Chapter-1: Organizational Development Self...
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Chapter-1: Organizational Development Self Assessment Questions 1. Organizational development as an intervention programmed is basically a …………… approach. a. top-to-bottom b. horizontal c. bottom-to-top d. None of these 2. A scientific approach to study and then solving organizational issues experienced by an organization is called …………….. a. action research b. applied research c. pure research d. None of these 3. Which one of the following is not a stakeholder in an organizational development process? a. Customers b. Suppliers c. Government agencies d. None of these 4. Which of the following methods is adopted when there is a high uncertainty in the external environment? a. Contingency approach b. System design approach c. Data-driven approach d. None of these
Transcript of Chapter-1: Organizational Development Self...
Chapter-1: Organizational Development
Self Assessment Questions
1. Organizational development as an intervention programmed is basically a
…………… approach.
a. top-to-bottom
b. horizontal
c. bottom-to-top
d. None of these
2. A scientific approach to study and then solving organizational issues experienced by
an organization is called ……………..
a. action research
b. applied research
c. pure research
d. None of these
3. Which one of the following is not a stakeholder in an organizational development
process?
a. Customers
b. Suppliers
c. Government agencies
d. None of these
4. Which of the following methods is adopted when there is a high uncertainty in the
external environment?
a. Contingency approach
b. System design approach
c. Data-driven approach
d. None of these
5. Which of the following is not an organizational development intervention
programmed?
a. Team-building
b. Survey feedback
c. Leadership development
d. All of these
6. According to Patching ………………… is organization development.
a. Business strategy
b. Management development
c. Participative management
d. Strategic thinking
7. A number of approaches may be used to bring about effective change within an
organization, often called intervention strategies, these include:
a. T-groups
b. grid training
c. team building
d. all of these
8. A definition of organizational culture is that it is “the collection of ………………. and
attitudes that constitute a pervasive context for everything we think and do in an
organization”.
a. Traditions, values, policies, beliefs
b. Traditions, values
c. Policies, practices, behaviors
d. Values, styles, processes, activities
9. Schein suggested three levels of culture in order from shallowest to deepest. In this
order, they are:
a. Assumptions, artifacts, values
b. History, artifacts, beliefs
c. Artefacts values, assumptions
d. History, values, activities
10. Organizational development (OD) focuses on aspects of organizational life,
including culture, values, systems, and behavior.
a. True
b. False
11. Leaders and OD practitioners use the knowledge of organization development
theory and practice to plan and implement effective change programs in their
organizations.
a. True
b. False
12. The pervasive nature of culture means that it will significantly affect:
a. motivation and job satisfaction
b. group behavior
c. decision-making
d. all of these
13. The Peters and Waterman study revealed that there was a particular factor that led
to these organizations effectiveness. What was that factor?
a. Being a large multinational organization
b. Being decentralized and organic
c. Having a clear and rigidly defined organizational structure
d. Dominance and coherence of culture
14. Organizational climate is based on the …………….. of members towards the
organization.
a. perceptions
b. loyalty
c. commitment
d. none of the above
15. Organization Development efforts are mainly initiated when a top management
person feels the need.
a. True
b. False
16. Resistance to change can be caused by:
a. Selective perception
b. Habit
c. Inconvenience
d. All of these
17. It is Cunningham’s belief that, despite the popular myth to the contrary, people
generally
a. Dislike change
b. Love change
c. Prefer stability
d. Like being controlled
18. The consultant initiates discussions for ascertaining what the client would like to
change in his organization and what help is required from the consultant.
a. True
b. False
19. Emotions which can cause a negative attitude and resistance to change include:
a. Frustration
b. Over-excitement
c. Both of these
d. Neither of these
20. Problem-solving teams or task forces are formed when a problem arises that cannot
be solved within the standard organizational structure.
a. True
b. False
Answers for Self Assessment Questions
1. (a) 2.(a) 3.(d) 4.(a) 5.(d)
6. (b) 7.(a) 8.(a) 9.(c) 10.(a)
11. (a) 12.(d) 13.(d) 14.(a) 15.(a)
16. (d) 17. (b) 18. (a) 19. (a) 20. (a)
Chapter-2: Organization Interventions
Self Assessment Questions
1. The sets of structured/planned activities adopted by groups or individuals in an
organization as a part of the organization development program are known as OD
techniques or OD interventions.
a. True
b. False
2. The OD integrates a collection of planned change interventions that relies on
………..……… , aimed at improving organizational effectiveness, and employees’ well
being.
a. humanistic and economic values
b. economic and democratic values
c. humanistic and democratic values
d. None of these
3. Techno structural interventions focus on improving the organizational effectiveness
and ………….. by focusing on technology and structure.
a. Management development
b. Business development
c. human development
d. None of these
4. Individual/interpersonal process interventions aim at improving organizational
performance by developing specific ……………. of individuals.
a. Skills
b. Selection
c. Task
d. All of these
5. Collegiate Project Services’ facilitators are highly experienced in helping to improve
the effectiveness of project teams in ……………………. ERP projects.
a. lower education
b. higher education
c. Both a and b
d. None of these
6. Large scale interventions typically involve a full size group of ,working
toward the definition of a future state.
a. Stakeholders
b. Customer
c. Vender
d. None of these
7. “Link the internal functioning of the organization to the…………..; transforming the
organization to keep pace with changing conditions”.
a. Business environment
b. larger environment
c. Both a and b
d. None of these
8. These interventions are rooted in the fields of engineering, ……………………….,
combined with socio technical systems and job analysis and design.
a. Sociology
b. Psychology
c. Both a and b
d. None of these
9. The OD interventions are initiated at the ……………. and require employee
participation and commitment, therefore, visionary leaders that work as change agents,
developing a vision, and providing continuous and sustained support is paramount.
a. Top
b. Bottom
c. Both a and b
d. None of these
10. In personality based teambuilding, members of the team fill out a personality
questionnaire and then learn about their own personalities and the personalities of their
fellow team members.
a. True
b. False
11. The exercises are built around specific needs of teams and include
a. group problem solving
b. risk taking
c. trust or paradigm breaking
d. All of these
12. ……………………… are used to directly create change throughout an entire
organization, rather than focusing on organizational change through subgroup
interventions.
a. Difficult interventions
b. Monitoring interventions
c. Comprehensive interventions
d. None of these
13. Structural change interventions are used by OD change agents to implement
organizational alterations related to departmentalization
a. management hierarchy
b. work policies
c. compensation and benefit incentives programs
d. All of these
14. Sociotechnical system design interventions are similar to structural change
techniques, but they typically emphasize the reorganization of work teams.
a. True
b. False
15. This administration may include such aspects as monitoring quality or disciplining
team members.
a. True
b. False
16. ……….. potentially includes everything involved with the quality of the business or
the organization.
a. Market development
b. Business development
c. Both a and b
d. None of these
17. Organization development is directed at bringing about planned change
………………….. an organization’s effectiveness.
a. to increase and decrease
b. to increase
c. to decrease
d. None of these
18. Organizations can use planned change to solve problems, to learn from experience,
to reframe shared perceptions, to adapt to external environmental changes, to improve
performance, and to influence future changes.
a. True
b. False
19. On the individual level, we would expect to see changes in actual organizational
structures, reporting relationships, and reward systems that affect the way people do
their work.
a. True
b. False
20. In a large organization, one or more key consultants can be retained in an ongoing
relationship, but with …………………...
a. high frequent use
b. less frequent use
c. Both a and b
d. None of these
Answers for Self Assessment Questions
1. (c) 2.(c) 3.(c) 4.(a) 5.(b)
6. (a) 7.(b) 8.(c) 9.(c) 10.(a)
11. (d) 12.(c) 13.(d) 14.(a) 15.(a)
16. (b) 17. (b) 18. (a) 19. (a) 20. (b)
Chapter-3: Managing the Organization Development Process
Self Assessment Questions
1. Organization development activities intervene in the interactions of your people
systems such as………………. , work culture and climate, and organization design to
increase their effectiveness using a variety of applied behavioral sciences.
a. formal
b. informal groups
c. Both a and b
d. None of these
2. Action Research is a process which serves as a model for most ………………
interventions.
a. TQM
b. SC
c. OD
d. None of these
3. In this step, we identify critical success factors and the real issues, link into the
organization’s culture and processes, and clarify roles for the consultant(s) and
employees.
a. Entry
b. Start-up and contracting
c. Assessment and diagnosis
d. None of these
4. Successful OD must have made meaningful changes in the performance and
efficiency of the people and their organization.
a. Entry
b. Start-up and contracting
c. Assessment and diagnosis
d. Evaluation
5. The meaning of ‘search’ as per Advanced Learner’s Dictionary of Current English is
not “a careful investigation or inquiry specially to search for new facts in any branch of
knowledge”.
a. True
b. False
6. Research is not a systematic attempt to obtain answers to meaningful questions about
phenomena or events through the application of scientific procedures.
a. True
b. False
7. Research uses impartial empirical and …………………… which leads to the
development of generalizations, laws, principles or theories.
a. physical analysis
b. logical analysis
c. business analysis
d. None of these
8. Research involves gathering new data from primary or first-hand sources or using
existing data for a new purpose.
a. True
b. False
9. Action research is known by many other names, including
a. participatory research
b. collaborative inquiry
c. emancipator research
d. All of these
10. The principle of ………………… presupposes that each person’s ideas are equally
significant as potential resources for creating interpretive categories of analysis,
negotiated among the participants.
a. collaborative resource
b. Risk resource
c. Dialectical critique resource
d. All of these
11. The researcher identifies the problem and a specific intervention, then the
practitioner is involved and they agree to facilitate with the implementation of the
intervention.
a. True
b. False
12. …………….“promotes emancipator praxis in the participating practitioners; that is,
it promotes a critical consciousness which exhibits itself in political as well as practical
action to promote change.”
a. Action Research
b. Emancipator action research
c. Both a and b
d. None of these
13. ………………………. typically involves creating spaces in which participants engage
together in cycles of action and critical reflection.
a. Action Research
b. Emancipator action research
c. Both a and b
d. None of these
14. A co-operative inquiry group consists of people who share a common concern for
developing understanding and practice in a specific personal, professional or social
arena.
a. True
b. False
15. Action research is not increasingly linking with contemporary movements in a range
of artistic practices in the community.
a. True
b. False
16. The ………………………… identifies the work the organization will undertake in the
coming year.
a. Annual Operational Plan
b. Annual Financial Plan
c. Both a and b
d. None of these
17. The annual audit is another important part of the annual financial plan and should
be conducted by an independent certified public accountant (CPA).
a. True
b. False
18. The CPA will examine the organization’s financial records and statements and will
issue an opinion stating whether or not these records accurately reflect the
organization’s………………..
a. banking position
b. business position
c. financial position
d. None of these
19. The ………………… plan helps the staff and board to ensure that the organization
will have the funding necessary to conduct its annual operational plan and to fulfill its
long-range strategic plan.
a. long-range fund-raising
b. long-range bund-raising
c. bong-range fund-raising
d. None of these
20. The action component consists of all the activities and interventions designed to
improve the organization’s functioning.
a. True
b. False
Answers for Self Assessment Questions
1. (c) 2.(c) 3.(b) 4.(d) 5.(b)
6. (b) 7.(b) 8.(a) 9.(d) 10.(a)
11. (a) 12.(b) 13.(a) 14.(a) 15.(b)
16. (a) 17. (a) 18. (c) 19. (a) 20. (a)
Chapter-4: Inter Group Based Organization
Self Assessment Questions
1. ………………………………….tears at the fabric of society in numerous ways.
a. Interest Group
b. Task Group
c. Intergroup conflict
d. None of these
2. Third parties might act as consultants, helping one side or both sides analyze the
conflict and plan an effective response.
a. True b. False
3. Job enrichment is an attempt to motivate employees by giving them the opportunity
to use the range of their abilities.
a. Job Enlargement
b. Job Enrichment
c. Work Schedules
d. None of these
4. Downsizing is not a method to reduce headcount
a. True
b. False
5. Which is not related to a large group?
a. Freedom to operate more limited
b. Faster decision process
c. Expanded know-how
d. Quality of decisions facilitated
6. Informal groups form naturally out of interactions among individuals over time.
a. True
b. False
7. The role negotiation process involves group discussions of each member’s
contributions to the group.
a. True
b. False
8. A group that is formed by organizational leaders for the purpose of performing tasks
that are essential to organizational functioning is called:
a. Interest Group
b. Task Group
c. Functional Group
d. None of these
9. Task groups are not formed by organizational leaders for the purpose of performing
tasks that are essential to organizational functioning.
a. True
b. False
10. Dialogue is differentiated from debate, which involves taking positions and
challenging others, and from group therapy processes, which focus more on an
individual’s internal personal dynamics.
a. True
b. False
11. Which is not listed as a stage in group development?
a. Forming
b. Role negotiation
c. Storming
d. Total Integration
12. A mature group has which of the following characteristics?
a. Group Cohesion
b. Group Think
c. Status Structure
d. Both a and c
13. Business process reengineering transforms an organization in ways that directly
affect performance.
a. True
b. False
14. Which is not an example of an environmental factor that influences group
effectiveness?
a. Resources
b. Social loafing
c. Reward systems
d. None of these
15. The team-role which is likely to demonstrate such positive qualities as imagination
and creativity but may show disregard for practical details is:
a. plant.
b. specialist.
c. team worker.
d. shaper.
16. Reasons for the formation of groups include:
a. the provision of guidelines on generally acceptable behavior.
b. the provision of protection for its membership.
c. the performance of certain tasks which can be performed only through
combined efforts of individuals working together.
d. all of these
17. Virtual teams are characterized by:
a. individuals from different work areas who come together to accomplish a
task.
b. use of computer technology to communicate with individuals at different
worksites.
c. groups of employees who take on the added responsibilities of their
former managers.
d. employees who meet regularly to take corrective actions to problems
being experienced.
18. The challenge of creating teams is less demanding for management when teams are
introduced where employees have strong ……………… values.
a. collectivist
b. pluralistic
c. competitive
d. individualistic
19. When designing reward systems for teams, it is best to encourage cooperative efforts
rather than ……………….. ones.
a. collectivist
b. individualistic
c. pluralistic
d. competitive
20. A role can be define as the activities and behaviors expected of a person holding a
particular position within a group.
a. True
b. False
Answers for Self Assessment Questions
1. (a) 2.(a) 3.(b) 4.(b) 5.(b)
6. (a) 7.(b) 8.(c) 9.(b) 10.(a)
11. (d) 12.(d) 13.(a) 14.(b) 15.(a)
16. (d) 17. (c) 18. (a) 19. (d) 20. (a)
Chapter-5: Implementation and Assessment of OD
Self Assessment Questions
1. Organizational development is a set of …………… techniques designed to plan and
implement change in work settings.
a. business science
b. behavioral science
c. industrial science
d. None of these
2. The major techniques of organizational development attempt to produce some kind
of change in ……………..
a. individual employees
b. work groups
c. entire organization
d. All of these
3. Organizational development (OD) is a set of planned-change techniques or
interventions designed to improve organizational effectiveness and employee well-
being.
a. True
b. False
4. Organization development is a ……………….. of applying behavioral-science
knowledge to the planned change and development of the strategies, design
components, and processes that enable organizations to be effective.
a. business-wide process
b. system-wide process
c. sequential-wide process
d. None of these
5. Organization change involves an
a. ongoing series of diagnostic
b. action planning, implementation
c. evaluation actions
d. All of these
6. OD applies this broad knowledge base to diagnose how …………….. and to develop
interventions for improving them.
a. Business function
b. Industrial function
c. organizations function
d. None of these
7. Design components include decisions about
a. organization structure and work design
b. measurement systems
c. human resources practices
d. All of these
8. The OD seeks to bring congruence or fit among strategies, design components, and
processes so they mutually guide and reinforce organizational behavior in a strategic
direction.
a. True
b. False
9. Effective organizations perform at ……………………….. while meeting the needs of
various stakeholders, including owners, customers, employees, suppliers, and
government regulators.
a. high levels
b. low levels
c. Both a and b
d. None of these
10. A continued discrepancy between ……………. statements of values and styles and
their actual work behavior.
a. top management
b. bottom management
c. Both a and b
d. None of these
11. No connection between behavioral-science-oriented change efforts and
management- services/operations-research-oriented change efforts.
a. True
b. False
12. The OD surveys plus provides an efficient alternative to the ……………… process.
a. business-intensive survey
b. customer-intensive survey
c. labor-intensive survey
d. None of these
13. ………………… allow respondents to provide valuable feedback regarding the
effectiveness of another individual’s performance.
a. 160 surveys
b. 260 surveys
c. 360 surveys
d. None of these
14. Assessments might be done through a survey, or a combination of ………. or focus
group interviews.
a. one-to-many
b. many-to-one
c. one-to-one
d. None of these
15. Individuals practicing their vocation in the context of a political organization may
intuitively employ these concepts in defining and redefining what change is possible.
a. True
b. False
16. Mastering the Politics of Planning, notes that even wellthought- out plans for change
cannot be derailed when the politics of implementation are not considered.
a. True
b. False
17. Intervention is defined as a behavior which affects the ongoing …………… of
system.
a. Economical processes
b. social processes
c. Both a and b
d. None of these
18. In dilemma interventions, an imposed or emergent dilemma is used to enable close
examination of the possible alternatives involved and the assumptions underlying
them.
a. True
b. False
19. Process Consultation is a set of activities on the part of the Consultant, which helps
the client to perceive, understand, and act upon the process events occurring in the
……………...
a. business environment
b. organization environment
c. client’s environment
d. None of these
20. Organizational mirroring’ intervention is very effective in improving performance
and optimizing the inter-departmental / inter-functional relationships.
a. True
b. False
Answers for Self Assessment Questions
1. (b) 2.(d) 3.(d) 4.(c) 5.(d)
6. (c) 7.(d) 8.(a) 9.(c) 10.(a)
11. (a) 12.(c) 13.(c) 14.(c) 15.(a)
16. (b) 17. (b) 18. (a) 19. (c) 20. (a)
Chapter-6: Power, Politics, and Organization Development
1. The OD practitioner needs both knowledge and skill in the arenas of organizational
power and politics.
a. True
b. False
2. Organization development signifies change, and for change to occur in an
organization, power must be exercised.
a. True
b. False
3. Organization development has been criticized for not taking into account
……………… in organizations.
a. organization
b. Power
c. Politics
d. None of these
4. Co-operative inquiry groups cycle between and integrate four forms of knowing
……………….
a. experiential
b. presentational,
c. propositional and practical
d. All of these
5. The consultancy roles they seek are therefore a reflection of their own understanding
of what role the consultant should adopt, in order to achieve a successful relationship
with the client.
a. True
b. False
6. According to Clark and other the work of consultants can best be understood in terms
of a dramaturgical metaphor.
a. True
b. False
7. The interaction between ………….. can be explained by tying the principles known
from the theatre to it: action, setting, scripts etc.
a. the client and the customer
b. the client and the consumer
c. the client and the consultant
d. None of these
8. The quality of what the client buys is difficult to determine both before and after
consumption has taken place.
a. Perish ability
b. Intangibility
c. Heterogeneity
d. None of these
9. As the service perishes at the moment it is consumed, for the client this makes it
impossible to purchase the same service.
a. Perish ability
b. Intangibility
c. Heterogeneity
d. None of these
10. Consultants should always keep in mind that client relationship should remain at a
professional level.
a. Professionalism
b. Time Management
c. Judgment
d. None of these
11. Consultants must demonstrate that they are team players and are willing to learn
from team members, genuinely valuing the input and expertise of others.
a. Time Management
b. Team Player
c. Judgment
d. None of these
12. As consultants, our ………… should be broad enough to know when to ask
questions and/or where to research to find solutions.
a. level of skill
b. level of behavior
c. level of knowledge
d. None of these
13. During proposal development and prior to the launching of a ………….., the
practitioner should engage in joint planning with the prospective client.
a. long-term effort
b. short-term effort
c. business effort
d. None of these
14. The systematic building of a strategy for specific activities and projects protects
against failure by forcing the practitioner to consider and deal with such issues as
developing a contract, establishing goals for the entire project and related interventions,
and avoiding ‘quick fixes.’
a. Establishing a flow diagram of activities
b. Engaging in joint planning with prospective clients
c. Building a strategy
d. None of these
15. Organizational development (OD) happens in a company when they are trying to
………..
a. change the values
b. attitudes, beliefs
c. structure of the organization.
d. All of these
16. This organizational structure works best when the environment is
relatively……………………...
a. High differentiation of tasks
b. Dynamic and uncertain environment
c. Decentralized decision-making
d. None of these
17. This organizational structure works best when the………………...
a. Low differentiation of tasks
b. Stable environment
c. Centralized decision-making
d. None of these
18. Changes in the environment can be analyzed through a PESTEL analysis, where
changes in the factors found in the PESTEL analysis may either stabilize or destabilize
the environment of a given company.
a. True
b. False
19. The client expects the consultant to have more expertise than the
organization’s……………..
a. external resources
b. internal resources
c. Both a and b
d. None of these
20. Appreciative inquiry begins with the ‘unconditional positive question’ that guides
inquiry agendas and focuses attention toward the most life-giving, life-sustaining
aspects of organizational existence.
a. True
b. False
Answers for Self Assessment Questions
1. (a) 2.(a) 3.(b) 4.(d) 5.(a)
6. (a) 7.(c) 8.(b) 9.(a) 10.(a)
11. (b) 12.(c) 13.(a) 14.(c) 15.(d)
16. (b) 17. (b) 18. (a) 19. (b) 20. (a)
Chapter-7: The Future of Organization Development
Self Assessment Questions
1. Shifts in the United States cultural identity from unconscious imperialism to
conscious capitalism between ……………………. hastened this more collaborative
approach to global governance.
(a) 2002 and 2005
(b) 2003 and 2006
(c) 2004 and 2007
(d) 2005 and 2010
2. There are contradictory opinions about the status and future prospects of
organizational development.
(a) True
(b) False
3. Organizational climate is based on the ………….. of members.
(a) loyalty
(b) perceptions
(c) commitment
(d) none of the above
4. The potential for unethical behavior stemming from lack of expertise is pervasive in
OD.
(a) True
(b) False
5. This included ‘………………………..’ which emerged as a subfield of OD.
(a) change management
(b) implementation management
(c) simplified management
(d) None of these
6. A tacit global industrial policy emerged following facilitated and coordinated action
among the financial markets, organizations, governments, and other stakeholders in the
early ………………..
(a) 2007’s
(b) 2010’s
(c) 2011’s
(d) 2012’s
7. Which of the following is not usually the objective of a code of ethics?
(a) to create an ethical workplace
(b) to evaluate the ethical components of the proposed actions of the employees
(c) to improve the public image of the company
(d) to enhance the profits of the business continuously
8. Which of the following factors shapes the ethical behavior of the members of an
organization?
(a) The supervisor’s behavior
(b) organizational culture
(c) code of ethics
(d) All of these
9. The …………………. in which organizations operate is increasingly turbulent in an
era of global, national, and regional commercial competitiveness.
(a) organization
(b) environment
(c) development
(d) None of these
10. One OD consultant describes how “pain” drives change Pain occurs when people
pay the price for being in a dangerous situation or for missing a key opportunity.
(a) True
(b) False
11. Which of the following is NOT an influence on organizational purposes?
(a) Minor stakeholders.
(b) Business ethics.
(c) Corporate governance.
(d) The organizational mission.
12. These and other characteristics of OD have created a powerful and durable process
for organizational prove meant.
(a) True
(b) False
13. The cultural frames of reference include (this is not a comprehensive list):
(a) National; organizational field; competitors.
(b) National; organizational; organizational field and functional/divisional.
(c) Unions; organizational; industrial.
(d) Organizational; colleagues; organizational field.
14. Data can be used to punish or otherwise harm persons or groups.
(a) True
(b) False
15. Prior to the public launch of the …………….. platform, Magnetic was tasked with
building a pre-designed custom Android application.
(a) simple mobile
(b) android mobile
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
16. The client already had several legacy systems in place, including SMS-based alerts to
users.
(a) True
(b) False
17. A subtle form of misrepresentation would be to let the client assume one has certain
skills when one does not.
(a) True
(b) False
18. These examples of change in state judicial education provide evidence that effective
change masters have perceived a critical need for change and then helped to make that
change happen.
(a) True
(b) False
19. A person or organization adept at the art of anticipating the need for and of leading
productive change.
(a) True
(b) False
20. The OD will not be a major player in assisting organizations to shift to and sustain
this new paradigm and to help invent even more effective paradigms in the future.
(a) True
(b) False
Answers for Self Assessment Questions
1. (d) 2.(a) 3.(b) 4.(a) 5.(a)
6. (b) 7.(d) 8.(d) 9.(b) 10.(a)
11. (b) 12.(a) 13.(b) 14.(a) 15.(b)
16. (a) 17. (a) 18. (a) 19. (a) 20. (b)
Chapter-8: Group Based Management
Self Assessment Questions
1. A group is not a collection of individuals who have relations to one another that
make them interdependent to some significant degree.
a. True
b. False
2. Conflict may be defined as a struggle or contest between people with opposing
needs……………
a. Ideas
b. Beliefs
c. Values or goals
d. All of these
3. The competing conflict mode is high assertiveness and …………………….
a. High cooperation
b. low cooperation
c. Both a and b
d. None of these
4. The avoiding mode is low assertiveness and……………...
a. high cooperation
b. low cooperation
c. Both a and b
d. None of these
5. The …………………… is low assertiveness and high cooperation.
a. accommodating mode
b. Compromising
c. Avoiding Skills
d. None of these
6. Collaboration has been described as “putting an idea on top of an idea on top of an
idea in order to achieve the best solution to a conflict.”
a. True
b. False
7. ……………………….. being able to use all five conflict modes effectively, being able
to determine what conflict mode would be most effective to resolve the conflict, and the
ability to change modes as necessary while engaged in conflict.
a. Self-concept
b. Practice involves
c. Expectations
d. None of these
8. The essence of conflict resolution and conflict management is the ability to
communicate effectively.
a. Communication Skills
b. Life Experiences
c. Position (Power):
d. None of these
9. Dialogue has become a faddish term, and is sometimes, like charity, used to cover a
multitude of sins.
a. True
b. False
10. On the……………., serious involvement in joint action and/or spirituality will tend
to challenge the previously-held intellectual positions and lead to dialogue in the
cognitive field.
a. Negative side
b. positive side
c. Both a and b
d. None of these
11. Facilitated Group Discussion (FGD) is participant centered, interactive form of
education where learners share their knowledge, problems, and experiences with other
group members while discussing specific topics.
a. True
b. False
12. A self-organized, semiautonomous ……………………. of employees whose
members determine, plan, and manage their day-to-day activities and duties under
reduced or no supervision.
a. small group
b. middle group
c. high group
d. None of these
13. Improved Productivity According to Business week companies that use self directed
work teams are 30 to 50% more productive than those with a traditional hierarchy.
a. 30 to 40%
b. 30 to 50%
c. 30 to 60%
d. None of these
14. LSI is a process in which participants work in…………………...
a. small group
b. large groups
c. Both a and b
d. None of these
15. Self-directed work teams represent an approach to organizational design that goes
beyond quality circles or ad hoc problem solving teams.
a. True
b. False
16. Members of learning groups are engaged in the emotional and aesthetic as well as
the intellectual dimensions of learning.
a. True
b. False
17. Assist the group with resolving conflicts, solving problems, and making decisions.
Help the group when needed so that the group does not become a
“………………………….”.
a. all for free
b. free to all
c. free for all
d. None of these
18. Facilitated Group Discussion (FGD) is participant centered, interactive form of
education where learners share their ………………………………. with other group
members.
a. Knowledge
b. Problems
c. Experiences
d. All of these
19. Collaboration has not been described as “putting an idea on top of an idea on top of
an idea in order to achieve the best solution to a conflict.
a. True
b. False
20. Groups based are a fundamental part of ……………………..
a. economic life
b. business life
c. social life
d. None of these
Answers for Self Assessment Questions
1. (b) 2.(d) 3.(b) 4.(a) 5.(a)
6. (a) 7.(b) 8.(a) 9.(a) 10.(b)
11. (a) 12.(a) 13.(b) 14.(c) 15.(a)
16. (a) 17. (c) 18. (d) 19. (b) 20. (c)
Chapter-9: Organizational Culture
Self Assessment Questions
1. In the Charles Handy concept, ........................... culture is characterized by teams that
are formed to solve particular problems.
a. Task Culture
b. Person Culture
c. Power Culture
d. Role Culture
2. Narrative approaches to organizational culture:
a. study the stories told in organizations and how they are told.
b. are based around the theatre metaphor.
c. are part of the fragmentation perspective.
d. study the stories told in organizations and how they are told, are based
around the theatre metaphor and are part of the fragmentation
perspective.
3. Postmodern studies of organizational culture invoke:
a) thick description.
b) cultural dynamics.
c) dramaturgy.
d) intertextuality.
4. Harrison identifies four main cultures in organizations. What do they mean by a
'person culture'?
a. An organization that exists to serve the needs of members, where individuals are
expected to influence each other through example and helpfulness.
b. An organization with a single source of power.
c. An organization where the focus is upon achieving goals, and flexibility is
important.
d. None of these
5. What does Hofstede mean by the concept of 'individualism'?
a. A concern with dominant values such as success and money.
b. The degree to which individuals are required to act independently.
c. The manner in which individuals have learned to cope with uncertainty.
d. The extent to which members are willing to accept an unequal distribution
of power, wealth, and privilege.
6. Harrison identifies four main cultures in organizations. What do they mean by a 'task
culture'?
a. An organization which exists to meet the needs of its members, and
individuals influence each other through helpfulness.
b. An organization where the emphasis is upon functions and specialities.
c. An organization with a single source of power.
d. An organization where the focus is upon achieving goals, flexibility is
important, and power is based on expertise.
7. The ultimate source of an organization’s culture is:
a. the country in which it operates.
b. the business planning process.
c. the selection process.
d. its founders.
8. A strong culture will have the greatest impact on:
a. absence.
b. productivity.
c. satisfaction.
d. turnover.
9. A strong organizational culture increases behavioral consistency and, therefore, can
act as a substitute for:
a. institutionalization.
b. formalization.
c. followership.
d. socialization.
10. Culture is comprised of which of the following characteristics?
a. Values
b. Norms
c. Assumptions
d. All of the above
11. Which does not describe a strong culture?
a. Control must be exercised through extensive procedures and bureaucracy.
b. Opportunities for innovation may be missed due to groupthink.
c. There is a greater risk of groupthink.
d. People do things because they believe it is the right thing to do.
12. A list of corporate values posted on the wall in the reception area of an
organization's headquarters offices would be classified by a culture researcher as an
example of cultural:
a. values.
b. assumptions.
c. artifacts.
d. beliefs.
13. A list of corporate values presented to employees on a laminated wallet-sized card
would be classified by an ethnographer as an example of cultural:
b. assumptions.
c. beliefs.
d. values.
e. artifacts.
14. According to Hofstede, national cultures such as Singapore, Hong Kong, and
Denmark, in which people are more accepting of innovative ideas and eccentric or
deviant behavior, are which of the following?
a) High in uncertainty avoidance
b) Low in uncertainty avoidance
c) More masculine
d) High power distance
15. Which of the dimensions Hofstede used to define differences between national
cultures refers to the degree to which members of a culture are expected to act
independently of other members?
a. Individualism
b. Power distance
c. Masculinity
d. Uncertainty avoidance
16. According to Siehl and Martin, a subculture that supports the larger or dominant
culture in an organization is referred to as:
a. countercultural.
b. orthogonal.
c. occupational.
d. enhancing.
17. According to Hofstede, there are four dimensions of difference between national
cultures. Which of the following is not one of the dimensions Hofstede studied?
a. Uncertainty avoidance
b. Power distance
c. Masculinity
d. Paradoxicality
18. There is strong culture where there is little alignment with organizational values and
control must be exercised through extensive procedures and bureaucracy.
a. True
b. False
19. In the tough-guy macho culture, within the Deal and Kennedy model, feedback is
quick and the rewards high.
a. True
b. False
20. Management by values can be defined as both a managerial philosophy and practice
whereby focus is concurrently maintained on an organization’s core value and aligned
with its strategic objectives.
a. True
b. False
Answers for Self Assessment Questions
1.(a) 2.(c) 3.(b) 4.(a) 5. (b)
6.(d) 7.(d) 8.(d) 9.(b) 10. (d)
11. (a) 12. (c) 13. (d) 14. (b) 15. (a)
16.(d) 17.(d) 18.(b) 19.(a) 20. (a)
Chapter-10: Stress at Work
Self Assessment Questions
1. Pressure at the workplace is unavoidable due to the demands of the contemporary
work environment.
a. True
b. False
2. Everyone will have an idea what work-related stress is but which of the descriptions
below is generally accepted in work psychology?
a. A negative emotional state that can result from the interaction between a
person and their environment and is caused or made worse by work
b. The process that arises where work demands of various types and
combinations exceed the person's capacity and capability to cope
c. The intervening psychological pressures that link exposure to work-
related problems to the negative impact of those problems
d. All of these
3. There are various models of stress with two approaches in particular regarded as
being productive and influential in current work psychology, what are they?
a. Structural and transactional approaches
b. General adaptation syndrome and fight or flight response
c. The work-health interface and quality of working life movement
d. None of the above
4. There are many symptoms of stress but which of the following physical ailments is
thought to have a stress etiology?
a. Nail-biting
b. Diabetes melitus
c. A feeling of ugliness
d. Relationships at work
5. Poor work organization that is not the way we design jobs and work systems, and the
way we manage them, can cause work stress.
a. True
b. False
6. Burnout is a form of stress that would be characteristic of those working in caring
professions such as medical staff, social workers, teachers, and so on. Which is not a
feature of burnout?
a. Depersonalization
b. Emotional exhaustion
c. Gratitude
d. Personal accomplishment
7. Most of the causes of ………………………… concern the way work is designed and
the way in which organizations are managed.
a. Business stress
b. work stress
c. action stress
d. None of these
8. This level of complexity makes it especially challenging to manage the adoption of
capabilities needed to drive future performance from……………………..
a. business planning
b. market planning
c. financial planning
d. None of these
9. Physical stressors include lack of sleep or exercise, an illness or allergies, eating junk
food, smoking or drinking too much coffee.
a. True
b. False
10. Operational and capability objectives setting for the senior leadership and for the
managers of all operational teams create both ………………….. pressure to change in
pursuit of market leadership.
a. top down and bottom up
b. down top and bottom up
c. bottom up and top
d. None of these
11. …………………… risk is the possibility of a company will face deteriorating
situations in their production process.
a. Operational business
b. Financial
c. Compliance
d. None of these
12. ………………………. involves losing money from consumer sales or facing strict
credit requirements.
a. Operational business
b. Financial
c. Compliance
d. None of these
13. Strategic business risk occurs from the amount of competition in the economic
market.
a. True
b. False
14. Business risk involves the possibility of financial and operational difficulties in the
…………………….
a. market environment
b. business environment
c. financial environment
d. None of these
15. Management decision making signifies the negative or positive reinforcement
provided to and from the managers and subordinate level employees.
a. True
b. False
16. A disgruntled workforce obviously under performs and under delivers, leading to
an impact on the………………..
a. bottom line
b. top line
c. Both a and b
d. None of these
17. Stress becomes inconspicuous, hiding behind feelings of hopelessness, constant
anxiety, depression, and in severe cases serious mental aberrations such as paranoia
and delusions.
a. True
b. False
18. Stress involves real or perceived changes within an organism in the environment
that activate an organism’s attempts to cope by means of evolutionarily ancient neural
and endocrine mechanisms.
a. True
b. False
19. These responses may build on or extend homeostatic mechanisms or they may be
more or less tightly linked to homeostatic responses in a hierarchical manner creating
a…………………….
a. Business continuum
b. Economic continuum
c. functional continuum
d. None of these
20. Consequence of stress, in the majority of cases stress causes weight gain, but some
people experience weight loss. It all depends on how we react to stressful situations.
a. True
b. False
Answers for Self Assessment Questions
1. (a) 2.(d) 3.(a) 4.(b) 5.(b)
6. (c) 7.(b) 8.(b) 9.(a) 10.(a)
11. (a) 12.(b) 13.(a) 14.(b) 15.(a)
16. (a) 17. (a) 18. (a) 19. (c) 20. (a)
