paymentsc) Balance of current account d) None of these

Money

27. Which of the following represents M3a) Narrow Money b) Board Money c) Near Money d) None of these

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No.1 for CA/CWA & MEC/CEC M a s t e r M i n d s Commercial Banks & Reserve Bank of India

28. RBI Rediscounts the bills with banksa) Repo rate b) Bank rate c) CRR d) SLR

29. Monetary policy is done by ___a) Ministry of finance b) RBI c) Planning commission d) Government

Part B - Quantitative Aptitude

Sets

30. If }012x4x:x{B},02x3x:x{A 22 =+==+= then find B A = _____

a) {-6} b) {1} c) {1, 2} d) {-2, 6}

Functions

31. If RA:f is a real valued function defined by

x

1)x(f = then domain of f is ____

a) R b) R {1} c) R {0} d) R N

32. The function xy = is ____

a) Discontinuous at x = 0 b) Continuous every where except x = 0c) Continuous every where d) None

Logarithms

33. If 0loglog caba =+ then ____

a) b = c b) b = - c c) b + c = 1 d) b and c are reciprocal

Theory of Indices

34. If 422 1xx = then find xx a) 7 b) 3 c) 27 d) 9

Ratio & Proportions

35. If two numbers are in the ratio 49 : 68 and a numbers is added to it then the ratio becomes 3 : 4. Thenumber is ____a) 3 b) 5 c) 8 d) 9

36. If the number of students in two classes are in the ratio 5 : 7. If 10 students are subtracted from each class,the ratio becomes 4 : 6. Then the number of students in each class is ____

a) 30, 40 b) 45, 60 c) 40, 60 d) 50, 70

Quadratic Equations

37. The roots of the equation 0kx14x3 2 =+ are reciprocal then find k

a) k = -3 b) k = 0 c) k = 3 d) k = 14

Linear Inequations

38. Solution of inequality 56

x

3

x25

then

a) 8x b) 8x c) x = 8 d) none

Arithmetic Progressions

39. The number 144 is dividend into 3 parts in A.P. such that largest number is double the smallest numberthen find the smallest number ____a) 48 b) 36 c) 13 d) 32

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No.1 for CA/CWA & MEC/CEC M a s t e r M i n d s 40. If 32,1 a,aa represents first, second, third terms in A.P. if the first term is 2 and 321 a)aa( + is minimum then

the common difference is ___

a)2

5 b)

2

5 c)

5

2d)

5

2

Geometric Progressions

41. Sum of the series ......5

10

5

7

5

41

32++++

a)36

15 b)

16

35c)

28

35d)

16

15

Permutations & Combinations

42. The Number of ways of arranging 6 boys and 4 girls in a row, so that all the girls are together __a) 6!, 4! b) 2, 7!, 4! c) 7!, 4! d) 2 (6!, 4!)

43. The Number of numbers not exceeding 1000 formed by using the number 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9 without

repetitiona) 384 b) 585 c) 364 d) 529

Limits

44.1x4

3x2Lt

2

x +

+

a)22

1b) 22 c) 2 d) 0

Derivatives

45. If 4yx 22 =+ then ____

a) 01dx

dy

dx

ydy

2

2

2

=+

+ b) 01dx

dy2

dx

ydy

2

2

2

=+

+

c) 02dx

dy2

dx

ydy

2

2

2

=+

+ d) None of these

Integrations

46. +2

1 2 2x

dxx= ____

a) 2log b) 3log c)21log d)

31

47. ++ 1x34x3

dx

a) C)1x3()4x3(3

22

3

2

3

+

+++ b) C)1x3()4x3(3

22

3

2

3

+

++

c) C)1x3()4x3(27

22

3

2

3

+

+++ d) none of these

Statistical Description of Data

48. Using ogive curve we can find ____a) Median b) Quartiles c) Both (a) & (b) d) None

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No.1 for CA/CWA & MEC/CEC M a s t e r M i n d s 49. Histogram is used for finding _____

a) Mean b) Median c) Mode d) None

50. The primary rules that should be observed in classification1) as far as possible the class should be of equal length2) The classes should be exhaustive3) The classes should be in ambiguously defined

a) 1 & 2 b) 2 & 3 c) 1 & 3 d) 1, 2 & 3

Measures of Central Tendency

51. The mean of 100 observations is 110, the mean of 50 observations 125, the mean of other 50 observationsis _____a) 105 b) 110 c) 115 d) none

52. The H.M. ofn

1.........,

3

1,

2

1,1 is

a)1n

2

+b)

2

1n +c)

1n

1

+d) none

Correlation

53. If the correlation between x & 2y is r then correlation between u and v where2

7yv,

10

5xu

=

= is

a) r b) r c) Both (a) & (b) d) None of these

54. If P is correlation coefficient is then 2P is :a) Coefficient of determination b) Coefficient of non-determinationc) Coefficient of Alienation d) None

Regression

55. If 8y3x2and,5y2x =+=+ are two regression lines then regression line y on x isa) x + 2y -5 =0 b) 2x + 3y -8 =0 c) Any of these d) None of these

56. ____ of regression coefficients is greater than or equal correlation coefficienta) A.M. b) G.M. c) H.M. d) None

Index Numbers

57. Consumer price index number is also known as ____a) Simple Index Number b) Cost of living Index Numberc) Base Shifting d) None of these

58. Given Paasches Index Number 150 and Dorbish and Bowleys Index Number 145 then the fishersIdeal Index Number is _____a) 175.91 b) 160.44 c) 144.91 d) None

Probability

59. Find the sum of 2 dice (x

7) when 2 dice are thrown simultaneously.

a)12

5 b)

12

7c)

15

11d)

8

3

60. If2

1)BA(P,

5

2)B(P,

4

1)A(P === )BA(P

a)2

1b)

3

1c)

4

1d) None

61. In a pack of playing cards with joker then getting spade king ____

a)52

4b)

13

4 c)

52

1d)

54

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No.1 for CA/CWA & MEC/CEC M a s t e r M i n d s Theoretical Distributions

62. Variance of Standard Normal Distribution is ___

a) 1 b) c) 2 d) 0

63. E (13 x + 9)

a) 13 b) 9 c) 13 E(x) +9 d) 0

64. For a P.D. P(x=3) = 5, P(x=5) then S.D.

a) 4 b) 2 c) 16 d) 2

65. In B.D. n=9, p =3

1. What is value of 2

a) 8 b) 4 c) 2 d) 6

Sampling

66. Other than sampling errors are ____

a) Enumeration error b) Formula error c) Human error d) Non sampling error

67. The selection of each element have equal probability in type of sampling ___a) Random sampling b) Stratified sampling c) Systematic sampling d) None of the above

68. Standard Deviation of sample is ___a) Sample b) Stratified Sampling c) Standard Error d) None of these

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No.1 for CA/CWA & MEC/CEC M a s t e r M i n d s Part A ECONOMICS

1. B 2. C 3. D 4. A 5. C

6. B 7. D 8. B 9. B 10. C

11. C 12. C 13. D 14. D 15. A

16. C 17. B 18. B 19. A 20. B

21. D 22. B 23. B 24. B 25. B

26. A 27. B 28. B 29. B

Part B - QUANTITATIVE TECHNIQUES

30. A 31. C 32. C 33. D 34. C

35. C 36. D 37. C 38. A 39. D

40. B 41. B 42. C 43. B 44. A

45. A 46. A 47. C 48. C 49. C

50. D 51. D 52. A 53. B 54. A

55. A 56. A 57. B 58. C 59. B

60. A 61. C 62. A 63. C 64. B

65. D 66. D 67. A 68. C 69.