CPA-PCB- XI Moving - Medical -Sample Paper Final 6 11...

Sample Paper-Medical- (XI Moving) 1

C.P.A. TEST SAMPLE PC.P.A. TEST SAMPLE PC.P.A. TEST SAMPLE PC.P.A. TEST SAMPLE PAPERAPERAPERAPER ((((MEDICALMEDICALMEDICALMEDICAL ENTRANCE)ENTRANCE)ENTRANCE)ENTRANCE) (XI MOVING)(XI MOVING)(XI MOVING)(XI MOVING)

Time : 3 hrs. Maximum Marks : 720

NOTE: There are 45 questions in this part.

CHOOSE THE SINGLE CORRECT OPTION:

1. A person sitting in a chair in a satellite feels weightlessness because

(A) the earth does not attracts the object in a satellite

(B) the person in satellite in not accelerated

(C) the normal force by the chair on the person in zero

(D) the normal force by the chair on the person balances the earths attraction.

2. Maximum value of friction is

(A) limiting friction (B) unlimited friction (C) infinity (D) none of above

3. A passenger John is sitting in a moving car, as per an observer outside car, he is

(A) accelerated (B) at rest (C) at motion (D) can’t say

4. To pass maximum current, ideal galvanometer should have

(A) high resistance (B) moderate resistance (C) very low resistance (D) high potential

5. In electrolyte current is produced due to flow of

(A) positive charges (B) negative charges

(C) both positive negative charges (D) no charges

6. An object is placed in front of a spherical mirror whose 2 times magnified image is formed on

screen. Then choose correct option

(A) mirror is concave = +M 2 (B) mirror in concave = −M 2

(C) mirror is convex = +M 2 (D) mirror is convex = −M 2

7. Consider the following statements

House hold electrical appliances are not usually connected in series

(i) power consumption would be very much greater

(ii) switching off an appliance would switch off the rest

(iii) the appliances may not work to their full capacity

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

(A) (i) only (B) (ii) only (C) (iii) only (D) (ii) and (iii)

PART : A (45 × 4 = 180 Marks) (4R – 1W)

PHYSICS

NOTE: 1. There are 3 part (1) Physics - 45 Q. (2) Chemistry - 45 Q. (3) Biology - 90 Q. 2. There are four options for each question; however only one is correct answer. 3. There is negative marking scheme (4R-1W) which means that for correct answer 4 marks will

be awarded & for wrong answer 1 mark will be deducted. No mark will be deducted for unanswered question.

4. Use Black Ball point pen only. 5. Darken only one bubble completely, corresponding to the correct option. 6. Do not cancel the filled bubble or darken more than one bubble. It will be treated as wrong answer. 7. You may do rough work on the given space.


8. Consider the following

The simple pendulums with masses of the balls 1M and 2M ( 1M & 2M ) are swing in vacum then

I. both will continue to swing forever.

II. pendulum with ball of mass 1M will stop first

III. pendulum with string of larger length will stop later

Which of these statements is/are correct?

(A) I only (B) II only (C) III only (D) II and III

9. A planet of solar system has mass four times and diameter twice than those of earth. The value

of g on this planet is

(A) −24.9ms (B) −29.8ms (C) −219.6ms (D) −239.2ms

10. Match list I (scientist) with list – II (phenomenon) and select the correct answer using the codes

given below the lists

List – I List – II

P. Gilbert 1. force between charges

Q. Coulomb 2. electromagnetic theory

R. Oersted 3. properties of magnet

S. Maxwell 4. effects of electricity on magnet

(A) P → 2, Q → 4, R → 1, S → 3 (B) P → 4, Q → 2, R → 1, S → 3

(C) P → 3, Q → 4, R → 1, S → 2 (D) P → 3, Q → 1, R → 4, S → 2

11. The momentum on an object at a given instant is independent of its

(A) inertia (B) speed (C) velocity (D) acceleration

12. Which of the following is carried by waves from one place to another

(A) mass (B) velocity (C) wavelength (D) energy

13. Five bulbs each rated as 200V-100W burnt for 4 hours. What is the cost of electricity consumed if

the rate is 50 paise per unit?

(A) 1 Rupee (B) 2 Rupees (C) 3 Rupees (D) 8 Rupees

14. A large magnet is broken into two pieces. If lengths of 2 pieces are in ratio 3:4. What is the ratio

of their pole strength?

(A) 3:4 (B) 4:3 (C) 1:1 (D) 3:2

15. In the human eye, the focusing in done by

(A) to and fro movement of the eye lens

(B) to and fro movement of the retina

(C) change in the convexity of the eye lens

(D) change in the refractive index of eye fluids.

16. Which one of the following statements is correct?

A slab of ice kept in a room

(A) does not radiate heat

(B) absorbs heat from the surrounding

(C) radiates heat but absorbs more heat from the surrounding

(D) radiates heat more than that absorbed by it from the surrounding



I. Atom bomb is based upon the principal of uncontrolled nuclear fusion

II. Hydrogen bomb is based upon the principle of uncontrolled nuclear fission.

III. Nuclear reactor is based upon the principle of controlled nuclear fission.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(A) III only (B) I and II (C) II and III (D) I, II and III

18. A Motorcycle, a car and a bus all have the same kinetic energy. If equal braking forces are

applied to them, they come to a halt after travelling x, y & z units of distance respectively which

one of the following is correct?

(A) x <y<z

(B) x >y>z

(C) x =y=z

(D) relationship between x, y & z cannot be determined on the basis of given data

19. Which of the following does not affect the motion of a moving electron?

(A) electric field applied in the direction of motion

(B) magnetic field applied in the direction of motion

(C) electric field applied perpendicular to the direction of motion

(D) magnetic field applied perpendicular to the direction of motion

20. Which of the following nuclei undergo fission when struck by thermal neutrons?

I. Uranium II. aluminium III. barium

Select the correct answer using the given codes

(A) I and II only (B) II and III only

(C) only I (D) I, II and III

21. Which of the following is the incorrect statement?

A full uniform magnetic field is produced?

I. inside a solenoid II. inside a bar magnet

III. inside a horse shoe magnet IV. inside a cylindrical conductor

(A) only III (B) I and II (C) III and IV (D) only IV

22. What would be the power of an engine which supplies 18 KJ of energy per minute?

(A) 200W (B) 250W (C) 300W (D) 1080W

23. When an electric bulb breaks, what is the reason for a mild bang?

(A) a chemical reaction between the enclosed gases

(B) compressed gases rush out suddenly

(C) the air rushes in to fill the evacuated space

(D) none of these

24. Lightning is formed, when

(A) similar charges of electricity rush towards each other and then get repelled

(B) clouds strikes against impurities in air and the friction burns up these impurities

(C) strong opposite charges in clouds break down the resistance offered by intervening air

(D) water vapour produces electricity in the clouds


25. When light waves travels from air to glass which variables are affected?

(A) wavelength (B) velocity

(C) wavelength and velocity (D) none of these

26. A bullet travelling horizontally hits a block kept at rest a horizontal surface and gets embedded

into it, the two together then move with a uniform velocity, which one of the following conservation

laws holds

(A) conservation of angular momentum (B) conservation of kinetic energy

(C) conservation of linear momentum (D) conservation of velocity

27. A negatively charged glass rod has always

(A) more protons than electrons (B) less neutrons than proton

(C) more electron than protons (D) can't say


If the same note is played on a flute and a sitar, one can still distinguish between them because

they differ in

I. frequency II. Intensity III. quality

Which of these correct statement (s) is (are)

(A) I and II only (B) III only (C) II and III only (D) II only

29. A proton and an electron having equal velocity are allowed to pass through a uniform magnetic

field. Which one of the following statements is correct in this connection?

(A) the proton and the electron experience equal and opposite force

(B) the proton experiences greater force than does the electron.

(C) the electron experiences more force than does the proton

(D) no moving charged particle experiences a force in a magnetic field

30. How much heat is required to raise the temperature of 150 g of iron from 20°C to 25°C

(specific heat of iron = 480J − −°

1 1Kg C )

(A) 90J (B) 360 J (C) 180 J (D) 720 J

31. Which of the following is used to remove short sightedness for a human eye?

(A) concave lens (B) convex lens (C) cylindrical lens (D) prismatic lens

32. Which one of the following remains constant while throwing a ball upward?

(A) displacement (B) kinetic energy (C) acceleration (D) velocity


The principle of total internal reflection is applicable to explain the

I. formation of mirage in desert

II. formation of image in microscope

III. colour of evening sky

IV. operation of optical fibres

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(A) I and IV (B) III and IV (C) II and III (D) I and II

34. Propagation of light quanta may be described by

(A) protons (B) photons (C) neutrons (D) electrons


35. The resistance of wire that must be place parallel with a Ω12 resistance to obtain a combined

resistance of Ω4 is

(A) 2 Ω (B) 4 Ω (C) 6 Ω (D) 8 Ω

36. In lead acid battery the electrolyte used is

(A) an electrolyte of NaOH (B) sulphuric acid

(C) lead nitrate (D) lead oxide

37. Sensation of sound persists in our brain for about

(A) 0.001S (B) 0.2S (C) 0.1S (D) 10S

38. People use silent whistle to call dogs whose frequency lies between

(A) 15,000Hz to 18,000Hz (B) 20,000Hz to 25,000Hz

(C) 10,000Hz to 15,000Hz (D) none of these

39. Part of human eye which is sensitive to red, blue and green light is

(A) retina (B) lens (C) cornea (D) choroid

40. A fresh egg sinks in pure water whereas it floats in saturated salty water. This is due to

(A) the fluid matter inside the egg-shell

(B) higher density of the pure water

(C) higher density of the salty water

(D) the fact that the egg-shell is made of calcium which is heavier than pure water

41. A body moves along the circumference of a circular track of radius R what is displacement of the

body when it covers ¾th of its circumference

(A) 3 R (B) 3πR

4 (C)

3πR

2 (D) 2R

42. You’re riding a bike when suddenly you hit a large rock. The bike stops moving but you fly over

the handle bars. This is an example of

(A) Newton’s first law of motion (B) Newton’s third law of motion

(C) law of conservation of momentum (D) Newton’s second law of motion

43. A net force F is required to give an object with mass ‘M’ an acceleration ‘a’. If a net force 6F is

applied to an object with mass 2M, what is the acceleration on this object?

(A) a (B) 3a (C) 6a (D) 2a

44. With one exception, each of the following units can be used to express force. What is the

exception?

(A) Newton (B) pascal (C) ⋅2Kg m/s (D) dyne

45. A coin flicked across a table will stop because

(A) it is heavy (B) no force is acting on it

(C) earth attacks the coin (D) table exerts a frictional force

P R O

Q

R




46. Salt of strong acid and weak base have pH value –

(A) less than 7 (B) more than 7 (C) only 7 (D) only 14

47. The correct arrangement of increasing order of atomic radius among Na,K,Mg,Rb is

(A) Mg<K<Na<Rb (B) Mg<Na<K<Rb (C) Mg<Na<Rb<K (D) Na<K<Rb<Mg

48. A what type of oxide would eka-aluminium (gallium from)?

(A) 3GaO (B) 3 2Ga O (C) 2 3Ga O (D) GaO

49. In the following structural formulae one IUPAC name is incorrect Identify it.

(A) − − −

|

3 2 3

O

CH CH C CH Butanone

(B) − − =

|

3 2

H

CH CH C O Propanal

(C) − − −

||

3 2

O

CH CH C OH Ethanoic acid

(D) − − − −3 2 2 2CH CH CH CH OH Butanol

50. Hard water does not easily produce lather with soap because it contain

(A) only +2Mg ion (B) only +2Ca ion

(C) both +2Mg and +2Ca ions (D) both +Na and +K ions

51. The hottest part of bunsen burner is

(A) blue zone (B) zone of complete combustion

(C) zone of partial combustion (D) all parts of the flame are equal

52. The rmo setting plastic is

(A) Polyethene (B) PVC (C) Bakelite (D) Polypropene

53. Total number of atom in 44 g of 2CO is

(A) ×236.02 10 (B) ×

246.02 10 (C) ×241.806 10 (D) ×

2218.06 10

54. How many number of proton and electron are present in +2Ca .

(A) 20 protons; 20 electrons (B) 20 protons; 22 electrons

(C) 18 protons; 18 electrons (D) 20 protons; 18 electrons

55. Which of the following elements does not form isotope?

(A) Carbon (B) Neon (C) Chlorine (D) Iodine

56. Electron was discovered by

(A) J.J Thomson (B) Chadwick (C) E. Goldstein (D) Rutherford

57. Which is not a step of metallurgy?

(A) Reduction (B) Roasting (C) Corrosion (D) concentration of ore

58. Stainless steel contains

(A) Fe,Ni,Cr (B) Fe, Ni, Sn (C) Fe, C, S (D) Fe, P, Cr

PART : B (45 × 4 = 180 Marks) (4R – 1W)

CHEMISTRY


59. Which of following set of element is written in order of their increasing metallic character?

(A) Mg, Al, Si (B) C, O, N (C) Na, Li, K (D) Be, Mg, Ca

60. The technique by which gold and silver are refined is

(A) Electrolytic refining (B) Vacuum melting

(C) Liquation Process (D) Zone refining

61. Which metal is a constituent of hemoglobin

(A) Zn (B) Ca (C) Fe (D) Co

62. Ammonium chloride is a salt of

(A) weak acid and weak base (B) weak acid and strong base

(C) strong acid and strong base (D) strong acid and weak base

63. In the reaction, + → +2 2 22H S SO 3S 2H O

(A) 2H Shas been oxidized (B) 2SO has been oxidized

(C) 2H Sis the oxidizing agent (D) 2SO is the reducing agent

64. Which of the following is having maximum double bonds?

(A) Propanone (B) Benzene (C) Propene (D) Propanol

65. Property of self-combination of atom of the same element to form long chains is known as

(A) Protonation (B) Carbonation (C) Conjugation (D) Catenation

66. The allotrope of carbon in amorphous form among the following is

(A) diamond (B) graphite

(C) buckminster fullerene (D) coal

67. Which of the following element exhibit variable valency?

(A) normal element (B) typical element

(C) transitional element (D) none of these

68. Which of the following is a compound?

(A) iron (B) washing soda

(C) air (D) mercury

69. Physical state of water at 298 K temperature is

(A) gaseous (B) solid (C) liquid (D) plasma

70. Which type of charge resides over the surface area of micelle formed by soap molecule

(A) +ve (B) –ve (C) no charge (D) both +ve and –ve

71. Which one of the following reaction is not possible?

(A) + → +2 4 4 2Ca H SO CaSO H (B) + → +2 4 4 2Cu H SO CuSO H

(C) + → +2 4 4 2Zn H SO ZnSO H (D) + → +2 4 4 2Mg H SO MgSO H

72. What is the formula of ferric oxide?

(A) FeO (B) 2 3Fe O (C) 3 4Fe O (D) 2Fe O

73. Place of gold in modern periodic table is

(A) s-block (B) p-block (C) d-block (D) f-block

74. Dueterium and tritium are isotopes of

(A) nitrogen (B) oxygen (C) hydrogen (D) helium

75. If the aluminium salt of anion ‘X’ is 2 3Al X the formula of magnesium salt of ‘X’ will be

(A) 2Mg X (B) 2MgX (C) MgX (D) 2 3Mg X


76. Chemical formula of limestone is

(A) 2Ca(OH) (B) 3CaCO (C) 2CaCl (D) 4CCl

77. Which of the following is treated with chlorine to obtain bleaching powder?

(A) 4CaSO (B) 2Ca(OH) (C) 2Mg(OH) (D) KOH

78. How much gram of NaOH will be required to prepare 100ml 2M NaOH solution.

(A) 40 gm (B) 8 gm (C) 16 gm (D) 24 gm

79. The functional group present in ethanol and methanoic acid is

(A) COOH,OH (B) OH,COOH (C) CHO,COOH (D) −3 3CH CH

80. How many covalent bonds are present in pentane?

(A) 8 (B) 10 (C) 16 (D) 14

81. Which of the following pairs of atomic number represent elements belonging to the same group?

(a)11 and 20 (B) 12 and 30 (C) 13 and 31 (D) 14 and 33

82. Renewable source of energy is

(A) coal (b)petroleum (C) natural gas (D) energy of flowing water

83. The main component of biogas is

(A) methane (B) benzene (C) eythylene (D) ethane

84. Which of the following is a natural polymer

(A) cellulose (B) Teflon (C) nylon (D) terylene

85. Reaction between X and Y form compound Z, X loses electrons and Y gains electron. Which of

the following properties is not shown by Z?

(A) has high melting point (B) has low melting point

(C) conduct electricity in molten state (D) occurs as solid

86. Solution is

(A) homogenous (B) heterogeneous (C) colloidal (D) all of these

87. The atomic number of Mg is 12. The number of electrons in its M shell will be

(A) eight (B) ten (C) two (D) zero

88. Graphite is very soft as compared to other allotropes of carbon because

(A) carbon atoms are arranged in such a way that they form flint layers

(B) carbon atoms are 2SP hybridised

(C) linkage between atoms within a layer of graphite are weak.

(D) linkage between atoms of various layers are weak.

89. Which of the following is covalent compound?

(A) NaCl (B) 3AlCl

(C) 2MgCl (D) 4CCl

90. Loss of electron or an increase in the oxidation state of an atom by another atom is called

(A) redox (B) oxidation

(C) reduction (D) none of these




91. Which of the following is not a method of in situ conservation of biodiversity?

(A) biosphere reserve (B) wildlife sanctuary (C) botanical garden (D) sacred grove

92. Match the following organism with the products they produce

Column – I Column – II

(a) Lactobacillus (i) cheese

(b) Saccharomyces cerevisiae (ii) citric acid

(c) Aspergilus niger (Iii) citric acid

(d) Acetobacter aceti (iv) Bread

(v) acetic acid

(A) (a) → (ii), (b) → (iv), (c) → (v), (d) → (iii) ;

(B) (a) → (ii), (b) → (iv), (c) → (iii), (d) → (v) ;

(C) (a) → (iii), (b) → (iv), (c) → (v), (d) → (i) ;

(D) (a) → (ii), (b) → (i), (c) → (iii), (d) → (v) ;

93. The two arms of a metacentric chromosome are referred to as

(A) s-arm and l-arm (B) p-arm and q-arm (C) q-arm and p-arm (D) m-arm and n-arm

94. Pine and Deodar are the examples of

(A) gymnosperms (B) pteridophyta (C) thallophyta (D) bryophyta

95. Which enzyme is most abundantly found on earth?

(A) rubisco (B) nitrogenase (C) invertase (D) catalase

96. Which of the following would not limit photosynthesis?

(A) oxygen (B) carbon dioxide (C) light (D) chlorophyll

97. Which of the following protocols did aim for reducing emission of chloro fluro carbon ( sCFC ) into

atmosphere?

(A) Montreal protocol (B) Kyoto protocol

(C) Gothenburg protocol (D) Geneva protocol

98. Largest gland in human body is

(A) liver (B) pancreas (C) pituitary (D) thyroid

99. An enzyme which can only act in acidic medium

(A) pepsin (B) trypsin (C) renin (D) amylase

100. Protein catalysts of chemical reaction in biological system is

(A) hormones (B) vitamins

(C) enzymes (D) both hormones and enzymes

101. Tattooing is a permanent colouration of the skin in which a foreign pigment is deposited with a

needle into the

(A) epidermis (B) dermis (C) hypodermis (D) connective tissue

PART : C (90 × 4 = 360 Marks) (4R – 1W)

BIOLOGY


102. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

(A) water and inorganic salts are taken simultaneously by root hairs

(B) plants take in small quantity of mineral salts through soil water

(C) roots are the main absorbing organs of plants

(D) plants absorb only one thing at a time water or inorganic salts.

103. Which of the following insects have two pairs of wings and jointed appendages?

(A) arthropoda (B) annelid (C) mollusca (D) porifera

104. The vacuolar membrane is called

(A) plasmalemma (B) tonoplast (C) chromoplast (D) tonotaxis

105. Name the hormone that runs our biological clock

(A) oxytocin (B) thyroxine (C) melatonin (D) prolactin

106. Liver secretes ______

(A) pancreatic juice (B) bile juice (C) gastric juice (D) various digestive juice

107. An inverted pyramid of biomass is expected for

(A) tropical rainforest (B) grassland (C) open ocean (D) dessert

108. After complete exhalation the lungs of a healthy man contain a litre of gas. This quantity is known as

(A) residual volume (B) functional residual capacity

(C) total lung capacity (D) dead space

109. The protein present in blood and necessary for developing immunity to diseases are

(A) albumins and globulins (B) antibiotics

(C) globulins only (D) albumins

110. On an average climax ecosystem has more organic matter in the form of

(A) primary producers (B) consumers

(C) decomposers (D) dead organic biomass of all the above

111. Mountain sickness results due to

(A) arterial hyporexia (B) arterial hypoxia

(C) lack of sufficient RBC’s (D) lack of sufficient WBC’s

112. Corolloid roots help the plants

(A) absorb water more efficiently (B) absorb and fix nitrogen

(C) anchorage to soil (D) respiration

113. Central sugarcane breeding research institute is situated in

(A) Dehradun (B) Lucknow (C) Kolkata (D) Shimla

114. Which of the followings is an amino acid derived hormone?

(A) estradiol (B) ecdysone (C) epinephrine (D) estriol

115. In plant cell O. P (Osmotic pressure) is equal to

(A) diffusion pressure deficit – turgor pressure

(B) diffusion pressure deficit + diffusion pressure deficit

(C) turgor pressure – diffusion pressure deficit

(D) turgor pressure – diffusion pressure

116. The blood pigment of mammals is

(A) haemocyanin (B) haematin (C) cyanin (D) haemoglobin


117.


(a) Thyroxine (i) to prepare the body for an emergency situation

(b) Insulin (ii) it controls the reabsorption of water

(c) Antidiuretic hormone (Iii) controls basal metabolism

(d) Adrenaline (iv) decreases the blood sugar level

(A) (a) → (i), (b) → (ii), (c) → (iii), (d) → (iv) ;

(B) (a) → (iii), (b) → (i), (c) → (ii), (d) → (iv) ;

(C) (a) → (iii), (b) → (iv), (c) → (ii), (d) → (i) ;

(D) (a) → (iv), (b) → (iii), (c) → (i), (d) → (ii) ;

118. Which one of the following statement is true?

(A) in humans there are two pairs of sex chromosome

(B) a child who inherits an X-chromosome from father will be a boy

(C) a child who inherits an Y-chromosome from father will be a girl

(D) a child who inherits an X chromosome from father will be a girl

119. What is diapedesis?

(A) a kind of amoeboid movement

(B) process of coming out of WBCs through the capillary all to fight against foreign micro-

organisms

(C) a type of locomotion found in Hydra

(D) the process of filtration of urea in kidney

120. Which of the following is also called resurrection plant?

(A) Adiantium (B) Dryopteris (C) Selaginella (D) Equisetum

121. Which organ is known as Blood Bank?

(A) heart (B) liver (C) spleen (D) kidney

122. Match the items given in column I with those in column II and select the correct option


(a) glycosuria (i) accumulation of uric acid in joints

(b) gout (ii) mass of crystallized salts within the kidney

(c) renal calculi (Iii) inflammation in glomeruli

(d) glomerular nephritis (iv) presence of glucose in urine

(A) (a) → (ii), (b) → (iii), (c) → (i), (d) → (iv) ;

(B) (a) → (i), (b) → (ii), (c) → (iii), (d) → (iv) ;

(C) (a) → (iii), (b) → (ii), (c) → (iv), (d) → (i) ;

(D) (a) → (iv), (b) → (i), (c) → (ii), (d) → (iii) ;

123. Nissl’s bodies are mainly composed of

(A) nucleic acid and proteins (B) DNA and RNA

(C) proteins and lipids (D) ribosome and RER + mitochondria

124. Which of the following is used for determining the rate of transpiration in plants?

(A) tensiometer (B) auxonometer (C) porometer (D) potometer


125. Muscular partition present between thorax and abdomen is

(A) pericardium (B) pleura (C) epiglottis (D) diaphragm

126. In which of the following groups of animal the heart pumps only deoxygenated blood?

(A) fishes (B) reptile (C) birds (D) amphibians

127. Eustachian tube is present between

(A) inner ear and larynx (B) middle ear and pharynx

(C) outer ear and pharynx (D) middle ear and larynx

128. Nerve impulse initiates with movement of ________ into nerve cell.

(A) +Na (B) ++Ca (C) +K (D) ++Mg

129. AIDS was reported for first time in

(A) USA (B) Nigeria (C) Ghana (D) India

130. Barr body is derived form

(A) autosomes in males (B) autosomes in female

(C) X-chromosome in female (D) X-chromosome in male

131. Tetany is

(A) relaxation of muscles (B) endemic disease

(C) contraction of muscles (D) none of these

132. The following is the scheme showing path of reflex arc. Identify the different labeling P, Q, R, S,

T, U in the reflex arc.

P Q R S T U

(A) stimulus Nerve effectors Nerve sensory motor receptor response

(B) stimulus Nerve receptor sensory motor effectors Nerve response

(C) stimulus Nerve effectors Nerve motor sensory receptor response

(D) stimulus Nerve receptor motor sensory effectors Nerve response

133. The longest bone of the human body is

(A) humerus (B) tibia (C) vertebra (D) femur

134. Name the plant hormone responsible for falling of senescent leaves.

(A) gibberllins (B) auxin (C) cytokinin (D) abscisic acid

135. Which of the following is purely a sensory nerve?

(A) olfactory (B) trigeminal (C) occulomotor (D) facial


136. Famous palaentobotanist in India was

(A) P. Maheshwari (B) S. R. Kashyap (C) B. Sahni (D) B. P. Pal

137. Haversian system is typically found in bones of

(A) fishes (B) aves (C) reptiles (D) mammals

138. Which of the following are secondary metabolites?

P. carbohydrates Q. Tannins R. Proteins S. Gums

T. alkaloids

(A) P, S (B) Q, R (C) P, S, T (D) Q, S, T

139. Silver revolution is related to

(A) egg production (B) milk production

(C) Grain production (D) meat production

140. What type of tissue is located at the area labelled D in the diagram below?

(A) compact bone (B) spongy bone (C) bone marrow (D) cartilage

141. First stable compound in 3C cycle is

(A) phosphoglyceraldehyde (B) phosphoglyceric acid

(C) fructose 1-6 diphosphate (D) glucose 6-phosophate

142. Assertion (A) : The sympathetic nervous system prepares the body to meet any emergency

situation.

Reason (R) : The sympathetic nervous system is stimulated by the hormone oxytocin during

emergency situation

Select the correct option from the given alternatives

(A) both A and R are true and R explain A

(B) both A and R are true but R doesn’t explain A

(C) A is true and R is false

(D) A is false and R is true

143. In which of the following embryonic states does the implantation take place?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

144. Which one is the 1st National Park in India?

(A) Kanha national park (B) Jim Corbett national park

(C) Kaziranga national park (D) Satpura national park

145. Diarrhoea, cholera, typhoid are the disease that have one thing in common that is

(A) all of them are caused by bacteria

(B) all of them are transmitted by contaminated food and water

(C) all of them are cured by antibiotics

(D) all of the above


146. Bacterial cells grown on hydrocarbon wastes from the petroleum industry are a source of

(A) carbohydrate (B) proteins (C) vitamins (D) fats

147. Which of the following product is used for the treatment of blood clots?

(A) insulin (B) interferon (C) urokinase (D) somatostatin

148. Ozone layer is getting depleted because of

(A) excessive use of automobile

(B) excessive formation of industrial units

(C) excessive use of man made compounds containing both fluorine and chlorine

(D) excessive deforestation

149. Liver is damaged by the (i) in the disease (ii)

(A) i -bacteria ii- pneumonia (B) i-bacteria ii – hepatitis

(C) i - virus ii- pneumonia (D) i-virus ii- hepatitis

150. The forelimbs of frog, lizard, bird and man have same evolutionary relationship. They are

(A) missing links (B) arm relationship

(C) analogous organs (D) homologous organs

151. Which ions holds ribosomal units together?

(A) 2+Ca (B) 2+Mn (C) 2+Mg (D) +Na

152. According to sandwich model the correct sequence of palsmalemma is

(A) L-P-P-L (B) P-L-L-P (C) P-P-L-L (D) L-P-L-P

153. Genetic drift operates only in

(A) larger population (B) Mendelian population

(C) island population (D) small population

154. Photosynthetic Active Radiation (PAR) has the following range of wavelengths

(A) 340-450 nm (B) 400-700 nm (C) 500-600 nm (D) 450-950 nm

155. In which one of the following processes 2CO is not released?

(A) Aerobic respiration in plants (B) Aerobic respiration in animals

(C) Alcoholic fermentation (D) Lactate fermentation

156. The initial step in the digestion of milk in humans is carried out by

(A) Lipase (B) Trypsin (C) Rennin (D) Pepsin

157. If the tip of sugarcane plant is removed even then it keeps on growing in length. It is due to the

presence of

(A) cambium (B) apical meristem (C) lateral meristem (D) intercalary meristem.

158. Match the items given in column I with those in column II and select the correct option given

below


(P) tricuspid valve (i) between left atrium and left ventricle

(Q) bicuspid valve (ii) between right ventricle and pulmonary artery

(R) semilunar valve (Iii) between right atrium and right ventricle

(A) (P) → (i), (Q) → (ii), (R) → (iii); (B) (P) → (i), (Q) → (iii), (R) → (ii);

(C) (P) → (iii), (Q) → (i), (R) → (ii); (D) (P) → (ii), (Q) → (i), (R) → (iii);


159. Deplasmolysis is carried out by placing the plasmolysed cell in

(A) saturated solution (B) water (C) isotonic solution (D) hypertonic solution

160. 1F -particle of oxysome is present in

(A) endoplasmic reticulum (B) mitochondria

(C) lysosome (D) ribosome

161. Pollination is a characteristics of

(A) angiosperm (B) pteridophytes (C) bryophytes (D) all of the above

162. The process of exchange of 2O from the atmosphere with 2CO produced by the cells is called

(A) biological respiration (B) photosynthesis

(C) biological assimilations (D) gaseous exchange

163. Tendons and ligaments are types of tissue

(A) muscular tissue (B) epithelial tissue (C) nervous tissue (D) fibrous tissue

164. The presence of homologous structure in two different organisms such as radius and ulna is

forelimbs of a human and bat indicate that

(A) human and bats are prophyletic species

(B) the evolution of human and bat is convergent

(C) human and bats evolved from a common ancestor

(D) human and bats did not evolve from a common ancestor

165. In which of the following plants vegetative reproduction takes place with the help of bulbils

(A) Colocasia (B) Zingiber (C) Agave (D) Vallisneria

166. For a few days after delivery the mammary glands of human females secreate a highly nutritive

fluid which is known as

(A) secretin (B) colostrum (C) rennin (D) serotonin

167. Some bacteria form a viscous layer covering the cell wall. This layer is known as capsule. These

capsules are beneficial to the bacteria because

(i) they attract other bacteria to form colonies

(ii) they enable bacteria to stick to the surface

(iii) capsules contain water which protects the bacteria against dessiacation

(A) i and ii only (B) ii and iii only (C) iii only (D) i, ii and iii

168. Which of the following is a weed killer?

(A) 2-4D (B) NAA (C) ABA (D) 3GA

169. Study of tissue is

(A) cytology (B) pathology (C) tissueology (D) histology

170. Consider the following differences between chordates and non-chordates

Chordates Non-chordates

(i) notochord present (i) notochord absent

(ii) central nervous system is ventral (ii) central nervous system is dorsal

(iii) heart is ventral (iii) heart is dorsal

(iv) RBCs present (iv) RBCs absent

(v) tail absent (v) tail present

How many correct differences are listed in the table?

(A) 4 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 1


171. Chlorophyll contains_________

(A) potassium (B) iron (C) manganese (D) magnesium

172. In protein synthesis the polymerization of amino acids involves three steps. Which one of the

following is not involved in the polymerization of protein?

(A) termination (B) initiation (C) elongation (D) transcription

173. What is vernalization ?

(A) growth curve in respons to light

(B) recurrence of day and night

(C) effect of day length on plant growth

(D) acceleration of the ability to flower by low temperature treatment.

174. Knee joint is an example for

(A) ball and socket joint (B) hinge joint (C) pivot joint (D) gliding joint

175. Match the following columns and select the correct option from the codes given below

Column A Column B

(P) cattle used for tilling and carting (i) milch

(Q) Aseel (ii) broiler

(R) sahiwal, red sindhi (iii) draught

(S) Milk producing (iv) indigenous breed of cattle

(T) Chicken better fed for obtaining meat (v) indigenous breed of chicken

(A) (P) → (iii), (Q) → (v), (R) → (iv), (S) → (i), (T) → (ii) ;

(B) (P) → (ii), (Q) → (iv), (R) → (v), (S) → (iii), (T) → (i) ;

(C) (P) → (i), (Q) → (v), (R) → (iv), (S) → (ii), (T) → (iii) ;

(D) (P) → (iii), (Q) → (ii), (R) → (v), (S) → (iv), (T) → (i) ;

176. Long loop of Henle correlate with

(A) more concentrated urine (B) more dilute urine

(C) urine hypotonic to blood (D) urine isotonic to the blood

177. Geetha is unable to walk in straight line. Which part of the brain is affected?

(A) cerebrum (B) cerebellum (C) medulla oblongata (D) hypothalamus

178. Assertion A: AIDS is a syndrome which results from primary immunodeficiency.

Reason R: AIDS is transmitted thought being in contact with urine, tears, saliva, breast milk and

vaginal secretions of infected individuals.

Select the correct option from the given alternatives.

(A) both A and R are true but R explain A

(B) both A and R are true but R doesn’t explain A

(C) A is true and R is false

(D) A is false and R is true

179. Identify the mismatched pair

(A) fragmentation – Algae, Fungi (B) fission – Earthworm

(C) regeneration – Planaria (D) budding – Yeast

180. Mendel is popular for postulating?

(A) origin of species (B) cell theory (C) linkage theory (D) laws of inheritance


Answers Key:

CPA-PCB- XI Moving - Medical -Sample Paper Final 6 11...

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