Ccna

CCNA 1 Networking Basics (Version 3.1)

Module 1 Exam Answers

1. Several computers in the company require new NICs. A technician has located a good price on

the Internet for the purchase of these NICs. Before these NICs are purchased and installed, what

details must be verified? (Choose three.)

• the MAC address on

• the NICthe size of the RAM on the NIC

• the bandwidth supported by the NIC

• the type of media supported by the NIC

• the type of network architecture supported by the NIC

2. What is the hexadecimal equivalent for the binary number 00100101?

• 15

• 20

• 25

• 30

• 37

• 40

3. Which phrases describe a byte? (Choose two.)

• a single binary digit

• +5 volts of electricity

• the value range 0 to 127

• a grouping of eight binary digits

• a single addressable data storage location

4. Which specialized equipment is used to make a physical connection from a PC to a network?

• router

• RAM

• CD ROM

• network interface card

5. What is the binary equivalent for the decimal number 248?

• 11100000

• 11110000

• 11110100

• 11111000

6. Convert the binary number 01011011 into its hexadecimal equivalent.

Select the correct answer from the list below.

• 5A

• 5b

• 5c

• 5d

• 6b

• 7a

7. What is the binary equivalent for decimal number 149?

• 10010111

• 10010101

• 10011001

• 10010111

• 10101011

• 10101101

8. In an 8 bit binary number, what is the total number of combinations of the eight bits?

• 128

• 254

• 255

• 256

• 512

• 1024

9. Which device connects a computer with a telephone line by providing modulation and

demodulation of incoming and outgoing data?

• NIC

• CSU/DSU

• router

• modem

• telco switch

10. What is the binary equivalent for the decimal number 162?

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• 10101010

• 10100010

• 10100100

• 10101101

• 10110000

• 10101100

11. Which of the following are popular web browsers? (Choose two.)

• Acrobat

• Internet Explorer

• Macromedia Flash

• Netscape Navigator

• Quicktime

• World Wide Web

12. Convert the Base 10 number 116 into its eight bit binary equivalent. Choose the correct

answer from the following list:

• 01111010

• 01110010

• 01110100

• 01110110

• 01110111

• 01010110

13. What is the hexadecimal equivalent for the binary number 10001110?

• 22

• 67

• 142

• AE

• 8E

14. Represented as a decimal number, what is the result of the logical ANDing of binary numbers

00100011 and 11111100?

• 3

• 32

• 35

• 220

• 255

15. Convert the decimal number 231 into its binary equivalent. Select the correct answer from

the list below.

• 11110010

• 11011011

• 11110110

• 11100111

• 11100101

• 11101110

16. What are three conditions that would require a network administrator to install a new NIC?

(Choose three.)

• whenever a NIC is damaged

• when there is a need to provide a secondary or backup NIC

• when there is a change from copper media to wireless

• whenever operating system security patches are applied

• whenever the PC has been moved to a different location


1. Which layer of the OSI model provides network services to processes in electronic mail and

file transfer programs?

• data link

• transport

• network

• application

2. Which of the following are data link layer encapsulation details? (Choose two.)

• A header and trailer are added.

• Data is converted into packets.

• Packets are packaged into frames.

• Frames are divided into segments.

• Packets are changed into bits for Internet travel.

3. Which three features apply to LAN connections? (Choose three.)

• operate using serial interfaces


• make network connection using a hub

• limited to operation over small geographic areas

• provide part-time connectivity to remote services

• typically operate under local administrative control

• provide lower bandwidth services compared to WANs

4. Which layer of the OSI model provides connectivity and path selection between two end systems

where routing occurs?

• physical layer

• data link layer

• network layer

• transport layer

5. Which term describes the process of adding headers to data as it moves down OSI layers?

• division

• encoding

• separation

• segmentation

• encapsulation

6. Refer to the following list. Choose the correct order of data encapsulation when a device

sends information.

1. segments

2. bits

3. packets

4. data

5. frames

• 1 - 3 - 5 - 4 - 2

• 2 - 1 - 3 - 5 - 4

• 2 - 4 - 3 - 5 - 1

• 4 - 3 - 1 - 2 - 5

• 4 - 1 - 3 - 5 - 2

• 3 - 5 - 1 - 2 - 4

7. The central hub has malfunctioned in the network. As a result, the entire network is down.

Which type of physical network topology is implemented?

• bus

• star

• ring

• mesh

8. Which of the following are factors that determine throughput? (Choose two.)

• types of passwords used on servers

• type of Layer 3 protocol used

• network topology

• width of the network cable

• number of users on the network

9. Which best describes the function of the physical layer?

• Defines the electrical and functional specifications for the link between end systems.

• Provides reliable transit of data across a physical link.

• Provides connectivity and path selection between two end systems.

• Concerned with physical addressing, network topology and media access.

10. Which of the following are ways that bandwidth is commonly measured? (Choose three.)

• GHzps

• kbps

• Mbps

• Nbps

• MHzps

• Gbps

11. Which of the following are layers of the TCP/IP model? (Choose three.)

• Application

• Physical

• Internet

• Network Access

• Presentation

12. What is the term used to describe the transport layer protocol data unit?

• bits

• packets

• segments

• frames

• data streams

13. What makes it easier for different networking vendors to design software and hardware that

will interoperate?

• OSI model

• proprietary designs

• IP addressing scheme

• standard logical topologies

• standard physical topologies

14.

Refer to the exhibit. Which column shows the correct sequence of OSI model layers?

• A

• B

• C

• D

15. What is one advantage of defining network communication by the seven layers of the OSI

model?

• It increases the bandwidth of a network.

• It makes networking easier to learn and understand.

• It eliminates many protocol restrictions.

• It increases the throughput of a network.

• It reduces the need for testing network connectivity.

16. Which two features apply to WAN connections? (Choose two.)

• operate using serial interfaces

• make network connection using a hub

• limited to operation over small geographic areas

• typically operate under local administrative control

• provide lower bandwidth services compared to LANs

17. A switch has failed in the network. As a result, only one segment of the network is down.

Which type of physical network topology is implemented?

• bus

• ring

• star

• extended star

18.

Refer to the exhibit. Identify the devices labeled A, B, C, and D in the network physical

documentation.

• A=bridge, B=switch, C=router, D=hub

• A=bridge, B=hub, C=router, D=switch

• A=bridge, B=router, C=hub, D=switch

• A=hub, B=bridge, C=router, D=switch


1. What are two advantages of using UTP cable in a networking environment? (Choose two.)

• is stiffer than STP

• is less expensive than fiber

• is easier to install than coaxial

• provides longer distances than coaxial provides

• is less susceptible to outside noise sources than fiber is


2. What are two advantages of using fiber-optic cabling instead of UTP? (Choose two.)

• lower cost

• easer to install

• allows longer distances

• less effected by external signals

• easier to terminate the cable ends

3. What is the difference between a wireless NIC and an Ethernet NIC?

• The Ethernet NIC operates at 100 Mbps, whereas a wireless NIC operates at 10 Mbps.

• The Ethernet NIC uses a PCI expansion slot, and a wireless NIC cannot use an expansion slot.

• The wireless NIC uses CSMA/CA, whereas a Ethernet NIC uses token passing as an access method.

• The wireless NIC associates to an access point, and an Ethernet NIC attaches to a hub or

switch using a cable.

• The Ethernet NIC attaches to a hub or a switch using only fiber cabling, and a wireless NIC

attaches to a wireless antenna using air as a network medium.

4. Which wireless standard operates in the 5 GHZ transmission range and is capable of 54 Mbps of

data throughput?

• 802.11

• 802.11a

• 802.11b

• 802.11g

5. A company is converting a cabled LAN to a wireless Ethernet LAN. What must be changed on

every host on the network?

• No changes are required.

• Each host will require a new IP address.

• Each host will require an appropriate NIC or adapter.

• Each host will require that the operating system be upgraded.

6.

Refer to the exhibit. Which answer correctly identifies the pinout of the UTP cables labeled

Cable A, Cable B, and Cable C?

• A=straight, B=rollover, C=crossover

• A=rollover, B=crossover, C=straight

• A=crossover, B=straight, C=straight

• A=crossover, B=straight, C=rollover

• A=straight, B=crossover, C=rollover

• A=rollover, B=straight, C=crossover

7. What factors should be considered when selecting the appropriate cable for connecting a PC to

a network? (Choose two.)

• type of system bus

• motherboard model

• distance of cable run

• speed of transmission

• computer manufacturer

8. Which Ethernet implementation requires the signal on the media to be boosted at a maximum

distance of 100 meters?

• 10BASE2

• 10BASE5

• 100BASE-T

• 100BASE-FX

• 1000BASE-CX

9. When is a straight-through cable used in a network?

• when configuring a router

• when connecting a host to a host

• when connecting a switch to a router

• when connecting one switch to another switch

10. What type of cable is used to make an Ethernet connection between a host and a LAN switch?

• console

• rollover

• crossover

• straight-through

11. Which of the following are used for data communication signals? (Choose three.)

• light patterns

• electrical voltages

• controlled air pulses

• mixed media impulses

• magnetized fluid wave

• modulated electromagnetic waves

12. What does UTP cable rely on to reduce signal degradation caused by EMI and RFI?

• shielding

• magnetism

• cancellation

• insulation

• properly grounded connections

• RJ-45 connectors

13. Select the characteristics specified by 10BaseT. (Choose three.)

• twisted pair cable

• T style connectors

• baseband transmission

• 10 gigabits per second data rate

• 10 megabits per second data

• decimal encoded data transmission

14.

Refer to the exhibit. What type of cable connects the two routers together without any

intermediary device?

• console

• rollover

• crossover


15. Which cable connectors are used to connect a cable from a router's console port to a PC?

(Choose two.)

• RJ-11

• RJ-12

• RJ-45

• DB-8

• DB-9

• DB-10


1. To ensure reliable LAN communications, what should a technician be looking for when attaching

connectors to the ends of UTP cable?

• that the white-orange/orange pair is attached first

• That the wire pairs remain twisted as much as possible

• that one end of the shield is properly ground but not the other

• that 50 ohm termination resistors are on both ends

2. Which of the following describes frequency?

• length of each wave

• height of each wave

• number of cycles each second

• amount of time between each wave

3. How are binary ones and zeros represented in fiber optic installations? (Choose two.)

• +5 volts/-5 volts

• 0 volts/5 volts

• light/no light

• high to low electrical transition

• low to high electrical transition


• increasing/decreasing light intensity

4. What is expected when crosstalk is present in networks with higher transmission frequencies?

(Choose two.)

• jitter

• increase in crosstalk

• higher signal attenuation

• increases in cancellation effect

• destruction of more of the data signal

5. A small company is experiencing difficulties on its LAN. After performing some tests, a

technician has determined that the copper media supporting the LAN is experiencing abnormal

attenuation. What are two possible causes of the problem? (Choose two.)

• defective connectors

• excessively long cable lengths

• use of higher grade cabling

• low frequency signals used in the media

• network cable runs isolated from other cables

6. What factors need to be considered to limit the amount of signal attenuation in Ethernet

cable runs? (Choose two.)

• type of users

• number of users

• length of cable

• type of electrical equipment

• installation of connectors on the cable

7. What conditions are described when transmission signals from one wire pair affects another

wire pair? (Choose two.)

• noise

• resistance mismatch

• jitter

• crosstalk

• attenuation

8. What is a cause of crosstalk in UTP cable?

• cable pairs that are shorted

• cable pairs crossed during termination

• cabling runs installed in separate conduit

• cable pairs that are untwisted because of poor termination of the cable

9. Which of the following are detected by the wire map test? (Choose three.)

• near-end crosstalk (NEXT)

• opens

• propagation delay

• return loss

• reversed-pair faults

• short circuits

10. A company needs to extend the LAN to six separate buildings. To limit the amount of signal

attenuation on the LAN media, what type of media would be the best to use between the buildings?

• air (wireless)

• coaxial cable

• fiber

• shielded twisted pair

• unshielded twisted pair

1.

Refer to the exhibit. What is the appropriate cable to use at each of the numbered network

connections?

• 1-crossover; 2-straight-through; 3-crossover; 4-straight-through

• 1-straight-through; 2-crossover; 3-straight-through; 4-straight-through

• 1-straight-through; 2-crossover; 3-crossover; 4-straight-through

• 1-rollover; 2-crossover; 3-straight-through; 4-straight-through

• 1-rollover; 2-straight-through; 3-straight-through; 4-straight-through

2. Which two devices are considered OSI Layer 1 devices? (Choose two.)

• hubs

• routers

• bridges

• switches

• repeaters

3. What device is used to connect hosts to an Ethernet LAN and requires a straight-through UTP

cable between the hosts and this device?

• NIC

• router

• switch

• server

4. What is the most common type of cabling used in LANs?

• STP

• UTP

• coax

• fiber

5. In which situations would a crossover cable be used to connect devices in a network? (Choose

two.)

• switch to PC

• switch to hub

• switch to router

• switch to server

• switch to switch

6.

Refer to the exhibit. How many collision domains exist in the network?

• 1

• 2

• 4

• 7

• 8

7. What type of cable would be used to make the connection between the console port of a router

and a workstation?

• crossover

• rollover


• patch

8.

Which function is a unique responsibility of the DCE devices shown in the exhibit?

• transmission of data

• reception of data

• clocking for the synchronous link

• noise cancellation in transmitted data

9. Which address does a bridge use to make filtering and switching decisions?

• source MAC

• source IP

• destination MAC

• destination IP

• network IP address

10. What is characteristic of how a hub operates?

• A hub selectively drops packets that represent potential security risks.

• A hub forwards data out all interfaces except the inbound interface.

• A hub dynamically learns the interfaces to which all devices are attached.

• At start up, a hub queries the devices on all interfaces in order to learn the MAC addresses

of the attached devices.

• A hub transmits a frame to a specific interface based on the destination MAC address.

11. Users with systems that are attached to a hub are complaining about poor response time. What

device could replace the hub and provide immediate response time improvement?

• router

• switch

• bridge

• repeater

12. Which of the following are benefits of peer-to-peer networks? (Choose three.)

• centralized security

• easy to create

• very scalable

• no centralized equipment required

• centralized administrator not required

• centralized control of assets

13. Which statement is accurate about a WAN link?

• The link transmits data serially.

• The link uses a maximum distance of 100 meters.

• The link uses the same transmission rate as all other WAN links use.

• The link uses the same standardized connector style that is used for all WAN technologies.

14.

Which items in the exhibit are DTE devices?

• A and B

• B and C

• C and D

• A and D

• A, B, C, and D

15. At which layer of the OSI model does the MAC address of a NIC reside?

• physical

• application

• network

• transport

• data link

• session

16.

Refer to the exhibit. A technician measured the lengths of the CAT 5e structured cable runs in

the exhibit. How should the technician evaluate the cabling shown in the diagram to the network

administrator?

• All cabling to work areas are within specifications.

• Station A and B may experience intermittent problems because the length exceeds the

recommended standard.

• Station B may experience intermittent problems because the length exceeds the recommended

standard.

• Station C may experience intermittent network connectivity because the length is less than the

recommended standard.

• Station A and B will have intermittent problems because the length exceeds the recommended

standard.

• Station C will not have network connectivity because the length is less than the recommended

standard.

17. Which statement describes a typical use of Gigabit Ethernet?

• to provide high-speed desktop connectivity for average users

• to provide connectivity to low to medium volume applications

• to provide medium volume connectivity to workgroup servers

• to provide high-speed connectivity for backbones and cross connects

18.

The ends of a UTP cable are shown in the exhibit. Which cable configuration is shown?

• crossover

• rollover

• reversed-pair


• split-pair

• console

19.

The ends of a UTP cable are shown in the exhibit. Which cable configuration is shown?

• console

• crossover

• rollover

• reversed-pair

• split-pair


20. Which of the following are benefits of a wireless network? (Choose two.)

• higher data speeds

• better security

• mobility

• less expensive NIC cards

• no need to run cables to hosts


1.

Refer to the exhibit. Host A is communicating with host F. What happens to a frame sent from

host A to host F as it travels over the Ethernet segments?

• The frame format is modified as it passes through each switch.

• The frame format remains the same across each Ethernet segment.

• The frame format is modified as the media speed changed at switch B and switch E.

• The frame format is modified as the media material changes between copper and fiber at switch

C and switch D.

2. How many hexadecimal digits are in a MAC address?

• 2

• 8

• 12

•16

• 32

3. What are three functions of a NIC in a PC? (Choose three.)

• A NIC connects the PC to the network media.

• A NIC detects collisions on the Ethernet segment.

• A NIC checks the formatting of data before it is transmitted.

• A NIC passes the contents of selected frames to the upper OSI layers.

• A NIC acknowledges and retransmits data that was not received properly.

• A NIC discards frames when the destination IP address does not match the local host.

4. At what layer of the OSI model does a MAC address reside?

• 1

• 2

• 3

• 4

• 7

5. A router has an Ethernet, Token Ring, serial, and ISDN interface. Which interfaces will have

a MAC address?

• serial and ISDN interfaces

• Ethernet and Token Ring interfaces

• Ethernet and ISDN interfaces


• Token Ring and serial interfaces

6. In an Ethernet LAN, how does the NIC know when it can transmit data?

• An Ethernet NIC transmits data as soon as the frame is received.

• An Ethernet NIC transmits data as soon as the NIC receives a token.

• An Ethernet NIC transmits data when it senses a collision.

• An Ethernet NIC transmits data after listening for the absence of a signal on the media.

7. Which characteristics describe carrier sense multiple access collision detect (CSMA/CD)?

(Choose three.)

• reliable

• point-to-point

• nondeterministic

• connection-oriented

• collision environment

• first-come, first-served approach

8. Which two devices can provide full-duplex Ethernet connections? (Choose two.)

• hub

• modem

• repeater

• NIC

• Layer 2 switch

9. On a local area network, one workstation can send data on the line while it is receiving

data. What type of data transfer does this describe?

• hybrid

• half duplex

• full duplex

• multilink

10.

Refer to the exhibit. The small office network shown in the exhibit consists of four computers

connected through a hub. Which configuration would cause collisions and errors on the network?

• autonegotiation

• FastEthernet

• peer-to-peer shared resources

• administratively configured full duplex

11.

Refer to the exhibit. The switch and workstation are administratively configured for full-duplex

operation. Which statement accurately reflects the operation of this link?

• No collisions will occur on this link.

• Only one of the devices can transmit at a time.

• The switch will have priority for transmitting data.

• The devices will default back to half duplex if excessive collisions occur.

12.

Refer to the exhibit. All hosts are in listen mode. Host 1 and Host 4 both transmit data at the

same time. How do the hosts respond on the network? (Choose two.)

• Hosts 1 and 4 may be operating full duplex so no collision will exist.

• The hub will block the port connected to Host 4 to prevent a collision.

• After the end of the jam signal, Hosts 1, 2, 3, and 4 invoke a backoff algorithm.

• Hosts 1 and 4 are assigned shorter backoff values to provide them priority to access the

media.

• If a host has data to transmit after the backoff period of that host, the host checks to

determine if the line is idle, before transmitting.

13. When a collision occurs in a network using CSMA/CD, how do hosts with data to transmit

respond after the backoff period has expired?

• The hosts return to a listen-before-transmit mode.

• The hosts creating the collision have priority to send data.

• The hosts creating the collision retransmit the last 16 frames.

• The hosts extend their delay period to allow for rapid transmission.

14. Which statement describes how CSMA/CD on an Ethernet segment manages the retransmission of

frames after a collision occurs?

• The first device to detect the collision has the priority for retransmission.

• The device with the lowest MAC address determines the retransmission priority.

• The devices on the network segment hold an election for priority to retransmit data

• The devices transmitting when the collision occurs DO NOT have priority for retransmission.

15.

Refer to the exhibit. A technician wants to increase the available bandwidth for the workstation

by allowing the switch and the NIC on the workstation to transmit and receive simultaneously.

What will permit this?

• CSMA/CD

• full-duplex

• FastEthernet

• crossover cable

16. Why do hosts on an Ethernet segment that experience a collision use a random delay before

attempting to transmit a frame?

• A random delay is used to ensure a collision-free link.

• A random delay value for each device is assigned by the manufacturer.

• A standard delay value could not be agreed upon among networking device vendors.

• A random delay helps prevent the stations from experiencing another collision during the

transmission.

17. In which two layers of the OSI model does Ethernet function? (Choose two.)

• application

• session

• transport

• network

• data link

• physical

18. Which of the following are specified by IEEE standards as sublayers of the OSI data link

layer? (Choose two.)

• Logical Link Control

• Logical Layer Control

• Media Access Control

• Logical Link Communication

• Media Access Communication

• Physical Access Communication

19. Where does the MAC address originate?

• DHCP server database

• configured by the administrator

• burned into ROM on the NIC card

• network configuration on the computer

• included in the creation of the processor chip


1. Which Ethernet standard does the IEEE 802.3 standard recommend for backbone installations?

• 10BASE-T

• 100BASE-T

• 100BASE-FX

• 1000BASE-LX

2. Which statements describe Gigabit Ethernet technology? (Choose two.)

• operates at 100 Mbps

• typically used for backbone cabling

• requires shielded twisted-pair cabling

• can be implemented over copper and fiber

• primarily used between workstations option

3. Which of the following are Fast Ethernet technologies? (Choose two.)

• 100BASE-5

• 100BASE2

• 1000BASE-F

• 100BASE-FX

• 100BASE-TX

4. To make sure timing limitations are not violated when implementing a 10 Mbps Ethernet network

involving hubs or repeaters, a technician should adhere to which rule?

• the 4-5-3 rule

• the 6-4-2 rule

• the 3-4-5 rule

• the 5-4-3 rule

5. At which OSI layer do the differences between standard Ethernet, Fast Ethernet and Gigabit

Ethernet occur?

• physical layer

• data link layer

• network layer

• transport layer

6. How does 1000BASE-T use the UTP wire pairs to accomplish transmission?

• two pairs are used to transmit and two pairs are used to receive

• one pair is used to transmit, one pair is used to receive, one pair is used for clocking, and

one pair is used for error correction

• all four pairs are used in parallel by both hosts to transmit and receive simultaneously

• two pairs of wires are used as in 10BASE-T and 100BASE-TX

7. What RJ-45 pins are unused when transmitting and receiving data in an Ethernet 100BASE-T

Category 5 UTP cable? (Choose two.)

• 1 and 2

• 3 and 6

• 4 and 5

• 7 and 8

8. What is the maximum distance that 10BASE-T will transmit data before signal attenuation

affects the data delivery?

• 100 meters

• 185 meters

• 300 meters

• 500 meters

9. Which media types can be used in an implementation of a 10BASE-T network? (Choose three.)

http://ccna-cisco-academy.blogspot.com/2007/08/module-7-exam-answers.html

• Category 5 UTP

• Category 5e UTP

• Category 3 UTP

• coaxial cable

• multi-mode fiber

• single mode fiber

10. Which of the following Ethernet technologies are considered legacy Ethernet? (Choose three.)

• 10BASE2

• 10BASE5

• 10BASE-T

• 100BASE-T

• 100BASE-FX

• 100BASE-TX


1. What is characteristic of the operation of a Layer 2 switch?

• forwards data based on logical addressing

• duplicates the electrical signal of each frame to every port

• learns the port assigned to a host by examining the destination MAC address

• uses the destination MAC address to determine the specific interface to forward a frame

2. Two newly hired technicians are discussing the implementation of a new LAN. One technician

proposes installing a hub. The other technician advises installing a switch. Which statements

are true about the differences between a hub and a switch? (Choose two.)

• A hub operates at Layer 2 of the OSI model.

• A hub reduces the number of collisions on a LAN.

• A hub works at a higher OSI model layer than a switch.

• A switch provides more throughput to hosts on a LAN

• A switch provides a collision-free environment on a LAN.

• The number of collisions on a LAN are the same whether a hub or a switch is used.

3.

Refer to the exhibit. Forty-eight workstations are connected to a hub. The users are able to

connect to the network, but access is very slow. An entry-level technician replaces the 10 Mbps

hub with 100 Mbps hub but the problem still exists. What is the most economical way to correct

the problem?

• Replace the hub with a switch.

• Replace the hub with a router.

• Replace the hub with a 1 Gbps hub.

• Replace the hub with a 10 Mbps fiber hub.

4.


Exhibited is a portion of ABC Company internetwork. Which of the connections can be full duplex?

• segments 1 and 2

• segment 2

• segments 3 and 4

• segments 2, 3, and 4

• segments 1, 2, 3, and 4

5.

Refer to the exhibit. The switch and the hub have default configurations, and the switch has

built its CAM table. Which of the hosts will receive the data when workstation A sends a unicast

packet to workstation C?

• workstation C

• workstations B and C

• workstations B, C, and the E0 interface of the router

• workstations B, C, D, E, F, and the E0 interface of the router

6. An administrator would like to connect ten workstations on a 192.168.0.0/24 network. The

device selected by the administrator must allow connectivity between hosts without sharing

bandwidth. Which device would be appropriate?

• hub

• router

• switch

• repeater

7. Which networking devices use the MAC address to make forwarding decisions? (Choose two.)

• NIC

• bridge

• hub

• switch

• repeater

8. Which devices are primarily used to extend cable segments within a collision domain by

regenerating the data signals? (Choose two.)

switch

• repeater

• router

• bridge

• hub

9. Which devices will create multiple collision domains in an Ethernet network? (Choose two.)

• NIC

• hub

• switch

• router

repeater

10.

Refer to the exhibit. How many broadcast domains exist in classroom 240?

• 1

• 2

• 5

• 12

• 13

• 15

11. A PC receives a frame. Which situation will cause the NIC on the receiving host to pass the

frame contents up the OSI layers to be processed by the PC?

• The frame is a runt frame.

• The destination MAC address of the frame is FFFF.FFFF.FFFF.

• The transmitting host generated a jam signal during the frame transmission.

• The recalculated checksum for the frame does not match the FCS on the frame.

12. A network administrator has a multi-floor LAN to monitor and maintain. Through careful

monitoring, the administrator has noticed a large amount of broadcast traffic slowing the

network. Which device would you use to best solve this problem?

• bridge

• hub

• router

• transceiver

13. What will a bridge do if it receives a frame with a MAC address that is not within the

table?

• discard frame

• ignore frame

• send frame to appropriate port

• send frame to all ports except source port

14. Which networking device reduces the size of both collision domains and broadcast domains?

• hub

• Layer 2 switch

• router

• bridge

• repeater

15. What is used to prevent Layer 2 switching loops?

• bridging

• segmentation

• Address Resolution Protocol

• Spanning-Tree Protocol


1. What are two facts about how ARP resolves an IP address to a MAC address? (Choose two.)

• The originating host dynamically issues an arp –a command to obtain the destination MAC

address.

• The originating host broadcasts an ARP request packet and each host in a local network

receives this packet.

• The originating host dynamically issues an icmp echo request command to obtain the destination

MAC address.

• The host with the specified destination IP address sends an ARP reply packet containing its

MAC address back to the originating host.

• The host with the specified destination IP address sends an icmp echo reply packet to the

originating host with its MAC address.


2. Which TCP/IP model layer supports both LAN and WAN technologies?

• network access layer

• internet layer

• transport layer

• application layer

3. What is the primary responsibility of the transport layer?

• allows access to the network media

• provides data representation and encoding

• selects paths through the network for data to travel

• defines end-to-end connectivity between host applications

4. What is the network broadcast address for a Class C address of 192.168.32.0 with the default

subnet mask?

• 192.168.0.0

• 192.168.0.255

• 192.168.32.0

• 192.168.32.254

• 192.168.32.255

5. Which two statements correctly describe the IP address 127.0.0.1? (Choose two.)

• It belongs to the Class A range of addresses.

• It belongs to the Class B range of addresses.

• It belongs to the Class C range of addresses.

• It is reserved for loopback testing.

• It is reserved for multicast group testing.

• It is reserved for unicast testing.

6.

Refer to the exhibit. The small office LAN shown in the exhibit may eventually be connected to

the Internet. According to Cisco best practice, which IP network addresses should be used?

• 12.0.0.0

• 172.0.0.0

• 172.168.0.0

• 192.32.17.0

• 192.168.67.0

• 225.1.5.0

7. Why is IP considered a best-effort protocol?

• IP detects lost packets.

• IP validates the content of the packets.

• IP does not provide acknowledgment of the data delivery.

• IP reorders the packet as they arrive at the destination host.

8. Which three addresses are considered to be private addresses? (Choose three.)

• 10.45.09.23

• 15.87.234.87

• 172.32.45.90

• 172.17.78.98

• 192.169.89.56

• 192.168.45.23

9.

Refer to the exhibit. Based on the information shown, which two statements are true? (Choose

two.)

• An ARP request must be used to obtain an address that is placed in the ARP table.

• Frames from other hosts in the network to this host will use a destination address of 00-06-

25-25-6e-5d.

• The only remote locations that can be reached from this host are 192.168.1.97 and

192.168.1.254.

• If a packet is sent to a network device other than 192.168.1.97 and 192.168.1.254, an ARP

request must be used.

• If the computer with the IP address of 192.168.1.94 sends a packet to the device with the IP

address 192.168.1.97, no ARP request is required.

10.

Refer to the exhibit. Which devices are recommended to have the IP addresses manually

configured?

• PC1 and PC2

• all servers

• only PC2 Laptop

• all hosts and all servers

11. Why were private IP addresses developed?

• to permit dynamic assignment of IP addresses

• to permit the duplication of public IP addresses

• to minimize the utilization of reserved IP addresses

• to permit public IP addresses to be used in private networks

• to address the issue of not enough available public IP addresses

12. Which subnet mask would be assigned to the network address of 192.168.32.0 to provide 254

useable host addresses per subnetwork?

• 255.255.0.0

• 255.255.255.0

• 255.255.254.0

• 255.255.248.0

13. When a host has an empty ARP cache, what is the next step the host will take to find the

destination MAC address of a remote host?

• sends an ARP request as a unicast to the server

• sends an ARP request as a unicast to the destination

• sends an ARP request as a broadcast to all hosts in the local network

• sends an ARP request as a unicast to the default gateway

14.

Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of the Obtain an IP address automatically option shown

in the exhibit?

• to configure the computer to use ARP

• to configure the computer to use DHCP

• to configure the computer to use a routing protocol

• to configure the computer with a statically assigned IP address

15. How many usable hosts are available given a Class C IP address with the default subnet mask?

• 254

• 255

• 256

• 510

• 511

• 512

16. Which statement accurately describes public IP addresses?

• Public addresses cannot be used within a private network.

• Public IP addresses must be unique across the entire Internet.

• Public addresses can be duplicated only within a local network.

• Public IP addresses are only required to be unique within the local network.

• Network administrators are free to select any public addresses to use for network devices that

access the Internet.

17. Which IPv4 class of addresses provides the most networks?

• Class A

• Class B

• Class C

• Class D

• Class E

18. Which IPv4 class provides the highest number of host addresses per network?

• Class A

• Class B

• Class C

• Class D

• Class E

19. What is the purpose of a DHCP server on a network?

• to resolve MAC addresses to IP addresses

• to resolve IP addresses to MAC addresses

• to resolve host names to IP addresses

• to assign IP addresses dynamically to hosts

• to assign a MAC address to a host

20.

Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are correct in reference to the output shown? (Choose

two.)

• The LAN segment is subnetted to allow 254 subnets.

• The DNS server for this host is on the same subnet as the host.

• The host automatically obtained the IP addresses 192.168.1.100.

• The host received the IP address from the router on the local LAN segment.

• The host is assigned an address of 00-50-8D-F1-EA-8D by the administrator.

Module 9/10 Exam Answers

1. What is the primary responsibility of the transport layer?

• allows access to the network media

• provides data representation and encoding

• selects paths through the network for data to travel

• defines end-to-end connectivity between host applications

2. Why is IP considered a best-effort protocol?


• IP detects lost packets.

• IP validates the content of the packets.

• IP does not provide acknowledgment of the data delivery.

• IP reorders the packet as they arrive at the destination host.

3. Which two statements correctly describe the IP address 127.0.0.1? (Choose two.)

• It belongs to the Class A range of addresses.

• It belongs to the Class B range of addresses.

• It belongs to the Class C range of addresses.

• It is reserved for loopback testing.

• It is reserved for multicast group testing.

• It is reserved for unicast testing.

4.

Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are correct in reference to the output shown? (Choose

two.)

• The LAN segment is subnetted to allow 254 subnets.

• The DNS server for this host is on the same subnet as the host.

• The host automatically obtained the IP addresses 192.168.1.100.

• The host received the IP address from the router on the local LAN segment.

• The host is assigned an address of 00-50-8D-F1-EA-8D by the administrator.

5. Which three addresses are considered to be private addresses? (Choose three.)

• 10.45.09.23

• 15.87.234.87

• 172.32.45.90

• 172.17.78.98

• 192.169.89.56

• 192.168.45.23

6. What is the purpose of a DHCP server on a network?

• to resolve MAC addresses to IP addresses

• to resolve IP addresses to MAC addresses

• to resolve host names to IP addresses

• to assign IP addresses dynamically to hosts

• to assign a MAC address to a host

7.

Refer to the exhibit. The small office LAN shown in the exhibit may eventually be connected to

the Internet. According to Cisco best practice, which IP network addresses should be used?

• 12.0.0.0

• 172.0.0.0

• 172.168.0.0

• 192.32.17.0

• 192.168.67.0

• 225.1.5.0

8.

Refer to the exhibit. Which devices are recommended to have the IP addresses manually

configured?

• PC1 and PC2

• all servers

• only PC2 Laptop

• all hosts and all servers

9.

Refer to the exhibit. Based on the information shown, which two statements are true? (Choose

two.)

• An ARP request must be used to obtain an address that is placed in the ARP table.

• Frames from other hosts in the network to this host will use a destination address of 00-06-

25-25-6e-5d.

• The only remote locations that can be reached from this host are 192.168.1.97 and

192.168.1.254.

• If a packet is sent to a network device other than 192.168.1.97 and 192.168.1.254, an ARP

request must be used.

• If the computer with the IP address of 192.168.1.94 sends a packet to the device with the IP

address 192.168.1.97, no ARP request is required.

10. Which TCP/IP model layer supports both LAN and WAN technologies?

• network access layer

• internet layer

• transport layer


11. Which subnet mask would be assigned to the network address of 192.168.32.0 to provide 254

useable host addresses per subnetwork?

• 255.255.0.0

• 255.255.255.0

• 255.255.254.0

• 255.255.248.0

12.

Refer to the exhibit. Host A pings host B. When R4 accepts the ping into the Ethernet interface,

what two pieces of header information are included? (Choose two.)

• source IP address: 192.168.10.129

• source IP address: BBBB.3333.5677

• source MAC address: 5555.AAAA.6666

• destination IP address: 192.168.10.33


• destination MAC address: 9999.DADC.1234

13. What header address information does a router change in the information it receives from an

attached Ethernet interface before information is transmitted out another interface?

• only the Layer 2 source address

• only the Layer 2 destination address



• the Layer 2 source and destination address


14.

Host A is connected to the LAN, but it cannot connect to the Internet. The host configuration is

shown in the exhibit. What are the two problems with this configuration? (Choose two.)

• The host subnet mask is incorrect.

• The host is not configured for subnetting.

• The default gateway is a network address.

• The default gateway is on a different network than the host.

• The host IP address is on a different network from the Serial interface of the router.

15. An IP network address has been subnetted so that every subnetwork has 14 usable host IP

addresses. What is the appropriate subnet mask for the newly created subnetworks?

• 255.255.255.128

• 255.255.255.224

• 255.255.255.240

• 255.255.255.248

• 255.255.255.252

16. A company is using a Class B IP addressing scheme and expects to need as many as 100

networks. What is the correct subnet mask to use with the network configuration?

• 255.255.0.0

• 255.255.240.0

• 255.255.254.0

• 255.255.255.0

• 255.255.255.128

• 255.255.255.192

17.

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has assigned the internetwork of LBMISS an

address range of 192.168.10.0. This address range has been subnetted using a /29 mask. In order

to accommodate a new building, the technician has decided to use the fifth subnet for

configuring the new network. By company policies, the router interface is always assigned the

first usable host address and the workgroup server is given the last usable host address. Which

configuration should be entered into the IP server properties to get connectivity to the network

through the router?

• IP address: 192.168.10.38 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.240 Default gateway: 192.168.10.39





18.

Refer to the exhibit. A technician is planning an addressing scheme for a branch office as shown

in the exhibit. What is the status of the intended network?

• The configuration will work as planned.

• The subnetwork mask of host A is incorrect.

• The default gateway of host A is a network address.

• The addresses on the router LAN interfaces are on the same subnetwork.

• The IP address of host A is on a different subnetwork than the subnetwork that the Ethernet

router interface is on.

19.

Refer to the exhibit. After host 2 is connected to the switch on the LAN, host 2 is unable to

communicate with host 1. What is the cause of this problem?

• The subnet mask of host 2 is incorrect.

• Host 1 and host 2 are on different networks.

• The switch needs an IP address that is not configured.

• The router LAN interface and host 1 are on different networks.

• The IP address of host 1 is on a different network than is the LAN interface of the router.

20.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is planning the addressing scheme for the LAN

using 172.25.14.0/26. The hosts are to be assigned addresses 172.25.14.1 – 172.25.14.25. The LAN

interface of the router is to be configured using 172.25.14.63 as the IP address. What would

describe this addressing scheme?

• The LAN is being addressed properly.

• The subnet that is being assigned is not a usable subnet address.

• The router LAN interface is being assigned a broadcast address.

• The subnet mask does not allow enough host addresses in a single subnet.

21. Which type of routing allows routers to adapt to network changes?

• static routes

• dynamic routing

• only default routes

• No routing is necessary.

22. How does a router decide where the contents of a received frame should be forwarded?

• by matching destination IP addresses with networks in the routing table

• by matching the destination IP address with IP addresses listed in the ARP table

• by matching the destination MAC address with MAC addresses listed in the CAM table

• by forwarding the frame to all interfaces except the interface on which the frame was received

23. What do switches and routers use to make forwarding decisions?

• Switches and routers both use IP addresses.

• Switches and routers use both MAC and IP addresses.

• Switches use IP addresses. Routers use MAC addresses.

• Switches use MAC addresses. Routers use IP addresses.

• Switches use MAC and IP addresses. Routers use IP addresses.

24.

Refer to the exhibit. A newly hired technician is testing the connectivity of all hosts by

issuing a ping command. The technician notices that a default gateway is not configured on all

the hosts, but all hosts have connectivity between hosts, a fact which seems to confuse the

technician. How would you explain the connectivity to the technician?

• The hosts are detecting the default gateway configured on the hub.

• The hosts are all in one LAN, so default gateway information is not needed.

• The hosts in the network only require that one host has a gateway configured.

• The hosts in the network would only need a gateway if a switch replaces the hub.

• The hosts are using broadcast to reach each other since no gateway is configured.

25. Given a host with the IP address 172.32.65.13 and a default subnet mask, to which network

does the host belong?

• 172.32.65.0

• 172.32.65.32

• 172.32.0.0

• 172.32.32.0


1. At which layer of the OSI model does the device reside that is functioning as the default

gateway for hosts on a network?

• Layer 1

• Layer 2

• Layer 3

• Layer 4

• Layer 5

• Layer 7

2. A company is planning to subnet its network for a maximum of 27 hosts. Which subnet mask

would provide the needed hosts and leave the fewest unused addresses in each subnet?

• 255.255.255.0

• 255.255.255.192

• 255.255.255.224

• 255.255.255.240


• 255.255.255.248

3.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is planning the addressing scheme for the LAN

using 172.25.14.0/26. The hosts are to be assigned addresses 172.25.14.1 – 172.25.14.25. The LAN

interface of the router is to be configured using 172.25.14.63 as the IP address. What would

describe this addressing scheme?

• The LAN is being addressed properly.

• The subnet that is being assigned is not a usable subnet address.

• The router LAN interface is being assigned a broadcast address.

• The subnet mask does not allow enough host addresses in a single subnet.

4.

Refer to the exhibit. A student in the Cisco network class has designed a small office network

to enable hosts to access the Internet. What recommendation should the teacher provide to the

student in regards to the network design?

• Replace the Layer 2 switch with a hub.

• Replace the Layer 2 switch with a router.

• Replace the Layer 2 switch with a bridge.

• Replace the Layer 2 switch with a transceiver.

5. Which type of routing allows routers to adapt to network changes?

• static routes

• dynamic routing

• only default routes

• No routing is necessary.

6.

Refer to the exhibit. Host A pings host B. When R4 accepts the ping into the Ethernet interface,

what two pieces of header information are included? (Choose two.)

• source IP address: 192.168.10.129

• source IP address: BBBB.3333.5677

• source MAC address: 5555.AAAA.6666



• destination MAC address: 9999.DADC.1234

7. Given a host with the IP address 172.32.65.13 and a default subnet mask, to which network

does the host belong?

• 172.32.65.0

• 172.32.65.32

• 172.32.0.0

• 172.32.32.0

8. What header address information does a router change in the information it receives from an

attached Ethernet interface before information is transmitted out another interface?







9.

Host A is connected to the LAN, but it cannot connect to the Internet. The host configuration is

shown in the exhibit. What are the two problems with this configuration? (Choose two.)


• The host is not configured for subnetting.


• The default gateway is on a different network than the host.

• The host IP address is on a different network from the Serial interface of the router.

10.

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has assigned the internetwork of LBMISS an

address range of 192.168.10.0. This address range has been subnetted using a /29 mask. In order

to accommodate a new building, the technician has decided to use the fifth subnet for

configuring the new network. By company policies, the router interface is always assigned the

first usable host address and the workgroup server is given the last usable host address. Which

configuration should be entered into the IP server properties to get connectivity to the network

through the router?






11. How does a router decide where the contents of a received frame should be forwarded?

• by matching destination IP addresses with networks in the routing table

• by matching the destination IP address with IP addresses listed in the ARP table

• by matching the destination MAC address with MAC addresses listed in the CAM table

• by forwarding the frame to all interfaces except the interface on which the frame was received

12.

Refer to the exhibit. A newly hired technician is testing the connectivity of all hosts by

issuing a ping command. The technician notices that a default gateway is not configured on all

the hosts, but all hosts have connectivity between hosts, a fact which seems to confuse the

technician. How would you explain the connectivity to the technician?

• The hosts are detecting the default gateway configured on the hub.

• The hosts are all in one LAN, so default gateway information is not needed.

• The hosts in the network only require that one host has a gateway configured.

• The hosts in the network would only need a gateway if a switch replaces the hub.

• The hosts are using broadcast to reach each other since no gateway is configured.

13. What do switches and routers use to make forwarding decisions?

• Switches and routers both use IP addresses.

• Switches and routers use both MAC and IP addresses.

• Switches use IP addresses. Routers use MAC addresses.

• Switches use MAC addresses. Routers use IP addresses.

• Switches use MAC and IP addresses. Routers use IP addresses.

14.

Refer to the exhibit. Host A is connected to the LAN, but it cannot get access to any resources

on the Internet. The configuration of the host is shown in the exhibit. What could be the cause

of the problem?



• The default gateway is a broadcast address.

• The default gateway is on a different subnet from the host.

15. How does subnetting provide some level of security in a network?

• The number of switches must increase.

• The collisions prevent the copying of data.

• The broadcasts are contained within a subnet.

• The number of host IP addresses is increased.

16.

Refer to the exhibit. After host 2 is connected to the switch on the LAN, host 2 is unable to

communicate with host 1. What is the cause of this problem?

• The subnet mask of host 2 is incorrect.

• Host 1 and host 2 are on different networks.

• The switch needs an IP address that is not configured.

• The router LAN interface and host 1 are on different networks.

• The IP address of host 1 is on a different network than is the LAN interface of the router.

17. What is the purpose of a subnet mask in a network?

• A subnet mask is not necessary when a default gateway is specified.

• A subnet mask is required only when bits are borrowed on a network.

• A subnet mask is used to determine in which subnet an IP address belongs.

• A subnet mask is used to separate the 48-bit address into the OUI and the vendor serial

number.

18. Refer to the exhibit. A technician is planning an addressing scheme for a branch office as

shown in the exhibit. What is the status of the intended network?

• The configuration will work as planned.

• The subnetwork mask of host A is incorrect.

• The default gateway of host A is a network address.

• The addresses on the router LAN interfaces are on the same subnetwork.

• The IP address of host A is on a different subnetwork than the subnetwork that the Ethernet

router interface is on.

19. What is the primary purpose of a routing protocol?

• to propagate broadcast messages

• to map IP addresses to MAC addresses

• to switch traffic to all available interfaces

• sharing network information between routers

20. Which statements describe Layer 2 and Layer 3 packet address changes as the packet traverses

from router to router? (Choose two.)

• Layer 3 header is removed and replaced at every Layer 3 device.

• Layer 2 and Layer 3 addresses do not change when the packet traverse.

• Layer 3 source and destination addresses do not change when the packet traverse.

• Layer 2 frame header and trailer are removed and replaced at every Layer 3 device.

• Layer 2 source and destination addresses do not change when the packet travels.

21. Which type of routing uses manual entry of information and does not scale well in large

internetworks?

• interior

• exterior

• static

• dynamic

22. Company XYZ uses a network address of 192.168.4.0. It uses the mask of 255.255.255.224 to

create subnets. What is the maximum number of usable hosts in each subnet?

• 6

• 14

• 30

• 62

23. A company is using a Class B IP addressing scheme and expects to need as many as 100

networks. What is the correct subnet mask to use with the network configuration?

• 255.255.0.0

• 255.255.240.0

• 255.255.254.0

• 255.255.255.0

• 255.255.255.128

• 255.255.255.192

24. Which device would add security to a network by not forwarding broadcasts?

• hub

• router

• switch

• bridge

• repeater

25. An IP network address has been subnetted so that every subnetwork has 14 usable host IP

addresses. What is the appropriate subnet mask for the newly created subnetworks?

• 255.255.255.128

• 255.255.255.224

• 255.255.255.240

• 255.255.255.248

• 255.255.255.252


1 .Which port numbers are commonly assigned for FTP use? (Choose two.)

• 19

• 20

• 21

• 22

2 Which application layer protocol allows network devices to exchange management information?

• SMTP

• SNMP

• FTP

• TFTP

• EIGRP

3 FTP provides a reliable, connection-oriented service for transferring of files. Which

transport layer protocol is used for data transfer when this service is being used?

• TFTP

• TCP

• DNS

• IP

• UDP

4 TCP is referred to as connection-oriented. What does this mean?

• TCP uses only LAN connections.

• TCP requires devices to be directly connected.

• TCP negotiates a session for data transfer between hosts.

• TCP reassembles the data steams in the order that it is received.

5 What three pieces of information does the transport layer use to manage the communication of

separate data streams between hosts? (Choose three.)

• port numbers

• checksum values

• authentication keys

• sequence numbers

• encryption algorithms

• acknowledgment numbers

6 What does the http portion of the URL http://www.cisco.com/edu/ communicate to a web browser?

• The web browser needs to locate the www server.

• The address is located on a site whose name is http.

• The web browser is notified as to which protocol to use.

• The http portion represents the type of web browser that needs to be used.

7 When the receiving workstation detects an error in the data it has received, it does not

acknowledge receipt of the data. The source workstation retransmits the unacknowledged data.

Which layer of the OSI model supports this process of retransmission?

• network

• application

• session

• transport

8 What are the features of the User Datagram Protocol (UDP). (Choose three.)

• no guaranteed delivery of datagrams

• connection-oriented

• provides reliable full-duplex data transmission

• reliability provided by the application layer


• connectionless

• utilizes sliding windowing techniques

9 Which Application layer protocol is widely used to support resolving host names to IP

addresses?

• FTP

• SMTP

• SNMP

• DNS

• HTTP

• WWW

10 What is the purpose of TCP/UDP port numbers?

• indicate the beginning of a three-way handshake

• reassemble the segments into the correct order

• identify the number of data packets that may be sent without acknowledgment

• track different conversations crossing the network at the same time

11 If an application uses a protocol that exchanges data without using windowing or flow control

and must rely on higher layer protocols for reliability, which protocol and transfer methods are

being used?

• UDP, connection-oriented

• UDP, connectionless

• TCP, connection-oriented

• TCP, connectionless

12 Which protocol is used to transfer files from computer to computer but is considered

connectionless?

• FTP

• TFTP

• SNMP

• TCP

• DHCP

13 Which layer of the OSI model can provide a connection-oriented, reliable data transfer

between two hosts?

• Application

• Presentation

• Session

• Transport

14 Which of the following are primary duties of the OSI transport layer? (Choose two.)

• path determination

• end-to-end connectivity

• flow control

• security control

• data representation

• encryption of data

15 Which protocol is used by e-mail servers to communicate with each other?

• FTP

• HTTP

• TFTP

• SMTP

• POP

SNMP

CCNA 2 Router and Routing Basics (Version 3.1)

CCNA 2 - Module 1 Exam

1. Which of the following descriptions are true regarding the management connections on a Cisco

router? (Choose three.)

• They are non-network connections.

• They are used to connect the router to the rest of the production network.

• They are synchronous serial ports.

• They are used for initial router configuration.

• They are asynchronous serial ports.

• They are accessed using their assigned IP address.

2. The console port can be used for which of the following? (Choose three.)

• debugging

• password recovery

• routing data between networks

http://ccna-cisco-academy.blogspot.com/2007/09/ccna-2-router-and-routing-basics.html

http://ccna-cisco-academy.blogspot.com/2007/09/ccna-2-module-1-exam-answers.html

• troubleshooting

• connecting one router to another

3. Which of the following describes the function of a WAN?

• connects peripherals in a single location

• connects multiple networks in a single building

• provides connectivity on a LAN

• provides connectivity over a large geographic area

4. An internetwork must include which of the following? (Choose three.)

• switching

• static addressing

• IETF standardization

• dynamic or static routing

• consistent end-to-end addressing

5. ABC Company just purchased three new routers to start their company network. Which items are

needed to establish a terminal session between a PC and the router for the initial

configuration? (Choose three.)

• straight-through cable

• terminal emulation software

• rollover cable

• RJ-45 to DB-9 connector

• V.35 cable

6.

Terminal emulation software, such as HyperTerminal, can be used to configure a router. Which of

the following HyperTerminal options shown in the graphic are correctly set to allow

configuration of a Cisco router? (Choose three.)

• bits per second

• data bits

• parity

• stop bits

• flow control

7. Which of the following devices are used in the construction of a WAN? (Choose three.)

• hubs

• routers

• communication servers

• transceivers

• modems

• multi-port repeaters

8. Which of the following are functions of RAM? (Choose three.)

• contains startup configuration file

• stores routing table

• holds fast switching cache

• retains contents when power is removed

• stores running configuration file

9. Why is a console connection to a router or switch preferred when troubleshooting? (Choose

two.)

• can be accessed remotely

• does not depend on network services

• displays startup and error messages by default

• does not require special components

10. Which basic components do a router and a standard desktop PC have in common? (Choose three.)

• CPU

• hard drive

• input/output interfaces

• keyboard

• monitor

• system bus

11. During the initial configuration of a 2600 series Cisco router, which cable is required for

connecting a PC to the console port?

• twisted

• crossover

• rollover

• straight

12. A router is composed of many internal components. Which of the following components stores a

copy of the router's configuration file?

• metal-oxide memory

• read only memory

• flash memory

• non-volatile random access memory

13. What contains the instructions that a router uses to control the flow of traffic through its

interfaces?

• packet configuration

• configuration files

• flash memory

• internal components

14. Several Ethernet hosts on a LAN need the gateway services of a Cisco 2500 series router.

Which of the following would be needed to physically connect a router to all of the hosts on the

LAN? (Choose two.)

• a crossover cable between the transceiver on a router and a switch

• crossover cables between a switch and hosts on a LAN

• a straight-through cable between the auxiliary port on a router and a switch

• a rollover cable between the console port on a router and a switch

• straight-through cables between a switch and hosts on a LAN

• a straight-through cable between the transceiver on a router and a switch

15. Which router component holds the configuration file when power is lost?

• volatile random access memory

• read only memory

• non-volatile random access memory

• flash memory

16. Which of the following layers of the OSI model are incorporated in WAN standards? (Choose

two.)

• physical layer


• transport layer

• data link layer

• session layer

17. Which of the following are true regarding router interfaces? (Choose three.)

• provide temporary memory for the router configuration files

• connect the router to the network for packet entry and exit

• can be on the motherboard or a separate module

• hold the IOS image

• connect the router to LANs and WANs

18. Which of the following tasks can be accomplished through a management connection on a

router? (Choose three.)

• troubleshooting problems

• monitoring the system

• capturing LAN data packets

• configuring the router

• routing data packets

19. What do routers use to select the best path for outgoing data packets?

• ARP tables

• bridging tables

• routing tables

• switching tables

20. Which of the following are functions of NVRAM? (Choose two.)

• stores the routing table

• retains contents when power is removed

• stores the startup configuration file

• contains the running configuration file

• stores the ARP table

21. Select the statements that correctly describe flash memory in a 2600 series router? (Choose

two.)

• holds the startup configuration by default

• can be upgraded with single in-line memory modules

• stores Cisco IOS software images

• stores routing table information by default

• maintains the only copy of an IOS image after the router is booted


1. Cisco IOS software is separated into two levels as a security feature. What are those two

levels? (Choose two.)

• global

• privileged

• local

• user

• interface

2. When the router output is being viewed through a terminal program, which statements are true

regarding the --More-- prompt at the bottom of the router display? (Choose two.)

• Press the Spacebar to display the next line.

• Press the Spacebar to view the next screen.

• Press the PgDn key to view the next screen.

• Press the Enter key to display the next line.

• Press the Enter key to view the next screen.

3. Which command takes precedence if the commands enable password and enable secret are both

configured on a router?

• enable password

• enable secret

• Neither. They are both enabled.

• Neither. They cancel each other out.

4. What baud rate needs to be configured on terminal emulation software to allow a connection to

the console port of a router?

• 2400

• 4800

• 9600

• 14200

• 38400

5. What information about the router and its startup process can be gathered from the output of

the show version command? (Choose three.)

• the last restart method

• the command buffer contents

• the amount of NVRAM and FLASH used

• the configuration register settings

• the location from where the IOS loaded

6. Which keystroke is used to move to the beginning of a command line?

• Ctrl-A

• Ctrl-B

• Esc-A

• Esc-B

• Ctrl-C

• Ctrl-Z

7. What does the command sh? return as output if issued at the Router# prompt?

• all show commands allowed in privileged mode

• all commands beginning with the letters sh

• an incomplete command error message

• an invalid command error message

8. Which tasks can be accomplished by using the command history feature? (Choose two.)

• View a list of commands entered in a previous session.

• Recall up to 15 command lines by default.

• Set the command history buffer size.

• Recall previously entered commands.

• Save command lines in a log file for future reference.

http://ccna-cisco-academy.blogspot.com/2007/09/ccna2-module-2-exam.html

9. What information does the name of the IOS file provide to the network administrator? (Choose

three.)

• the amount of NVRAM required to run the image

• he hardware platform the image runs on

• the various software platforms the image can run on

• special features and capabilities of the image

• the bandwidth supported by the IOS

• where the image executes from and if it has been compressed

10. Which of the following is the correct flow of routines for a router startup?

• load bootstrap, load IOS, apply configuration

• load bootstrap, apply configuration, load IOS

• load IOS, load bootstrap, apply configuration, check hardware

• check hardware, apply configuration, load bootstrap, load IOS

11. Which tasks can be performed in the ROM monitor mode? (Choose two.)

• recover from system failures

• create startup configuration files

• recover from lost passwords

• configure IP addresses on all router interfaces

• perform high level diagnostics

12. Which of the following statements concerning router interface modes are correct? (Choose

three.)

• User EXEC mode provides commands to monitor router operation.

• Privileged EXEC mode only provides commands to change or configure router operation.

• Password protected configuration modes can be accessed from either user EXEC or privileged

EXEC modes.

• On a router with the name Core1, the prompt indicating privileged EXEC mode is Core1#.

• The command to enter privileged EXEC mode is Router# enable.

• A username and password may be required to enter privileged EXEC mode.

13. Under what conditions does the router enter setup mode? (Choose three.)

• immediately after issuing the command Router#erase start

• after issuing the command Router#setup

• during the initial configuration of a router

• after deleting the backup configuration and reloading the router

• after deleting the running configuration

14. A network administrator needs to configure a router. Which of the following connection

methods requires network functionality to be accessible?

• console

• AUX

• Telnet

• modem

15. After the active IOS image has been loaded into RAM from flash memory, which commands could

be used to display the file name of the active IOS? (Choose two.

• Router# show IOS

• Router# show flash

• Router# show nvram

• Router# show version

• Router# show startup-config

• Router# show running-config

16. What is the default sequence for loading the configuration file?

• NVRAM, FLASH, ROM

• FLASH, TFTP,CONSOLE

• NVRAM, TFTP, CONSOLE

• FLASH, TFTP, ROM

17. Which connection method can be used to perform the initial configuration of a router?

• use a serial connection of a computer connected to the console port of a router

• telnet to the router through a serial port

• use a vty port through the Ethernet interface

• use a modem connected to the AUX port of the router

18. Which keystrokes can be used to return to the privileged mode from the interface

configuration mode?

• Ctrl-P

• Ctrl-Shift-6, then X

• Ctrl-Z

• Esc

19.

Which of the following identifies the correct items needed to initially configure a router?

• 1) DB-9-to-RJ-45 on the PC's serial port

2) a straight through cable

3) the router's console port

• 1) PC's Ethernet port

2) a crossover cable

3) the router's Ethernet port


2) a rollover cable



2) a rollover cable



2) a rollover cable



2) a rollover cable



1. Why is it important to create standards for network consistency? (Choose three.)

• reduces network complexity

• increases unplanned downtime

• limits unplanned downtime

• increases bandwidth by regulating networking performance

• limits events that may impact network performance

2. Select the recommended locations to save a running-config file. (Choose three.)

• all network hosts

• network server

• floppy disk

• TFTP server

• server that is not on the network

3. Router names are associated with IP addresses. What is the name of the table that is created

by this association?

• IP table

• SAP table

• ARP table

• MAC table

• HOST table

• RARP table

4. Which commands display information about the IOS or configuration files stored in router

memory? (Choose three.)

• Router# show ram


• Router# show hosts

• Router# show history


• Router# show startup-config

5.

http://ccna-cisco-academy.blogspot.com/2007/09/ccna-2-module-3-exam.html

The serial connection shown in the graphic needs to be configured. Which configuration commands

must be made on the Sydney router to establish connectivity with the Melbourne site? (Choose

three.)

• Sydney(config-if)# ip address 201.100.53.2 255.255.255.0

• Sydney(config-if)# no shutdown

• Sydney(config-if)# ip address 201.100.53.1 255.255.255.224

• Sydney(config-if)# clock rate 56000

• Sydney(config-if)# ip host Melbourne 201.100.53.2

6. What are the default settings for a serial interface? (Choose three.)

• DTE

• DCE

• shutdown

• no IP address

• clock rate 56000

• encapsulation ARPA

7. A network administrator wants to assure that any password that permits access to the

privileged EXEC mode is not shown in plain text in the configuration files. Which commands will

accomplish this task? (Choose two.)

• Router(config)#enable cisco secret

• Router(config)#enable cisco

• Router(config)#service password-encryption

• Router(config)#enable secret cisco

• Router(config)#encrypt-all cisco

• Router(config)#service encryption-password

8. What will be the response from the router after the command, "router(config)# hostname

portsmouth" is entered?

• portsmouth#

• portsmouth(config)#

• invalid input detected

router(config-host)#

• hostname = portsmouth

portsmouth#

• ? command not recognized

router(config)#

9. Select the correct sequence of commands that will configure "Engineering LAN" as the

interface description on the Ethernet0 interface.

• Router# configure terminal

Router(config)# interface e0 description Engineering LAN


Router(config)# interface e0

Router(config-if)# description Engineering LAN


Router(config)# interface e0

Router(config-if)# interface description Engineering LAN


Router(config)# description Engineering LAN

10. Select the commands that will store the current configuration file to a network TFTP server?

(Choose two.)

• Router# copy run tftp

• Router# copy tftp run

• Router# copy running-config tftp

• Router# copy tftp running-config

• Router(config)# copy running-config tftp

• Router(config)# copy tftp running-config

11. Passwords can be used to restrict access to all or parts of the Cisco IOS. Select the modes

and interfaces that can be protected with passwords. (Choose three.)

• VTY interface

• console interface

• Ethernet interface

• secret EXEC mode

• privileged EXEC mode

• router configuration mode

12. What is the default state of the interfaces on a router?

• up, line protocol down

• down, line protocol down

• adminstratively down, line protocol down

• up, line protocol up

13. Which command turns on a router interface?

• Router(config-if)# enable

• Router(config-if)# no down

• Router(config-if)# s0 active

• Router(config-if)# interface up

• Router(config-if)# no shutdown

14. A telnet session can be established when using the IP address of a router but not the name

of the router. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the problem?

• an incorrect host table entry

• an incorrect ARP table entry

• an incorrect routing table entry

• an incorrect protocol configured

• an incorrect subnet mask

15. Select the interface descriptions that provide the most appropriate information. (Choose

two.)

• circuit number

• host IP address

• telnet password

• number of hops between routers

• purpose and location of the interface

16. Select the commands necessary to remove any existing configuration on a router. (Choose

two.)

delete flash

• erase startup-config

• erase running-config

• restart

• reload

• delete NVRAM

17. An IP network is to be added to a router Ethernet interface. What steps must be performed to

configure this interface to allow connectivity to the hosts on this LAN? (Choose two.)

• Enter the command no shutdown.

• A password must be set on the interface.

• The interface DCE clock rate must be set.

• The interface must be configured for virtual terminal access.

• The interface must be configured with an IP address and subnet mask.

• The router must be put in setup mode in order for the interface to be configured.

18. Which command sequence will permit access to all five router virtual terminal lines with a

password of cisco?

• Router(config-line)#config telnet

Router(config-line)# line vty 0 5

Router(config-line)# password cisco

• Router(config)# line vty 0 4

Router(config)# password cisco

• Router(config)# line vty 0 4


Router(config-line)# login

• Router(config-line)# config telnet


Router(config-line)# sessions 0 4

19. Which statements are true regarding the recommended use of login banners? (Choose two.)

• They should be used to display information regarding system changes or maintenance.

• They should be used to display warnings to unauthorized users.

• They should be used to display welcome messages prior to login.

• They should be seen only by system administrators.

• They should provide confirmation of incoming IP addresses.

20. Which are valid router prompts? (Choose three.)

• Router(privileged)#

• Router(config)#

• Router(command)#

• Router(config-router)#

• Router(config-if)#

• Router(exec)#

21. What is the effect of the command ip host HQ 192.1.1.1?

• permits a ping to 192.1.1.1 with the command ping HQ

• assigns the description HQ to the interface with the ip address 192.1.1.1

• renames the router as HQ

• defines a static route to the host 192.1.1.1

• configures the remote device HQ with the ip address of 192.1.1.1

22. What must be configured to establish a serial link between two routers that are directly

connected?

• a clock rate on the DTE interface

• a no clock rate command on the DTE interface

• no configuration is required

• a clock rate on the DCE interface


1 A network administrator was called away from the terminal while using Telnet to monitor a

remote router. The Telnet session was left connected. If the default Telnet configuration is

used, what will the administrator find upon returning 15 minutes later?

• The Telnet session entered a "sleep" state and will resume when the spacebar is pressed.

• The Telnet session remained connected and is on the same screen it was left on.

• The Telnet session suspended itself and will resume when the Enter key is pressed.

• The Telnet session terminated itself after 10 minutes of inactivity.

• The Telnet session remained active but now requires the password to be entered again.

2 What is the main use of Telnet?

• transfer of data between end users

• verification of simple connectivity

• routing of data packets

• remote connection to network devices

3

Which of the following is true regarding CDP and the graphic shown?

• CDP running on Router D will gather information about routers A, B, C, and E.

• By default, Router A will receive CDP advertisements from routers B and C.

• If routers D and E are running different routing protocols, they will not exchange CDP

information.

• Router E can use CDP to identify the IOS running on Router B.

4 Which of the following are displayed by the Router# show cdp neighbors command? (Choose

three.)

• load


• platform

• reliability

• holdtime

• local interface

5 To obtain CDP information from a Cisco router that is not directly connected to the

administrator's console, what must happen?

• The source router must send TLV blocks to the remote router.

• The administrator can Telnet to a Cisco device that is connected to the remote router.

• The administrator needs to issue the Router# show cdp all to view the entire network CDP

advertisements.

• The administrator must transmit TTL packets to the remote device and wait for a response.

6 What is the purpose of the cdp timer command?

• specifies the hold time to be sent in the CDP update packet

• resets the traffic counters back to zero

• specifies how often the Cisco IOS software sends CDP updates

• deletes and resets the CDP table of information about neighbors

7 An administrator is attempting to enable CDP on the interface of a Cisco router. After issuing

the command Router(config-if)# cdp enable, the router responds with an error stating that CDP is

not active. What might be the problem?

• The cdp enable command must be issued from the global mode prompt.

• The administrator needed to issue the command Router(config-if)# cdp run.

• CDP has not been configured globally.

• The administrator did not manually enter the CDP neighbors into the CDP table.

8

The traceroute command was used to trace the path between routers A and D. What would an output

display of three asterisks (***) indicate?

• The command was issued from the wrong prompt.

• Each datagram was successfully sent.

• One of the routers is unreachable.

• There are three hops between source and destination.

9

Pings between Atlanta and Dallas are successful. If a hostname table or DNS connection is not

available, which command will successfully establish a remote connection from Atlanta to Dallas

via Telnet?

• Atlanta> connect Dallas

• Atlanta> 197.72.3.2

• Atlanta# 206.157.85.1

• Atlanta# telnet Dallas

10 How many Telnet sessions can take place simultaneously on a router running a standard edition

of the IOS?

• 4

• 5

• 8

• 10

11 Why would an administrator use the Telnet application when troubleshooting a network? (Choose

three.)

• It can be used to verify the operation of application layer software between the source and

destination.

• Telnet can use the ICMP protocol to verify a hardware connection and network layer address.

• It is the most complete testing mechanism available.

• Remote networks may be accessed via a Telnet session for troubleshooting.

• Time to Live values are used by Telnet to identify a failure of device between source and

destination.

12 For which three network layer protocols does CDP provide information? (Choose three.)

• IP

• RIP

• SNMP

• AppleTalk

• IPX

• EIGRP

13

If the network administrator establishes a telnet session from Workstation 2 to GAD and then

from GAD to BHM, what occurs if the session with BHM is suspended and the Enter key is pressed?

• The GAD session will be resumed.

• The BHM session will be resumed.

• The GAD session will be terminated.

• The BHM session will be terminated.

14 Transmitting type length values (TLVs) inside advertisements is a process used by CDP to

provide information about neighboring devices. What information is displayed by these TLVs?

(Choose three.)

• interface information of the connected device

• all networks connected to the neighboring device

• name of the connected device

• routing protocol used on the neighboring device

• holdtime for advertisements

15

Which command will produce the output shown in the graphic?

• show cdp

• show cdp neighbors

• show cdp neighbors detail

• show cdp detail

• show cdp traffic

16 What key sequence is used to suspend a Telnet session on a remote router?

• Ctrl-Shift-S

• Ctrl-Shift-6

• Ctrl-Shift-6, then x

• Ctrl-Alt-S

• Ctrl-Alt-6

• Ctrl-Alt-6, then x

17 What command enables CDP on the interface of a router?

• Router(config-if)# cdp enable

• Router(config-if)# cdp run

• Router(config-if)# cdp start

• Router(config-if)# cdp config

18 How can a network administrator logged in to RTA gather information about the Cisco devices

that are directly connected to its neighbor, RTB?

• Use the show cdp neighbors detail command on RTA to view information about every device on the

entire internetwork.

• Use ping to determine the status of RTB, then issue the show cdp neighbors detail command.

• Use Telnet to connect to RTB, then issue the show cdp neighbors command.

• Use traceroute to establish the pathway to RTB, then issue the show cdp neighbors command.


1 Which command will display the source of the system boot image?


• Router# show config-register

• Router# show start-up config



2 Routers have different types of memory. Choose the answer that describes flash memory.

• provides working storage

• stores a fully functional IOS image


• initializes the code used to boot the router

3 Routers have different types of memory. Choose the answer that describes NVRAM.

• provides working storage

• stores a fully functional IOS image


• initializes the code that is used to boot the router

4 Which command will backup configuration files from RAM to NVRAM or a TFTP server?

• backup

• copy

• telnet

• move

5 Which two items below are required by routers in order for them to perform their basic

operations? (Choose two.)

• a tftp server

• a configuration file

• a configuration register file

• an operating system file

• a DNS table

6 An IOS image can be copied into flash from a TFTP server. Which of the following statements

are true regarding this process? (Choose three.)

• A series of "!'s" are displayed as the image is downloaded successfully to flash.

• The copy tftp flash:filename ip address command is used to copy the IOS from the server to

flash.

• After the new flash image is downloaded, it is verified.


• A series of "e's" are displayed as the current IOS image is erased from flash.

• Flash must be cleared with the erase command prior to beginning the download process.

7 Which part of the configuration register indicates the location of the IOS?

• the bootstrap

• the boot field

• the IOS locator

• the system image loader

8 Which of the following can be configured as a source for the IOS image by using the boot

system command? (Choose two.)

• TFTP server

• HTTP server

• Telnet server

• Flash memory

• NVRAM memory

9 Which command is used to change the order in which the router looks for system bootstrap

information?

• config-image

• config-system

• config-register

• config-bootfield

• config system bootstrap

10 Which command will copy an IOS image from a TFTP server to a router?

• Router# copy tftp flash

• Router# copy flash tftp

• Router(config)# copy tftp flash

• Router(config)# copy flash tftp

11 What command can be used in ROM monitor mode to run the IOS image in flash?

• rommon1> config-register 0x2102

• rommon1> boot flash:filename

• rommon1> xmodem:filename

• rommon1> boot system flash:filename

• rommon1> reload system flash:

12 The Cisco IOS image naming convention allows identification of different versions and

capabilities of the IOS. What information can be gained from the filename c2600-d-mz.121-4?

(Choose two.)

• The "mz" in the filename represents the special capabilities and features of the IOS.

• The file is uncompressed and requires 2.6 MB of RAM to run.

• The software is version 12.1, 4th revision.

• The file is downloadable and 121.4MB in size.

• The IOS is for the Cisco 2600 series hardware platform.

13 Where does a router look for boot system statements?

• ROM

• RAM

• NVRAM

• Flash

14 What does a configuration register setting of 0x2102 indicate on a router?

• It tells the router to locate and load the IOS from NVRAM.

• It tells the router to locate and load the IOS from FLASH.

• It tells the router to bypass the configuration in NVRAM.

• It tells the router to look in the startup configuration for boot system commands.

15 If a router cannot find a valid configuration file during the startup sequence, what will

occur?

• The startup sequence will reset.

• The router will prompt the user for a response to enter setup mode.

• The startup sequence will halt until a valid configuration file is acquired.

• The router will generate a default configuration file based on the last valid configuration.

• The router will monitor local traffic to determine routing protocol configuration

requirements.

16 If the configuration register instructs a router to look for configuration information in

NVRAM and no boot system commands exist there, from where will the router next attempt to boot

the IOS?

• RAMR

• ROM

• FLASH

• EPROM

• ROMMON

17 If boot system commands have been configured, which of the following could happen if a router

fails to obtain an IOS image from the primary sources during bootup?

• The router will load a subset of a full IOS version from system ROM.

• The router will attempt to reboot two times before failing.

• The router will load the last good IOS image from NVRAM.

• The administrator will be prompted to load a valid IOS image.

18 The router has been configured with a valid configuration file. Which of the following could

be a cause for a router not booting normally? (Choose two.)

• The flash image is corrupt.

• A console cable is disconnected.

• The flash image is located in NVRAM.

• The startup configuration file is incomplete.

• The router encountered a hardware error.

19 Which of the following are steps in saving a router configuration file to a TFTP server?

(Choose three.)

• Enter configuration mode.

• Enter the IP address to the TFTP server.

• Use the copy running-config tftp command.

• Use the copy tftp running-config command.

• Name the configuration file or accept the default name.


1 What can be concluded about the routing process on a router if the commands router rip and

network 192.5.5.0 have been issued? (Choose three.)

• A distance vector routing protocol was used.

• A link-state routing protocol was used.

• Routing updates will broadcast every 30 seconds.

• Routing updates will broadcast every 90 seconds.

• Hop count is the metric used for route selection.

• Bandwidth, load, delay, and reliability are the metrics used for route selection.


2 Which two protocols use an addressing scheme to direct user traffic? (Choose two.)

• IP

• EIGRP

• IPX

• OSPF

• RIP

3 What are some of the advantages of using a link-state routing protocol instead of a distance

vector routing protocol? (Choose two.)

• The topology database eliminates the need for a routing table.

• Frequent periodic updates are sent to minimize the number of incorrect routes in the

topological database.

• Routers have direct knowledge of all links in the network and how they are connected.

• After the inital LSA flooding, they generally require less bandwidth to communicate changes in

a topology.

• Link-state protocols require less router processor power than distance vector protocols.

4 If dynamic routing is not configured on a router, how do routing table updates occur?

• Link state advertisements are sent from other routers.

• Updates are made to the routing table by the administrator.

• Best path information is communicated by network hosts.

• The routing table is updated by neighboring routers.

5 Why is fast convergence desirable in networks that use dynamic routing protocols?

• Routers will not allow packets to be forwarded until the network has converged.

• Hosts are unable to access their gateway until the network has converged.

• Routers may make incorrect forwarding decisions until the network has converged.

• Routers will not allow configuration changes to be made until the network has converged.

6 What is the purpose of a routing protocol?

• It is used to build and maintain ARP tables.

• It provides a method for segmenting and reassembling data packets.

• It allows an administrator to devise an addressing scheme for the network.

• It allows a router to share information about known networks with other routers.

• It provides a procedure for encoding and decoding data into bits for packet forwarding.

7 Which are the primary functions used by a router when forwarding data?(Choose two.)

• data encryption

• error notification

• packet switching

• address identification

• path determination

• packet validation

8 How does a router learn about routes to a network? (Choose three.)

• Information is gathered from its own configuration regarding directly connected networks.

• Switches forward destination address information to each router.

• Hosts communicate destination network information to each router.

• Other routers forward information about known networks.

• Routes are entered manually by a network administrator.

• Routes are learned from information gathered from ARP tables.

9 Which type of address does a router use to make routing decisions?

• source IP address

• source MAC address

• destination IP address

• destination MAC address

10 Describe the switching function that occurs in a router.

• allows the router to make forwarding decisions based on Layer 2 addressing

• uses network addressing to select the best route and interface to forward data

• accepts a packet on one interface and forwards it to a second interface

• enables the router to select the most appropriate interface for forwarding a packet

11 Select the statements that describe link-state routing processes? (Choose three.)

• Each router develops its own map of the entire network.

• Routers send triggered updates when changes in the network occur.

• Link-state routing protocols place a higher load on router resources during the routing

protocol initialization.

• Link-state protocols are more prone to routing loops than distance vector routing protocols.

• Networks using link-state routing protocols are slower to reach convergence after changes have

occurred than those using distance vector protocols.

12 Why is it necessary to specify a list of networks when configuring an interior routing

protocol?

• to tell the router how to reach those networks

• to tell the router which attached networks participate in routing updates

• to tell the router which set of metrics to use for the attached networks

• to tell the router which routing protocol to use

13

Assuming that the network shown in the graphic is converged and dynamic routing is enabled,

which of the following conditions will cause a modification to the Orlando routing table?

(Choose two.)

• The device connecting the S0 interface of the Tampa router to the serial link loses power.

• A network administrator shuts down the Orlando router E0 interface.

• A DCHP server connected to the Tampa E1 network loses power.

• The IP address of a workstation on the Orlando E0 network is reassigned.

• A host on the Orlando E1 network transmits data to a server on the Tampa E1 network.

• A Telnet connection to the Orlando router fails.

14 All routers at a medium sized company have been upgraded. During the upgrade, the network

administrator determined that a more advanced routing protocol using a combination of both

distance vector and link state features should be implemented. Which protocol should be

selected?

• RIP

• BGP

• OSPF

• EIGRP

15 Which category of routing algorithms discovers and maintains a topological map of the entire

internetwork?

• static

• Bellman-Ford

• exterior gateway

• Internetwork Packet Exchange

• distance vector

• link-state

16 Which is an exterior routing protocol commonly used between ISPs?

• RIP

• BGP

• OSPF

• EIGRP

17 Which of the following statements are true regarding the command ip route 172.16.1.0

255.255.255.0 172.16.2.1? (Choose three.)

• This command is used to set up a static route.

• This command is used to set up a default route.

• This command is entered from global configuration mode.

• All packets intended for network 172.16.1.0 will be sent to gateway 172.16.2.1.

• All packets intended for network 172.16.2.1 will be sent to gateway 172.16.1.0.

18

Referring to the diagram, which commands will enable hosts on the Idaho E0 network to reach

hosts on the E0 network of the Montana router? (Choose two.)

• Montana(config)# ip route 172.31.5.0 255.255.255.0 172.31.5.1

• Montana(config)# ip route 172.31.3.0 255.255.255.0 172.31.4.1

• Idaho(config)# ip route 172.31.5.0 255.255.255.0 172.31.4.1



19

Which of the following are valid static IP routes? (Choose three.)

• RouterB(config)# ip route 192.168.5.0 255.255.255.0 S1

• RouterC(config)# ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 S1

• RouterA(config)# ip route 192.168.3.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.2.2

• RouterB(config)# ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.2.2

• RouterC(config)# ip route 192.168.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.4.1


20 Given the command, RouterC(config)# ip route 197.5.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.10.1.1, what does

the address 192.10.1.1 represent?

• the source host

• the next hop router

• the outbound interface

• the destination network

21 Which of the following conditions must be met in order for a network to have converged?

• The routers in the network are operating with dynamic routing protocols.

• The routers in the network are operating with compatible versions of IOS.

• The routers in the network are operating with the same routing tables.

• The routers in the network are operating with consistent routing knowledge.

22 Which two statements describe autonomous systems? (Choose two.)

• Interior gateway protocols are used between autonomous systems.

• Exterior gateway protocols are used between autonomous systems.

• An autonomous system may be under the control of multiple organizations.

• An autonomous system is identified by a 16 bit number assigned by ARIN.

• The autonomous system is identified in the network portion of the IP address.


1 Which command or set of commands will stop the RIP routing process?

• RouterB(config)# router rip

RouterB(config-router)# shutdown


RouterB(config-router)# network no 192.168.2.0

• RouterB(config)# no router rip

• RouterB(config)# router no rip

2 When does a distance vector routing protocol set a hold-down timer on a route?

• when the metric value of the route decreases

• when the route is marked as inaccessible

• when the metric value for the route improves

• when a regular update is received from a neighboring router

3 Which of the following functions are performed by a router as routing information travels

through the network? (Choose two.)

• advertise supported applications

• identify new destinations

• calculate packet speed

• verify network scalability

• identify invalid networks

4 What do distance vector algorithms require each router in the network to send?

• a partial routing table to each router in the LAN

• a partial routing table to each router in the WAN

• the entire routing table to each neighboring router

• the entire routing table to each router in the autonomous system

5

What actions will occur after RouterA loses connectivity to network 114.125.16.0? (Choose two.)

• RouterB will include network 123.92.76.0 and 136.125.85.0 in its update to RouterA.

• During the next update interval, RouterB will send a RIP update out both ports that includes

the inaccessible network.

• During the next update interval, RouterC will send an update to RouterB stating that network

114.125.16.0 is accessible in 2 hops.

• Router C will learn of the loss of connectivity to network 114.125.16.0 from RouterB.

• RouterB will include network 123.92.76.0 and 136.125.85.0 in its update to RouterC.

6

Refer to the exhibit. Assuming default settings are configured, which routing protocol has been


configured on the router?

• OSPF

• RIP

• EIGRP

• BGP

• Static

7 Which command will display RIP activity as it occurs on a router?

• debug ip rip

• show ip route

• show ip interface

• show ip protocols

• debug ip rip config

• show ip rip database

8 Which of the following methods does split horizon use to reduce incorrect routing information?

• Routing updates are split in half to reduce the update time.

• Information learned from one source is not distributed back to that source.

• New route information must be learned from multiple sources to be accepted.

• The time between updates is split in half to speed convergence.

• New route information is suppressed until the system has converged.

9

According to the router output from the show ip route command shown above, which of the

following statements are true? (Choose two.)

• The metric to network 192.168.8.0 is 24.

• The hop count to a device on network 192.168.8.0 is 2.

• The total path cost to network 192.168.4.0 is the default value of 16.

• The logical address of the next router for network 192.168.1.0 is 192.168.3.1.

• The devices on network 192.168.5.0 cannot be reached as indicated by the 'C' label.

10 How would an administrator configure a static route for use if a primary route failed?

• configure the route with a metric greater than the default value

• configure the route and the router will activate it as needed

• configure the route to activate by using the redistribute static command

• configure the route with an administrative distance greater than the default value

11 Which statements describe RIP? (Choose three.)

• The maximum metric value is 255 hops.

• The maximum metric value is 15 hops.

• Routing updates occur every 30 seconds.

• Routing updates occur every 90 seconds.

• It is a distance vector routing protocol.

• It is a link state routing protocol.

12 A router has routes to several subnets of a classful network in its routing table. A default

route is defined on the router but the ip classless command is disabled. If the router receives

packets for a subnet that is not in its routing table but is in the same classful network as the

other subnets, what will happen to the packets?

• The packets will be forwarded using the default route.

• The packets will be forwarded using a route to one of the other subnets of the classful

network.

• A nonreachable message will be returned to the source.

• The packets will be discarded.

• The router will generate a new route to the subnetted network.

13

The administrator of the network depicted in the graphic would like to decrease the network's

convergence time. How can this be accomplished?

• disable split horizon on the routers

• increase the update interval on the routers

• change the RIP holddown timer to 96 seconds

• change the RIP holddown timer to 226 seconds

14

If the passive interface command is enabled on the fa0/0 interface of Router E, which statements

are true? (Choose two.)

• Router E will send all routing updates via interface fa0/0.

• Router E will ignore all routing updates learned via interface fa0/0.

• Router E will use routing updates learned via interface fa0/0.

• Router E will not send routing updates via interface fa0/0.

15 Which statements describe load balancing when RIP is configured as the routing protocol?

(Choose two.)

• A router is allowed to take advantage of multiple best paths to a given destination.

• RIP uses the round robin approach in load balancing.

• RIP load balancing selects a single path to forward all data to the destination even though

equal parallel paths exist.

• RIP load balancing is based on bandwidth first and then the hop count.

• Only one path to a destination can be statically assigned or dynamically calculated.

16

The graphic shows a network that is configured to use RIP routing protocol. Router2 detects that

the link to Router1 has gone down. It then advertises the network for this link with a hop count

metric of 16. Which routing loop prevention mechanism is in effect?

• split horizon

• error condition

• hold-down timer

• route poisoning

• count to infinity

17

Which of the following would be the correct command sequence to enable RIP on Router B for all

connected networks?

• RouterB# router rip

RouterB(router)# network 210.36.7.0




RouterB(config-router)# network 198.16.4.0



• RouterB(config)# configure router rip












18 When a routing table update is received by a router in a distance vector network, which of

the following occurs?

• The hop count metrics for the enclosed routes are incremented.

• The update is forwarded to the gateway router for verification.

• Path entries are checked for routing loops.

• The hop count metrics for the enclosed routes are decremented.

• Static routes are updated with the new information.

19 The following line was displayed in the output of the show ip route command:

192.168.3.0/24 [120/2] via 192.168.2.2, 00:00:30, Serial0/0

What is the administrative distance of the enabled routing protocol?

• 2

• 30

• 100

• 120

20 When does RIP send routing table updates? (Choose two.)

• periodically, every 30 seconds



• if optionally configured, when topology changes occur (triggered-update)

21 Which of the following can exist in a distance vector network that has not converged? (Choose

three.)

• routing loops

• inconsistent traffic forwarding

• no traffic forwarding until system converges

• inconsistent routing table entries

• routing table updates sent to wrong destinations

22 What happens to a static route entry in a routing table when the outgoing interface is not

available?

• The route is removed from the table.

• The router polls neighbors for a replacement route.

• The route remains in the table because it was defined as static.

• The router redirects the static route to compensate for the loss of the next hop device.


1 How does a source host use ICMP to confirm that a destination host is reachable?

• The source host sends an ICMP echo request to the destination router which responds with an

ICMP echo reply confirming the reachability of the destination host.

• The source host sends a data packet and receives an ICMP host unreachable packet from the

destination host if the data packet cannot be delivered.

• The source host sends an ICMP packet with a TTL value of 1 and receives an ICMP reply with a

TTL value of 0 from the destination host.

• The source host sends an ICMP echo request and receives an ICMP echo reply from the

destination host.

2 Which type of message is generated by a host when the ping command is entered?

• ICMP echo request

• ICMP echo reply

• UDP echo request

• UDP error message

3 Which of the following start the test of destination reachability?

• echo request issued by source

• echo reply issued by source

• echo request issued by destination

• echo reply issued by destination


4 Which two statements are true regarding ICMP? (Choose two.)

• ICMP provides reliability for the TCP/IP protocol stack.

• ICMP is a component of the TCP/IP protocol stack.

• ICMP notifies the sender that data transmission errors have occurred.

• ICMP is connection-oriented.

• ICMP messages are propagated to all intermediate devices.

5 How does ICMP improve data transfer reliability in IP networks?

• Each router in the path reads ICMP packets and uses the information to update routing tables.

• ICMP can correct many network problems as they occur.

• ICMP error messages are returned to the sending device when a packet is dropped by a router.

• ICMP packets report the intermediary devices that a packet passed through before failure

occurred.

6 Which layer protocols provide reliability for IP when needed?

• ICMP and ping

• RIP and TTL

• upper layer protocols

• lower layer protocols

• Internet layer protocols

• network access layer protocols

7 Which devices along a data transmission path are notified by ICMP when delivery failures

occur?

• source devices only

• destination devices only

• intermediary devices

• source and destination devices

• source, intermediary, and destination devices

8 When a datagram is processed by a router on the path from source to destination, what happens

to the value in the TTL field?"

• It is increased by one.

• It is decreased by one.

• It stays the same.

• It is reset to 0.

• Nothing.

9 Which condition could cause a fragmentation needed ICMP destination unreachable message to be

sent?

• A low bandwidth WAN link has become congested with IP traffic.

• A packet is forwarded from a Token Ring network to an Ethernet network.

• A network is not reachable because of faulty routing information.

• The address specified by the sending host is nonexistent.

10

Workstation 1 sent a data packet to Workstation 4. It never arrived because Fa0/0 interface went

down on Router C. How will the devices handle this failure?

• Workstation 4 will send an error message to Router C and Workstation 1 that it did not receive

the packet.

• Router C will use ICMP to send a message back to Workstation 1 indicating that the packet

could not be delivered.

• Router C discards the packet without providing notification to any device.

• Router C uses ICMP to correct the failure and transmits the data to Workstation 4.

• Workstation 1 will use ICMP to correct the problem and then notify Router C to continue the

transmission.

11 Which three conditions must be met in order for host to host communication over an

internetwork to occur on IP networks? (Choose three.)

• The routing protocols configured on the source and destination networks must be the same.

• A default gateway must be properly configured on the hosts and local networks.

• Intermediary devices, such as routers, must be present on the network and have knowledge of

how to reach the destination network.

• The source and destination host subnet masks must match.

• The IP addresses of the hosts must be in the same network or subnet as their respective

gateway devices.


1

After issuing the command traceroute 192.168.4.2 from Router A, the following information is

returned

Tracing the route to Router_D (192.168.4.2)

1 Router_B (192.168.2.2) 16 msec 16 msec 16 msec

2 * * *

3 * * *

What can be concluded about the network shown in the graphic based on the output given?

• Network 192.168.5.0 is missing from the routing table on Router

• There is a problem with the connection between Router B and Router C.

• Router C is not running CDP.


• Some of the routers are non-Cisco devices.

• Router B was not able to return ICMP TEMs to Router A

2 Which of the following would be the default administrative distance of a static IP route that

references the IP address of the next hop?

• 0

• 1

• 5

• 20

3 After issuing the show interfaces command, a technician notices the line "Serial1 is down,

line protocol is down" in the output. Which of the following are possible reasons for this

message output? (Choose three.)

• There is a mismatch in the encapsulation type on both ends of the link.

• A Layer 1 issue exists.

• An interface problem exists.

• The clockrate was not set during configuration.

• There is no usable media for the protocol.

• Keepalive messages are not being sent.

4 Which three correctly pair a routing metric with its description? (Choose three.)

• hop count - the number of routers traversed to reach a destination

• bandwidth - the amount of time it takes a packet to travel a link

• load - the amount of activity on a link

• delay - the link speed

• reliability - the error rate on a link

5

When issuing the show interfaces serial1 command, a network administrator receives the output

shown in the graphic. What are the possible causes of an increase in the number of input errors?

(Choose three.)

• There could be Layer 3 addressing problems.

• There could be a problem with faulty telephone equipment.

• The router hardware could be defective.

• There is an incorrectly configured encapsulation on the interface.

• There could be a problem with the cabling.

6 Which ICMP message type notifies source hosts that a receiving host or network is not

available?

• time exceeded

• redirect

• destination unreachable

• source quench

• parameter problem

• echo reply

7 The show interfaces command provides line and protocol status information. Which of the

following conditions would never occur in the output of this command?

• serial1 is up, line protocol is up

• serial1 is up, line protocol is down

• serial1 is down, line protocol is down

• serial1 is down, line protocol is up

• serial1 is administratively down, line protocol is down

8

The network administrator shown in the exhibit can ping the E0 interface of the HAR router, but

the telnet intranet.xyz.com command issued from the administrator's workstation fails to open a

session with the intranet.xyz.com server. What are two possible causes of this problem? (Choose

two.)

• upper-layer application problems

• domain name system problems

• IP addressing problems on the HAR router

• clock rate problems on the HAR router serial interface

• ICMP connectivity problems

9 The network administrator is using a PC to access a router via the router console port. Both

the PC and the router are powered on and a cable has been connected between them. However, a

session cannot be established. Which steps might fix this problem? (Choose two.)

• Verify the cable is properly connected at each end.

• Reseat the network card in the PC.

• Verify the cable is the correct type.

• Verify that a password has been set on the console line.

• Check the transceiver for link lights.

• Reseat the console card on the router

10 Which command will display routing table information about all known networks and

subnetworks?

• Router# show ip interfaces

• Router# show ip connections

• Router# show ip route

• Router# show ip networks

11 A network technician has discovered that a router in the network can no longer be reached.

The technician attempts to verify Layer 1 functionality, but is unable to physically inspect the

cables. Which command can be used to determine the type of cable connected to the router?

• Router# show interfaces

• Router# show controllers serial


• Router# show ip protocol



12 During the lookup process when forwarding a packet, a router checks its routing table for the

best path to the destination. If a route has an administrative distance of 0, what does this

indicate to the router?

• The packet should be discarded.

• The destination is unreachable.

• The destination is a directly connected network.

• The source of the update for that route is unreliable.

13 Which command will verify the functionality of all seven layers of the OSI model on a network

host?

• ping

• debug

• telnet

• traceroute

14

After issuing the show interfaces serial1 command, an administrator notices an increasing number

of carrier transitions. What are the possible causes for this increase? (Choose two.)

•There is an incorrect encapsulation configured on the interface.

•There could be an interruption in the line by the service provider.

•There is a faulty switch or CSU/DSU.

•There is noise on the serial line.

15

Consider the RIP network shown in the diagram. Which entries would be listed in the routing

table of Router A?

• R 192.168.5.2[120/1] via 192.168.15.0, 00:00:09, Serial0

• R 192.168.15.0[120/1] via 192.168.5.2, 00:00:13, Serial1

• R 192.168.15.0[120/1] via 192.168.5.1, 00:00:13, Serial0

• R 192.168.5.1 [120/1] via 192.168.5.2 00:00:29, Serial1

R 192.168.15.0 [120/1] via 192.168.5.2, 00:00:29, Serial1

• R 192.168.5.1 [120/1] via 192.168.5.2 00:00:18, Serial0

R 192.168.15.2 [120/1] via 192.168.5.2, 00:00:18, Serial

16 Which items would be displayed when the show ip protocols command is executed? (Choose

three.)

• sources of routing updates

• networks being advertised

• routing protocol up or down

• configured routed protocols

• Layer 2 status of the interface

• update timer values

17 Which two are true regarding the debug commands? (Choose two.)

• Debug commands may be issued from the user EXEC prompt.

• The command undebug all will turn off all debug operations.

• By default, the router sends the debug output and messages to the telnet session.

• The high processor overhead incurred using debug may disrupt normal router operation.

• The debug all command provides a summary view of router activity and can be used frequently

for troubleshooting.

• The show debugging command will display current events such as traffic on an interface and

error messages generated by nodes on the network.

18 A network administrator suspects that a network is not being included in the routing updates.

Which command will provide information on when the next update is due and which networks are

advertised in the update?

• Router# show interfaces

• Router# show controllers serial

• Router# show ip protocols



19 Which of the following is a problem at the physical layer of the OSI model?

• incorrect file formatting

• incorrect encapsulation on a serial interface

• incorrect routing protocol

• incorrect cable type

20

When the show cdp neighbors command is issued from Router C, which devices will be displayed in

the output?

• D, SWH-2

• A, B, D

• SWH-1, SWH-2

• B, D

• SWH-1, A, B

• A, B, D, SWH-1, SWH-2

21 Which of the following are advantages of using a static route? (Choose three.)

• secure operation

• highly adaptable

• low maintenance configuration

• low processor overhead

• precise control of path selection

22 Which of the following commands can be used to statically configure default routes? (Choose

two.)

• ip static-route

• ip route

• ip network-route

• ip default-network

• ip default-static

23 Why does a router build a routing table? (Choose two.)

• to list available routes for forwarding data

• to map local Layer 2 addresses to the remote Layer 3 destination address

• to dynamically send periodic updates regarding the router's status

• to prevent routing loops when redundant links are added to the network

• to select the best path to a destination

24 Which of the following lines from the show interfaces output would indicate a Layer 2

problem?

• Serial1 is up, line protocol is up.

• Serial1 is up, line protocol is down.

• Serial1 is down, line protocol is down.

• Serial1 is administratively down, line protocol is down.


1 Which statements are true regarding the significance of the access control list wildcard mask

0.0.0.7? (Choose two.)

• The first 29 bits of a given IP address will be ignored.

• The last 3 bits of a given IP address will be ignored.

• The first 32 bits of a given IP address will be checked.

• The first 29 bits of a given IP address will be checked.

• The last 3 bits of a given IP address will be checked.

2 Which of the following parameters can ACLs use to filter traffic? (Choose three.)

• packet size

• protocol suite

• source address

• destination address

• source router interface

• destination router interface

3 Choose the commands that will correctly configure a standard ACL. (Choose two.)

• Router(config)# access-list 97 permit host 192.5.5.1

• Router(config)# access-list 32 permit 210.93.105.3 0.0.0.0

• Router(config)# access-list 148 permit 201.100.11.2 0.0.0.0

• Router(config)# access-list 107 permit host 192.5.5.1 213.45.27.0 0.0.0.255 eq 23

• Router(config)# access-list 10 permit tcp 192.5.5.1 0.0.0.255 201.100.11.0 0.0.0.255 eq 80

4 Select the statements that describe ACL processing of packets. (Choose three.)

• An implicit deny any rejects any packet that does not match any ACL statement.

• A packet can either be rejected or forwarded as directed by the statement that is matched.

• A packet that has been denied by one statement can be permitted by a subsequent statement.

• A packet that does not match the conditions of any ACL statements will be forwarded by

default.

• Each statement is checked only until a match is detected or until the end of the ACL statement

list.

• Each packet is compared to the conditions of every statement in the ACL before a forwarding

decision is made.

5 Which of the following are reasons to use ACLs? (Choose three.)

• to provide a basic level of security for network access

• to speed up network performance by filtering priority packets

• to preserve bandwidth by providing a mechanism for traffic flow control

• to decide which packets are forwarded or blocked at the router console port

• to screen certain hosts to either allow or deny access to part of a network

• to allow all packets passing through the router access to all parts of the network

6

Assuming the ACL in the graphic is correctly applied to an interface, what effect will the ACL

have on network traffic?

• All traffic to network 172.16.0.0 will be denied.

• All TCP traffic will be permitted to and from network 172.16.0.0.

• All telnet traffic from the 172.16.0.0 network to any destination will be denied.

• All port 23 traffic to the 172.16.0.0 network will be denied.

• All traffic from the 172.16.0.0 network will be denied to any other network.

7 Choose the command that will correctly configure a standard ACL.

• Router# access-list 10 permit any

• Router# access-list 101 permit any

• Router(config)# access-list 10 permit any

• Router(config)# access-list 101 permit any

• Router(config)# access-list 10 permit any any


8

Select the commands that will apply the ACL in the diagram to filter traffic going to the

192.168.2.0 network.

• Router1# configure terminal

Router1(config)# access-list 10 in E0

• outer1(config)# interface ethernet 0

Router1(config-if)# access-list 10 in

• Router2(config)# interface s1

Router2(config-if)# ip access-group 10 out

• Router2(config)# interface ethernet 0


• Router1(config)# interface ethernet 0


• Router2# configure terminal

Router2(config)# access-group 10 out

9

Assuming the ACL in the graphic is correctly applied to an interface, what effect will this ACL

have on network traffic?

• Host 192.168.15.4 will be denied ftp access to any destination, but will be permitted all

other access.

• All ftp traffic to host 192.168.15.4 will be denied.

• All traffic from that interface will be denied.

• No traffic will be denied because a "permit" statement does not exist in this ACL.

10

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has connectivity to the routers and networks in

the diagram. An ACL has been created to allow the network administrator FTP access to the

webserver. This ACL must also deny FTP access to the server from the rest of the hosts on the

LAN. Which interface in the exhibit is the recommended location to apply the ACL?

• FastEthernet 0/0 on the Carlisle router

• Serial 0/0 on the Carlisle router

• Serial 0/1 on the Mt. Holly router

• FastEthernet 0/0 on the Mt. Holly router

11 Select the correct statements about extended ACLs. (Choose two)

• Extended ACLs use a number range from 1-99.

• Extended ACLs end with an implicit permit statement.

• Extended ACLs evaluate the source and destination addresses.

• Port numbers can be used to add greater definition to an ACL.

• Multiple ACLs can be placed on the same interface as long as they are in the same direction.

12 The following commands were entered on a router:

Router(config)# access-list 2 deny 172.16.5.24

Router(config)# access-list 2 permit any

What can be concluded about this set of commands?

• The access list statements are misconfigured.

• All nodes on 172.16.0.0 will be denied access when these statements are applied.

• The default wildcard mask, 0.0.0.0 is assumed.

• The default wildcard mask 255.255.255.255 is assumed.

13 Where should a standard access control list be placed?

• close to the source

• close to the destination

• on an Ethernet port

• on a serial port

14 A router that has two Ethernet interfaces and one serial interface is configured to route

both IP and IPX. What is the maximum number of IP ACLs that can be configured to filter packets

on this router?

• 1

• 2

• 3

• 6

• 12

15 Which statement is true regarding wildcard masks?

• The wildcard mask and subnet mask perform the same function.

• The wildcard mask is always the inverse of the subnet mask.

• A "0" in the wildcard mask identifies IP address bits that must be checked.

• A "1" in the wildcard mask identifies a network or subnet bit.

16 ACL statements operate in sequential, logical order. If a condition match is true, the rest

of the ACL statements are not checked. If all of the ACL statements are unmatched, what happens

to the packet?

• The packets will be placed in a buffer and forwarded when the ACL is removed.

• The packets will be sent to the source with an error notification message.

• The implicit permit any statement placed at the end of the list will allow the packets to flow

through uninhibited.

• The implicit deny any statement placed at the end of the list will cause the packets to be

dropped.

17 Which of the following matches an ACL identification number with the correct protocol?(Choose

three.)

• 0 - standard IP

• 99 - standard IP

• 100 - extended IP

• 210 - extended IP

• 678 - extended IPX

• 888 - standard IPX

18 The router IOS tests each condition statement in an ACL in sequence. Once a match is made,

which of the following occurs? (Choose two.)

• The entire ACL must be deleted and recreated.

• The accept or reject action is performed.

• The packet is forwarded to the next hop.

• The remaining ACL statements are not checked.

• The router goes through the list again to verify that a match has been made.

19

Create a standard ACL that will deny traffic from 192.5.5.25 to the 210.93.105.0 network but

will allow traffic from all other hosts. (Choose two.)

• Router(config)# access-list 22 deny 192.5.5.25 0.0.0.0

• Router(config)# access-list 22 deny host 192.5.5.25 0.0.0.0

Router(config)# access-list 22 permit any any



• Router(config)# access-list 22 deny host 192.5.5.25




CCNA 2 - Final Exam

1 What are some reasons to change the configuration register setting? (Choose two.)

• to force the system to ignore the configuration file stored in NVRAM

• to monitor password changes

• to change the POST sequence

• to force the router to boot the IOS from NVRAM

• to force the system into ROM monitor mode

2 Given the output shown in the exhibit, in what order and location will the router search for

the IOS if no boot system commands are found in the startup-config file?

• ROM, Flash, TFTP server

• Flash, NVRAM, RAM

• ROM, TFTP server, Flash

• RAM, Flash, NVRAM

• Flash, TFTP server, ROM

3 Which statements are true regarding setup mode? (Choose three.)

• Press Ctrl-z to terminate setup mode.

• Enter a question mark (?) for help at any point.

• Press Spacebar to accept the default settings.

• Use setup mode to enter complex protocol features.

• Press Enter to accept the default settings.

• Press Ctrl-c to abort configuration dialog.

4 What are two possible reasons for this result? (Choose two.)

• The startup-config file was not saved to RAM before reboot.

• The IOS has been erased.

• The router has not been configured.

• The startup-config file cannot be located.

• The router will not enter initial configuration dialog.

5 A new technician must add boot system commands to one of the department routers. Which

available commands will the router return as output when the command shown below is entered?

(Choose two.)

http://ccna-cisco-academy.blogspot.com/2007/09/ccna-2-final-exam.html

Router(config)# boot system ?

• RAM

• NVRAM

• IOS

• IP Address

• TFTP

• FLASH

6 Router A and Router B have been correctly configured to use RIP as a dynamic routing protocol

and all intefaces on Router A and Router B are reporting "interface is up, line protocol is up"

status. RIP is then configured on Router C using the following commands:

RouterC(config)# router rip

RouterC(config-router)# network 192.168.4.0

RouterC(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0

If no additional routing is configured on Router A, Router B, and Router C, what will be the

result?

• Networks 192.168.12.0/24, 192.168.4.0/24, and 172.16.0.0/16 will be unreachable from Router A.

• Router A will have no knowledge of network 192.168.12.0/24, but will have routes to networks

192.168.4.0/24 and 172.16.0.0/16.

• All networks shown in the graphic will be reachable by Router A, Router B, and Router C.

• Networks 192.168.4.0/24 and 172.16.0.0/16 will be unreachable from Router A and Router B.

7 The Suffolk router is directly connected to the networks shown in the graphic and has a

default route that points to the Richmond router. All interfaces are active and properly

addressed. However, when the workstation on network 172.29.5.0/24 sends a packet to destination

address 172.29.198.5, it is discarded by the Suffolk router. What can be a reason for this

result?

• The ip classless command is not enabled on the Richmond router.

• The route was ignored if the Richmond router did not include the 172.29.198.0/24 network in

its routing updates.

• The Richmond router is in a different autonomous system than the Suffolk router.

• The ip subnet-zero command was not configured on the Suffolk router.

• The ip classless command is not enabled on the Suffolk router.

8 A network administrator has enabled RIP on routers B and C in the network diagram. Which of

the following commands will prevent RIP updates from being sent to Router A?

• A(config)# router rip

A(config-router)# passive-interface S0/0

• B(config)# router rip

B(config-router)# network 192.168.25.48

B(config-router)# network 192.168.25.64

• A(config)# router rip

A(config-router)# no network 192.168.25.32

• B(config)# router rip

B(config-router)# passive-interface S0/0

• A(config)# no router rip

9 Which router component stores the information that is displayed by the show running-config

command?

• flash

• NVRAM

• RAM

• ROM

10 If a PC does not have network connectivity to a router, which router port can be used to

establish communication?

• console

• Ethernet

• serial

• VTY

11 What information can be learned during the initial router bootup? (Choose two.)

• the configuration register value

• the number and types of interfaces installed

• the router model and the amount of memory that is available

• the amount of memory required to load the IOS and configuration

• the number of interfaces with connected cables

12 Which devices can be used to convert the data from a WAN router at the customer site into a

form acceptable for use by the WAN service provider? (Choose three.)

• Ethernet switch

• DTE

• modem

• hub

• DCE device

• CSU/DSU

13 What are the primary functions of a router? (Choose two.)

• determine the best path for packets

• prevent collisions on the network LAN

• regulate flow control between sender and receiver

• provide domain name resolution

• forward packets to the appropriate interface

14 Which of the following are correct statements verified by the router output shown in the

graphic? (Choose two.)

• Layer 3 connectivity exists between BigCity and the devices in the Device ID column.

• Layer 2 connectivity exists between BigCity and the devices in the Device ID column.

• All devices shown in the Device ID column use the TCP/IP protocol suite.

• All devices shown in the Device ID column can be pinged from BigCity.

• All devices listed in the Device ID column are directly connected to BigCity.

15 What are the results of setting the boot field bits in the configuration register to "0000"?

(Choose two.)

• The startup-config file will be ignored at bootup.

• The router will load the IOS from Flash.

• The router will enter ROM monitor mode upon reload.

• The router will enter boot ROM mode and have limited capabilities.

• The administrator can enter the b command to manually boot the IOS.

16 What can a network administrator do to recover from a lost router password?

• perform a reload or reset

• telnet from another router and issue the show running-config command to view the password

• boot the router to ROM monitor mode and configure the router to ignore NVRAM when it

initializes

• boot the router to bootROM mode and enter the b command to load the IOS manually

17 Which router components and operations are correctly described? (Choose two.)

• RAM - stores the ARP cache

• NVRAM - store the operating system

• ROM - stores the backup IOS

• POST - verifies the validity of the running-config

• Flash - executes diagnostics at bootup

• DRAM - loads the bootstrap

18 Which of the following commands will correctly configure an extended ACL? (Choose two).

• Router(config)# access-list 18 permit tcp host 192.168.73.3 eq 25

• Router(config)# access-list 102 permit tcp 10.43.0.0 0.0.255.255 any eq 80

• Router(config)# access-list 187 permit tcp host 192.168.42.34 172.29.0.0 0.0.255.255 eq 23

• Router(config)# access-list 99 permit host 10.217.32.3

• Router(config)# access-list 128 permit tcp host 192.168.100.31 eq 23

19 The following access list has been created to prevent traffic from the 192.0.2.63 host on the

Sales LAN from accessing servers and hosts on the Payroll LAN.

access-list 26 deny host 192.0.2.63

access-list 26 permit any

Refer to the exhibit. Which group of commands will properly place the access list so that only

the host on the Sales LAN is denied access to the 172.29.7.0 network but all other traffic is

permitted?

• Payroll(config)# interface fa0/0

Payroll(config-if)# ip access-group 26 out

• Payroll(config)# interface fa0/1

Payroll(config-if)# ip access-group 26 out

• Sales(config)# interface fa0/1

Sales(config-if)# ip access-group 26 in

• Sales(config)# interface fa0/0

Sales(config-if)# ip access-group 26 out

20 Refer to the graphic. Communication is needed between the LAN connected to the fa0/0

interface of the Kansas router and the fa0/0 interface of the Maine router. All hosts on those

LANs also need connectivity to the Internet. Which commands will allow this communication?

(Choose three).

• Kansas(config)# ip route 192.168.6.0 255.255.255.0 172.18.64.2

• Kansas(config)# ip route 192.168.6.0 255.255.255.0 s0/1

• Kansas(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/1

• Maine(config)# ip route 192.168.6.0 255.255.255.0 172.18.64.1

• Maine(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/1

• Maine(config)# ip route 172.16.32.0 255.255.255.0 172.18.64.2

21 A network administrator must configure a FastEthernet interface with an IP address. The

configuration must also identify the remote site to which the interface is connected. Which set

of commands will meet these requirements?

• StPetersburg(config)# banner San Jose T1

StPetersburg(config)# interface fa0/0

StPetersburg(config-if)# ip address 172.26.155.5 255.255.255.252

• StPetersburg(config)# interface fa0/0

StPetersburg(config-if)# ip address 172.26.155.5 netmask 255.255.255.252

StPetersburg(config-if)# description San Jose T1



StPetersburg(config-if)# banner remote site San Jose T1



StPetersburg(config-if)# description San Jose T1

22 A network administrator issues the erase startup-config command on a configured router with

the configuration register set to 0x2102 and observes the following output:

Erasing the nvram filesystem will remove all files! Continue? [Confirm]

[OK]

Erase of nvram: complete

If the router unexpectedly loses power after this sequence, what will occur when power is

restored?

• The router will enter ROM monitor mode upon completion of the power-on self test (POST).

• The router will load the last known valid configuration file.

• The router will enter Rx-boot mode.

• The router will prompt the user to enter setup mode or to continue without entering setup

mode.

23 The main router of XYZ company has enough flash and RAM to store multiple IOS images. An

administrator wants to upload a second IOS image from a TFTP server to the flash of the router.

Which method will accomplish this task?

• Paste the IOS filename to the command line of the router while in global configuration mode.

Press enter. Then issue the copy tftp flash command.

• Use the setup utility to load the new image to flash.

• Copy the IOS image file from a TFTP server using the command copy filename ip address flash .

• Copy the IOS image file from a TFTP server using the command copy tftp flash. When prompted,

provide the IP address or name of the TFTP server and the IOS image filename.

24 What facts can be determined from the highlighted text shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)

• A weak encryption was applied to all unencrypted passwords.

• The enable password is now more secure than the enable secret password.

• An MD5 hashing algorithm was used on all encrypted passwords.

• Any configured user EXEC mode or Telnet passwords will be encrypted in this configuration.

• The service password-encryption command was used to encrypt all passwords on the router

including enable secret.

25 What are the features of a serial interface on a router? (Choose two.)

• enabled by default

• assigned a unique MAC address

• must be configured as a DCE in lab and production environments

• must be configured with the default clock rate of 56000

• may be administratively enabled by using the no shutdown command

• must be configured with a valid IP address and subnet mask in order to forward packets

26 What are two recommended uses of login banners? (Choose two.)

• to display security warning messages

• to welcome any user to the router

• to warn people about misusing privileged EXEC mode

• to identify circuits and other devices connected to the router

• to announce a scheduled system shutdown

27 While planning an IOS upgrade, the administrator issues the show version command. Based on

the output in the graphic, what is the current IOS boot location?

• RAM

• NVRAM

• Flash

• ROM

28 Why are interface descriptions used in router configurations? (Choose three).

• to enable support personnel to easily identify networks and customers that may be affected by

a possible interface issue

• to provide comments on the interface without affecting the router functionality

• to display access warning messages before users enter the interface configuration mode

• to eliminate the need to use IP addresses when using the ping and telnet commands

• to identify the purpose and location of the interface

29 What are two characteristics of the support for Telnet within Cisco IOS software? (Choose

two.)

• Up to five separate Telnet lines are supported by default in standard edition IOS files.

• For security purposes, Telnet sessions are required to be established from the privileged

mode.

• A router can host simultaneous Telnet sessions.

• Once established, a Telnet session can remain operational regardless of network status.

• Telnet tests wireless connectivity and does not require a physical connection between devices

to gain remote access.

30 Neither router in the exhibit has a host table or DNS available. The interfaces and passwords

have been correctly configured. Which of the following commands will initiate a Telnet session?

(Choose two.)

• Tottenham# telnet Oxford

• Tottenham> telnet 198.18.139.1

• Oxford# connect 198.18.139.0

• Oxford> connect Tottenham

• Oxford# telnet Tottenham

• Oxford# 198.18.139.2

31 From the running-config, the following configuration entries are displayed:

Router(config)# line vty 0 2

Router(config-line)# password g8k33pr

Router(config-line)# login

What can be interpreted from the exhibited configuration? (Choose two.)

• Three Telnet lines are available for remote access.

• Two Telnet lines are available for remote access.

• Future configuration of the remaining Telnet lines will require the password to be set to

g8k33pr.

• To login to the remote device, g8k33pr will be used as the Telnet and secret password.

• Remote access to this local router will require a Telnet password of g8k33pr.

32 Assuming the following ACL is correctly applied to a router interface, what can be concluded

about this set of commands? (Choose two.)

Router(config)# access-list 165 deny tcp 192.28.115.0 0.0.0.255 172.20.0.0 0.0.255.255 eq 23

Router(config)# access-list 165 permit ip any any

• This is a standard IP access list that denies network 192.28.115.0 Telnet access to the

172.20.0.0 network.

• All Telnet traffic destined for 172.20.0.0 from any network will be denied access.

• Network 192.28.115.0 is denied Telnet access to the 172.20.0.0 network.

• Network 172.20.0.0 is denied Telnet access to the 192.28.115.0 network.

• All FTP and HTTP traffic destined for 172.20.0.0 will be permitted access.

33 What can be concluded from the output shown in the exhibit? (Choose three.)

• This is a standard IP access list.

• This is an extended IP access list.

• The keyword host is implied in the command line access-list 99 deny 10.213.177.76.

• The wildcard mask must be configured for this access list to function properly.

• Host 10.213.177.100 will be allowed access to the Serial0/1 interface.

34 access-list 199 deny tcp 178.15.0.0 0.0.255.255 any eq 23

access-list 199 permit ip any any

Assuming this ACL is correctly applied to a router interface, which statements describe traffic

on the network? (Choose two.)

• All FTP traffic from network 178.15.0.0 will be permitted.

• All Telnet traffic destined for network 178.15.0.0 will be denied.

• Telnet and FTP will be permitted from all hosts on network 178.15.0.0 to any destination.

• Telnet will not be permitted from any hosts on network 178.15.0.0 to any destination.

• Telnet will not be permitted to any host on network 178.15.0.0 from any destination.

35 Hosts from the Limerick LAN are not allowed access to the Shannon LAN but should be able to

access the Internet. Which set of commands will create a standard ACL that will apply to traffic

on the Shannon router interface Fa0/0 implementing this security?

• access-list 42 deny 172.19.123.0 0.0.0.255 192.0.2.0 0.0.0.255


• access-list 56 deny 172.19.123.0 0.0.0.255


• access-list 61 deny 172.19.123.0 0.0.0.0


• access-list 87 deny ip any 192.0.2.0 0.0.0.255

access-list 87 permit ip any

36 Refer to the exhibit. Router D interface S0 on has gone down. What is the maximum time that

will elapse before Router A learns that network 168.58.14.0 is down?

• 5 seconds

• 13 seconds

• 17 seconds

• 25 seconds

• 30 seconds

• 77 seconds

37 Refer to the graphic. Which series of commands will create static routes that will allow

Router A and Router B to deliver packets destined for LAN A and LAN B, and direct all other

traffic to the Internet?


RouterB(config)# ip route 192.168.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.3.1

RouterB(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/0


RouterA(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.3.2








38 Refer to the exhibit. The new security policy for the company allows all IP traffic from the

Engineering LAN to the Internet while only web traffic from the Marketing LAN is allowed to the

Internet. Which ACL can be applied in the outbound direction of Serial 0/1 on the Marketing

router to implement the new security policy?

• access-list 197 permit ip 192.0.2.0 0.0.0.255 any

access-list 197 permit ip 198.18.112.0 0.0.0.255 any eq www


access-list 165 permit tcp 198.18.112.0 0.0.0.255 any eq www

access-list 165 permit ip any any



• access-list 89 permit 192.0.2.0 0.0.0.255 any


39 What will occur when the following ACL is applied inbound to both FastEthernet interfaces of

Router A in the graphic?

access-list 125 permit tcp 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 10.90.3.0 0.0.0.255 eq 23

access-list 125 permit tcp 10.90.3.0 0.0.0.255 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 eq 23


• Workstations A and B will be able to Telnet to each other. Workstation A will be allowed to

access Web servers on the Internet, while Workstation B will be denied Internet Web access.

• Workstations A and B will be able to Telnet to each other. All other traffic will be denied.

• The ACL will have no effect because it should be applied in the outbound direction on the

FastEthernet interfaces.

• The ACL will deny all traffic because of the implied deny ip any any statement at the end of

the ACL.

40 What are two possible reasons a router would not load a valid IOS from flash? (Choose two.)

• The configuration register is set to 0x2142.

• The first boot system command executed in the startup configuration file is boot system rom.

• The configuration register is set to 0x2100.

• The boot field is set to the hexadecimal number 2.

• The startup configuration file is missing or corrupt.

41 A network administrator has a console connection to the Fremantle router. Pings to Melville

are successful, but pings to Cottesloe and Nedlands fail. What could be a first step in

troubleshooting the problem?

• Use an extended ping from Fremantle to each router in the network.

• Use the show interfaces command from a Telnet session on Melville to check the connection to

Cottesloe.

• Use the traceroute command to discover exactly which link in the network is down.

• Use the show cdp neighbors detail command from Fremantle to gather information about all Cisco

routers in the network.

42 What are three features of CDP? (Choose three.)

• provides information on directly connected devices that have CDP enabled

• tests Layer 2 connectivity

• enabled by default on each interface

• provides a layer of security

• used for debugging Layer 4 connectivity issues

43 Which two steps describe how to create a functional physical connection between a router

console and a terminal? (Choose two.)

• Use a crossover cable to connect the terminal serial port to the router console port.

• Use a rollover cable to connect the terminal NIC to the router console port.

• Use an RJ-45 to DB-9 adapter on the terminal serial port to connect to the cable going to the

router console.

• Use a transceiver to connect a straight-through cable to the router console port.

• Use a straight-through cable to connect the router console port to the terminal NIC.

• Use a rollover cable to connect from a terminal serial port to the router console port.

44 Refer to the exhibit. Assuming default metrics are used and the network is fully converged,

which path will RIP use to send a packet from Router A to Router F?

• A, D, E, F

• A, B, D, E, F

• A, C, D, E, G, F

• A, B, D, E, G, F

45 Based on this partial output of the show ip route command, which routing protocol is

configured on the router?

I 172.16.3.0/24 [100/80135] via 172.16.2.2, 00:00:27, Serial0/0

• RIP v1

• RIP v2

• IGRP

• EIGRP

• OSPF

• IGP

46 Why are routed protocols important to networking? (Choose two.)

• Routed protocols detect collisions and fragments.

• Routers use routed protocols to calculate the best path to a destination.

• Routed protocols transport data across the network.

• The fields and formats used within a packet are defined by routed protocols.

• Routed protocols are used to configure the metrics used by routing protocols.

47 What could a Cisco support technician learn from the IOS filename c2600-d-mz.121-3? (Choose

three.)

• the format of the file

• the RAM memory requirements of the file

• the version number of the file

• the size of the file

• the device platform of the file

48 What critical information about the status of the router can be found in the outputs of both

the show interfaces and show protocols commands? (Choose two.)

• the Layer 3 address of each configured interface

• the routing protocol configured to forward updates out of each interface

• the operational status of each interface

• traffic statistics for each interface

• whether the interface is configured as a DTE or DCE

49 Which of the following are true statements regarding IGRP and RIP? (Choose two.)

• IGRP uses a combination of different metrics for path selection.

• RIP is a proprietary protocol developed by Cisco.

• RIP has the ability to scale to large networks.

• IGRP has the ability to scale to large networks.

CCNA 3 Switching Basics and Intermediate Routing

CISCO CCNA 3 - Module 1 Exam Answers

1 Which of the following are contained in the routing updates of classless routing protocols?

(Choose two.)

• 32-bit address

• next hop router interface

• subnet mask

• unicast host address

• Layer 2 address

2

Router1 and Router2 shown in the topology have been configured with the no ip subnet-zero

command. Which of the following valid VLSM network numbers could be used for the serial link

http://ccna-cisco-academy.blogspot.com/2007/10/ccna-3-switching-basics-and.html

http://ccna-cisco-academy.blogspot.com/2007/10/cisco-ccna-3-module-1-exam-answers.html

between Router1 and Router2? (Choose two.)

• 192.168.1.0/30

• 192.168.1.4/30

• 192.168.1.8/30

• 192.168.1.96/30

• 192.168.1.138/30

• 192.168.1.190/30

3 What is the purpose of the network command used in the configuration of the RIP routing

protocol?

• It specifies RIP v2 as the routing protocol.

• It enables the use of VLSM.

• It specifies the fastest path to the destination route.

• It specifies which interfaces will exchange RIP routing updates.

• It activates RIP for all routes that exist within the enterprise network.

4 Which of the following is considered a limitation of RIP v1?

• RIP v1 does not send subnet mask information in its updates.

• RIP v1 is not widely supported by networking hardware vendors.

• RIP v1 consumes excessive bandwidth by multicasting routing updates using a Class D address.

• RIP v1 requires enhanced router processors and extra RAM to function effectively.

• RIP v1 does not support load balancing across equal-cost paths.

• RIP v1 authentication is complicated and time-consuming to configure.

5 Which command would a network administrator use to determine if the routers in an enterprise

have learned about a newly added network?

• router# show ip address

• router# show ip route

• router# show ip networks

• router# show ip interface brief

• router# debug ip protocol

• router# debug rip update

6 How does a router know of paths to destination networks? (Choose two.)

• inspection of the destination IP address in data packets

• ARP requests from connected routers

• manual configuration of routes

• updates from other routers

• DHCP information broadcasts

• updates from the SMTP management information base

7 Which of the following statements are true regarding RIP v1 and v2? (Choose three.)

• Both RIP versions use hop count.

• Both RIP versions can provide authentication of update sources.

• Both RIP versions use 16 hops as a metric for infinite distance.

• RIP v1 uses split horizon to prevent routing loops while RIP v2 does not.

• RIP v1 uses hold-down times to prevent routing loops while RIP v2 does not.

• RIP v1 broadcasts routing table updates, while RIP v2 multicasts its updates.

8 What does VLSM allow a network administrator to do?

• utilize one subnet mask throughout an autonomous system

• utilize multiple subnet masks in the same IP address space

• utilize IGRP as the routing protocol in an entire autonomous system

• utilize multiple routing protocols within an autonomous system

9

The network shown in the diagram is having problems routing traffic. It is suspected that the

problem is with the addressing scheme. What is the problem with the addressing used in the

topology?

• The address assigned to the Ethernet0 interface of Router1 is a broadcast address for that

subnetwork.

• The subnetwork configured on the serial link between Router1 and Router2 overlaps with the

subnetwork assigned to Ethernet0 of Router3.

• The subnetwork assigned to the Serial0 interface of Router1 is on a different subnetwork from

the address for Serial0 of Router2.

• The subnetwork assigned to Ethernet0 of Router2 overlaps with the subnetwork assigned to

Ethernet0 of Router3.

10

Refer to the network shown. How will Router1 summarize and advertise the four networks attached

to its Ethernet ports?

• 172.16.16.0/20

• 172.16.19.0/20

• 172.16.16.0/20 and 172.16.19.0/20

• 172.16.16.0/22

• 172.16.18.0/24

• 172.16.0.0/24

11

A Class C address has been assigned for use in the network shown in the graphic. Using VLSM,

which bit mask should be used to provide for the number of host addresses required on Router A,

while wasting the fewest addresses?

• /31

• /30

• /29

• /28

• /27

• /26

12

The routers in the diagram use the subnet assignments shown. What is the most efficient route

summary that can be configured on Router3 to advertise the internal networks to the cloud?

• 192.1.1.0/26 and 192.1.1.64/27

• 192.1.1.128/25

• 192.1.1.0/23 and 192.1.1.64/23

• 192.1.1.0/24

• 192.1.1.0/25

• 192.1.1.0/24 and 192.1.1.64/24

13 A new network is to be configured on a router. Which of the following tasks must be completed

to configure this interface and implement dynamic IP routing for the new network? (Choose

three.)

• Select the routing protocol to be configured.

• Assign an IP address and subnet mask to the interface.

• Update the ip host configuration information with the device name and new interface IP

address.

• Configure the routing protocol with the new network IP address.

• Configure the routing protocol with the new interface IP address and subnet mask.

• Configure the routing protocol in use on all other enterprise routers with the new network

information.

14 What is the default network mask for a Class B address?

• 255.0.0.0

• 255.255.0.0

• 255.255.255.0

• 255.255.255.255

15 How often does RIP v1 send routing table updates, by default?

• every 30 seconds




16

An additional subnet is required for a new Ethernet link between Router1 and Router2 as shown in

the diagram. Which of the following subnet addresses can be configured in this network to

provide a maximum of 14 useable addresses for this link while wasting the fewest addresses?

• 192.1.1.16/26

• 192.1.1.96/28

• 192.1.1.160/28

• 192.1.1.196/27

• 192.1.1.224/28

• 192.1.1.240/28

17 Which subnet mask is represented by the /21 notation?

• 255.255.224.0

• 255.255.248.0

• 255.255.252.0

• 255.255.240.0

18 Which of the following problems does VLSM help to alleviate?

• the shortage of IP addresses

• the difficulty of assigning static IP addresses to hosts in large enterprises

• the complexity of implementing advanced routing protocols such as OSPF and EIGRP

• the shortage of network administrators qualified in the use of RIP v1 and IGRP

19

In the network shown in the graphic, three bits were borrowed from the host portion of a Class C

address. How many valid host addresses will be unused on the three point-to-point links combined

if VLSM is not used?

• 3

• 4

• 12

• 36

• 84

• 180

20 A Class C network address has been subnetted into eight subnetworks. Using VLSM, the last

subnet will be divided into eight smaller subnetworks. What bit mask must be used to create

eight smaller subnetworks, each having two usable host addresses?

• /26

• /27

• /28

• /29

• /30

• /31


1 What does OSPF use to calculate the cost to a destination network?

• bandwidth

• bandwidth and hop count

• bandwidth and reliability

• bandwidth, load, and reliablity

2 Which of the following should be considered when troubleshooting a problem with the

establishment of neighbor relationships between OSPF routers? (Choose three.)

• OSPF interval timers mismatch

• gateway of last resort not redistributed

• interface network type mismatch

• no loopback interface configured

• administrative distance mismatch

• inconsistent authentication configuration

3 Which router is the root of an SPF tree?

• border router

• nearest neighboring router

• local router

• trunk router, as determined by the SPF algorithm

http://ccna-cisco-academy.blogspot.com/2007/10/cisco-ccna-3-module-1-exam-answers_08.html

4 In which types of networks are OSPF DR elections necessary? (Choose two.)

• point-to-point

• point-to-multipoint

• broadcast multiaccess

• nonbroadcast multiaccess

5

What will be the result of the DR and BDR elections for this single area OSPF network? (Choose

three.)

• HQ will be DR for 10.4.0.0/16.

• Router A will be DR for 10.4.0.0/16.

• HQ will be BDR for 10.4.0.0/16.

• Router A will be DR for 10.5.0.0/16.

• Remote will be DR for 10.5.0.0/16.

• Remote will be BDR for 10.5.0.0/16.

6

Refer to the network shown in the diagram. Which command sequence on RouterB will redistribute a

Gateway of Last Resort to the other routers in OSPF area 0?

• RouterB(config)# router ospf 10

RouterB(config-router)# gateway-of-last-resort 172.16.6.6

• RouterB(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 serial 0


RouterB(config)# router ospf 10

RouterB(config-router)# default-information originate

• RouterB(config)# router ospf 10

RouterB(config-router)# default network 172.16.6.6 0.0.0.3 area 0


• RouterB(config)# ip default-route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.6.6

RouterB(config)# router ospf 10

RouterB(config-router)# redistribute ip default-route

7 Why is it difficult for routing loops to occur in networks that use link-state routing?

• Each router builds a simple view of the network based on hop count.

• Routers flood the network with LSAs to discover routing loops.

• Each router builds a complete and synchronized view of the network.

• Routers use hold-down timers to prevent routing loops.

8 What information can be obtained from the output of the show ip ospf interface command?

(Choose three.)

• link-state age intervals

• timer intervals

• router ID number

• link-state update intervals

• neighbor adjacencies

9

RouterA, RouterB, and RouterC in the diagram are running OSPF on their Ethernet interfaces.

Loopback interfaces (Lo 0) are configured as shown. What happens when RouterD is added to the

network?

• RouterB takes over as DR and RouterD becomes the BDR.

• RouterD becomes the BDR and RouterA remains the DR.

• RouterD becomes the DR and RouterA becomes the BDR.

• RouterC acts as the DR until the election process is complete.

• RouterD becomes the DR and RouterB remains the BDR.

• There is no change in the DR or BDR until either current DR or BDR goes down.

10 What are the benefits of the hierarchical design approach that is used in large OSPF

networks? (Choose three.)

• reduction of routing overhead

• increased routing overhead

• faster convergence

• slower convergence

• distribution of network instability to all areas of the network

• isolation of network instability to one area of the network

11

Which command sequence will enable OSPF in the backbone area for the two Ethernet links on

RouterA?

• RouterA(config)# router ospf 1

RouterA(config-router)# network 172.16.4.0 0.0.1.255 area 1





RouterA(config-router)# area 0 network 172.16.4.0 0.0.1.255


RouterA(config-route)# network 172.16.4.0 0.0.255.255 area 0


RouterA(config-router)# network 172.16.4.0 255.255.255.0

RouterA(config-router)# network 172.16.5.0 255.255.255.0



12 Which of the following are disadvantages of link-state routing? (Choose three.)

• Link-state protocols require careful network design.

• Link-state protocols are prone to routing loops.

• Link-state hello updates can cause broadcast flooding.

• Link-state protocols place significant demands on router processors and memory resources.

• Link-state protocols require a knowledgeable network administrator.

• Link-state protocols do not support Variable Length Subnet Masking.

13 What speeds up convergence in a network using link-state routing?

• updates triggered by network changes

• updates sent at regular intervals

• updates sent only to directly connected neighbors

• updates that include complete routing tables

14 Because of security concerns, a network administrator wants to set up authentication between

two routers. Which of the following commands will configure Router_A to trust Router_B with a

clear text password of apollo?

• Router_A(config-if)# ospf authentication-key apollo

• Router_A(config-if)# ip authentication-key apollo

• Router_A(config-if)# ip ospf authentication apollo

• Router_A(config-if)# ip ospf authentication-key apollo

15 How can the OSPF cost for a link be established? (Choose two.)

• It is set to 1544 by default for all OSPF interfaces.

• It can be set with the ip ospf cost command.

• The configured loopback addresses map to link costs.

• It is calculated proportionally to observed throughput capacity of the router.

• It may be calculated using the formula 108/bandwidth.

16 A network administrator has configured a default route on Router_A but it is not being shared

with adjacent Router_B and the other routers in the OSPF area. Which command will save the

administrator the time and trouble of configuring this default route on Router_B and all of the

other routers in the OSPF area?

• Router_A(config-router)# ospf redistribute default-route

• Router_B(config-router)# ospf redistribute default-route

• Router_A(config-router)# default-information originate

• Router_B(config-router)# default-information originate

• Router_A(config-router)# ip ospf update-default

• Router_B(config-router)# ip ospf update-default

17

The routers in the diagram are configured as shown. The loopback interface on router R1 is

labeled as lo0. All OSPF priorities are set to the default except for Ethernet0 of router R2,

which has an OSPF priority of 2. What will be the result of the OSPF DR/BDR elections on the

192.1.1.0 network? (Choose two.)

• R1 will be the DR

• R1 will be the BDR





18 Which router command will display the interface priority value and other key information for

the OSPF configuration of the serial 0 interface?

• router# show ospf serial 0

• router# show interface serial 0 OSPF

• router# show ip interface serial 0

• router# show ip ospf interface serial 0

19 Which of the following are required when adding a network to the OSPF routing process


• network address

• loopback address

• autonomous system number

• subnet mask

• wildcard mask

• area ID

20 What does OSPF use to reduce the number of exchanges of routing information in networks where

large numbers of neighbors are present? (Choose two.)

• root router

• backup root router

• domain router

• backup domain router

• designated router

• backup designated router


1 Which Layer 4 protocol does EIGRP use to provide reliability for the transmission of routing

information?

• DUAL


• IP

• PDM

• RTP

• TCP

• UDP

2 Which of the following statements describes the bounded updates used by EIGRP?

• Bounded updates are sent to all routers within an autonomous system.

• Partial updates are sent only to routers that need the information.

• The updates are sent to all routers in the routing table.

• Updates are bounded by the routers in the topology table.

3 What is the EIGRP term for a backup route?

• backup route

• default route

• feasible successor route

• gateway

• secondary route

• successor route

4 Why would it be necessary to configure the bandwidth setting on an EIGRP interface rather than

leaving it at the default setting? (Choose two.)

• A suboptimal route may be chosen as the best path to a destination if the bandwidth setting is

higher than the actual bandwidth of the link.

• The network may be unable to converge if the bandwidth setting does not match the actual

bandwidth of the link.

• Routing updates might arrive too fast for the interface to handle and be discarded because of

buffer overflow.

• The configured bandwidth must match the actual speed of the link so the link will operate

properly.

• Setting the bandwidth to a higher rate will optimize the effective throughput of the link.

5 If an EIGRP route goes down and a feasible successor is not found in the topology table, how

does DUAL flag the route that has failed?

• recomputed

• passive

• active

• down

• unreachable

• successor

6 What tables does EIGRP maintain for each routed protocol it supports? (Choose three.)

• adjacency table

• topology table

• neighbor table

• routing table

• link state table

• ARP table

7 In which of the following tables does the EIGRP DUAL algorithm store the primary route to a

destination? (Choose two.)

• routing

• topology

• neighbor

• path

• shortest path

8 Which of the following are found in the EIGRP neighbor table? (Choose two.)

• routes installed by DUAL

• lowest calculated metric to each destination

• network layer address of the neighbor routers

• number of EIGRP packets waiting to be sent

• feasible distance to each neighbor

9 Which of the following router commands is recommended only for troubleshooting specific types

of network problems, not for monitoring normal network operation?

• show

• list

• debug

• terminal monitor

10 Which EIGRP command is used to view all routes that are known by the router?

• show ip eigrp interfaces detail

• show ip eigrp traffic

• show ip eigrp neighbors

• show ip eigrp topology all-links

11 What is the default administrative distance of EIGRP internal routes?

• 70

• 90

• 100

• 110

• 120

• 255

12 What is the advantage of routers forming adjacencies when using EIGRP? (Choose three.)

• Neighbor routers can quickly take over for a router that is in passive mode.

• New routers and their routes can quickly be discovered by neighbor routers.

• A router can share routing loads with neighbor routers.

• A router can quickly discover when a neighbor router is no longer available.

• Changes in network topology can quickly be shared with neighbor routers.

• Neighbor routers can save overhead by sharing their DUAL databases.

13 Which of the following types of routes will be denoted by EX in EIGRP routing table entries?

(Choose two.)

• routes learned from other routing protocols

• routes learned from any non-adjacent EIGRP routers

• any route with a hop count metric higher than 224

• EIGRP routes that originate in different autonomous systems

• all passive routes in the routing table

14 Which command will help identify established OSPF neighbor adjacencies?

• router# show ospf neighbor

• router# debug neighbor events

• router# debug ip ospf neighbor

• router# show ip ospf neighbor

15 Which command will display only the current EIGRP routing table entries?


• Router# show ip route eigrp

• Router# show eigrp route

• Router# show eigrp protocol

16

Host 192.168.1.66 in the network illustrated is unable to ping host 192.168.1.130. How must

EIGRP be configured to enable connectivity between the two hosts? (Choose two.)

• R1(config-router)# network 192.168.1.128

• R1(config-router)# auto-summary

• R1(config-router)# no auto-summary

• R2(config-router)# no auto-summary

• R2(config-router)# auto-summary

• R2(config-router)# network 192.168.1.64

17 What information is maintained in the EIGRP topology database for a destination route?

(Choose three.)

• the routing protocol

• the feasible distance of the route

• the highest cost of the route

• the SRTT value for the route

• the route cost as advertised by the neighboring router

• the physical address of the gateway interface



1 Which statements are true concerning the shared memory buffering used by an Ethernet switch?

(Choose two.)

• Frames are processed through a single queue.

• All frames are placed in a common memory buffer.

• Frames are placed in a queue for the destination port.

• A port with a full memory buffer can cause frames for available ports to be delayed.

• Each switch port is statically assigned a buffer of equal size.

2 What are the functions of routers? (Choose three.)

• improving network performance by increasing latency by twenty to thirty percent

• segmenting broadcast domains

• forwarding packets based on destination network layer addresses

• segmenting collision domains

• forwarding packets as soon as the destination MAC address is read

• developing routing table entries based on source IP addresses

3 What are the functions of a Layer 2 Ethernet switch? (Choose three.)

• preventing broadcasts

• increasing available bandwidth per user

• decreasing the size of collision domains

• isolating traffic among segments

• routing traffic between different networks

• decreasing the number of broadcast domains

4 Why does a switch have higher throughput compared to a bridge?

• Switching occurs in software.

• Switching occurs in hardware.

• Switches create multiple broadcast domains.

• Switches segment LANs.

5 Why would a network administrator segment a network with a Layer 2 switch? (Choose two.)

• to create fewer collision domains

• to enhance user bandwidth

• to create more broadcast domains

• to eliminate virtual circuits

• to isolate traffic between segments

• to isolate ARP request messages from the rest of the network

6

Refer to the graphic. Which point must be reached before a frame is forwarded when the switch is

using store-and-forward mode?

• A

• B

• C

• D

• E

• F

7 Hubs are concerned with which PDU?

• bits

• frames

• packets

• datagrams

8 Which statements are true regarding hubs? (Choose three.)

• Hubs operate at Layer 1 of the OSI model.

• They create separate collision domains.

• Signals are distributed through all ports.

• Layer 2 addresses are used to make decisions.

• They calculate the CRC for each frame received prior to forwarding.

• Bandwidth is shared among all connected users.

9 Which device provides segmentation within a single network?

• hub

• server

• switch

• transceiver

10 Which of the following is a Layer 2 broadcast address?

• 0.0.0.0

• 255.255.255.255

• 11:11:11:11

• FF:FF:FF:FF

• FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF

11

Refer to the graphic. Which point in the frame must be reached before it is forwarded by a

switch that is using fast-forward mode?

• A

• B

• C

• D

• E

• F

12 Which switching mode changes to store-and-forward mode after it detects a given number of

errors?

• cut-through

• adaptive fast-forward

• fragment-free

• adaptive cut-through

13 Which form of buffering is used by bridges?

• cut-through

• fragment-free

• fast-forward

• store-and-forward

14 Where are switching tables stored in a Cisco LAN switch?

• ROM

• CAM

• Flash

• SIMM

• NRAM

15 Which of the following are true regarding the addition of switches to a network? (Choose

two.)

• They increase the number of collision domains.

• They decrease the number of collision domains.

• They increase the number of broadcast domains.

• They decrease the number of broadcast domains.

• They increase the amount of bandwidth available to users.

• They decrease the amount of bandwidth available to users.

16 Which of the following is used to build a switching table?

• source IP addresses

• destination IP addresses

• destination MAC addresses

• source MAC addresses

17 Which statements describe asymmetric switching? (Choose three.)

• It uses data compression algorithms to manage higher bandwidth interfaces.

• It is often used to provide high bandwidth uplinks for a number of lower bandwidth client

interfaces.

• It provides connections between network segments that operate at different bandwidths.

• It uses cut-through forwarding when going from a lower bandwidth to a higher bandwidth

interface.

• It is used to provide more bandwidth to network clients than to backbone or server links.

• It may require buffering frames before forwarding to the destination interface.

18 What does switch latency describe?

• forwarding method used by a switch

• time it takes for a frame to be received by a switch

• improvement in network performance from using a switch

• time delay between when a frame enters and exits a switch

• increase in the size of a collision domain from using a switch

19 How does an Ethernet bridge handle an incoming frame? (Choose three.)

• The source MAC address and input interface pair are added to the bridging table.

• The destination MAC address and input interface pair are added to the bridging table.

• If no match to the destination MAC address is found in the bridging table, the frame is

discarded.

• If no match to the destination MAC address is found in the bridging table, the frame is

flooded out all other interfaces.

• If a match to the destination MAC address is found in the bridging table, the frame is

forwarded out the associated interface.

• If a match to the source MAC address is found in the bridging table, the frame is forwarded to

all ports.

20 Which attribute is used by a bridge to make forwarding decisions?





• Layer 4-7 protocol address


1 At which layer of the hierarchical design model do users connect to the network?

• application

• access

• distribution

• network

• core

2 Which layer of the hierarchical network design model is often referred to as the backbone

• access

• distribution

• network

• core

• workgroup

• WAN

3 What will increase the number of broadcast domains in a network? (Choose two.)

• replacing hubs with switches

• segmenting the network by installing a router

• creating VLANs for each workgroup

• adding additional hubs to the local area network

• replacing routers with LAN switches

• adding bridges to connect different workgroups

4 Where should DNS and email servers be located?

• IDF

• MDF

• HCC

• VCC

• POP

5 VLAN1 and VLAN2 have been configured on a switch. What must be done for hosts on VLAN1 to

communicate with hosts on VLAN2?


• VLAN overlapping must be enabled on the switch.

• The MAC address must be added to the ARP table in the switch.

• A router must be configured to allow routing between the VLANs.

• An entry in the switching table must be configured for each VLAN.

• Communication between VLANs is automatically enabled on switches.

6 What type of cabling is specified by TIA/EIA standards for interconnection of Intermediate and

Main Distribution Facilities?

• patch cables of variable lengths

• horizontal cross-connect cabling

• vertical cross-connect cabling

• parallel cross-connect cabling

7 Which of the following affect network availability? (Choose three.)

• throughput

• response time

• workstation speed

• access to resources

• desktop applications

8 Which of the following are requirements of LAN design? (Choose three.)

• adaptability

• manageability

• operability

• scalability

• stability

9 Why is it important that the data carrying capacity of vertical cabling be greater than that

of the horizontal cable?

• Vertical cabling is reserved for high bandwith video conferencing.

• Vertical cabling carries traffic from the IDF to the user.

• Vertical cabling carries traffic from the enterprise out to the Internet.

• Vertical cabling carries traffic from multiple areas of the network.

• Layer-three packets move faster through vertical cabling.

10 A distribution layer switch operates at which OSI layers? (Choose two.)

• access

• data link

• network

• internet

• transport

11 To reduce cost on a new network design, administrators select switches that initially will

have 100 Mbps interface modules installed but will also have the ability to support 1000 Mbps

interface modules. Which of the LAN design goals are being utilized? (Choose two.)

• sustainability

• reliability

• manageability

• adaptability

• functionality

• scalability

12 Which of the following are characteristics of the core layer of the hierarchical network

design model? (Choose three.)

• redundant paths

• high-level policy enforcement

• packet manipulation

• media transitions

• rapid forwarding of traffic

• no packet filtering

13 Which of the following are features of the access layer of the hierarchical network design

model? (Choose two.)

• inter-VLAN routing

• Layer 2 filtering

• Layer 3 filtering

• microsegmentation

• bandwidth security

14 Which LAN standard uses CSMA/CD as its access method?

• FDDI

• Ethernet

• Wireless

• Token Ring

15 A network administrator needs to increase bandwidth and reduce traffic on a network. What

should be used in the access layer of the hierarchical network design model to dedicate

bandwidth to users while limiting broadcast domains?

• one router with multiple fast Ethernet interfaces

• multiple routers with Fast Ethernet interfaces

• multi-port gigabit switches

• switches running VLANs

• managed smart hubs

16 Which devices are considered acceptable for creating more connection points at the end of

horizontal cable runs? (Choose two.)

• hubs

• bridges

• switches

• routers

17 A major network upgrade that was designed to improve speed and reliability has recently been

completed. Users in one part of the network are experiencing dramatically decreased throughput

and loss of connectivity. Which of the LAN design goals was not met for these users?

• functionality

• sustainability

• adaptability

• manageability

• scalability

18 When designing a LAN, at which layer of the OSI model does the process of segmenting

collision domains occur?

• Layer 1

• Layer 2

• Layer 4

• Layer 7

19 Which hierarchical design model layer is responsible for containing network problems to the

workgroups in which they occur?

• application

• access

• distribution

• network

• core

20 What is the primary reason for implementing security and policy routing at the distribution

layer?

• filtering of core switching errors

• preventing policy and security issues from burdening the core layer

• preventing unnecessary security policy decisions from burdening the access layer

• maintaining a consistent three-layer security policy

• isolating the access layer from traffic destined for other networks


1 A new policy for disaster recovery requires copying all critical network configurations and

operating systems to a backup server that will be stored offsite. Which command will create a

backup of the switch IOS image on the server?

• Switch# copy tftp NVRAM

• Switch# copy running-config tftp

• Switch# copy flash tftp

• Switch# copy IOS tftp

• Switch# copy tftp flash

• Switch# copy NVRAM tftp

2 Which commands can be used to change from Global Configuration mode to Privileged EXEC mode?

(Choose three.)

• Ctrl+z

• disable

• end

• exit

• logout


3 An administrator is using the switch help facility to find the command elements available to

the configure command. What would the user type at the command prompt to display the next set of

arguments available in the syntax for this command

• Switch# c?

• Switch# c ?

• Switch# configure?

• Switch# configure ?

4 Which switch command mode should always be password protected?

• User Command

• User Config

• User EXEC

• User Privileged

• Privileged EXEC

5 What must be done in order to initiate the password recovery procedure on a Catalyst 2900

series switch?

• Rename the Flash file.

• Enter the setup program by deleting the switch configuration file and rebooting the switch.

• Hold down the MODE button during switch startup.

• Wait for the STAT LED to turn green while holding down the Break key.

• Hold down the Ctrl-Break keys during switch startup.

6 Which protocol is used to copy a new IOS image to a Catalyst switch during the upgrade

procedure?

• HTTP

• Telnet

• TFTP

• TTY

• IOS

7 A group of hosts has been connected to a new Fast Ethernet switch. Which of the following

statements describe this newly created LAN, if the new switch has not yet been configured?

(Choose three.)

• The hosts will negotiate 10 Mbps or 100 Mbps bandwidth with the switch, as required by their

NICs.

• The hosts will be in separate broadcast domains.

• All of the hosts will be in the same VLAN.

• Hosts with 10 Mbps NICs will be unable to communicate with the network.

• All of the hosts should be able to send and receive ARP messages from each other.

• All of the hosts connected by Ethernet can manage the switch over Telnet or HTTP.

8 A workstation on a switched Ethernet LAN is to be upgraded with a new Fast Ethernet NIC. What

should be done to ensure that the workstation will be able to gain access to the network?

• delete the configuration file from the switch and reload IOS

• deactivate port security on the port until the new host has connected to the network

• remove the host from the the management VLAN until the new MAC address has been learned by the

switch

• delete the VLAN.dat file from flash and reboot the switch

• configure the attached switch port for full-duplex mode

9 Although the backup configuration file on a Catalyst 2950 switch has been erased, it is found

that VLANs are still configured in the switch. What must be done to clear the configured VLANs?

• The vlan.dat file must be erased and the switch reloaded.

• The switch flash memory must be purged and the switch rebooted.

• The vlan.cfg file must be renamed and IOS restarted.

• Each VLAN needs to be deleted individually and the configuration saved.

• The switch needs to be restarted, because the old running configuration is still in memory.

10 Which type of cable is used to connect to the console port on a switch?

• a crossover cable

• a patch cable

• a rollover cable

• a straight-thru cable

11 From which switch command mode can the configure command be used?

• config

• user EXEC

• privileged EXEC

• command EXEC

• flash

12 An old workstation has been replaced with a new one. The workgroup switch, a Catalyst 2950,

is not learning the MAC address of the new workstation. A network technician has verified that a

static MAC address is not configured on the attached switch port. Which two commands can the

technician issue at the switch CLI to further troubleshoot the problem? (Choose two.)

• Switch# show port security

• Switch# show version

• Switch# show startup-config

• Switch# clear mac-address-table dynamic

• Switch# reload

• Switch# delete flash:vlan.dat

13 Which methods can be used to perform the initial configuration of a new switch? (Choose two.)

• copy a configuration from a FTP server

• type commands manually after entering the Privileged EXEC mode

• enter the System Configuration dialog

• Telnet to a local server to copy a configuration file

• connect to the switch using a web browser

14 How long will a host MAC address remain in the address table of a switch after the host has

been turned off or moved to another device?

• 30 seconds

• 180 seconds

• 300 seconds

• 30 minutes

15 What is the name of the series of tests that execute every time a switch is powered on?

• RPS

• bootstrap

• power-on self test

• system STAT

• pre-boot

16 After powering up a switch, the network technician notices that the system LED is amber. What

can the technician assume? (Choose two.)

• The switch is negotiating full or half-duplex mode.

• The switch has completed negotiating 10 or 100 Mbps speed.

• The POST has failed.

• The boot sequence is in process.

• A fatal error has occurred.

• The switch is operating properly and is ready for service.

17 When the copy tftp flash command is used to upgrade the IOS on a switch, which symbol

indicates that the image was copied successfully?

• e

• *

• !

• s

• #

18 What color is the System LED if the switch fails the POST?

• amber

• green

• red

• white

• off

19 How can a switch be configured to prevent unauthorized hosts from access to a network?

(Choose three.)

• Host MAC addresses can be statically assigned to each switch port.

• Layer 2 access control lists can be used to prevent unauthorized network access.

• Unused ports can be shutdown.

• Passwords and usernames can be set for each Ethernet switch port.

• Unused switch ports can be assigned to the management VLAN.

• Port security can be activated to allow only the host with the first MAC address learned on a

port to access the network.

20 Which files must be deleted in order to completely remove an existing configuration from a

Cisco 2950 switch? (Choose two.)

• flash:c2950-c3h2s-mz.120-5-3.WC.1.bin

• running-config

• VLAN.bin

• startup-config

• c2950-c3h2s-mz.120-5-3.WC.1.dat

• VLAN.dat


1 Which of the following describe the BIDs used in a spanning tree topology? (Choose two.)

• They are sent out by the root bridge only after the inferior BPDUs are sent.

• They consist of a bridge priority and MAC address.

• Only the root bridge will send out a BID.

• They are used by the switches in a spanning tree topology to elect the root bridge.

• The switch with the fastest processor will have the lowest BID.

2 Which algorithm is used to create a loop free switched topology?

• Spanning Tree

• Shortest Path First

• Dykstra

• Rapid Tree

• Bellman-Ford

3 What is meant by "five nines" network uptime?

• A network should be available until 9:00 pm five days of the week.

• A network should be functioning 99.999% of the time.

• There should be five nine-port uplinks for each backbone segment.

• Five percent of network expenditures should address 99% of user requirements.

• Nothing short of 100% network uptime is acceptable in modern networks.

4

Switch_A and Switch_B shown in the graphic receive an ARP request from the host and forward it

out their ports. The switches receive the forwarded requests from each other and in turn flood

the requests again. What will be the result if this process continues?

• a broadcast storm

• multicast errors

• ARP table errors

• MAC address instability

• redundant unicast frame forwarding

5 Which of the following are valid STP port states? (Choose three.)

• blocking

• learning

• converging

• listening

• switching

6 How often are BPDUs sent by default in a network using the spanning-tree algorithm?

• every second

• every two seconds

• every three seconds

• every four seconds

7 What happens when there is a topology change on a network that utilizes STP ? (Choose two.)

• User traffic is disrupted until recalculation is complete.

• The switch recomputes the Spanning Tree topology after the network converges.

• All ports are placed in learning state until convergence has occurred.

• A delay of up to 50 seconds is incurred for convergence of the new Spanning Tree topology.

• User data is forwarded while BPDUs are exchanged to recompute the topology.

8 How can a network administrator influence which STP switch becomes the root bridge?

• Configure the switch as the static root bridge.

• Change the BPDU to a higher value than that of the other switches in the network.


• Change the BPDU to a lower value than that of the other switches in the network.

• Set the switch priority to a smaller value than that of the other switches in the network.

• Set the switch priority to a higher value than that of the other switches in the network.

9 What features of the Spanning-Tree Protocol contribute to the time it takes for a switched

network to converge after a topology change occurs? (Choose three.)

• the max-age timer

• the listening forward delay

• the spanning-tree hold down timer

• the learning forward delay

• the spanning-tree path cost

• the blocking delay

10 How does a switch forward a multicast frame through the network?

• It floods it to all ports as a broadcast.

• It is forwarded only to ports that contain the destination address.

• It is sent to the port that contains the first destination address.

• It floods it to all ports except the one it was received on.

• It is dropped and not sent to any address.

11 Following a link failure, when does Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol allow point-to-point and

edge type links to go to the forwarding state?

• in 15 seconds

• never

• immediately

• in 30 seconds

• after 90 seconds

12 What is the first step in the process of convergence in a spanning tree topology?

• election of the root bridge

• determination of the designated port for each segment

• blocking of the non-designated ports

• selection of the designated trunk port

• activation of the root port for each segment

13 What link types have been defined for Rapid Spanning-Tree Protocol? (Choose three.)

• shared

• end-to-end

• edge-type

• boundary-type

• point-to-many

• point-to-point

14 What characteristic of Ethernet makes a redundantly switched network prone to loops?

• Routers are only able to prevent loops at Layer 3, while Ethernet exists at Layer 2.

• The Ethernet protocol has no TTL mechanism.

• Switches lack the sophisticated software required to prevent loops.

• Looping of frames is a reliability mechanism built in to the Ethernet protocol.

15 In which STP state does a switch port transmit user data and learn MAC addresses?

• blocking

• learning

• disabling

• listening

• forwarding

16 In which STP state does a port record MAC addresses but not forward user data?

• blocking

• learning

• disabling

• listening

• forwarding

17 Which of the following criteria does a switch use to select the root bridge? (Choose two.)

• memory size

• bridge priority

• switching speed

• number of ports

• base MAC address

• switch location

18 What elements will exist in a converged network with one spanning tree? (Choose two.)

• one root bridge per network

• all non-designated ports forwarding

• one root port per non-root bridge

• multiple designated ports per segment

• one designated port per network

19

Refer to the network shown in the graphic. Host1 needs to transfer data to host2, but host1 has

no MAC address entry in its ARP cache for host2. What will happen on the network as host1

prepares to transmit its data to host2?

• Host1 will receive an ICMP destination unknown message from switch3.

• All hosts in the network shown will receive an ARP request message from host1.

• Multicasting will occur until host2 is located.

• Switch3 will send the host2 MAC address from its bridging table to host1.

• A broadcast storm will occur.

20 How much time does it take for a switch port to go from the blocking state to the forwarding

state?

• 2 seconds

• 15 seconds

• 20 seconds

• 50 seconds

21

Refer to the graphic. Server sends an ARP request for the MAC address of its default gateway. If

STP is not enabled, what will be the result of this ARP request?

• Router_1 will kill the broadcast and reply with the MAC address of the next hop router.

• Switch_A will reply with the MAC address of the Router_1 E0 interface.

• Switch_A and Switch_B will continuously flood the message onto the network.

• Switch_B will broadcast the request and reply with the Router_1 address.

• The message will cycle around the network until its TTL is exceeded.

22 Which of the following are problems that can occur in redundantly switched networks? (Choose

three.)

• broadcast storms

• corrupted ARP tables

• duplicate MAC addresses

• inaccurate routing tables

• multiple copies of Ethernet frames

• MAC address table instability

23 How is the information contained in BPDUs used by switches? (Choose two.)

• to prevent loops by sharing bridging tables between connected switches

• to set the duplex mode of a redundant link

• to determine the shortest path to the root bridge

• to determine which ports will forward frames as part of the spanning tree

• to activate looped paths throughout the network


1 Which approach to assigning VLAN membership maximizes forwarding performance?

• membership by MAC address

• membership by logical address

• membership by protocol

• membership by port

• membership by operating system

2 What are the characteristics of VLAN1 in a default switch configuration? (Choose three.)

• CDP messages are only sent on VLAN1.

• VLAN1 is reserved for links between switches.

• All switch ports are members of VLAN1.

• VLAN1 must be created before ports can be assigned to it.

• Only switch port 0/1 is assigned to VLAN1.

• An IP address configured on the switch will only apply to ports on VLAN1.

3 How does a bridge handle the frames that it receives? (Choose three.)

• If the source is unknown, the source port is shutdown.

• If the source port of a frame is unknown, a bridge will issue an ARP request.

• If the destination is on another segment, the bridge forwards the frame only to the correct

interface.

• A bridge forwards frames for unknown destinations to the default gateway.

• If the destination port is unknown, a bridge will flood the frame to all ports in the

broadcast domain, except for the source port.

• If the destination of the frame is on the same segment as the source, a bridge will not

forward the frame.

4 What needs to be done when deleting an entire VLAN? (Choose three.)

• Enter database configuration mode.

• Reboot the switch in order for the changes to take effect.

• Use the negative form of the command that was used to create the VLAN.

• Reassign the switch ports from the deleted VLAN to other VLANs if they are to be used.

• Use the erase vlan command in global configuration mode.

• Delete the vlan.dat file from flash.

5 A network administrator is attempting to configure routing between VLANs over a trunked link.

A trunk link cannot be established between a switch and a router. Which of the following are

possible sources of this problem? (Choose two.)

• The router IOS does not support trunking.

• The port is connected and is not receiving alignment and FCS errors.

• The switch duplex and speed are not set properly.

• The router and switch are running different versions of STP.

• The switch IP address is incorrectly configured.

6 If two 12-port hubs are connected to a switch that has three VLANs configured, how many

bridging tables will the switch maintain?

• 1

• 2

• 3

• 12

• 36

7 A network administrator has configured a switch with VLANs. Hosts will join the VLANs based on

their MAC or IP address. What type of VLANs have been configured on the switch?

• dynamic

• database

• multiple

• port-based

8 A network administrator has configured a switch with three VLANs: VLAN1, VLAN2, and VLAN3.

Port 10 is to be assigned to VLAN3. Which of the following commands are needed to assign port 10

to VLAN3? (Choose three.)

• Switch_1(config)# switchport interface fastethernet 0/10

• Switch_1(config-if)# switchport mode access

• Switch_1(config-if)# switchport access

• Switch_1(config-if)# switchport access vlan 3


• Switch_1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/10

• Switch_1# vlan database

9 How does the use of VLANs benefit an organization? (Choose two.)

• by centralizing departmental staff and network resources together in a single physical area

• by allowing organizational flexibility by grouping users together by function instead of

physical location

• by simplifying the task of adding and moving network resources and users in a growing

organization

• by reducing the number of broadcast domains in an enterprise network

• by eliminating the need for routing traffic in large networks

• by reducing network management costs by replacing many Layer 2 devices with a few Layer 3

devices

10 Which of the following states the 80/20 rule of end-to-end VLANs

• 80% of network resources should be remote and 20% should be on the local VLAN.

• 80% of VLANs should be static and the remaining 20% should be dynamic.

• 80% of network traffic should be local and 20% remote.

• 80% of the network sources should be centralized at the core layer and the remaining 20% at

the distribution layer.

• 80% of traffic should be routed and 20% should be switched.

11 Which factors influence the number of VLANs that may be required on a switch? (Choose three.)

• the physical addressing scheme

• traffic patterns in the network

• types of applications in use

• the adaptability of the network

• workgroup functions and commonality

• the tagging option used for VLAN identification

12 A network administrator has just finished configuring a switch with multiple VLANs. A

workstation on VLAN2 cannot communicate with a workstation on VLAN3. What needs to be done to

correct this problem?

• The traffic needs to be routed between the two VLANs.

• The hosts must be reconfigured to be on the same logical network.

• The VLANs need to be configured to be on the same broadcast domain.

• The switch must be configured to share VLAN traffic.

13 Which of the following describe networks in which the use of static VLANs is appropriate?

(Choose three.)

• Workstations, departments, and network resources are seldom moved.

• VLAN port membership frequently changes.

• Robust VLAN management software is available to the network administrator.

• The overhead required to manage VLAN MAC address and custom filtering tables is not desirable.

• VLANs are often added, deleted, and modified.

14 VLAN 10 needs to be removed from a switch. Which command must the administrator enter in

order to accomplish this task?

• Switch(config-if)# no switchport access vlan 10

• Switch(config-if)# erase switchport access vlan 10

• Switch(vlan)# no vlan 10

• Switch(vlan)# no vlan database 10

15

Refer to the network shown in the graphic. Host A on VLAN1 has sent a message requesting the MAC

address of its default gateway. Which of the following network hosts will process this message?

• The message will be seen by the hosts on VLAN1 and VLAN2.

• The message will be seen only by the hosts connected to Switch1.

• The message will be seen only by the hosts connected to VLAN1 on Switch1.

• The message will be seen by the hosts connected to VLAN1 on Switch1 and Switch2.

• The message will only be seen by router interface e0. •

16 If a switch connects 12 collision domains and is configured with three VLANs, how many

broadcast domains does it have?

• 1

• 3

• 4

• 12

17 Which of the following commands are used to verify VLAN configuration? (Choose two.)

• Switch# show vlan id id_number

• Switch# show vlan

• Switch# show config vlan id_number

• Switch# show vlan config id_number

• Switch# show interface vlan id_number

18 Which of the following commands will assign switch port 0/9 to VLAN3?

• Switch(config-if)# switchport access vlan 3

• Switch(config-if)# switchport vlan 3

• Switch(config-if)# switchport access 3

• Switch(vlan)# switchport 0/9

• Switch(vlan)# access switchport 0/9

19 What does a switch do when it receives a frame and the source address is unknown?

• The switch will discard the frame.

• The switch will request the sender resend the frame.

• The switch will map the source address to the port on which it was received.

• The switch will flood the frame to all attached devices.

• The switch will issue an ARP request to confirm that the source exists.

20 What is true of the method by which VLAN membership is identified in Ethernet frames? (Choose

two.)

• The frame header is in its original format when it reaches the endpoint device.

• The VLAN membership of frames does not need to be identified unless ISL is in use.

• The Ethernet frame is encapsulated or modified with the VLAN ID information.

• The VLAN ID is removed by the endpoint device upon delivery of the frame.

21 Which of the following statements are true regarding a root bridge in a spanning tree

topology? (Choose two.)

• The root bridge timers control BPDU traffic on the network.

• Only the show commands on the switch can display root bridge information.

• It is the central point of a spanning tree topology.

• Storm control is enabled by default.

• VLANs cannot be trunked between switches until the root bridge has been elected.

22 Which of the following are methods of establishing VLAN membership? (Choose three.)

• logical addresses

• physical addresses

• ISL addresses

• switch port attachment

• hardware platform

• traffic pattern

23 Switch-A and Switch-B are both configured with ports in the Marketing, Sales, Accounting, and

Admin VLANs. Each VLAN contains 12 users. How many different subnetworks will be needed to

enable routed connectivity between the VLANs?

• 1

• 4

• 12

• 48

24 What happens to the member ports of a VLAN when the VLAN is deleted?

• They become inactive.

• They default back to the management VLAN.

• They automatically become a part of VLAN1.

• They must be assigned to another VLAN before the original VLAN can be deleted.

• They remain a part of that VLAN until the switch is rebooted. They then become members of the

management VLAN.



1 A router has two serial interfaces and two FastEthernet interfaces. It needs to connect to a

wide area link to the main office and to four VLANs in the local network. How can this be

accomplished in the most efficient manner?

• Connect a trunked uplink from the switch to a router FastEthernet interface and create logical

subinterfaces for each VLAN.

• Use a hub to connect the four VLANS with a FastEthernet interface on the router.

• Two additional FastEthernet interfaces are required to interconnect the VLANs.

• Use serial to FastEthernet transceivers to connect two of the VLANs to the router. Attach the

other two VLANs directly to the available FastEthernet ports.

• Add a second router to handle the inter-VLAN traffic.

2

The switches in the diagram are connected with trunks within the same VTP management domain.

Each switch is labeled with its VTP mode. A new VLAN is added to Switch3. This VLAN does not

show up on the other switches. What is the reason for this?

• VLANs cannot be created on transparent mode switches.

• Server mode switches neither listen to nor forward VTP messages from transparent mode

switches.

• VLANs created on transparent mode switches are not included in VTP advertisements.

• There are no ports assigned to the new VLAN on the other switches.

• Transparent mode switches do not forward VTP advertisements.

3

Refer to the graphic. What are some advantages of replacing the individual VLAN links between

Switch1 and Switch2 with a single trunk line? (Choose three.)

• It would free 2 switch ports on each switch.

• It would free 3 switch ports on each switch.

• It would save 2 cabling runs.

• It would save 3 cabling runs.

• It would provide three times the bandwidth of the individual links.

• It would allow adding more VLANs without requiring more cabling or switch ports.

4

A switch is configured with the commands shown in the diagram. Host1 is connected to port 0/4

with an IP address of 192.168.1.22/28. Host2 is connected to port 0/5 with an IP address of

192.168.1.33/28. Host3 is connected to port 0/6 with an IP address of 192.168.1.30/28. Select

the statements that describe the success of pinging from one host to another. (Choose three.)

• Host1 can ping Host2.

• Host1 cannot ping Host2.





5

A router is configured to connect to a trunked uplink as shown in the graphic. A packet is

received on the FastEthernet 0/1 physical interface from VLAN 10. The packet destination address

is 192.168.1.120. What will the router do with this packet?

• The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.1 tagged for VLAN 10.




• The router will not process the packet since the source and destination are on the same

subnet.

• The router will drop the packet since no network that includes the source address is attached

to the router.

6 A switch in a VTP domain sends an advertisement request. What will be the response?

• A configuration status reply will be issued from the closest client switch.

• A three-way handshake will establish a configuration session with the VTP server.

• Summary and subset advertisements will be sent by the VTP server.

• The configuration version number will be set to zero and all switches in the domain will issue

advertisements regarding the state of their VLANs.

7 Which devices can be connected to a VLAN trunk? (Choose three.)

• a switch

• a hub

• a router

• a server with a special NIC

• a CSU/DSU

• a repeater

8 What should be done before moving a Catalyst switch to a new VTP management domain? (Choose

three.)

• Verify that the new switch has a lower configuration revision number than the other switches

in the domain.

• Reset the VTP counters to allow the switch to synchronize with the other switches in the

domain.

• Download the VTP database from the VTP server in the new domain.

• Configure the VTP server in the domain to recognize the BID of the new switch.

• Select the correct VTP mode and version.

• Configure the switch with the name of the new management domain.

9 Which of the following must be used when configuring a router interface for VLAN trunking?

(Choose three.)

• one subinterface per VLAN

• one physical interface for each subinterface

• one IP network or subnetwork for each subinterface

• one trunked link per VLAN

• a management domain for each subinterface

• a compatible trunking protocol encapsulation for each subinterface

10 By default, to which VLAN does a trunked link belong?

• the first VLAN defined

• the last VLAN defined

• all VLANs

• the lowest number VLAN

11

If trunking were not used in the network shown in the graphic, how many links would be required

to carry the traffic for all the VLANs between the switches?

• 1

• 2

• 3

• 4

12

Host A sends a frame to host B over the network shown in the graphic. Each link has been labeled

with a letter. On which links along the path between hosts A and B will a VLAN ID tag be

included with the frame?

• C, E

• A, C, E

• C, E, F

• A, C, D, E

• A, B, C, D, E

• A, B, C, D, E, F, G

13

Which statements describe the network design shown in the graphic? (Choose three.)

• This design will not scale easily.

• This design exceeds the maximum number of VLANs that can be attached to a switch.

• Devices on the different VLANs can communicate through the router.

• This design requires the use of the ISL or 802.1q protocol on the links between the switch and

the router.

• This design uses more switch and router ports than are necessary.

• The router merges the VLANs into a single broadcast domain.

14 What causes a VTP configured switch to issue a summary advertisement?

• A new host has been attached to a switch in the management domain.

• A port on a switch in the management domain has changed to blocking mode.

• A five-minute update timer has elapsed.

• The advertisement revision number has reached n+1.

15

The LAN devices are configured as shown in the diagram. Why are Host1 and Host2 unable to

communicate?

• No VTP domain has been configured.

• A router is needed to forward traffic between the VLANs.

• The switch does not have an entry in its CAM table for Host2.

• The host IP configurations are on different networks.

• The ports on each VLAN must be grouped together on the switch.

16

Switch1 is not participating in the VTP management process with the other switches shown in the

graphic. What are the possible reasons for this? (Choose two.)

• Switch2 is in transparent mode.

• Switch1 is in client mode.

• Switch1 is using VTP version 1 and Switch2 is using VTP version 2.

• Switch2 is in server mode.

• Switch1 is in a different management domain.

• Switch1 has no VLANs.

17 What does a client mode switch in a VTP management domain do when it receives a summary

advertisement with a revision number higher than its current revision number?

• It suspends forwarding until a subset advertisement update arrives.

• It issues an advertisement request for new VLAN information.

• It increments the revision number and forwards it to other switches.

• It deletes the VLANs not included in the summary advertisement.

• It issues summary advertisements to advise other switches of status changes.

18 What information does frame tagging add to each frame to allow delivery of frames across a

switched trunk?

• the destination MAC address

• the switch MAC address

• the VLAN ID

• the BID

19 Which of the following statements describe VTP transparent mode operation? (Choose two.)

• Transparent mode switches can create VLAN management information.

• Transparent mode switches can add VLANs of local significance only.

• Transparent mode switches pass VLAN management information that they receive to other

switches.

• Transparent mode switches can adopt VLAN management changes received from other switches.

• Transparent mode switches send out updates informing other switches about changes in the

status of their VLANs.

20 Select the items that describe VTP client mode operation. (Choose two.)

• can add VLANs of local significance only

• can only adopt VLAN management changes

• can create and adopt updated VLAN management information

• can only pass VLAN management information without adopting changes

• can add VLANs to domain

• cannot add VLANs

21

A new host needs to be connected to VLAN 1. Router RA is attached to the VTP trunk and

configured as shown in the output contained in the graphic. Which of the following IP addresses

should be assigned to this new host?

• 192.168.1.1 /26

• 192.168.1.11 /28

• 192.168.1.22 /28

• 192.168.1.33 /28

• 192.168.1.44 /28

• 192.168.1.55 /28

22 How do devices on VLANs communicate? (Choose two.)

• Devices on different VLANs communicate through VTP.

• Devices on different VLANs communicate through routers.

• Devices on different VLANs communicate over a trunk link between switches.

• Devices on the same VLAN communicate through a router.

• Devices on the same VLAN communicate through Layer 2 switches.

CISCO CCNA 3 - Final Exam

1

Refer to the graphic. What is the most efficient summarization of the routes attached to router

RT-5?

• 192.168.0.0/16

• 192.168.52.0/24

• 192.168.48.0/22

• 192.168.52.0/22

• 192.168.51.0/23

• 192.168.48.0/21

2

http://ccna-cisco-academy.blogspot.com/2007/10/cisco-ccna-3-final-exam.html

Refer to the exhibit. Which sequence of commands is required to configure switch port Fa0/2 for

host A?

• SW-1(config)# interface vlan 20

SW-1(config-if)# switchport mode access 20

• SW-1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/2

SW-1(config-if)# switchport mode access

SW-1(config-if)# switchport access vlan 20

• SW-1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/2

SW-1(config-if)# vlan 20

• SW-1(config)# interface vlan 20

SW-1(config-if)# switchport mode trunk

3 Which layer of the hierarchical three-layer design model combines traffic from multiple IDFs?

• access

• backbone

• distribution

• core

4 A network administrator is removing several VLANs from a switch. When the administrator enters

the no vlan 1 command, an error is received. Why did this command generate an error?

• VLANs can only be deleted by the user who created them.

• VLAN 1 can not be deleted until another VLAN has been assigned its responsibilities.

• The command was not entered properly, which caused a syntax error to occur.

• VLAN 1 can not be deleted until all ports have been removed from it.

• VLAN 1 is the management VLAN by default and can not be deleted.

5

Refer to the exhibit. Which group of commands will correctly configure router ABC to use OSPF?

• ABC(config)# router ospf 99

ABC(config-router)# network 192.168.43.64 255.255.255.224 area 0











6

Refer to the exhibit. Two Catalyst switches are connected, and both switches have ports

configured for VLANs 40 and 50 as shown. What will allow hosts on the same VLAN to communicate

with one another across the different switches?

• trunking

• STP

• VTP

• routing

7 Which characteristics of RIPv1 are different from RIPv2? (Choose three.)

• its use of the hop count metric

• its use of broadcast updates

• its use of split horizon as a stability feature

• the authentication of updates

• its exclusively classful routing

• its hop count maximum of 15

8 Employees of XYZ Company connect their laptop computers to the office LAN using Ethernet

ports. The Cisco switches used in the company network are configured with port security. At

which layer of the three-layer design model do these switches operate?

• physical

• distribution

• data link

• access

• core

9 Which of the following tasks must be completed to configure a router interface to serve the

newly added network 192.168.10.64/27 and to advertise this network over RIP v2? (Choose three.)

• RIP v2 must be configured with the network command and the IP network number for the new

network.

• RIP v2 must be configured with the network command and the IP host address and subnet mask for

the newly activated interface.

• The router must be configured with the ip subnet-zero command so that this network can be

added and advertised.

• A network host address and subnet mask must be applied to the newly activated interface.

• The routing protocol must be activated with the router rip and version 2 commands.

• RIP v2 must be configured on the other enterprise routers with an entry for the newly added

network.

10 Which two statements describe Spanning Tree Protocol? (Choose two.)

• It eliminates Layer 2 loops in network topologies.

• It eliminates the need for redundant physical paths in network topologies.

• It can only be used in networks in which Layer 2 switching is in use.

• It can only be used in networks where both routers and switches are used together.

• It can only be used in networks where routers are installed.

11

Refer to the graphic. The host on VLAN 2 cannot communicate with the host on VLAN 3. Which of

the following could be the problem based on the output of the show interface fastethernet 0/1

command from the switch?

• The switch port 1 is not set to access mode.

• The router interface connected to switch port 1 is shut down.

• The router is not configured for trunking.

• The switch port is not configured for full duplex or a speed of 100 Mbps.

12 What is added to a bridge CAM table as a frame passes through a switch?





13

Refer to the routing table shown in the exhibit. What is the meaning of the highlighted value

192?

• It is the value assigned by the Dijkstra algorithm that designates the number of hops in the

network.

• It is the value used by the DUAL algorithm to determine the bandwidth for the link.

• It is the metric, which is cost.

• It is the administrative distance.

14

Refer to the exhibit. Routers East and West are configured using RIPv1. Both routers are sending

updates about their directly connected routes. The East router can ping the West router serial

interface and West can ping the serial interface of East. However, neither router has

dynamically learned routes from the other. What is most likely the problem?

• A gateway of last resort is required.

• Subnetting is not supported by RIPv1.

• VLSM is not supported by RIPv1.

• One of the routers needs a clock rate on the serial interface.

15

Refer to the exhibit. What is an advantage of this network design?

• It maximizes the number of ports available for hosts.

• It provides multiple paths for connectivity in the event of link failure.

• It provides multiple paths for Layer 2 broadcasts to circulate through the network.

• It allows Spanning Tree to forward traffic across redundant paths simultaneously.

16

Refer to the exhibit. What will be the result of DR elections in the OSPF network shown? (Choose

three.)

• R1 will be DR of the 192.168.4.0/24 network.






17 What are two advantages provided by OSPF authentication? (Choose two.)

• It ensures that routing information comes from a valid source router.

• It ensures that OSPF routing information takes priority over RIP or EIGRP updates.

• It encrypts routing tables to prevent unauthorized viewing.

• It reduces OSPF information exchange overhead.

• It prevents routing information from being falsified in transit.

18

Refer to the exhibit. Each switch is shown with its MAC address. Which switch will be elected as

the spanning-tree root bridge if the switches are configured with their default priority values?

• switch A

• switch B

• switch C

• switch D

• switch E

• switch F

19

Refer to the graphic. Switch 2 has computers attached that belong to VLAN 2. Switch 3 has

computers attached that belong to VLAN 3. Switch 1 is a Cisco 2926G Layer 3 switch that has a

route module installed. Switch 1 provides connectivity to the other switches and is used to

route between the VLANs. At which layer of the three-layer switch design model does Switch 1

operate?

• physical

• data link

• core

• access

• network

• distribution

20 A network administrator is having problems with excessive collisions on the corporate

network. If the network currently uses hubs, what is the most cost effective way to reduce

collisions?

• add additional hubs

• replace hubs with switches

• replace hubs with access points

• add a router to every hub segment

21 Which statements describe features of full-duplex Ethernet? (Choose three.)

• allows packets to be received and sent simultaneously by a host

• requires a minimum of two wires

• reduces the number of collisions

• allocates between 60 and 80 percent of available bandwidth in both directions

• allocates 100 percent of the bandwidth in both directions

• increases the number of broadcast domains

22 What does a constant green SYSTEM LED indicate on a Catalyst switch?

• The switch has passed POST and is working properly

• The switch has failed POST.

• The switch is in the process of initializing ports.

• The switch is going through POST.

• The switch is actively sending and receiving frames.

23

Refer to the exhibit. Which command will remove the static address from the MAC address table?

• ALSwitch(config)# no mac-address-table entry 00e0.2917.1884 fastethernet interface 0/4 VLAN 1

• ALSwitch(config)# no mac-address-table entry 00e0.2917.1884 VLAN 1 fastethernet 04

• ALSwitch(config-if)# no mac-address-table entry static 00e0.2917.1884 VLAN 1 fastethernet 04

• ALSwitch(config-if)# no mac-address-table static 00e0.2917.1884 VLAN 1 fastethernet 04

• ALSwitch(config)# no mac-address-table static 00e0.2917.1884 interface fastethernet 0/4 VLAN 1

24

Refer to the OSPF network in the exhibit. Router REMO_2 has been elected DR, but router REMO_1

is the more powerful router. How can the network administrator configure REMO_1 to force it to

be elected as DR?

• REMO_1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0

REMO_1(config-if)# ospf priority 0


REMO_1(config-if)# ip ospf priority 0


REMO_1(config-if)# ip ospf priority 255

• REMO_1(config)# ospf priority 1

• REMO_1(config)# ip ospf priority 255

25 What is the first step in the spanning-tree process?

• elect a designated switch

• use a router to locate a default gateway

• elect a root bridge

• determine the path cost of each active port on the switch

26 Which of the following statements is true when VTP is configured on a switched network that

incorporates VLANs?

• VTP is only compatible with the 802.1Q standard.

• VTP adds to the complexity of managing a switched network.

• All VTP hello packets are routed through VLAN 1 interfaces.

• Changes made to the network can be communicated to all switches dynamically.

27

Refer to the graphic. The network has converged. Network traffic analysis indicates that switch

A should be the STP root bridge. However, switch F has been elected root bridge of the STP tree.

The switches are all set to the default spanning-tree bridge priority value. How can the network

administrator change the root bridge to switch A?

• Configure the bridge priority of switch A to a 1.

• Configure the bridge priority of switch A to a 65,565.

• Configure the bridge priority of switch F to 255.

• Configure the bridge priority of switch F to 32,768.

28 Which of the following statements are true about routers that are running EIGRP? (Choose

three.)

• They can support multiple routed protocols.

• They can support only link-state protocols.

• They send their entire routing tables to neighboring routers.

• They send partial routing updates in response to topology changes.

• They send routing updates to all other routers in the network.

• They use hello packets to inform neighboring routers of their status.

29

Refer to the exhibit. A company always uses the last valid IP address in a subnetwork as the IP

address of the router LAN interface. A network administrator is using a laptop to configure

switch X with a default gateway. Assuming that the switch IP address is 192.168.5.147/24, what

command will the administrator use to assign a default gateway to the switch?

• X(config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.5.254

• X(config)# ip gateway 192.168.5.1

• X(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.5.1

• X(config)# ip default-route 192.168.5.1

• X(config)# ip route 192.168.5.254 255.255.255.0 fastethernet 0/0

30

Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration commands will direct outbound traffic from RT-2 to the

ISP and inbound traffic from the ISP to network 192.0.2.0/27?

• RT-2(config)# ip route 172.16.127.0 255.255.255.0 serial 0/1

ISP(config)# ip route 192.0.2.0 255.255.255.224 serial 0/0







31

Refer to the output in the exhibit. What is true about the configuration of this switch?

• Three ports have been assigned to the management VLAN.

• VTP has been enabled for all ports.

• ARP requests issued by the host on port Fa0/12 will be seen by all hosts on the PROD VLAN.

• Hosts in the ACCT and ENGR VLANs must have IP addresses in the same subnet in order to

exchange data between VLANs.

32

Refer to the graphic. What is the first parameter used to determine which switch is selected as

the root bridge in the spanning-tree process?

• highest Layer 2 address

• highest priority number

• highest path cost

• lowest Layer 2 address

• lowest priority number

• lowest path cost

33 When should EIGRP automatic summarization be turned off?

• when a router has not discovered a neighbor within three minutes

• when a router has more than three active interfaces

• when a router has discontiguous networks attached

• when a router has less than five active interfaces

34

Refer to the exhibit. If the network is running RIP v2, which subnetworks can be assigned to the

serial links between RTR-2 and the two other routers?

• 198.19.23.192/30 and 198.19.23.196/30

• 198.19.23.160/30 and 198.19.23.164/30

• 198.19.23.96/30 and 198.19.23.100/30

• 198.19.23.32/30 and 198.19.23.160/30

• 198.19.23.4/30 and 198.19.23.8/30

35 Which switching method increases latency and reliability more than any other method?

• cut-through

• fast-forward

• fragment-free

• store-and-forward

36 What are two advantages of adding switches to a network that has no VLANs configured? (Choose

two.)

• Switches help eliminate collision domains.

• Switches create permanent virtual communication circuits.

• Switches allow bandwidth to be fully utilized.

• Switches decrease network throughput.

• Switches shrink the size of broadcast domains.

37

Refer to the network and command output shown in the exhibit. A network administrator located at

the Branch1 site needs to check the configuration of a switch located at the Central office.

Which command can be used to gain remote access to the Central LAN switch, assuming the switch

is assigned the IP address 192.168.10.238/24?

• Branch1# dial Central 192.168.10.238

• Branch1(config)# line vty 0 4

Branch1(config-line)# telnet

• Branch1# telnet Central

• Branch1# telnet 192.168.10.238

38

Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that VLANs are not configured on the switch, how many broadcast

domains are there?

• one

• two

• three

• four

• five

• six

39

Refer to the exhibit. How should an administrator configure the ports on switches ACC-1 and ACC-

2 to allow hosts on the same VLAN to communicate across the two switches?

• as trunks

• as access ports

• as channels

• as inter-VLAN ports

• as bridge ports

40

Refer to the exhibit. Which set of commands should be used on the router to provide

communication between the two hosts connected to the switch?

• R_1(config)# interface vlan 30

R_1(config-if)# switchport mode trunk dot1q

R_1(config-if)# interface vlan 40

R_1(config-if)# switchport mode trunk dot1q

• R_1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0

R_1(config-if)# mode trunk dot1q 30 40

R_1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0

• R_1(config)# interface vlan 30


R_1(config-if)# no shutdown

R_1(config-if)# interface vlan 40



• R_1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0


R_1(config-if)# interface fastethernet 0/0.3

R_1(config-if)# encapsulation dot1q 30


R_1(config-if)# interface fastethernet 0/0.4

R_1(config-if)# encapsulation dot1q 40


41

The network administrator shown in the exhibit is connected to an Ethernet LAN port on SW_1. The

administrator needs to verify the configuration of the newly installed switch SW_2. What must be

done so that the administrator can access SW_2 with a web browser? (Choose three.)

• Set the password on the management VLAN.

• Establish connectivity of the host to SW_2.

• Configure IP addressing parameters on SW_2.

• Configure the hostname on SW_2.

• Activate the HTTP service on SW_2.

42 How do EIGRP routers establish and maintain neighbor relationships?

• by exchanging neighbor tables with directly attached routers

• by comparing known routes to information received in updates

• by exchanging of hello packets with neighboring routers

• by dynamically learning new routes from neighbors

• by exchanging routing tables with directly attached routers

43 What are three attributes of distance vector routing protocols? (Choose three.)

• Hello packets are used to form neighbor adjacencies.

• Each router sends its entire routing table in routing updates.

• Periodic updates are sent to neighboring routers.

• Distance vector protocols converge more rapidly than link-state protocols do.

• Because of their frequent periodic updates, distance vector protocols after convergence use

more bandwidth than link-state protocols do.

• Distance vector protocols are less prone to routing loops than are link-state protocols.

44

Refer to the exhibit. Routers RT-1 and RT-3 are completely configured. The administrator needs

to configure the routing protocol on router RTR-2 so that communication occurs throughout the

network. Which group of commands will successfully configure EIGRP on RTR-2?

• RTR-2(config)# router eigrp 1

RTR-2(config-router)# network 198.198.76.0


RTR-2(config-router)# network 198.198.76.0 0.0.0.3 no-summary




RTR-2(config-router)# network 198.198.76.0 0.0.0.3 area 0




RTR-2(config-router)# network 198.198.76.0 0.0.0.3



45

Refer to the exhibit. What does "FORWARDING" mean in the command output shown?

• The switch is receiving BPDUs, but not sending data frames.

• The switch is participating in an election process by forwarding the BPDUs it receives.

• The switch is sending and receiving data frames.

• The switch is receiving BPDUs and populating the MAC address table, but not sending data.

46 The following command was added to a router configuration:

ip route 198.19.150.0 255.255.255.0 192.0.2.249

What two effects will this command have? (Choose two.)

• It will create a static route to the 198.19.150.0/24 network.

• It will create a default route using the interface with the IP address 192.0.2.249 as the next

hop.

• All packets with an unknown destination address will be forwarded to the 198.19.150.0/24

network.

• Information about the 198.19.150.0 network learned dynamically will be ignored as long as this

configuration command is in effect.

• The route will be marked with an "R" in the routing table.


1

Which of the following can be done to allow the users on the 10.0.0.0 network to communicate

with the Web Server shown in the graphic? (Choose two.)

• Configure the Miami router to use NAT.

• Configure the Web Server with a private address.

• Configure the Miami router to use PAT.

• Change the Internet link IP address of 128.56.0.0 to a private address.

• Configure the Tampa router to use PAT.

2 What is the default number of pings issued by a DHCP server to a pool address before sending

the DHCPOFFER to a client?

• one

• two

• three

• four

• five

3 What is the purpose of the DHCPDECLINE message?

• If the DHCP client received multiple DHCPOFFERs, it uses the DHCPDECLINE to refuse the offers

it does not use.

• If the DHCP server sends an IP configuration update that the DHCP client does not need, it

uses the DHCPDECLINE to refuse the information.

• The DHCP server uses the DHCPDECLINE message to refuse a DHCP client's request for IP

configuration information.


• If the DHCP client detects that the address supplied by the DHCP server is in use on the

network, it uses the DHCPDECLINE to refuse the offer.

4 Which configuration parameters are provided by the dynamic allocation process of DHCP? (Choose

three.)

• Gateway address

• DNS server

• DHCP Server

• Subnet mask

• Key server

• ARP server

5

What is the purpose of the command marked with an arrow shown in the partial configuration

output of a Cisco 806 broadband router?

• defines which addresses are allowed out of the router

• defines which addresses are allowed into the router

• defines which addresses can be translated

• defines which addresses are assigned to a NAT pool

6

Given the accompanying debug output from a Cisco router, what kind of address is 10.10.10.3 with

the IP identification number of 29855?

• inside local

• inside global

• outside local

• outside global

7

Given the accompanying graphic, which statement would be applied to the S0 interface when

configuring NAT on the Tampa router?

• ip nat inside

• ip nat outside

• ip pat inside

• ip pat outside

8

Given the accompanying graphic, which addresses could be assigned to traffic leaving S0 as a

result of the statement ip nat pool Tampa 179.9.8.96 179.9.8.111 netmask 255.255.255.240?

(Choose two.)

• 10.0.0.125

• 179.9.8.95

• 179.9.8.98

• 179.9.8.101

• 179.9.8.112

9

Refer to the exhibit. Which command would establish a group of 30 IP addresses that could be

used to hide inside addresses from the Internet?

• ip nat pool Raleigh 10.0.0.32 10.0.0.63 netmask 255.255.255.224




10

Given the accompanying diagram, which commands are necessary to implement PAT on the Raleigh

router? (Choose four.)

• access-list 10 permit 192.168.10.0 0.0.0.255

• access-list 10 permit 171.11.0.0 0.0.255.255

• ip nat inside source static 192.168.10.1 171.11.0.0

• ip nat inside source list 10 interface S0 overload

• ip nat outside

• ip nat inside

11 What is true regarding the differences between NAT and PAT?

• PAT uses the word "overload" at the end of the access-list statement to share a single

registered address.

• Static NAT allows an unregistered address to map to multiple registered addresses.

• Dynamic NAT allows hosts to receive the same global address each time external access is

required.

• PAT uses unique source port numbers to distinguish between translations.

12 Which of the following are broadcasts sent by a client to a DHCP server? (Choose two.)

• DHCPDISCOVER

• DHCPRELEASE

• DHCPACK

• DHCPREQUEST

• DHCPOFFER

13 In addition to assigning addresses from predefined pools, which other services can a DHCP

server offer? (Choose three.)

• DNS server addresses

• domain names

• global IP assignments

• NAT translations

• WINS server addresses

14 Users are complaining that they cannot attach to network resources. A technician has

confirmed that clients are not properly receiving IP configuration information through the DHCP

process. The network administrator wants to watch the DHCP process while the technician tries to

release and renew addresses on the clients. Which command would the network administrator use to

monitor the process of address allocation?

• show ip dhcp server statistics

• show ip dhcp binding

• debug ip dhcp server events

• debug ip dhcp binding

15

Refer to the graphic. Which command would allow the router to forward DHCP broadcasts from Host

A to the DHCP server?

• ip helper-address

• dhcp helper-address

• dhcp relay-agent

• dhcp-relay

16 What is the default lease time for addresses assigned to clients through Easy IP?

• twenty-four hours

• forty-eight hours

• one week

• two weeks

17

The Raleigh router shown in the diagram is configured with PAT. Which of the following must be

changed if the private network is migrated to a 10.0.0.0 network? (Choose two.)

• E0 interface address

• S0 interface address

• the access-list statement

• the NAT outside interface

• the NAT inside interface

18 A network administrator needs to configure a router to offer DHCP services. Assuming the

router is operating with factory defaults and the IOS supports DHCP, what must be done to start

the DHCP service?

• Use the global configuration command service dhcp.

• Use the privileged command service dhcp start.

• Use the start service dhcp command during the setup processes.

• Do nothing. The DHCP service is enabled by default during start up.

19 Which of the following traffic types are supported by Cisco IOS NAT? (Choose two.)

• Routing table updates

• ICMP

• FTP

• BOOTP

• SNMP

20 Which configuration information might a DHCPOFFER include? (Choose three.)

• IP address

• DNS server address

• DHCP binding

• Lease time

• DHCP database

21 A company was issued 207.48.12.8/29 as its registered address from its ISP. Which of the

following is a solution that will allow Internet access to 300 employees simultaneously?

• VLSM to further subnet the registered address and create more IP addresses

• normal subnetting on the Class C network and address the host

• RFC 1918 and port address translation

• this is an impossible scenario because there are not enough addresses


1 Which of the following is commonly used as Data Terminal Equipment?

• ISDN

• modem

• router

• CSU/DSU

2 Which term describes the cabling that connects the customer site to the nearest exchange of

the WAN service provider?

• CPE

• CO

• local loop

• DCE

• DTE

3 On which of the following are most Layer 2 WAN encapsulations based?

• IP

• PPP

• HDLC

• SLIP

• HSSI

• CSU


4 A U.S. company requires a WAN connection used only to transfer sales data from individual

stores to the home office. All transfers will occur after business hours. The required bandwidth

for this connection is estimated to be less than 38 kbps. Which type of connection requires the

least investment for this company?

• ATM

• ISDN

• analog dialup

• T1 Leased Line

5 A company requires a WAN connection that will carry 64 kbps and allow fast call setup time.

The connection does not need to carry video. What is the best choice for this company?

• ATM

• ISDN BRI

• X.25

• analog dialup

6 Which of the following describes a packet-switched network using connection-oriented data

transfer? (Choose two.)

• Each packet carries an identifier.

• Each packet carries full addressing information.

• Each switch in the route must evaluate the addressing information to determine where to send

the packet.

• Each switch determines where to send the packet by examining tables in memory.

• The addressing information is used to set switches along the route of data transfer to create

a continuous copper circuit.

7 Which of the following connections will provide the equivalent of a T1/E1 connection and is

intended for large businesses?

• BRI

• PRI

• DLCI

• PSTN

• POTS

8 A large company already has a T1 leased line but this connection is inadequate at peak

business hours. Furthermore, they would like a backup WAN connection in case their leased line

temporarily fails. What type of WAN connection is commonly used in this situation?

• X.25

• DSL

• ISDN

• cable modem

• 56 kbps

9 Which of the statements regarding DSL are correct? (Choose three.)

• DSL provides a consistent bandwidth of 2.154 Mbps.

• DSL connections provide a fast dialup to establish a WAN connection.

• DSL connects the local loop to a digital subscriber line access multiplexer.

• DSL bandwidth varies and can exceed the bandwidth of a T1/E1 leased line.

• For DSL to function properly, the local loop must be less than 5.5 kilometers (3.5 miles).

• DSL is a popular choice for enterprises that need to connect home users to the local network

due to strong security.

10 A European company needs a low cost, dialup WAN connection to validate transactions for

point-of-sale card readers. Which connection type is commonly used for this situation?

• ATM

• X.25

• Frame Relay

• Leased lines

11 Which statement is true regarding WAN technologies?

• Most WANS use only one technology throughout the infrastructure such as ISDN, Frame Relay or

ATM.

• Data transfer speeds on the WAN are typically faster than the speeds on a LAN.

• WANs operate at the lower three layers of the OSI model.

• WANs are unable to support the transfer of voice or video traffic.

12 Depending on the company size and geographical layout, there might be many end points on the

company WAN. Why is it important to identify all the end points of the WAN before choosing a WAN

design?

• to determine the routing protocol to be used on the WAN link

• to determine the WAN topology

• to determine the requirements for latency and jitter

• to determine the signaling protocol to be used on the WAN link

13 Which of the following is true of WANs?

• Shared network WAN technologies such as Frame Relay and ATM are more expensive but offer less

latency and jitter than dedicated lines.

• ISDN is suitable for large enterprises.

• The more network devices that data has to pass through across the WAN, the more latency and

less reliability the network will experience.

• WANs typically incorporate only one technology such as ISDN, Frame Relay, or ATM.

14 Which statements are correct regarding ATM connections? (Choose two.)

• uses only PVCs

• is useful for video transfers

• has data rates beyond 155 Mbps

• cells have 32 byte payload and a 5 byte overhead

• mandates single virtual circuits on a single leased line connection

15 Why is it important to identify the type of traffic that will be carried on the WAN links

before choosing a WAN technology?

• to determine the routing protocol to be used on the WAN link

• to determine the WAN topology

• to determine the requirements for latency and jitter

• to determine the type of signaling protocol to be used on the WAN link

16 A new international company needs to have a design for WAN connectivity. The company will

have at least five offices in every state in the United States and Mexico. Some states will have

as many as 20 offices. The branch offices will require constant contact with the services of the

main office. Which design model is best for WAN connectivity in this situation?

• a mesh network of all branch WANs

• a simple star topology connecting all branch LANs to a central router with multiple interfaces

• a one layer design using Frame Relay links between LANs

• a three layer hierarchical topology interconnecting branch LANs within an area, the area LANs

within a region, and connecting the regions to form the core of the WAN


1 A technician is testing the functionality of a recently installed router. The technician is

unable to ping the serial interface of a remote router. The technician executes the show

interface serial 0/0 command on the local router and receives the following output:

Serial0/0 is up, line protocol is down(disabled)

What are possible causes for this command output? (Choose two.)

• interface missing the no shutdown command

• clockrate command missing

• CSU/DSU failed

• interface shutdown due to high error rate

• cable missing

2 A technician has used Telnet to gain remote access to a router that has no connectivity on its

serial interface. Which command should be issued to determine if the serial cable is connected

properly?

• show controllers

• show processes

• show run

• show status

3 A two router network is running PPP over the serial interfaces that connect them. The enable

password on the Denim router is "gateway". The Denim router also has a locally configured

authentication password for the Plaid router which is "fortress". Which command must be executed

on the Plaid router to allow Denim to authenticate to the Plaid router using CHAP?

• Plaid(config)# enable secret gateway

• Plaid(config)# enable secret fortress

• Plaid(config)# username Plaid password fortress

• Plaid(config)# username Denim password fortress

• Plaid(config)# hostname Plaid secret password gateway

• Plaid(config)# hostname Plaid secret password fortress

4


Refer to the output of the show interface Serial0/0 command in the graphic. How many NCPs have

been established?

• 1

• 2

• 3

• 4

5 Which command specifies a link quality over a PPP link?

• ppp link 50

• ppp link quality 60

• ppp percentage 80

• ppp quality 90

6 When troubleshooting the Serial 0/0 interface of a router, a technician issues the show

controllers command. The following was the output of the command:

Interface is Serial0/0, electrical interface is UNKNOWN.

What can be concluded about the Serial 0/0 interface? (Choose three.)

• Serial0z0 is down, line protocol is down

• Serial0/0 is down, line protocol is up

• Serial0/0 is up, line protocol is down

• The interface is neither DCE or DTE.

• The interface hardware may be faulty.

• The cabling may be improperly connected.

7 Which of the following is a reason for using such protocols as PAP and CHAP?

• to establish a PPP session

• to provide error checking on a WAN link

• to restrict access to networks connected by serial and ISDN links

• to provide a backup hostname and privilege mode password on the router

8 Several tasks must occur before a link between two routers can pass data using PPP. Which of

the following are required to establish and maintain a PPP session between two routers?

• configure each host with a PPP address

• configure authentication between the two routers

• send LCP and NCP frames to negotiate configuration parameters

• send hostname and password information between the two routers

9 Which of the following describes the High-Level Data Link Control protocol? (Choose three.)

• HDLC provides flow and error control.

• Standard HDLC supports multiple protocols on a single link.

• HDLC uses sequencing and acknowledgements.

• HDLC is defined as the default encapsulation on Cisco LAN interfaces.

• Cisco implemented a proprietary version of HDLC.

10 Which authentication protocol can be spoofed to allow playback attacks?

• MD5

• CHAP

• PAP

• NCP

11 ISDN BRI service uses two B channels to send data, voice, and video. If the first channel

becomes saturated, the second channel can be configured to forward packets. Which command will

allow ISDN to load balance across both links?

• Router(config-if)# ppp quality 2

• Router(config-if)# ip variance

• Router(config-if)# ip maximum-paths 2

• Router(config-if)# ppp multilink

12 PPP uses several protocols for communication. Which of the following are options that the LCP

protocol in the PPP architecture can provide? (Choose two.)

• testing the quality of the link

• routing packets between devices

• assigning individual station addresses

• configuring network layer protocols

• negotiating authentication options

13 How did Cisco alter the HDLC encapsulation to allow a single link to carry multiple

protocols?

• split the transmissions into multiple channels each carrying a single protocol

• identified the protocol in the FCS field

• compressed the datagrams differently for each protocol

• added a type field to identify the protocol

14 Which of the following is an advantage of using time-division multiplexing (TDM) for

transmitting data? (Choose two.)

• It allows a single source to transmit over multiple data channels.

• Multiple sources can transmit over a single channel.

• Original data streams must be reconstructed at the destination.

• TDM relies on Layer 3 protocols to operate.

15

What can be concluded from the output shown in the graphic? (Choose three.)

• A two-way handshake is occuring.

• The LCPs were already negotiated.

• The router can begin NCP negotiations.

• The debug ppp negotiation command was executed.

• The debug ppp authentication command was executed.

16

Which command was used to display the partial output shown in the graphic?

• show ppp traffic

• show lcp traffic

• debug ppp negotiation

• debug ppp authentication

17 How is the MD5 function valuable in authentication? (Choose two.)

• uses a one-way hash function

• authentication occurs more rapidly

• challenges are unique

• the remote router assumes control of frequency of challenge

the remote router assumes control of timing of challenge

18 What are three features of the CHAP protocol? (Choose three.)

• exchanges a random challenge number during the session to verify identity

• sends authentication password to verify identity

• prevents transmission of login information in plain text

• disconnects the PPP session if authentication fails

• initiates a two-way handshake

19 Which of the following describe functions of the Point-to-Point protocol with regards to the

OSI model? (Choose three.)

• PPP uses Layer 3 of the OSI model to establish and maintain a session between devices.

• PPP operates at all layers of the OSI model.

• PPP uses the data link layer to configure such options as error detection and compression.

• PPP provides a mechanism to multiplex several network layer protocols.

• PPP uses Network Control Protocols (NCP) to test and maintain connectivity between devices.

• PPP can be configured on both synchronous and asynchronous serial interfaces.

20 Which advantage does the multilink option provide when using PPP?

• Data transmission has load balancing possibilities.

• Interfaces can be configured using both HDLC and PPP.

• More than one authentication method can be used.

• More than one compression protocol can be configured.


1 Which of the following correctly describes ISDN BRI? (Choose three.)

• two 64 kbps B channels and one 16 kbps D channel

• B channel is suitable for voice data

• uses in-band signaling

• uses out-of-band signaling

• offers the equivalent of a T1/E1 connection

• twenty-three 64 kbps B channels and one 16 kbps D channel

2 Which of the following is considered out-of-band signaling?

• using a frequency outside of the rated bandwidth for transmission

• transmitting data over a control channel

• using a separate channel for control signals

• transmitting control signals over a data channel

3 A network administrator is troubleshooting ISDN connectivity. The administrator suspects the

problem lies with the authentication protocol. What command should the administrator use to view

the authentication process between the router and the ISDN switch?

• debug pap authentication

• debug chap authentication

• debug ppp authentication

• debug isdn authentication

4 Which router command would be used to enter the mode for configuring a T1 PRI connection?

• Router(config)# controller t1 {slot/port}

• Router(config)# interface pri t1 {slot/port}

• Router(config)# interface pri {slot/port} t1

• Router(config)# controller {slot/port} t1


5

The network administrator of XYZ company needs to configure a new ISDN router. After entering

the commands shown in the graphic, the administrator tries to access the Internet but the ISDN

connection does not open. If the service provider verifies that the problem is with XYZ's

configuration, what is a possible cause of the problem?

• The dialer map is configured incorrectly.

• The encapsulation type is configured incorrectly.

• The dialer group is configured incorrectly.

• The ACL is configured incorrectly.

• The isdn switch-type command needs to be configured globally.

6 Which of the following protocols can be used to encapsulate data traffic sent from a router

BRI interface? (Choose two.)

• Link Access Protocol - Data

• High-Level Data Link Control

• Logical Link Control

• Serial Data Link Control

• Point to Point protocol

• Binary Synchronous Control protocol

7

A small company uses an ISDN WAN link to transfer e-mail to remote sites. What command would the

administrator use to determine if the ISDN link is up?

• show isdn status

• show isdn active

• show dialer

• show interface bri0/0

• debug isdn active

8 Which command configures an ISDN interface to use a switch type which is different from that

used on other interfaces on the router?

• Router(config)#switch-type switch-type

• Router(config-if)#switch-type switch-type

• Router(config)#isdn switch-type switch-type

• Router(config-if)#isdn switch-type switch-type

9 Which of the following is essential for all ISDN BRI interface configurations?

• ISDN switch type

• line encoding technique

• line framing method

• local directory number

• service profile identifier

10 You have just taken delivery of a new US standard Cisco 2620 router that includes a BRI "U"

interface? Which of the following describes how this router will be connected in the ISDN

network?

• An external terminal adapter (TA) must be attached to the router for connectivity.

• An NT1 must be connected to the router for connectivity.

• The router is a TE1 device and is ready to connect to the provider's network.

• The router is a TE2 device and requires both a TA and NT1 for connectivity.

11 What must be configured for an ISDN PRI connection? (Choose three.)

• ISDN switch type

• Service Profile Identifier (SPID)

• Dial-on-Demand Routing (DDR)

• PRI group time slot

• T1/E1 controller, framing type and line coding

12

A network administrator is troubleshooting an ISDN connectivity problem. Users are complaining

they cannot connect to the Internet. The network administrator suspects the ISDN connection

attempt is timing out before a connection can be established. What command would the network

administrator use to determine what the "wait for carrier" timeout value is set to?



• show dialer

• show interfaces bri0/0

• debug isdn q931

• show ISDN interfaces

13 What is a reason why static routes are preferred over dynamic routes for DDR to operate on an

ISDN interface?

• An ISDN interface will not allow dynamic routing updates that use broadcast technology.

• A dynamic route will take precedence over a static route because of its lower administrative

distance.

• Dynamic routing can never be considered interesting traffic by default.

• Dialer-list configuration does not support dynamic routing.

• Dynamic routes may cause the ISDN connection to dial constantly to transmit updates.

14 Which of the following describes the use of a SPID? (Choose two.)

• selects the ISDN switch type

• identifies the line configuration of the BRI service

• allows multiple ISDN devices to share the local loop

• designates whether a device is a TE1 or TE2

• allows ISDN broadcasts

15 Which command is used within an existing ISDN network to display current call information,

including the called number?



• show interfaces bri0/0

• show ip interfaces

16 Which of the following are true of ISDN routers configured with dialer profiles? (Choose

two.)

• They do not use ACL to define interesting traffic.

• Their B channels can be configured with different subnets and encapsulation types.

• Their BRI interfaces can belong to multiple dialer pools.

• They use PPP only.

• They can only use the CHAP authentication protocol.

17 A network administrator in Europe has been asked to provide the network with an ISDN WAN

link. The router available to provide the WAN connection is a non-modular Cisco router with an

S/T interface. What further equipment will be provided by the ISDN service provider for the ISDN

connection?

• Nothing. The router is already suitable.

• BRI WAN interface card to install in the router

• an external NT1 to terminate the local loop

• a TA/NT1 device to install on the router

18 Why must routers be configured to specify the ISDN switch type?

• Switches use various implementations of Q.931.

• The IOS of most routers lacks the ability to autosense the switch.

• The switch must know what type of router it is communicating with.

• The Layer 3 connection between the terminal equipment and the ISDN switch is not standardized.


1 How does Frame Relay technology process frames that contain errors? (Choose two.)

• Frame Relay services depend on the upper layer protocols to handle error recovery.

• It requires the receiving device to request that the sender retransmit erroneous frames.

• FECN, BECN, and DE bits are set in the frames to minimize errors.

• The receiving device drops any frames that contain errors without notifying the sender.

• The frame relay switch notifies the sender that errors were detected.

2 Which statement identifies a reason for using point-to-point subinterfaces in Frame Relay

networks?

• Subinterfaces overcome routing update and split-horizon issues that occur with multipoint

logical interfaces on a single physical interface.

• A point-to-point subinterface does not require an IP address and therefore saves address

space.

• Point-to-point subinterfaces provide greater reliability and reachability in Frame Relay

networks by requiring a mesh topology for network configurations.

• Point-to-point subinterfaces increase the number of DLCIs that can be configured in a Frame

Relay network.

3

A ping is sent to address 192.168.50.10 from the Peanut router. Which DLCI will be used to send

the ping?

• 110

• 115

• 220

• 225

4 Which data link layer protocol is used to carry frames across a Frame Relay link?

• PPP

• LAPD

• LAPF

• Frame Relay

5 Which bits are set in the data frames to request that a device reduce the flow of data sent to

or from a Frame Relay switch?


• EIR bits

• ECN bits

• CIR bits

• DE bits

• Window bits

6 Why are full mesh topologies seldom found in large Frame Relay networks?

• Additional hardware is required to achieve the mesh.

• The additional virtual circuits slow the link access speeds.

• The required number of links becomes prohibitive.

• Additional interfaces are required since each can only support 10 virtual circuits.

• The speed of transmission slows in inverse proportion to the square of the number of links.

7 Which of the following occurs when the command frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.1 22 is configured on

the router? (Choose two.)

• DLCI 22 will replace the MAC address in the ARP table for entry 10.1.1.1

• The remote circuit with DLCI 22 can receive a ping.

• Inverse-ARP will be used to add an entry for 10.1.1.1 into the frame-relay map table using

DLCI 22.

• Pings to 10.1.1.1 will be sent on the circuit labeled DLCI 22.

• The router will use DLCI 22 to forward data to 10.1.1.1.

8 Why is the keepalive mechanism added as an extension to the Local Management Interface in a

Frame Relay network?

• to identify which routers were experiencing congestion

• to verify the status of PVCs in the Frame Relay network

• to dynamically map a MAC address to an IP address in a Frame Relay network

• to signal to the router the status of the routing protocols configured in the Frame Relay

network

9 Which of the following statements are true about a basic Frame Relay WAN connection between a

customer and the service provider? (Choose two.)

• DTE devices such as routers and FRADs transmit user data.

• DTE devices such as Frame Relay switches transport the data between DTE devices.

• An Ethernet connection between the router and the frame relay switch allow access to the frame

relay network.

• Serial connections between the customer and the frame relay network are used to transport

data.

• The Frame Relay WAN is a mesh of interconnected routers.

10 What is created between two DTEs in a Frame Relay network?

• switched parallel circuit

• permanent virtual circuit

• limited access circuit

• ISDN circuit

• Frame Relay circuit

11 Which features make Frame Relay technology a cost-effective alternative to a mesh of

dedicated leased lines? (Choose three.)

• allows a single interface to support multiple PVCs

• minimizes the equipment required to be purchased by the customer

• requires one router interface for each PVC

• provides the customer with redundancy if a single interface goes down

• allows the customer to pay for the average bandwidth requirement rather than the maximum

bandwidth requirement

12 Which of the following allow the router to map data link layer addresses to network layer

addresses in a Frame Relay network? (Choose two.)

• ARP

• RARP

• Proxy ARP

• Inverse ARP

• LMI status messages

• ICMP

13

When troubleshooting a Frame Relay connection, an administrator entered the show interfaces s0/0

command and received the output shown in the exhibit. What are two probable reasons for this

problem? (Choose two.)

• The cable between the CSU/DSU and the router is disconnected.

• The serial 0/0 interface is shutdown.

• The router is not configured for the same Frame Relay PVC as the switch.

• The LMI type on the Frame Relay switch is NOT ANSI.

• The address of the Frame Relay switch is not in the routing table.

14

Which commands were added to the configuration to produce the output shown in the graphic?

(Choose two.)

• Router(config)# ip route 192.168.192.4 255.255.255.0 17 broadcast

• Router(config-if)# frame-relay lmi-type cisco 17

• Router(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 192.168.192.4 17 broadcast

• Router(config-if)# ip address 192.168.192.4 255.255.255.0 DLCI 17 static

• Router(config-if)# interface S0/0.1 point-to-point

• Router(config-if)# encapsulation frame-relay cisco

15 What does a DLCI of 1023 indicate about a frame?

• The LMI type is ANSI.

• The LMI type is IETF.

• The LMI type is Cisco.

• The LMI type is Q933a.

• The encapsulation is Cisco.

• The encapsulation is IETF.

16 Which methods are used to minimize heavy traffic on a Frame Relay network? (Choose two.)

• FRADs or routers set ECN bits to request that the Frame Relay switch reduce the flow of frames

on the link.

• Windowing is used to reduce the size of the frames sent across the link.

• The Frame Relay switch will drop packets that have the DE bit set.

• When a switch sees its queue increasing, it notifies DTEs to reduce the flow of traffic.

• When congestion occurs, all frames are dropped until the congestion clears.

17

When troubleshooting a frame relay connection, a technician entered the show frame-relay pvc

command shown in the graphic. What can be concluded from the output shown in the graphic?

(Choose three.)

• The output in the debug frame-relay lmi command will indicate status 0x2 for DLCI 18.

• DLCI 16 was correctly programmed on the switch, but the remote router may be misconfigured.

• The frame relay switch is sending LMI status messages about DLCI 16 to the Singapore router.

• Congestion has been experienced on DLCI 18.

• Some packets have been set to be dropped if congestion is experienced on the PVC.

18 Which of the following DLCIs are reserved?

• 16

• 127

• 255

• 1023

• 2048

19 Which of the following statements regarding multipoint subinterfaces are true? (Choose two.)

• A single multipoint subinterface is used to establish PVC connections to multiple physical

interfaces on remote routers.

• Each multipoint link is in its own subnet.

• The physical interface does not have an IP address.

• Split-horizon is disabled allowing routing updates to be re-transmitted on every subinterface.

• Multipoint subinterfaces require the encapsulation frame-relay command to be issued

individually for each subinterface to operate correctly.

20 How is a permanent virtual circuit identified in a Frame Relay network that is carrying IP

traffic?

• It is given a fixed locally significant identification number.

• It is identified by the MAC address of the router interface.

• Dynamic virtual channel identifiers are assigned to each frame transmitted across the network.

• It is identifed by the MAC address of the switch port.

21 What is the purpose of the FCS field in a Frame Relay frame?

• It serves to distinguish one frame from the next.

• It is used to signal network congestion.

• It is used to detect if the frame has been corrupted and should be discarded.

• It determines which VC should be used for transmission.


1 For which platform was UNIX first marketed commercially?

• workstations and servers

• workstations

• network servers

• large mainframe systems

2 How does RMON gather statistics on a segment?

• analyzes traps on the segment

• polls packets on the segment

• analyzes every frame on the segment

• analyzes source and destination addresses

3 Which operating systems support multiuser capability? (Choose three.)

• Linux

• Windows 98

• Windows ME

• Windows XP

• Windows 2000

4 Which statements are true regarding configuring SNMP? (Choose three.)

• It is best to use the default read-only community strings in enterprise networks.

• It is not advisable to use the default read-write community string in an enterprise network.

• More than one read-only community string is supported.

• Authorized management stations can modify MIB objects with read-write access specified.

• The maximum number of read-write strings supported is one.

5 Which statements describe the Windows 2000 operating system family? (Choose three.)

• .NET Server was designed to run enterprise level web and FTP services.

• Active Directory services run on both Windows 2000 Professional and Windows 2000 Server.

• The entire family of Windows 2000 operating systems can operate as a file, print, FTP or web

server.

• Both Windows 2000 Professional and Server can support up to 256 simultaneous dialup sessions.

• .NET server was designed to compete with Linux and Unix.

6 Which of the following is a collection of software which includes a GUI interface to allow the

network administrator to monitor and manage the network?

• network management application

• network management agent

• management information base

• network management protocol

7 Which command would enable logging on all supported destinations?

• Router(config)# logging 131.152.0.0

• Router(config)# logging routerA

• Router(config)# logging on

• Router(config)# logging enable

8 How does SNMPv3 address the security shortcomings of SNMPv1 and SNMPv2c?

• improved SMI features

• support for centralized and distributed management

• secure access to MIBs

• control of heterogeneous networks

9 Which means of communication does an SNMP network agent use to provide a network management

station with important but unsolicited information?

• query

• broadcast

• ICMP ping

• trap

• poll

10 Which of the following describes the community strings used for SNMPv1 and SNMPv2c? (Choose

two.)

• The community strings are sent using UDP.

• The read only string on most devices is set to private.

• The read/write string on most devices is set to public.

• Only the NMA needs to be configured with the community strings.

• The community strings are sent across the network in cleartext.


11

In the above illustration, which configuration commands can be used to specify the location of a

managed device and the main system contacts for the device? (Choose two.)

• SanJose(config-if)# snmp-server SanJose

• Atlanta(config)# snmp-server contact JPSmith

• Atlanta(config)# snmp contact JPSmith

• SanJose(config)# snmp-server location SanJose

• Chicago#(config)# snmp chicago

12 Which features are supported by the Mac OS X system that make it a competitive choice for

operating systems? (Choose four.)

• protected memory

• sixty-two bit addressing

• preemptive multitasking

• open source operating system code

• symmetric multiprocessing

• Appletalk-to-Windows network connectivity

13 An SNMPv1 agent would issue a GetResponse message to reply to which NMS requests? (Choose

three.)

• GetRequest

• GetBulkRequest

• GetNextRequest

• SetRequest

• GetNextbulkRequest

14 Why are SNMPv1 and SNMPv2c community strings considered a security risk?

• SNMPv1 and SNMPv2c encapsulations are not encrypted by default.

• SNMPv1 and SNMPv2c community strings are sent as cleartext.

• SNMPv1 and SNMPv2c are limited to 32-bit counters.

• SNMPv1 and SNMPv2c uses a connectionless protocol.

15 Which of the following does SNMP use to hold information collected about the network?

• network management station

• network management database

• management information base

• database information agent

16 Which of the following are examples of network management applications? (Choose two.)

• Windows 2000 Professional

• Ciscoworks2000

• HP Openview

• Red Hat Linux

• Cisco ConfigMaker

CISCO CCNA 4 - Final Exam

1 An ISDN circuit from a branch office is remaining connected to the regional office. A network

administrator determines a user has initiated a continuous ping from a desktop computer to the

regional office. Which configuration change would allow the ISDN circuit to disconnect during

any attempts to ping, while otherwise functioning properly?

• change DDR from legacy to dialer profiles

• remove the dialer list statement from the configuration

• change the dialer list to exclude ICMP as interesting

• disable inverse ARP

http://ccna-cisco-academy.blogspot.com/2007/10/cisco-ccna-4-final-exam.html

2

Refer to the exhibit. The link between the RTR-1 and RTR-2 routers is configured as shown in the

exhibit. Although the show interfaces command shows the interface status as Serial0 is up, line

protocol is up, IP traffic is not crossing this link. What is the problem?

• The usernames are misconfigured.

• The clock rate is configured on the wrong end of the link.

• The IP addresses are not in the same subnet.

• Interface serial 0/0 on RTR-1 must connect to interface serial 0/1 on RTR-2.

• The passwords must be different for the CHAP authentication.

• The clock rate must be 56000.

3 A technician enters the interface serial 0/0.1 multipoint command when configuring a router.

What effect will the multipoint keyword have in this configuration? (Choose two.)

• Split-horizon issues will need to be resolved for this network if RIP is the routing protocol.

• A subinterface will be defined for each PVC.

• All the participating interfaces of remote routers will be configured in the same subnet.

• A single DLCI will be used to define all the PVCs to the remote routers.

• An IP address will need to be configured on the main interface.

4 A branch office reports excessive connect time charges for an ISDN circuit used to connect to

the regional office. Upon investigation of this issue, it is discovered that when an ISDN

connection is initiated to the regional office it remains connected for an excessive amount of

time. Which of the following configuration changes could be made to DDR on the router to reduce

these connect time charges?

• use PPP multilink

• lower idle timer setting

• use CHAP authentication

• change DDR from legacy to dialer profiles

5

Which router command would be used to associate a Layer 2 address with the corresponding Layer 3

address in the internetwork in the diagram?

• RouterA(config-if)#frame-relay pvc 100 192.168.15.2

• RouterA(config-if)#dialer-map ip 192.168.15.1 100 broadcast

• RouterA(config-if)#frame-relay map ip 192.168.15.2 100 broadcast

• RouterA (config-if)#dialer-map 192.168.15.1 101 serial 0 broadcast

• RouterA (config-if)#frame-relay dlci 101 192.168.15.1 broadcast

• RouterA (config-if)#dialer-map 192.168.15.1 inverse-arp broadcast

6 What does the output of the show frame-relay map command shown below represent? (Choose two.)

Serial 0 (up): ip 172.30.151.4 dlci 122, dynamic, broadcast, status defined, active

• 172.30.151.4 represents the IP address of the remote router.

• 172.30.151.4 represents the IP address of the local serial interface.

• DLCI 122 represents the interface of the remote router.

• broadcast indicates that a dynamic routing protocol such as RIP v1 can send packets across

this PVC.

• dynamic indicates that a dynamic routing protocol is enabled for this connection.

• active indicates that the ARP process is working.

7

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator of the Denver router has determined that the

DHCP clients on the network are not working properly. The clients are receiving IP configuration

information from a DHCP server configured on the router but cannot access the Internet. From the

output in the exhibit, what is the most likely problem?

• The DHCP server service is not enabled.

• The DHCP pool is not bound to the interface.

• The inside interface for DCHP is not defined.

• The pool does not have a default router defined for the clients.

• All the host addresses have been excluded from the DHCP pool.

8 What are two ways to resolve split-horizon issues in a Frame Relay network? (Choose two.)

• create a full-mesh topology

• disable Inverse ARP

• use point-to-point subinterfaces

• use multipoint subinterfaces

• remove the broadcast keyword from the frame-relay map command

9

What is the purpose of the command marked with an arrow shown in the partial configuration

output of a Cisco 806 broadband router?

• defines which addresses are allowed out of the router

• defines which addresses are allowed into the router

• defines which addresses can be translated

• defines which addresses are assigned to a NAT pool

10 Which scenarios present possible reasons for using the frame-relay map command when

configuring a Frame Relay connection? (Choose two.)

• when dynamic mapping of DLCIs to IP addresses is not supported by the remote router

• when the local router is using IOS Release 11.1 or earlier

• when the remote router is a non-Cisco router

• when globally significant rather than locally significant DLCIs are being used

• when broadcast traffic and multicast traffic over the PVC must be controlled

11 While testing a new network design in the lab, a network administrator is configuring a

serial link that connects two routers back-to-back. In order to finish the configuration, the

administrator needs to identify which router is connected to the DCE end of the cable. What

command can be issued to provide this information?

• router# show status serial 0/0

• router# show controllers serial 0/0

• router# show protocols serial 0/0

• router# show version

• router# show interfaces serial 0/0

12 Which statements are correct about the point in the network where the responsibility of the

service provider ends? (Choose three.)

• The International point is on the customer side of the network terminating unit(NTU).

• The United States point is at the interface of the customer-provided equipment and the local

loop.

• The responsibility for this point is controlled by IANA.

• The point is called the demarcation point.

• The point is typically located at the service provider's central office.

• The point is located between the customer's local area networks.

13

A system administrator is unable to ping the Serial0/0 interface of RouterB from RouterA. During

the troubleshooting process, the following facts are established:

- IP addressing and subnet masks are correct.

- RouterA is a Cisco router and RouterB is a router from another vendor.

- RouterA is configured with the default encapsulation.

- The serial interfaces on both routers are up.

- The protocol is down on the serial interfaces of both routers.

What should the administrator do to solve the problem?

• Add a clock rate on RouterA.

• Enable the serial interface on RouterB.

• Change the encapsulation on both routers to PPP.

• Connect the serial cable to the correct interface on RouterB.

• Use the correct serial cable to attach the CSU/DSU to RouterB.

14 When a Frame Relay switch detects an excessive buildup of frames in its queue, which of the

following may occur? (Choose two.)

• Frames with the DE bit set are dropped from the switch queue.

• Frames with the FECN and BECN bits set are dropped from the switch queue.

• Frames in excess of the CIR are not accepted by the switch.

• The switch sets the FECN bit on all frames it places on the congested link and sets the BECN

bit on all frames it receives on the congested link.

• The switch sets the FECN bit on all frames it receives on the congested link and sets the BECN

bit on all frames it places on the congested link.

15

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is checking the status of router RTR_2. What is

the most likely reason for the current status of the serial link to RTR_1?

• A cable has become disconnected.

• The circuit is experiencing excessive RFI.

• Authentication is not properly configured on the routers.

• The routers are configured for different WAN encapsulations.

• The clock rate is not properly configured on one of the routers.

16 What are two of the steps required to configure a router to connect over ISDN BRI? (Choose

two.)

• Configure the interface with a DLCI.

• Configure the SPIDs, if required by the ISDN switch.

• Specify the the LMI type to be compatible with the CO switch.

• Set the interface encapsulation to the Cisco or IETF frame type.

• Configure a subinterface for each B channel.

• Set the switch type to work with the ISDN switch at the CO.

17 What value in the address field of a Frame Relay header identifies the destination of the

frame?

• CIR

• DE

• DLCI

• ISDN

• FRAD

• PVC

18 Which of the following describes the roles of devices in a WAN? (Choose three.)

• A CSU/DSU terminates a digital local loop.

• A modem terminates a digital local loop.

• A CSU/DSU terminates an analog local loop.

• A modem terminates an analog local loop.

• A router is commonly considered a DTE device.

• A router is commonly considered a DCE device.

19

Refer to the exhibit. Two routers are connected through a Frame Relay point-to-point PVC. The

ILM-5 router is from a vendor other than Cisco. Which interface command is required to configure

the link between the Cisco ILM-3 router and router ILM-5?

• ILM-3(config-if)# encapsulation frame-relay cisco

• ILM-3(config-if)# frame-relay pvc multipoint

• ILM-3(config-if)# encapsulation frame-relay ietf

• ILM-3(config-if)# frame-relay lmi-type ansi

• ILM-3(config-if)# frame-relay pvc point-to-point

20 The output of the show interfaces serial 0/0 command for a frame-relay connection indicates

that the serial line is up but the line protocol is down. What are possible causes for this?

(Choose two.)

• There is an LMI-type mismatch between the Frame Relay switch and the router.

• There is no clock present on the serial interface.

• The interface is shut down.

• RARP is not functioning on the router.

• The cable is disconnected.

21 After configuring a dialup ISDN circuit, a network associate begins testing the dialup

connection. When attempting to ping a host on the remote network, the local router does not

attempt to dial the remote access server. Which of the following are possible errors in this


• PPP authentication is not properly configured.

• No dialer map is configured.

• The ISDN circuit connected to the remote access server is busy.

• No interesting traffic is defined.

• No route is determined to the remote network.

• A wrong number is configured in the dial string.

22 When configuring a Frame Relay network with subinterfaces, which commands are configured on

the subinterface? (Choose three.)

• frame-relay interface-dlci

• encapsulation frame-relay ietf

• ip address

• frame-relay map

• switch type

23 Below is a list of DDR steps. Which of the following identifies the proper order of DDR?

1 - dial number is looked up

2 - interesting traffic triggers DDR

3 - route to destination is determined

4 - call is made

• 1,2,3,4

• 1,3,2,4

• 2,3,1,4

• 2,1,3,4

• 3,2,1,4

• 3,1,2,4

24 A network administrator issued the command show frame-relay pvc. The response from the router

shows the status of a PVC as deleted. What is the reason for this output?

• The DLCI is using the wrong LMI type.

• The DLCI is usable but has little activity.

• The DLCI is programmed in the switch but the circuit is not usable.

• The DLCI was formerly programmed in the switch but is no longer there.

25

The serial PPP link between the Left and Right routers is configured as shown in the diagram.

Which configuration issue explains why the link is unable to establish a PPP session

• The IP addresses must be on different subnets.

• The usernames are misconfigured.

• The passwords must be different for the CHAP authentication.

• The clock rate must be 56000.

• The clock rate is configured on the wrong end of the link.

• Interface serial 0/0 on Left must connect to interface serial 0/1 on Right.

26 Which protocol should be chosen to support WAN connectivity in a multi-vendor system and

provide strong security through authentication?

• NAT with DHCP

• Frame Relay

• HDLC with encryption

• HDLC with CHAP

• PPP with PAP

• PPP with CHAP

27

Refer to the exhibit. Which statements describe why the workstation with the IP address

192.168.89.99 cannot access the Internet? (Choose two.)

• The NAT outside interface is not configured properly.

• The NAT inside interface is not configured properly.

• The access control list does not include the IP address 192.168.1.99/28 to access the

Internet.

• The NAT pool is not properly configured to use routable outside addresses.

• The NAT pool is not properly configured to use the access control list for NAT.

28 After the ISDN BRI interface is configured, which command can be used to verify that the

router is communicating correctly with the ISDN switch?

• show dialer


• show interfaces bri0/0:1

• show interfaces serial0/0.1

29 How are the settings for ISDN switch type and SPIDs determined for a BRI interface

configuration?

• assigned by the network administrator

• randomly, so long as they are not duplicated on the network

• by trial and error

• dynamically via Inverse ARP

• assigned by IANA

• assigned by the service provider

30 A network administrator is having difficulty in establishing a serial link between a Cisco

router and a router from another vendor. Both routers are configured for HDLC encapsulation.

Which statements are true regarding this configuration? (Choose two.)

• The Cisco HDLC frame uses a proprietary "Type" field that may not be compatible with equipment

of other vendors.

• HDLC requires a clock rate to be configured on the routers at both ends of the serial link.

• PPP encapsulation is recommended for serial links between equipment from multiple vendors.

• Usernames must be configured at both ends of the HDLC serial link.

• The HDLC vendor type must be enabled on the Cisco router.

• There is a mismatch in the HDLC authentication password configurations.

31

A system administrator is troubleshooting a connectivity issue between two routers in a new

installation. The administrator enters the debug ppp authentication command on the WHSE router.

The graphic shows a part of the output received. From this output, what is the most likely cause

of this connectivity issue?

• There is not a route to the remote router.

• The ISDN circuit on the remote router has failed.

• The username/password was not properly configured on the WHSE router.

• The remote router has a different authentication protocol configured.

32 A system administrator needs to configure the regional office with ISDN for DDR connections

to three remote sites. Each remote site requires different IP subnets, different encapsulations,

and different authentication methods. The sites will not be connected at the same time. The

company would like to accomplish this in the most cost effective manner. What method can the

system administrator use to accomplish this task using the fewest B channels?

• Install and configure a PRI.

• Install and configure a BRI interface with separate SPIDs for each remote site.

• Install and configure a BRI with multiple switch types in global configuration.

• Install and configure a BRI using dialer profiles.

• Install and configure a separate BRI for each remote site.

33 Which IP addresses are defined by RFC 1918 as private addresses? (Choose three.)

• 172.55.16.0.16

• 172.17.0.0/16

• 224.200.175.0/24

• 192.168.168.0/22

• 10.88.179.0/29

• 17.250.0.0/16

34 Which of the following statements are correct regarding PAT? (Choose two.)

• PAT is the best method to provide consistent global addresses for network servers.

• PAT can only be configured to use one IP address, which is usually the IP address of the

serial interface of the router.

• PAT uses unique source port numbers on the inside local IP address to distinguish between

translations.

• PAT uses unique source port numbers on the inside global IP address to distinguish between

translations.

• When PAT is configured to use a pool of IP addresses and exhausts the ports of the first IP

address, the router will move to the next available IP address.

35 Which circuit-switched WAN technology is often used to provide a backup for a leased line and

additional capacity during peak usage times?

• X.25

• DSL

• ISDN

• cable modem

36 Which of the following is the order for the three phases of establishing a PPP serial link

with authentication?

• authentication, link-establishment, network layer protocols

• authentication, network layer protocols, link-establishment

• network layer protocols, link-establishment, authentication

• network layer protocols, authentication, link-establishment

• link-establishment, authentication, network layer protocols

• link-establishment, network layer protocols, authentication

37 What causes a DDR call to be placed?

• dial string

• DLCI

• idle time out

• interesting traffic

• PVC

38 A system administrator must provide Internet connectivity for 25 hosts at an insurance

agency. The ISP has assigned two public IP addresses to this company. What can the administrator

do to provide Internet access to all 25 users at the same time?

• Configure the router with dynamic NAT with PAT.

• Configure the router with dynamic NAT for 25 users.

• Configure the router with DHCP and static NAT.

• Configure the router with static NAT for all 25 users.

• This cannot be done with only two public addresses.

39

A network administrator must provide WAN connectivity between the Central office and three

remote sites: East Branch, West Branch, and Remote. The East Branch and West Branch offices

receive sales orders and transmit shipping confirmations to the Central office consistently

throughout the day. The Remote office is staffed by one salesperson who travels through the

northwestern territory. The salesperson occasionally needs to connect to the Central office for

e-mail access. How should the network administrator connect these sites to the Central office?

(Choose two.)

• Connect the East Branch and West Branch remote offices with ISDN connections.

• Connect the East Branch and West Branch offices with Frame Relay connections.

• Connect the East Branch and West Branch offices with POTS dial-up connections.

• Connect the Remote office with a Frame Relay connection.

• Connect the Remote office with an ISDN connection.

• Connect the Remote office with a POTS dial-up connection.

40 Which of the following ISDN protocols is responsible for call setup and call teardown?

• ITU-T Q.921

• ITU-T Q.931

• ITU-T I.430

• ITU-T I.431

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