CASR PART91 General operating and flight rules...general operating and flight rules for Australian...

CASR PART

91 General operating and flight rulesPLAIN ENGLISH GUIDE

SEPTEMBER 2019 | ADVANCED DRAFT | NOT YET IN FORCE

CASR PART 91 | PLAIN ENGLISH GUIDE | ADVANCED DRAFT | NOT YET IN FORCE

About this guideThe Civil Aviation Safety Authority’s (CASA’s) Part 91 Plain English Guide summarises and reproduces Part 91 of the Civil Aviation Safety Regulations (CASR) and the Part 91 Manual of Standards (MOS) in a concise and easily understandable publication in plain English. Please note that Part 91 regulations do not come into effect until 25 March 2021.

By following this guide, it is expected you will comply with the aviation regulations. However, this guide is not legislation. If you wish to refer to the full text of Part 91 and the Part 91 MOS (to be published), you may refer to the Federal Register of Legislation at www.legislation.gov.au

Publication detailsThe Part 91 Plain English Guide (advanced draft - not yet in force) published in September 2019 relies upon a draft Part 91 Manual of Standards. Therefore, this publication is subject to change.

You are invited to provide feedback on whether this guide provides regulatory information in a simple, easy-to-read and understandable language. Please send comments and suggestions for improvement to [email protected]

For best results when viewing on a tablet, save this guide to your device. Then download the Adobe Acrobat reader app from the Google Play or Apple App stores and open the guide with the reader app.

How to use this guideWe have defined certain words to avoid repetition and improve readability. The most important of these is you used throughout the guide to refer to the pilot in command, who is permitted under reg 61.385. Where we do not define a word or acronym in this guide, you should consider its meaning to be that given in the Macquarie Dictionary.

For improved understanding, the guide includes Exceptions, Notes and Comments Exceptions − certain regulations set out a principal legal requirement that in certain circumstances can be varied, or in some cases ignored. You must read these exceptions to understand the requirements fully.

Notes − these are included as they appear in the regulations.

Comments − for certain regulations you will find additional comments to assist in explaining the requirement. This commentary is not intended to introduce any new requirement, but to provide a more detailed explanation. These comments are provided using icon.

Disclaimer: The information contained in this guide was correct at the time of publication and is subject to change without notice. The guide has been prepared by CASA Stakeholder Engagement Division for information purposes only, and CASA accepts no liability for damages or liability of any kind resulting from its use. You should ensure you are using the most current version of the guide.

The Civil Aviation Safety Authority is responsible for the safety regulation of Australia’s civil aviation operators, and for the regulation of Australian-registered aircraft outside Australian territory. For further information, visit CASA’s website www.casa.gov.au

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A standard terminology list has been created specifically for this guide to improve readability as follows.

Term Meaningapproval/ approved

An approval provided in writing by CASA under reg 91.045.

For a foreign registered aircraft operating in Australian territory, approval means, that given under the laws of the state of the registry of the operator of the aircraft. Contact your closest CASA regional office for guidance on approvals. See www.casa.gov.au for regional office contact details.

may Indicates an option in the context of the requirement

must Indicates an obligation or necessity (i.e. a mandatory requirement)

person Refers to a third person. In this guide it refers to a person other than the pilot; for example, a passenger, or an air display organiser

qualified A qualification or authorisation issued by CASA under Part 61 or Part 64, unless otherwise stated.

For a foreign registered aircraft operating in Australian territory, qualified means a qualification attained, or authorisation under, the laws of the state of registry of the aircraft operator.

pilot A qualified pilot Regulations Unless otherwise specified refers to

the CASR or CARSubpart Unless otherwise specified refers to

a Subpart of Part 91 you pilot in command

What Part 91 coversThe Part 91 and associated MOS consolidates the general operating and flight rules for Australian aircraft. It replaces more than one hundred documents—such as regulations, orders, supporting instruments and exemptions.

Primarily, it retains the existing rules. However, there are a small number of new rules designed to enhance operational flexibility, enhance safety, and increase compliance with International Civil Aviation Organization standards.

Significant changes to old rules:

› restricts the simulation of certain in-flight emergencies and who can be on board at the time

› requires cabin crew when carrying 20 or more passengers on non-air transport flights

› introduces an approach ban in weather conditions consistently below landing minima at certain aerodromes

› expands the requirement to preserve flight recordings and recorders for immediately reportable matters

› provides greater discretion for the pilot in command to determine which portable electronic devices may be used by passengers without compromising safety

› provides greater choice in how to apply certain rules, such as the carriage of animals and firearms

› relaxes oxygen requirements for non-air transport operations

› permits the carriage of documents electronically.


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Table of contentsReg ref Page no

01 | PRELIMINARY RULES 07Application of Part 91—Australian aircraft in Australian territory 91.005 08Application of Part 91—Australian aircraft over the high seas 91.015 08Application of Part 91—Australian aircraft in foreign countries 91.010 08Application of Part 91—foreign registered aircraft 91.020 08Application of Part 91—foreign state aircraft 91.025 08Application of Part 91—aircraft to which Part 101, 103 or 131 applies 91.030 08Application of Part 91—certain provisions of this Part do not apply if provisions of Part 121, 133, 135 or 138 apply

91.035 08

Issue of Manual of Standards for Part 91 91.040 10Approvals by CASA for Part 91 91.045 10

02 | GENERAL RULES 111. Documentation 12Carriage of documents 91.105 12Carriage of documents for certain flights 91.110 12Carriage of documents—international flights 91.115 12Electronic documents 91.100 12Journey logs—flights that begin or end outside Australian territory 91.120 13Compliance with flight manual etc 91.095 13Reporting and recording defects and incidents etc. (reserved) 91.C4 13

2. Flight crew and operator obligations 14Aircraft not to be operated in manner that creates a hazard 91.055 14Requirements to be met before Australian aircraft may fly 91.145 14Authority and responsibilities of pilot in command 91.215 14Actions and directions by operator or pilot in command 91.220 14Operating an Australian aircraft outside Australia 91.140 14Operating aircraft with inoperative instruments, indicators, equipment or systems—placarding 91.150 15Seating for flight crew members 91.550 15Manipulating flight controls 91.155 15Operation of portable electronic devices 91.170 15Multi-engine aircraft—pilot in command to land at nearest suitable aerodrome if emergency occurs

91.685 15

Unauthorised entry into prohibited or restricted areas 91.270 16Pilot in command to report hazards to air navigation 91.675 16Pilot in command to report emergencies 91.680 16Pilot in command to report contraventions relating to emergencies 91.690 16Availability of instructions for flight data and combination recorders 91.645 16Flight recorders—preserving recordings of immediately reportable matters 91.650 17Training flight limitations etc. 91.725 17Causing or simulating failure of flight instruments 91.715 17Simulating IMC flying 91.720 17Aeroplane flights in IMC or at night—engine not to be shut down 91.730 17Single-engine aeroplane—VFR flights by day—engine not to be shut down 91.735 18Single-engine aeroplane—simulating engine failure in IMC or at night 91.740 18

01


Reg ref Page no

Multi-engine aeroplane—simulating engine failure—general 91.745 18Multi-engine aeroplane—simulating engine failures in IMC or at night 91.750 18Single-engine rotorcraft—engine not to be shut down 91.755 19Single-engine rotorcraft—engine failure not to be simulated and autorotation of main rotor system not to be initiated in IMC

91.760 19

Single-engine rotorcraft—simulating engine failure or initiating autorotation of main rotor system at night

91.765 19

Multi-engine rotorcraft—engine not to be shut down at certain altitudes in IMC or at night 91.770 19Multi-engine rotorcraft—simulating engine failure in IMC or at night 91.775 19

3. Crew member obligations 20Crew members to be fit for duty 91.520 20Crew safety during turbulence 91.535 20Seating for crew members other than flight crew members 91.555 20Cabin crew—when required 91.820 20Cabin crew—number 91.825 21Cabin crew—knowledge of emergency and safety equipment and procedures 91.830 21Operation of portable electronic devices by crew members 91.175 21Crew—provision of alcohol 91.785 21Crew members—power of arrest 91.225 21

4. Safety of persons and cargo 22Offensive or disorderly behaviour on aircraft 91.525 22Smoking not permitted during certain periods of flight 91.530 22Means of passenger communication 91.540 22Person not to be carried on certain parts of aircraft 91.200 22Seating for persons on aircraft 91.545 22Restraint of infants and children 91.560 22Passengers—safety briefings and instructions 91.565 23Passengers—safety directions by pilot in command 91.570 24Passengers—compliance with safety directions 91.575 24Passengers—compliance with safety instructions by cabin crew 91.580 24Passengers—alcohol 91.780 24Prohibiting person affected by psychoactive substances from boarding 91.790 25Restraint and stowage of cargo 91.585 25Restraint and stowage of carryon baggage 91.590 25Restraint and stowage of certain aircraft equipment 91.595 25Cargo—general 91.600 25Cargo—cargo compartments 91.605 25Cargo—unoccupied seats 91.610 25Cargo—loading instructions 91.615 26Possessing firearm on aircraft 91.160 26Discharging firearm on aircraft 91.165 26Unauthorised travel or placing of cargo on aircraft 91.060 26Carriage of animals 91.620 26

02


Reg ref Page no

03 | OPERATIONAL RULES 275. Classification of operation 28Aircraft to be flown under VFR or IFR 91.065 28All flights—airspeed limits 91.090 28VFR flights—aircraft not to exceed certain speeds 91.075 28VFR flights—compliance with VMC criteria 91.070 29VFR flights—flights in class A airspace 91.080 32VFR flights 91.250 32IFR flights 91.255 32

6. Rules to prevent collision 33Basic rule 91.325 33Right-of-way rules 91.330 33Additional right-of-way rules 91.335 34Right-of-way rules for takeoff and landing 91.340 35Compliance with international regulations 91.345 35Giving way to vessels 91.350 35Giving way on water 91.355 35RVSM airspace 91.655 35PBN flights 91.660 35

7. Communication 38Use of radio—qualifications 91.625 38Use of radio—broadcasts and reports 91.630 38Communication monitoring in controlled airspaces 91.635 40Communicating at certified, registered, military or designated non controlled aerodromes 91.400 40Air traffic services—prescribed requirements 91.260 40Air defence identification zone flights 91.275 43Air traffic control clearances and instructions 91.265 43Use of radio outside controlled airspace—listening watch of radio transmissions 91.640 43Aviation distress signals 91.700 43Standard visual signals 91.670 43Interception of aircraft 91.695 51

8. Fuel 52Fuel requirements 91.455 52Oil requirements 91.460 54Contaminated, degraded or inappropriate fuels 91.465 54Fire hazards 91.470 55Fuelling aircraft—firefighting equipment 91.475 55Fuelling aircraft—electrical bonding 91.480 56Equipment or electronic devices operating near aircraft 91.485 56Fuelling turbineengine aircraft—lowrisk electronic devices 91.490 56Only turbineengine aircraft to be hot fuelled 91.495 56Hot fuelling aircraft—general 91.500 57Hot fuelling aircraft—procedures etc. 91.505 57Fuelling aircraft—persons on aircraft, boarding or disembarking 91.510 57Fuelling aircraft if fuel vapour detected 91.515 57

03


Reg ref Page no

9. Pre-flight planning and preparation 58Flight preparation (weather assessment) requirements 91.230 58Flight preparation (alternate aerodrome) requirements 91.235 59Specified aircraft performance categories 91.450 64Flight plans and notifications 91.240 65Pre-take-off checks 91.245 65

10. Ground operation 68Use of aerodromes 91.410 68Parked aircraft not to create hazard 91.420 68Safety when aeroplane operating on ground 91.425 68Safety when rotorcraft operating on ground 91.430 68Taxiing aircraft 91.415 68Taxiing or towing on movement area of aerodrome 91.365 68

11. Aircraft performance and weight and balance 69Loading of aircraft 91.805 69Takeoff weights 91.795 69Landing weights 91.800 70

12. In-flight 72Definition—specified cruising level 91.280 72Specified VFR cruising levels 91.285 74Minimum heights—VFR flights at night 91.310 74Specified IFR cruising levels 91.290 74Minimum heights—IFR flights 91.305 74IFR flights at nonspecified cruising levels—notifying air traffic services 91.295 75IFR flights at nonspecified cruising levels—avoiding collisions with aircraft 91.300 75Minimum height rules—populous areas and public gatherings 91.315 76Minimum height rules—other areas 91.320 77IFR takeoff and landing minima 91.435 77Taking off and landing in low visibility 91.445 81Approach ban for IFR flights 91.440 82

13. Non-controlled aerodromes 83Takeoff or landing at non controlled aerodrome—all aircraft 91.370 83Meaning of in the vicinity of an aerodrome 91.360 84Operating on manoeuvring area, or in the vicinity, of non controlled aerodrome—general requirements

91.375 84

Operating on manoeuvring area, or in the vicinity, of non controlled aerodrome—landing and taking off into the wind

91.380 84

Operating on manoeuvring area, or in the vicinity, of non controlled aerodrome—requirements after joining the circuit pattern

91.385 84

Operating on manoeuvring area, or in the vicinity, of non controlled aerodrome—requirements for maintaining the same track after takeoff

91.390 85

Straightin approaches at non controlled aerodromes 91.395 85Aircraft in aerodrome traffic at controlled aerodromes 91.405 85

04


Reg ref Page no

14. Icing 86Flight in icing conditions—adherence of frost, ice or snow 91.705 86Flight in icing conditions—requirements for flight 91.710 86

15. Special flight operations 86Air displays in Australian territory 91.180 86Aerobatic manoeuvres 91.185 86Dropping things from aircraft 91.190 87Picking up or setting down people or things during flight 91.195 87Flying in formation 91.205 87Towing of things by aircraft 91.210 87NVIS flights 91.085 87

16. Aircraft equipment 88Instruments, indicators, equipment and systems—summary 91.810 88When aircraft may be flown with inoperative instruments, indicators, equipment or systems 91.815 88

04 | ADMINISTRATIVE RULES 9117. Approvals—special certificates and permits 92Approvals by authorised persons for Subpart 91.T 91.050 92Aircraft with more than one certificate of airworthiness—application of Subpart 91.T 91.835 92Restricted category aircraft—general operating requirements 91.840 92Restricted category aircraft—kinds of operations permitted 91.845 92Provisionally certified aircraft 91.850 93Provisionally certified aircraft—operating requirements 91.855 93Provisionally certificated aircraft—operation for type certification or supplemental type certification

91.860 93

Provisionally certificated aircraft—requirements for the carriage of people 91.865 93Provisionally certificated aircraft—additional requirements for operators 91.870 94 Experimental aircraft 91.875 94Experimental aircraft—kind of operations permitted 91.880 95Experimental aircraft—maximum number of persons to be carried 91.885 95Primary and intermediate category aircraft 91.890 95Light sport aircraft—operators 91.895 95 Light sport aircraft—pilots 91.900 95Special flight permits 91.905 96Application of Division 91.T.8 91.910 96Aircraft with special certificates of airworthiness—maintenance release etc. 91.915 96Aircraft with special certificates of airworthiness—flight tests to be conducted in certain areas 91.920 96

05


Reg ref Page no

18. Foreign aircraft 97Foreign registered aircraft—Chicago Convention 91.965 97Foreign registered aircraft—special flight authorisations 91.970 97Foreign state aircraft—approval to fly in Australian territory 91.975 97Foreign registered aircraft—major defect—CASA direction 91.980 97Foreign registered aircraft—CASA to notify Contracting State of direction 91.985 97Foreign registered aircraft—CASA may revoke direction 91.990 98Foreign registered aircraft—when direction or revocation takes effect 91.995 98

19. Minimum equipment list (MEL) 99Definition 91.925 99Requirements for minimum equipment list 91.930 99Approval of minimum equipment list 91.935 101Approval of variations 91.940 101Approval of extensions of rectification intervals 91.945 101Effect of approval 91.950 102CASA to be notified of extensions approved by a continuing airworthiness management organisation

91.955 102

Operation of aircraft with multiple inoperative items not permitted in certain circumstances 91.960 102

05 | APPENDICES and REFERENCES 103Appendix A 104

Appendix B 107

Abbreviations and acronyms 133

Definitions 135

06


01PRELIMINARY RULES

07


Application of Part 91—Australian aircraft in Australian territory (91.005)Part 91 applies to the operation of an Australian aircraft in Australian territory.

Application of Part 91—Australian aircraft over the high seas (91.015)If an Australian aircraft is operated over the high seas, Part 91 and Annex 2 of the Chicago Convention apply, but where there is an inconsistency, you must comply with the relevant Annex 2 requirement.

Application of Part 91—Australian aircraft in foreign countries (91.010)If an Australian aircraft is operated in a foreign country, Part 91 and the aviation laws of the foreign country apply, but where there is an inconsistency, you must comply with the relevant law of the foreign country.

Application of Part 91—foreign registered aircraft (91.020)Part 91 (other than Division 91.C.3 and Subparts 91.P and 91.T) applies to the operation of a foreign registered aircraft in Australian territory.

Exception: Part 91 does not apply to such aircraft operated under foreign air transport AOC or New Zealand AOC with ANZA privileges in force for Australia.

Application of Part 91 - foreign state aircraft (91.025) Part 91 only applies to a state aircraft (for example, military aircraft) of a foreign country operating in Australian territory if a Part 91 provision states that it applies to such aircraft.

Application of Part 91—Aircraft to which Part 101, 103 or 131 applies (91.030)Part 91 does not apply to aircraft operated under:

› Part 101 - Unmanned aircraft and rockets

› Part 103 - Sport and recreational operations and

› Part 131 - Manned free balloons.

This provision to be reviewed when Parts 101, 103 and 131 are made.

Application of Part 91—certain provisions of this Part do not apply if provisions of Parts 121, 133, 135 or 138 apply (91.035)A Part 91 provision listed in Table 1 does not apply to an aircraft where there is a provision listed in:

Part 121 - Australian air transport operations - larger aircraft

Part 133 - Australian air transport operations- rotorcraft

Part 135 - Australian air transport operations - smaller aircraft or

Part 138 – Aerial work operations that applies to the operation.

08 | PRELIMINARY RULES


Table 1: Inapplicability of certain Part 91 provisions

Provisions of Part 91 Provisions of Part 121, 133, 135 or 138

NVIS flights (91.085) Reg 133.265Reg 138.350

Operational documents (Division 91. C.2) Division 121.C.2Division 133.C.2Division 135.C.2

Dropping things from aircraft (91.190) Reg 138.425Picking up or setting down people or things during flight (91.195)Persons not to be carried in certain parts of aircraft (91.200)

Reg 138.390

Flight preparation (alternate aerodromes) requirements (91.235) Reg 121.170Use of aerodromes (91.410) Reg 121.205Fuel requirements (91.455) Division 121.D.6

Division 133.D.6Division 135.D.6Division 138.D.6

Hot fuelling aircraft-procedures (91.505) Division 138.D.6Fuelling aircraft-persons on aircraft boarding or disembarking (91.510) Reg 121.240

Reg 133.195Reg 135.220

Means of passenger communication (91.540) Seating for flight crew members (91.550)Seating for crew members other than flight crew members (91.555) Restraint of infants and children (91.560)

Reg 138.375

Passengers- safety briefings and instructions (91.565) Reg 121.285Reg 133.240Reg 135.280

Passengers – safety directions by pilot in command (91.570) Reg 138.375Restraint and stowage of carry- on baggage (91.590) Restraint and stowage of certain aircraft equipment (91.595)

Reg 121.265

Performance (Subpart 91.F) Subpart 121.FSubpart 133.FSubpart 135.FSubpart 138.F

Weight and balance (Subpart 91.J) Subpart 121.JSubpart 133.JSubpart 135.JSubpart 138.J

Instruments indicators equipment and systems (Subpart 91.K) Subpart 121.KSubpart 133.KSubpart 135.KSubpart 138.K

Cabin crew (Subpart 91.P) Subpart 121.PSubpart 133.PSubpart 135.P



Issue of Manual of Standards for Part 91 (91.040) CASA may prescribe standards in a Manual of Standards for Part 91 where:

› it is required or permitted by the regulations, or

› it is necessary or convenient for carrying out or giving effect to Part 91.

Note: A Manual of Standards is a legislative instrument; see subsection 98(5AA) of the Act.

A MOS details technical material and standards and is a legislative instrument. A MOS is issued under a particular regulation. A MOS allows CASA the ability to keep the standards up to date in a timely manner to meet the demands of the ever-changing environment while retaining the legislation change process that includes general and industry consultation.

Approvals by CASA for Part 91 (91.045)Where Part 91 refers to a person holding an approval, a person may apply to CASA, in writing, for the approval. The approval must be granted provided the applicant meets the requirements of reg 11.055.

For regs 91.200, 91.450, 91.600, 91.655 and 91.745, the operator is approved if the activity is authorised under:

› the operator’s AOC or another civil aviation authorisation held by the operator; or

› the exposition or operations manual, if the operator must have an exposition or operations manual under these regulations

› For regs 91.860, 91.865, 91.870, 91.875, 91.885 and 91.920, the operator is approved if the activity is authorised under another civil aviation authorisation held by the operator.

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02GENERAL RULES1. Documentation 12

2. Flight crew and operator obligations 14

3. Crew member obligations 20

4. Safety of persons and cargo 22

11


1. DocumentationCarriage of documents (91.105)You must ensure the following documents are carried on the flight:

› for each flight crew member:

» medical certificate; flight crew licence (or certificate of validation); passport (or photographic ID as issued by a commonwealth, state or territory authority or agency)

› the aircraft’s flight manual

› the operating instructions for any computerised navigation systems fitted to the aircraft

› the minimum equipment list for the aircraft (if any).

You do not have to carry the documents listed if flying aerobatic manoeuvres and carrying the documents on the aircraft would present a safety risk to the aircraft or its occupants.

You can meet the requirement to carry photographic ID by carrying a state driver’s licence or your ASIC.

Carriage of documents for certain flights (91.110)Unless you are flying VFR within 50 NM of your departure aerodrome, or your flight is within a flying training area, or on the route to a flying training area that is not adjacent to the aerodrome you departed, you must also carry:

› authorised aeronautical information for the flight, and

› either the aircraft’s flight technical log or maintenance release.

Image | Civil Aviation Safety Authority

Carriage of documents for international flights (91.115)If your flight begins or ends at an aerodrome outside Australia, you must carry:

› the aircraft’s certificate of airworthiness and certificate of registration

› the journey log for the flight (see reg 91.120)

› a list of passengers including their name, place of embarkation and destination

› when carrying cargo (other than passenger baggage)—a manifest and detailed declaration of the cargo

› if the aircraft has a radio station licence that is an apparatus licence or a class licence—a copy of the licence

› a copy of any approval or authorisation held by the operator that is relevant to the flight.

If you intend to rely on electronic documents to satisfy this requirement when flying outside Australia then, before your flight, you should check that electronic copies of the required documents will satisfy the laws of a relevant foreign country.

Electronic documents (91.100)An electronic copy of a document satisfies the requirement for a document that must be carried on a flight.

For flights that begin or end at an aerodrome outside Australia, electronic copies may not satisfy a foreign country’s legal requirements.

12 | GENERAL RULES


Journey logs for international flights (91.120) If your flight begins or ends outside Australia, the requirements for maintaining a journey log are as follows:

Information you must record in the journey log before beginning an international flight (MOS section 3.01)You must record the following information in the journey log before the flight begins:

› the aircraft registration mark and flight number (if any)

› the date of the flight

› for each FCM assigned to the flight, the FCM’s name, and their assigned duties

› the place of departure and the time the flight begins

› the amount of fuel added to the aircraft’s fuel tanks before the flight begins (if any)

› the amount of fuel in the aircraft’s fuel tanks when the flight begins.

Information you must record in the journey log after an international flight ends (MOS section 3.02)You must record the following information in the journey log at your place of arrival, as soon as practicable after the flight ends:

› the place of arrival

› the time the flight ends

› the duration of the flight

› the amount of fuel in the aircraft’s fuel tanks when the flight ends

› incidents and observations (if any) that may have been relevant in any way to the safety of the flight.

Compliance with flight manual etc (91.095) You must operate an aircraft in accordance with the aircraft flight manual or, where it applies, any conditions specified in the certificate of airworthiness or special flight permit, from:

› the earlier of the time

» the aircraft’s doors are closed before take-off, and the flight begins,

› to the later of the time

» the aircraft’s doors are opened after landing, and the flight ends.

The CASR dictionary defines the meaning of an aircraft flight manual (AFM). A reference to a flight manual in the CASR, includes an AFM or any other document including all amendments and supplements that contains the aircraft’s limitations and other information for the safe operation of the aircraft. For older aircraft the AFM may be referred to as the Pilot’s Operating Handbook (POH), Owner’s Handbook or Owner’s Manual (see AC 21-34).

Reporting and recording defects and incidents etc (Division 91.C.4)This Division is reserved for future use.

13 | GENERAL RULES


2. Flight crew and operator obligationsAircraft not to be operated in manner that creates a hazard (91.055) You must not operate an aircraft in a manner that creates a hazard to another aircraft, person or property.

‘Not creating a hazard’ begins with complying with the regulations. However, simply complying with regulations may not necessarily prevent you from creating a hazard, especially if you are not fully qualified and competent. See reg 61.385, for more detail about ‘exercising the privileges of your pilot licence’.

Requirements to be met before Australian aircraft may fly (91.145) When beginning a flight , you must ensure:

› the aircraft is registered

› the aircraft has a nationality mark and a registration mark painted on, or affixed to it, in accordance with Part 45

› if required under the regulations, the aircraft has a certificate of airworthiness or special flight permit

› the flight complies with any condition set out or referred to in the maintenance release, or in any other document approved for use as an alternative to the maintenance release

› you have all required FCMs on board.

Authority and responsibilities of pilot in command (91.215) From the time the aircraft doors are closed before take-off, or the time the flight begins, whichever is the earliest, to the time the doors are opened after landing, or the time the flight ends, whichever is the latest, you have the final authority over the aircraft and maintaining discipline by all persons on the aircraft, and you must ensure the safety of persons, cargo and the safe operation of the aircraft during the flight.

Although not required by the regulation, to ensure flight safety, the pilot will normally assume responsibilities before the flight begins and after the flight ends. You may discharge your responsibilities by delegating certain tasks to others (such as crew members).

Actions and directions by the operator or pilot in command (91.220)Either you or the operator may, if you believe it is necessary for the safety of the aircraft, a person on the aircraft, or a person or property on the ground or water, direct a person:

› to do, not to do, or limit the doing of something while the person is on the aircraft

› to leave the aircraft before the flight begins

› with such assistance and by the use of such force as is reasonable and necessary to:

» remove a person or a thing from the aircraft before the flight begins, or

» restrain a person for the duration of the flight or part of the flight, or

» seize a thing on the aircraft for the flight or part of the flight, or

» place a person on the aircraft in custody, or

» detain a person or a thing, until the person or thing can be released into the control of an appropriate authority.

A person directed by either you or the operator must comply with the direction.

Note: Under reg 91.225, crew members of an aircraft have a limited power of arrest.

Operating an Australian aircraft outside Australia (91.140) When operating an Australian aircraft in a foreign country, both you and the operator must comply with any law of that country applicable to the flight.

When flying an Australian aircraft over the high seas, both you and the operator must comply with any requirements of Annex 2 of the Chicago Convention that apply to the flight.

Operation over the high seas occurs when you are operating over open ocean and not within Australia’s or any country’s jurisdiction.

14 | GENERAL RULES


Operating aircraft with inoperative instruments, indicators, equipment or system—placarding (91.150) Before you begin a flight, you or the operator must placard any inoperative; instrument, indicator, item of equipment or system that is required to be fitted or carried. This only applies where these are accessible and likely to be used during the flight.

Figure 1: Inoperative placard

Aircraft equiped to fly IFR: Directional Gyro Instrument (DI) becomes inoperative, but aircraft can still be flown VFR but DI MUST be placarded INOPERATIVE.

Where an instrument, indicator, item of equipment or system is inoperative, and the regulations allow you to operate without the item for the category of flight, it is your responsibility to be satisfied that it is safe to operate with any inoperative item.

Seating for flight crew members (91.550) During take-off and landing or when you direct, each flight crew member required for the flight, must occupy their crew station and have their seatbelt and shoulder harness securely fastened.

Flight crew members must keep their seatbelt securely fastened when occupying a crew station on the flight deck.

At all times during a flight, at least one pilot who is permitted under reg 61.385 or qualified for a foreign aircraft, must occupy a pilot seat.

Manipulating flight controls (91.155) A person must not, and you must not allow a person to, manipulate the flight controls of the aircraft unless the person is authorised or qualified to pilot the aircraft.

Operation of portable electronic devices (91.170) During a flight, a person may operate a portable electronic device only if you have given permission. You may only give permission if you have determined that the device’s operation will not affect the safety of the aircraft.

A person must not operate a portable electronic device if you or a cabin crew member has directed or instructed them not to.

When giving permission, you should consider any limitation that may apply in the aircraft flight manual, supplementary aircraft manufacturer’s data (if any) or from your operational experience with that type of PED.

Multi-engine aircraft—pilot in command to land at nearest suitable aerodrome if emergency occurs (91.685) If you are flying a multi-engine aircraft and an emergency occurs threatening the safety of the aircraft or the occupants, you must land at the nearest suitable aerodrome.

15 | GENERAL RULES


Unauthorised entry into prohibited or restricted areas (91.270) If you become aware your aircraft is being flown in a prohibited or restricted area, you must:

› inform ATS, or the controlling authority (specified in the AIP ERSA), that the aircraft is in the area (if the aircraft has a radio or other means of communicating with ATS), and

› fly out of the area.

CASA may declare an area to be a prohibited area if CASA believes it is necessary to prohibit flight of aircraft over that area for reasons of military necessity.

CASA may declare an area to be a restricted area, if CASA believes it is necessary to restrict flight of an aircraft over the area to aircraft flown in accordance with specified conditions for public safety or to protect the environment.

Prohibited and restricted areas declared for 3 months or longer are published in the AIP. For shorter periods they are published by NOTAM (see regulation 7 of the Airspace Regulations 2007).

An aircraft must not enter or operate in a prohibited or restricted area when the operation would contravene a limitation of the prohibited or restricted area at that time.

Pilot in command to report hazards to air navigation (91.675)If you become aware of a hazard to air navigation that is not published in the AIP, as soon as circumstances permit you must report the hazard to:

› ATS, and

› the aerodrome operator if the hazard is on an aerodrome.

Exception: If you reasonably believe the hazard has already been reported there is no need to make the report.

Pilot in command to report emergencies (91.680) You must inform ATS of the emergency that threatens the safety of your aircraft or occupants if you have a means of communicating with ATS, and it is practical to do so. If carrying dangerous goods, you must advise ATS of the nature and state of the goods.

Pilot in command or operator to report contraventions relating to emergencies (91.690) During a flight, if an emergency occurs threatening the safety of the aircraft or occupants, and you have to take action that involves contravening any regulation, either you or the operator must notify CASA in writing of the contravention, and the circumstances, within 2 business days after the day of the emergency.

Neither you nor the operator are excused from giving notice by claiming that giving the notice, or information might tend to incriminate you or expose you to a penalty. However, the notice, or any document or thing which is obtained directly or indirectly as a consequence of giving notice, are not admissible in evidence in criminal proceedings other than for an offence against sections 136.1 (1) or (4), 137.1(1) or 137.2(1) of the Criminal Code (which deal with false statements).

Availability of instructions for flight data and combination recorders (91.645) Where the regulations require an aircraft to be fitted with a flight data recorder or combination recorder, the operator must be able to provide the instructions for the recorder immediately to the Australian Transport Safety Bureau (ATSB).

16 | GENERAL RULES


Flight recorders—preserving recordings of immediately reportable matters (91.650) The ATSB may notify an operator of an aircraft fitted with an operative flight data recorder, operative cockpit voice recorder or operative combination recorder within 72 hours of an immediately reportable matter occurring that the recorders and/or recordings must be retained for an investigation.

In the event of an immediately reportable matter occurring, an operator must preserve the recorders and recordings until advised by the ATSB that they are no longer required, or in any other case—until 72 hours after the matter is reported to the ATSB.

Exception: This requirement does not apply if the recordings or recorders are not preserved, and the operator took reasonable steps in the circumstances to preserve them.

Training flight limitations etc (91.725) You must not carry a person, other than a permitted person on the aircraft during:

› a training flight for a flight crew member who does not hold a class rating or type rating for the aircraft

» you may carry no more than 4 permitted persons, including yourself

› the simulation (other than verbally) of an emergency or abnormal situation that may affect the handling characteristics of the aircraft

» you may carry up to 3 permitted persons on such flights including yourself

› training below 500 ft AGL (other than training for take-off and landing)

› training for a low-level rating, an aerial application rating, an aerobatic endorsement or a spinning endorsement (or training for an equivalent qualification under a law of a foreign country)

» you may carry no more than 3 permitted persons, including yourself, for this and the preceding 2 types of flights.

You are not permitted to test the aircraft or any of its instruments, indicators, items of equipment or systems if a person, other than a permitted person or a member of the aircraft’s maintenance personnel (who is required, as part of their duties, to be on the aircraft), is on board the aircraft.

Exception: These requirements do not include testing the aircraft during the course of checks associated with the normal operation of the aircraft.

Causing or simulating failure of flight instruments (91.715) You may only fail or simulate a failure of the following instruments when it is for pilot training, checking or testing, and required crew members only are on the aircraft:

› an attitude indicator

› a gyro compass or equivalent

› an airspeed indicator

› an altimeter.

Exception: The above requirement does not apply if it is part of a maintenance test flight, or a procedure to diagnose or isolate a failure of an instrument or system.

You must also be qualified to train, check or test, and

› must occupy a control seat fitted with a fully functioning set of flight controls, and

› if the flight is in IMC or at night, must have a clear view of an operative instrument of the same kind as the instrument that has been failed or simulated to be failed.

Simulating IMC flying (91.720) You must not permit an aircraft to be flown during simulated IMC unless a safety pilot occupies a pilot seat with fully functioning controls, has adequate vision forward and to either side of the aircraft and is qualified or authorised to fly the aircraft.

The pilot flying under simulated IMC must also occupy a pilot seat with fully functioning controls.

Note: If the aircraft flight manual requires 2 pilots, under Part 61, both pilots must have a type rating for the aircraft.

It is imperative that there is a safety pilot on board the aircraft whose vision is unobstructed and who can provide a good lookout at anytime simulated IMC is practised in VMC conditions

Aeroplane flights in IMC or at night—engine not to be shut down (91.730) An engine of an aeroplane during a flight in IMC or at night must not be shut down.

Nothing prevents the shutting down of an engine in an emergency.

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Single-engine aeroplane—VFR flights by day—engine not to be shut down (91.735)During a day VFR flight, the engine must not be shut down unless the flight is for pilot training, checking or testing, and you hold a flight instructor rating, examiner rating or other authorisation. Only flight crew members may be on the aeroplane, and the aeroplane must remain within gliding distance of a safe forced landing area.

Single-engine aeroplane—simulating engine failure in IMC or at night (91.740) In-flight engine failure simulation is not permitted at night or in IMC unless:

› it is a pilot training, checking or testing flight

› you hold a flight instructor rating, flight examiner rating or other authorisation authorising simulation of an engine failure, and

› you carry only flight crew members.

For a night flight, the simulation must commence above 1000 ft AGL and the aeroplane must remain within gliding distance of a lighted runway that must be available for landing.

For a flight in IMC, the simulation must commence above the LSALT for the route or route segment, and VMC conditions must exist below that altitude.

Multi-engine aeroplane—simulating engine failure–general (91.745) For a multi engine aeroplane, an engine failure may only be simulated in flight; if

› it is type certificated to carry 9 passengers or less.

For a multi engine aeroplane that is type certificated to carry more than 9 passengers but less than 19 passengers, an engine failure may only be simulated in flight if the operator holds an approval; and

› there is no flight simulator in Australia for the aeroplane type.

For a multi engine aeroplane that is type certificated to carry more than 19 passengers, an engine failure may only be simulated in flight if the operator holds an approval; and

› there is no simulator in Australia, or

› there is no simulator approved by a recognised NAA anywhere in the world, for the aeroplane type.

For flights conducted in accordance with 91 Subpart T, an engine failure may only be simulated in a multi engine aircraft that is for a:

› test flight of a provisionally certificated aircraft, or

› flight under the special flight permit - where a special flight permit allows engine failure simulation, or

› flight under the experimental certificate - where the experimental certificate allows engine failure simulation.

An operator that applies for an approval must include a safety risk management plan.

History has shown that the simulation of engine failure in a multi engine aeroplane in-flight increases risk. This regulation sets out when a simulator must be used for such training.

Multi-engine aeroplane—simulating engine failure in IMC or at night (91.750)Simulation of an engine failure in a multi-engine aeroplane is not permitted during a flight in IMC or at night, unless:

› you hold a flight instructor rating, flight examiner rating or other authorisation which allows engine failure simulation

› the flight is for pilot training, checking or testing

› only flight crew members are carried

› you brief the pilot under instruction before the simulation and then supervise it

› where not conducting an asymmetric instrument approach and missed approach in IMC—the aeroplane is at or above the minimum height in reg 91.305 (2) (minimum heights—IFR flights)

› the simulation is carried out in accordance with the procedures specified in the AFM instructions (if any), or if procedures are not specified in the aircraft flight manual instructions—the exposition (if the operator must have an exposition) or operations manual (if the operator must have an operations manual).

Depending on the type of flight, you must also meet the following requirements (if relevant):

› when flying an asymmetric instrument approach and missed approach—you must initiate the simulation above the initial approach altitude and have visual reference to the terrain when below 1000 ft above the relevant instrument approach chart minima

› at night in VMC, you must fly:

18 | GENERAL RULES


» above the minimum height mentioned in reg 91.305 (2) or 91.310 (2) (as the case requires) if: the aeroplane is not conducting an approach to land or within the circling area of an aerodrome, or

» in accordance with an instrument approach procedure if the aeroplane is on approach to land, and is not within the circling area of an aerodrome, or

» as determined in accordance with the method specified in the AIP, if within the circling area of an aerodrome.

› if flying an aeroplane at night in VMC during circuit operations, you must initiate the simulation at or above circuit height, and not below 1000 ft AGL.

Single-engine rotorcraft—engine not to be shut down (91.755) The engine of a single-engine rotorcraft must not be shut down during a flight.

Single-engine rotorcraft—engine failure not to be simulated and autorotation of main rotor system not to be initiated in IMC (91.760) During a flight in IMC, you must not permit simulation of an engine failure or initiate an autorotation.

Single-engine rotorcraft—simulating engine failure or initiating autorotation of main rotor system at night (91.765) Simulation of an engine failure or initiation of an autorotation is not permitted during a flight at night unless taxiing or hovering below the hover height for the surface specified in the rotorcraft’s flight manual, or at or above 1000 ft AGL, and

› you hold a flight instructor rating, flight examiner rating or other authorisation which allows you to simulate an engine failure or initiate autorotation


› only flight crew members are carried

› you brief the pilot under instruction before the simulation or autorotation and then supervise the simulation or autorotation

› the simulation or autorotation is in VMC

› the power termination of the autorotation is initiated so that full power is available before the rotorcraft goes below 100 ft AGL

› the autorotation is terminated using a power recovery termination or a baulked approach and climb out

› the simulation or autorotation is at an aerodrome with omnidirectional runway lighting.

Multi-engine rotorcraft—engine not to be shut down at certain altitudes in IMC or at night (91.770) During a multi-engine rotorcraft flight in IMC or at night, you must not shut down an engine unless the rotorcraft is at or above the LSALT for the route or route segment.

Multi-engine rotorcraft—simulating engine failure in IMC or at night (91.775) During a flight in IMC or at night, the simulation of an engine failure is not permitted unless:

› you hold a flight instructor rating, flight examiner rating, or other authorisation for simulating an engine failure


› only flight crew members are carried, and

› you brief the pilot under instruction before the simulation and then supervise it

› the simulation is carried out in accordance with the procedures specified in the rotorcraft’s flight manual (if any), or

» if the AFM does not specify procedures, and the regulations require the rotorcraft operator to have an exposition or operations manual, then the simulation must be in accordance with the instructions in the exposition/operations manual.

For a rotorcraft flown in IMC, you must also be established at or above the lowest safe altitude for a route or route segment for the flight.

For a rotorcraft flown at night in VMC:

› it must be flown within the circling area of an aerodrome determined in accordance with the method specified in the AIP, and

› in the climb during take-off, the simulation must be initiated before the take-off decision point, or above 500 ft AGL, and

› after the climb during take-off, the simulation must be initiated at or above 1000 ft AGL.

19 | GENERAL RULES


3. Crew member obligationsCrew members to be fit for duty (91.520) A crew member must be fit before performing a required duty that is related to the safety of the aircraft, the persons aboard, or cargo on the aircraft.

An operator must not assign a crew member to duty for a flight if they have reasonable grounds to believe they are unfit to perform a duty related to the safety of the aircraft, or persons or cargo on the aircraft. A crew member must not commence their duty if they have consumed alcohol within 8 hours of the flight beginning, or if an alcohol test reveals that they have exceeded the permitted level of alcohol (within the meaning of Part 99).

A crew member must not consume alcohol while on board the aircraft.

A crew member is taken to be, or taken as likely to be, unfit to perform a duty if the crew member is:

› fatigued to the extent that their ability to safely perform the duty is reduced, or likely to be reduced, or

› under the influence of a psychoactive substance to the extent that their ability to safely perform the duty is reduced, or likely to be reduced.

Ultimately, being fit for duty is a responsibility that rests with you as an individual. Sound and honest judgement is required to be satisfied that your performance will not be impaired. Illness, prescriptive medication, stress, fatigue, alcohol consumption, fatigue, eating and hydration may affect your ability to be fit for duty and do your job safely.

Crew safety during turbulence (91.535)When you have a crew member (other than a flight crew member) on board, before the flight begins you must have implemented procedures to protect the crew member during turbulence or expected turbulence. This includes limiting or ceasing crew member duties during such periods.

AOC or certificate holders would detail such procedures in their relevant manuals. For a crew member carried under Part 91, briefing them about the procedures before flight would satisfy this requirement.

Seating for crew members other than flight crew members (91.555)A crew member (other than a flight crew member) must, during take-off, landing or any other time you direct, occupy their crew station and wear any provided seatbelt or shoulder harness that is securely fastened.

If you give a direction during turbulence, then a crew member may instead occupy a seat other than a crew member’s seat (this could be a passenger seat) provided that they wear, securely fastened, any seatbelt or shoulder harness at that seat.

Cabin crew—when required (91.820)In general, an aircraft carrying 20 or more passengers must carry a cabin crew member. However, if the flight crew includes 2 pilots, then an aircraft may carry up to 22 passengers without a cabin crew member, provided that no more than 19 of the passengers are adults or children (i.e. 3 or more passengers must be infants).

Exception: Parachuting activity flights (to which Part 105 applies) do not have to carry a cabin crew member.


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Cabin crew—number (91.825)If a cabin crew member is required (see reg 91.820), then the flight must carry one cabin crew member for each 50, or part of 50, passengers carried on the flight.

Cabin crew—knowledge of emergency and safety equipment and procedures (91.830)If a cabin crew member is required, they must be competent to:

› operate and use the emergency and safety equipment on the aircraft relevant to their duties, and

› implement emergency evacuation procedures.

Cabin crew members carried when not required, where their duties are limited to providing services to the passengers, do not have to have knowledge of emergency and safety equipment procedures. However, operators may choose to have cabin crew members trained and assessed as competent in such procedures.

Operation of portable electronic devices by crew members (91.175)During a flight, crew members must not operate portable electronic device at any time if it is likely to distract them from performing their duties.

Crew—provision of alcohol (91.785)Crew members must not provide alcohol to a passenger if they reasonably believe the passenger is affected by one or more psychoactive substances to the extent that their behaviour may present a hazard to the aircraft, or to a person on board.

Crew members—power of arrest (91.225)Either you, or a crew member authorised by you, may without a warrant, arrest a person on the aircraft in order to ensure the safety of the aircraft, or its passengers, crew or cargo (or otherwise for the purposes of the Act or regulations), if you or the crew member reasonably believe that the person is committing, attempting to commit, is about to commit, or has committed or has attempted to commit, an offence against the Act or these regulations in relation to the aircraft.

You must ensure that, as soon as practicable after the flight ends, the arrested person is delivered into police custody. If the flight ends overseas, you must deliver the person arrested to that country’s equivalent law enforcement agency.

Note: See also sections 3ZC (use of force in making arrest) and 3ZD (persons to be informed of grounds of arrest) of the Crimes Act 1914.

Although this regulation provides power to a crew member to arrest a person if you have authorised the crew member to make the arrest, the power must be used only within the prescribed limitations of the regulation.


21 | GENERAL RULES


4. Safety of persons and cargo Offensive or disorderly behaviour on aircraft (91.525)A person must not behave in an offensive or disorderly manner which as a result may endanger the safety of the aircraft or persons on board.

The operator or a crew member may refuse to allow a person to board an aircraft if they reasonably believe the person is likely to behave in an offensive or disorderly manner which could endanger the safety of the aircraft or persons on board.

A person is taken to behave in an offensive or disorderly manner if they:

› assault, intimidate or threaten another person (this may be verbal or physical, and whether or not weapon or object is used), or

› intentionally damage or destroy property.

Smoking not permitted during certain periods of flight (91.530) Smoking, including the use of electronic cigarettes, is not permitted on an aircraft:

› during take-off or landing

› in the aircraft’s toilet

› at any time, the pilot has directed a person not to smoke.

You are taken to have issued a direction at any time the ‘no smoking’ sign in the cabin has been illuminated, or at any time a permanent ‘no smoking’ sign is displayed.

Note: Section 37 of the Air Navigation Regulation 2016 prohibits smoking anywhere on an aircraft if the aircraft is engaged in certain operations.

Air Navigation Regulation 37 prohibits smoking on board an aircraft when carrying passenger in Australian territory as part of an air transport service. Also for an Australian international flight (other than a cargo only flight), smoking is prohibited at all times.

Means of passenger communication (91.540) You and the operator must ensure that where the design or configuration of the aircraft will not allow all seats (and berths) to be seen from the pilot

seat, the aircraft must be fitted with a means to communicate with all passengers during all phases of the flight, including emergencies.

Exception: This requirement does not apply if reg 138.375 applies to the operation.

Persons not to be carried in certain parts of aircraft (91.200) A passenger or crew member must not be carried on any part of the aircraft or anything that is attached to an aircraft that is not designed for that purpose unless the operator or you hold an approval to do so.

Exception: This does not apply to:

› the temporary carriage of a crew member provided it is for doing things for the safety of the aircraft, or any persons or cargo carried in it, or

› where goods or stores are carried in that part of the aircraft there must be proper means of access for crew members to the goods or stores.

Note: Persons carried on certain parts of an aircraft would normally be an aerial work operation; therefore, this rule does not apply if reg 138.390 applies.

Seating for persons on aircraft (91.545)Both you and the operator must not permit a person to sit in a seat (or a berth) that is not fitted with a seatbelt or shoulder harness.

Exception: This requirement does not apply where alternative circumstances apply that are prescribed in the Part 91 MOS.

Restraint of infants and children (91.560)Where a passenger is responsible for a child or infant, that passenger must ensure that the child or infant’s seatbelt or shoulder harness is fastened when the pilot gives a ‘fasten seatbelt or shoulder harness’ direction as follows

Exception: This requirement does not apply if reg 138.375 applies to the operation.

Infant and child seatbelts as restraints (MOS 21. 02)An infant must be carried in the arms or on the lap of an adult and restrained using a device approved under Part 21. However, the adult seatbelt must not be fastened around the infant and adult as one.

22 | GENERAL RULES


Figure 2: Supplemental Loop Belt

For a child to be restrained, they must occupy a seat of their own and be restrained by the seat’s seatbelt.

Alternatively, a maximum of 2 children may sit side by side on one seat, provided their combined weight does not exceed 77 kg and the seatbelt, when fastened, restrains both children in the seat.

A ‘Supplemental Loop Belt’ provides an additional seat belt with a stitched loop through which the adult lap belt is passed. The seat belt is fastened around the adult, and the Supplemental Loop Belt is then separately fastened around the infant (see figure 2).

Child restraint systems that are not seatbelts (MOS 21.03)An approved child restraint system means a child restraint system meeting the requirements of one of the following:

› an automotive child restraint system

› an aviation child restraint system.

Note: To avoid doubt, an infant sling is not a suitable child restraint system.

An automotive child restraint system means a child restraint system meeting the requirements of one of the following:

› AS/NZS 1754:2013 Child restraint systems for use in motor vehicles

› Federal Motor Vehicle Safety Standards (FMVSS) No. 213

› Canadian Motor Vehicle Safety Standard (CMVSS) No. 213

› European Safety Standard requirements of ECE Regulation 44.

An aviation child restraint system means a child restraint system approved by CASA, under Part 21.

A child is restrained if:

› restrained by an approved child restraint system, and

› the age, height and weight of the child using the system is within the range specified by the manufacturer of the system, and

› the system is:

» used in accordance with the manufacturer’s instructions, and

» secured so as not to be a hazard to the child using the system, or to any other person, and

› a suitable adult is responsible for the child using the system.

The suitable adult must be seated in the seat closest to the seat on which the child restraint system is installed, and be competent to:

› install the system on a seat

› secure a child in the system

› release a child from the system.

Passengers—safety briefings and instructions (91.565) Before take-off, you must ensure that all passengers are given a safety briefing and instructions as follows.

Exception: The safety briefing may be omitted for a passenger who has been carried and briefed previously when it is not reasonably necessary because the previous briefing has covered all the circumstances of the successive flight.

Passengers—safety briefings and instructions (MOS 22.02) The passenger safety briefing and instructions must cover the following:

› the rules about smoking during the flight and the places on the aircraft where smoking is prohibited

› the requirement when individual seatbelts, shoulder harnesses must be adjusted without slack, (unless 2 children occupy the same seat) in accordance with the MOS 21.02

23 | GENERAL RULES


› the requirement that seat backs must be in the upright position (or otherwise, if permitted by the AFM) during take-off and landing

› any requirement that attachments to the seat (for example, tray tables and footrests) must be stowed, during taxiing, take-off and landing

› where the emergency exits are and how to use them

› the location of evacuation slides (if any) and how to use them

› if emergency oxygen is carried for the flight—how and when to use the emergency oxygen

› how and where to stow, or otherwise secure, carry-on baggage and personal effects, and the times during the flight when these items must be stowed or secured

› if the aircraft is fitted with escape path lighting—where the lighting is and how to use it

› if survival equipment is carried, and it is intended that a passenger is to use the equipment— where the equipment is carried and how to use it

› if life jackets or life rafts are carried—where the jackets or rafts are located and how to use them

› the requirement that life jackets must not be inflated inside the aircraft

› the limitations imposed on the use of portable electronic devices during different stages of the flight

› the requirements that:

» passengers seated in emergency exit rows must be willing and able to operate the exit in the event of an emergency, and

» they must not have a condition that will cause them to obstruct the exit or hinder an emergency evacuation

› when a passenger is carried who requires assistance—the nature of the assistance required in the event of an emergency, which emergency exit to use and when to use it

› when a passenger is seated in a pilot seat—the requirement to ensure they do not manipulate or interfere with the controls.

Passengers—safety directions by pilot in command (91.570)Before taxiing, taking off or landing you must direct passengers to fasten their seatbelt or shoulder harness before the aircraft is taxiing, taking off or landing, to:

› if the back of the seat (or berth) in which the passenger is sitting is adjustable—ensure that the seat back is in an upright position, or other position permitted by the AFM instructions

› if there are attachments to, or for, the seat (including a tray table or footrest)—stow the attachments or position them as permitted by the aircraft flight manual.

If, during the flight, you believe it is necessary for the safety of the passenger/s, then you must direct the passenger/s to fasten their seatbelt or shoulder harness. You may issue such a direction by the operation of an illuminated sign.

Exceptions:

› A direction need not be given to a person whose health may suffer by being restrained by a seatbelt if you agree the person is otherwise safely restrained.

› A direction need not be given to a person who is ill or incapacitated if you agree to the passenger not adjusting their seat (or berth) and the person is otherwise safely restrained and will not affect the safety of other passengers.

Passengers—compliance with safety directions (91.575)A passenger must comply with safety directions given by you (see reg 91.570).

Passengers—compliance with safety instructions by cabin crew (91.580) Passengers must comply with any instruction given by a cabin crew member relating to the safety of the aircraft, or the safety of a person on board.

Passengers—alcohol (91.780) A passenger on an aircraft may consume alcohol only when a crew member has provided the alcohol to the passenger or, if there is no crew member, you allow the passenger to consume alcohol.

24 | GENERAL RULES


Prohibiting person affected by psychoactive substances from boarding (91.790) The operator or a crew member may prohibit a person from boarding the aircraft if they reasonably believe that the person is affected by a psychoactive substance to an extent that may present a hazard to the aircraft or to a person on board.

Restraint and stowage of cargo (91.585)Both you and the operator must ensure any cargo carried is:

› restrained using approved equipment (see reg 21.305 or 21.305A), or

› securely stowed in a place designed and approved for that purpose under Part 21, or

› for equipment of a foreign registered aircraft—restrained or stowed in accordance with the law of the aircraft’s state of registry or state of the operator.

Exception: This regulation does not apply in relation to the following kinds of cargo, which must be restrained or stowed in accordance with any applicable regulation:

› an assistance animal carried in a passenger cabin (see reg 91.620)

› carry-on baggage (see reg 91.590)

› equipment required or permitted under the regulations to be carried without being restrained or stowed

› cargo to be dropped from the aircraft during dropping operations.

Restraint and stowage of carry-on baggage (91.590) Carry-on baggage must be securely stowed when taking off, landing, or any other time you have directed. It must be stowed in a place designed and approved under Part 21 (or for a foreign aircraft, under the law of the state of registry or state of the operator) or otherwise securely restrained.

Exception: This does not apply to the operator if reg 121.265 applies to the operation (see reg 91.035).

Restraint and stowage of certain aircraft equipment (91.595) Passenger service and galley equipment must be restrained and securely stowed when the aircraft is taking off or landing, or any other time you have directed.

Exception: This does not apply to the operator if reg 121.265 applies to the operation (see reg 91.035).

Cargo—general (91.600)Neither you nor the operator may permit cargo to be carried:

› in a place where it could damage, obstruct or cause the failure of a control, electrical wiring, or a pipeline of the aircraft; or any other equipment that is essential to the safe operation of the aircraft

› in a place where the cargo weight exceeds the load limitations for the floor structure or any other load-bearing components of that place, as set out in the aircraft flight manual instructions or a placard on the aircraft

› (other than passenger service equipment or galley equipment in an aisle on a temporary basis while in use) that obstructs an aisle.

Cargo must not obstruct, or restrict access to, an emergency exit unless either you or the operator hold a relevant approval from CASA.

Cargo compartments (91.605) In an aircraft where the AFM or regulations require more than 1 flight crew member for a flight and that has a cargo compartment designed so that a crew member would need to enter the compartment to extinguish a fire:

› you and the operator must carry the cargo in a way that allows a crew member to reach all parts of the compartment with a hand-held fire extinguisher.

Cargo—unoccupied seats (91.610) You and the operator may carry cargo on an unoccupied seat only if it weighs no more than 77kg, unless the seat manufacturer permits a greater weight. The cargo and the means of restraint must not interfere with the aircraft’s safe operation.

25 | GENERAL RULES


Cargo—loading instructions (91.615) Cargo must only be carried in a place that has a placard with instructions for carrying cargo.

Exception: This requirement excludes carry-on baggage weighing less than 9 kg and stowed under the seat, or in a place designed for that purpose, or cargo that is carried on an unoccupied seat in accordance with reg 91.610.

Possessing firearm on aircraft (91.160) A person may only carry or possess a firearm on an aircraft if the aircraft is not a prescribed aircraft provided either the operator or you have given consent.

Exception: This doesn’t apply if the person is authorised to carry or possess a firearm under another CAR or CASR provision or law of the Commonwealth. These are:

The Aviation Transport Security Act 2004 gives the meaning of a prescribed aircraft.

For regulations dealing with firearms and aircraft, see Part 138.

For other laws of the Commonwealth that deal with firearms and aircraft see: (a) Division 3 of Part 4 of the Aviation Transport Security Act 2004; and (b) section 23 of the Crimes (Aviation) Act 1991.

A prescribed aircraft is one used for, or regularly used for, a prescribed air service. A prescribed aircraft air service is any of the following:

› a regular public transport operation › an air service in which a jet is used › an air service in which an aircraft with

a certified MTOW greater than 5700kgs is used

Therefore, for a prescribed aircraft a person must comply with the air service provider’s requirements should they wish to transport a firearm on that aircraft.

Discharging firearm on aircraft (91.165) No one may discharge a firearm while on board an aircraft unless they are authorised to do so under another regulation or law of the Commonwealth. These are:

› Part 138

› Division 3 of Part 4 of the Aviation Transport Security Act 2004

› Section 23 of the Crimes (Aviation) Act 1991.

Unauthorised travel or placing cargo on aircraft (91.060) A person may travel, or place cargo, on an aircraft only if you or the operator have given consent to do so.

Carriage of animals (91.620) A person must not bring an animal onto an aircraft unless you have given permission.

Before giving that permission, you must have taken reasonable steps to ensure carrying the animal does not adversely affect aviation safety.

Despite anything in the Disability Discrimination Act 1992, you or the operator may refuse to carry an assistance animal (within the meaning of the Disability Discrimination Act 1992) in the aircraft if you or the operator reasonably believe that the carriage of the animal may have an adverse effect on aviation safety.

The regulation places the responsibility on you or the operator for ensuring the safety of the flight when an animal is carried on an aircraft. It applies to a small private aircraft through to an air transport aircraft and each circumstance will require different considerations. This regulation allows you or the operator considerable discretion to permit the carriage of an animal. However, the Disability Discrimination Act 1992 will apply if you refuse to carry an assistance animal for reasons other than aviation safety.

In general, carrying an animal is no different to carrying cargo. The animal must not block or impede access to or through an emergency exit A large animal should be secured at all times so as not to damage or affect the balance of the aircraft in flight. A small or medium sized animal carried in the cabin would normally need as a minimum to be restrained during take-off and landing and in turbulence.

When giving permission, you may need to consider: the type of animal and how it is carried, contained and restrained, its reaction to noise and being out of its natural environment, nuisance to other passengers, distraction to flight crew, or how excrement or fluids will be contained.

An AOC holder’s exposition should provide instructions for carrying animals, including any limitations or requirements the operator expects personnel to follow.

26 | GENERAL RULES


03OPERATIONAL RULES5. Classification of operation 28

6. Rules to prevent collision 33

7. Communication 38

8. Fuel 52

9. Pre-flight planning and preparation 58

10. Ground operation 68

11. Aircraft performance and weight and balance 69

12. In-flight 72

13. Non-controlled aerodromes 83

14. Icing 86

15. Special flight operations 86

16. Aircraft equipment 88

27


5. Classification of operationAircraft to be flown under VFR or IFR (91.065)You must fly an aircraft in either the VFR or IFR category.

This regulation states the ICAO Annex 2 standard flight categories. Before you fly in either category, you must be qualified and the aircraft must be certified for the category of flight.

For other than a Part 103 aircraft, you must fly your aircraft either under the VFR or IFR.

For an aircraft operated under Part 103 you must fly only during the day and under the VFR.

All flights—airspeed limits (91.090)You must fly an aircraft within the airspeed limits for the flight as follows.

Airspeed limits—all flights (MOS Chapter 6)Unless required for aviation safety, you must not fly an aircraft at a speed greater than the maximum airspeed limits shown in the table as follows.

Table 2: Airspeed limits—all flights

Airspace classification Flight rules Maximum airspeedClass A IFR No maximumClass C IFR No maximumClass C VFR › below 10 000 ft above mean sea level: 250 kts

› in any other case: no maximum, except that VFR flights must not exceed subsonic speed

Class D IFR or VFR › at or below 2500 ft above aerodrome elevation within 4 NM of the primary aerodrome in that airspace: 200 kts, or

› in any other case: 250 ktsClass E IFR or VFR › below 10 000 ft above mean sea level: 250 kts

› in any other case: no maximum, except that VFR flights must not exceed subsonic speed

Class G IFR or VFR › below 10 000 ft above mean sea level: 250 kts

› in any other case: no maximum, except that VFR flights must not exceed subsonic speeds

Exception: The airspeed limits do not apply when you have a clearance from ATC, or approval from CASA, to fly at a greater speed.

VFR flights – aircraft not to exceed certain speeds (91.075) You must not fly VFR aircraft at a transonic or supersonic speed.

28 | OPERATIONAL RULES


VFR flights – compliance with VMC criteria (91.070)You may fly VFR only in accordance with the VMC criteria for the aircraft and airspace in which you are flying.

Exception: This requirement does not apply if you have a clearance from ATC to conduct the flight under the special VFR and you comply with the special VFR.

VMC Criteria (MOS Chapter 2)The VMC criteria are set out in the following figures.

Figure 3: VMC criteria for controlled airspace and Class G non controlled airspace (MOS Table 2.03[4])

Class of airspace Height

Flight visibility

Distance from cloud Operational requirements

C, E or G At or above 10 000 ft AMSL

8 km 1500 m horizontal1000 ft vertical

C, E or G Below 10 000 ft AMSL

5000 m 1,500 m horizontal1000 ft vertical

G At or below whichever is the higher of: › 3000 ft AMSL

› 1000 ft AGL

5000 m Clear of cloud In sight of ground or water



Figure 4: VMC criteria for Class D controlled airspace (MOS Table 2.03[4])


Flight visibility


D All heights 5000 m 600 m horizontal1000 ft vertical above cloud500 ft vertical below cloud



Figure 5: VMC criteria for rotorcraft in Class G non controlled airspace (MOS Table 2.03[4])


Flight visibility


G Below 700 ft over land

800 m Clear of cloud For helicopter AApplicable only if the rotorcraft is operated: › by day

› at a speed that allows the pilot to see obstructions or other traffic in sufficient time to avoid collision, and

› if less than 10 NM from an aerodrome with an instrument approach, you ensure that:

» you report, broadcast and maintain a listening watch; and

» you maintain separation of at least 500 ft vertically from any IFR aircraft, less than 10NM from the aerodrome.

G Below 700 ft over water without track guidance from navigation system

1500 m 1600 m horizontal and 500 ft vertical

For helicopter BIf track guidance is provided by an approved navigation system, then the same requirements apply as for over land.



Special VFR (MOS 2.01)On your request, ATC may issue you with a ‘special VFR clearance’ that will allow you to fly below the VMC criteria provided:

› you do not fly in Class E airspace

› you keep clear of cloud

› the flight visibility is at least:

» for an aeroplane—1600 m or

» for a rotorcraft—800 m and you operate at a speed that allows you to see obstructions or other traffic in sufficient time to avoid a collision.

Note: When flying ‘special VFR’ you must comply with regs 91.315 and 91.320 which deal with minimum operating heights.

VFR flights—flights in class A airspace (91.080)You must not fly VFR in class A airspace unless you hold an approval.

Under the ICAO airspace classification, class A airspace is designed for the traffic management of IFR aircraft only. However, there are occasions where a VFR aircraft may need or wish to operate in class A airspace; therefore, the regulation allows for an approval in limited or certain circumstances. For example, gliders operate in class A airspace in special circumstances.

VFR flights (91.250) You must fly VFR in accordance with the following procedures.

VFR flight requirements (MOS 26.01, ENR 1.1-38)When flying VFR, you must navigate by visual reference to the ground or water, or by using any of the IFR methods described in section 26.02 of the Part 91 MOS.

However, if you are flying at or below 2000 ft above ground or water, you must be able to navigate by visual reference to the ground or water.

When navigating by visual reference to the ground or water, you must positively fix the aircraft’s position by visual reference to features marked on topographical charts at intervals not exceeding 30 minutes.

When navigating by visual reference over the sea, visual reference features may include rocks, reefs and fixed man-made objects marked on topographical charts and readily identifiable from the air.

IFR flights (91.255) When flying IFR you must do so in accordance with the following requirements.

IFR flight requirements (MOS 26.02, ENR 1.1-37)When flying IFR you must navigate by:

› using an approved area navigation system that meets the performance requirements of the intended airspace or route, or

› using a ground-based radio navigation system, but only if:

» after making allowance for possible tracking errors of ±9° from the last positive fix, the aircraft will come within the rated coverage of a radio aid which can be used to fix the position of the aircraft, and

» the maximum time interval between positive fixes does not exceed 2 hours, or

› day only with visual reference to the ground or water in the following circumstances:

» on route segments where suitable en-route radio navigation aids are not available, and

» if weather conditions permit flight in VMC, and where the VFR position-fixing requirements are met.

For VFR position fixing requirements see section 26.01 of the Part 91 MOS.



6. Rules to prevent collisionBasic rule (91.325)During a flight, a flight crew member must maintain vigilance, so far as weather conditions permit, to see and avoid other aircraft.

This regulation simply emphasises one’s duty or responsibility as a flight crew member to maintain vigilance so far as weather conditions permit to see and avoid other aircraft. CASA has published the CAAP 166-1 and CAAP 166-2, and although these CAAPs are not specific to vigilance so far as weather conditions permit, they do provide advice on effective methods of how to see and avoid and the known limitations of see and avoid.

Right-of-way rules (91.330) When taking evasive action because of a collision risk with another aircraft, you must follow the right-of-way rules shown in Table 3.

Table 3: Right-of-way rules

Circumstance Right-of-way rule An aircraft is in an emergency and compelled to land

All aircraft must give way to the aircraft compelled to land

An aircraft is landing Any other aircraft (whether in flight, or operating on the ground or water) must give way to the landing aircraft

Two heavier-than-air aircraft are on approach to land at an aerodrome

The following rules apply: › the higher aircraft must give way to the lower aircraft

› however, if the higher aircraft is in the final stages of an approach to land, the lower aircraft must not take advantage of the higher aircraft’s requirement to give way to the lower aircraft and cut in front of the higher aircraft

› a power-driven heavier-than-air aircraft must give way to an unpowered glider

An aircraft is overtaking another aircraft

The overtaking aircraft must give way to the aircraft being overtaken

Aircraft in the same vicinity An aircraft mentioned in the following list must give way to an aircraft listed above it in the list: › a balloon

› a person descending by parachute

› an unpowered glider

› an airship

› an aircraft that is towing something (including another aircraft)

› a power-driven aircraftTwo aircraft are on converging headings at approximately the same altitude

The aircraft that has the other aircraft on its right must give way to the other aircraft

Exception: Although the right-of-way rules apply, you may take whatever action is necessary to avoid a collision



Additional right-of-way rules (91.335)

Figure 6: Aircraft with right of way to maintain heading and speed

Where there is a collision risk, the aircraft that has the right of way to another aircraft must maintain the same heading and speed until there is no longer a risk of collision.

Figure 7: Overtaking aircraft to keep clear and to the right

When overtaking another aircraft, whether climbing, descending or in level flight, you must keep out of the way of the other aircraft, even if it alters course while being overtaken; pass on the right, and remain on the right until well clear.

Figure 8: Aircraft approaching head-on to alter heading to the right

Each aircraft alters its heading to the rightEach aircraheading to

alters its he right

Where 2 aircraft are approaching head-on, or approximately head-on, each aircraft must alter heading to the right.

Figure 9: Aircraft giving way not to create collision risk

Where an aircraft is required to give way to another aircraft, the aircraft must not be flown so that it passes ahead, or directly over, or under the other aircraft so close that there is a collision risk.

Exception 1: If necessary, you may take whatever action is necessary to avoid a collision.

Exception 2: The right of way and additional right of way rules do not apply if you are responding to a command of the aircraft’s airborne collision avoidance system and manoeuvring is necessary to ensure the safety of the aircraft



Right-of-way rules for take-off and landing (91.340) During a take-off or landing you must not fly an aircraft in a way that creates a risk of collision with another aircraft, person, vessel, vehicle or structure.

Compliance with international regulations (91.345) An aircraft operating on water must comply with any requirement of the applicable international regulations. However, if the international regulation is inconsistent with reg 91.355, you must comply with reg 91.355 to the extent of the inconsistency.

Giving way to vessels (91.350)When in level flight or manoeuvring near the surface of the water, you must, as far as possible, keep clear of a vessel, or avoid impeding its navigation.

Giving way on water (91.355) You must give way to, and keep well clear of, an aircraft or vessel converging from the right.

You must turn to the right to keep well clear of an aircraft or vessel that is approaching head-on, or approximately head-on.

If you are overtaking a vessel or another aircraft, you must give way to the vessel or aircraft being overtaken, by altering your heading to keep well clear.

Exception: If necessary, you may take whatever action is necessary to avoid a collision.

An aircraft on the water is considered to be a marine vehicle and the regulations for collision avoidance when on the water under this regulation are consistent with marine regulations.

RVSM airspace (91.655) An aircraft may only be flown in RVSM airspace if either or both of the following apply:

› the operator holds an approval

› you have been given an air traffic control clearance.

If, when flying in RVSM airspace you are unable to operate to the required vertical separation minimum, you must inform ATC as soon as practicable.

PBN flights (91.660) Both you and the operator of an IFR flight under a PBN specification must comply with the following applicable procedures.

If any part of the flight uses one of the following PBN specifications, you and the operator must hold an approval for that specification:

› RNP AR

› RNP 0.3

› NAT-HLA

AIP ENR 1.10 -9 contains additional information.

Operation of an aircraft for a PBN flight (MOS 27.03)You may fly using PBN only if:

› it is an IFR flight, and

› is flown under a PBN specification, and

› the aircraft is approved for the particular PBN specification under:

» the AFM

» a document approved in writing by CASA, or

» for a foreign registered aircraft operating into or out from Brisbane or Melbourne FIR, a document approved in writing by the foreign NAA, and

› the operation follows the procedures set out in Chapter 27 of Part 91 MOS.



Use of PBN specifications (MOS 27.04) An IFR flight using a particular PBN specification must:

› be flown in accordance with the particular PBN specification, and

› be flown in accordance with the operating instructions for the area navigation system installed in the aircraft, and

› carry the operating instructions on board in a place easily and immediately accessible to the pilot.

Operating instructions for the area navigation system (MOS 27.05)These operating instructions must be:

› those provided by the manufacturer of the area navigation system installed in the aircraft, or

› contained in the AFM—but only if the instructions are complete and not abridged or abbreviated in any way, or

› in a document that is:

» specified by the AFM as applicable although not actually contained in the AFM

» easily accessible to the pilot of an aircraft, and

» a complete set of instructions, not abridged or abbreviated in any way, or

› approved in writing by CASA.

Navigation database requirements (MOS 27.06)If an aircraft’s navigation database includes particulars of way points and navigation aids, as published in authorised aeronautical information, they must be loaded in a form that the aircraft operator or a flight crew member cannot modify.

A navigation database for a flight under PBN must be valid.

You must:

› check the database regularly for integrity, and

› if any discrepancy in the data is discovered:

» report the discrepancy as soon as practicable to the approved provider, and

» cease operational use of the database until the discrepancy is resolved.

Note: The Transport Safety Investigation Regulations 2003 have the effect that any discrepancy in the navigation database must be reported if it is likely to cause a hazardous condition from loss of separation between the aircraft and terrain or obstacles, or between the aircraft and other aircraft.

If the database changes to the next AIRAC cycle during a flight under PBN, you must complete the flight using the unchanged database, unless to do so would jeopardise the safety of the flight.

A navigation database that is not current at the start of a flight that ceases to be current during a flight or may be used for navigation, but only if:

› data used for navigation is verified before use from a current navigation data source, and

› the database is used for radio updating of a navigation system.

Note 1: A current navigation data source may be current maps, charts or other sources of navigation information of an approved provider, or a current electronic flight bag.

Note 2: You may use inertial systems (INS or IRS) without radio updating, providing you comply with the conditions and limitations in the AFM for inertial-only operations.



Despite anything else in this section, an aircraft operated without a MEL must not be navigated using PBN specifications for more than 72 hours after the navigation database is no longer current.

Note: An aircraft that is operated with a MEL must operate in accordance with the instructions in the MEL.

Two flight crew members must check the accuracy of flight plan data manually entered in a navigation database.

For a single-pilot operation, you must check manually entered data in a navigation system against other aeronautical information.

Note: Other aeronautical information includes, for example, current maps and charts carried in the aircraft, other sources of navigation information of an approved provider, or a current electronic flight bag.

Operating standards—flight planning—GNSS integrity availability (MOS section 27.07)Before departure, when the flight is planned IFR using PBN specifications for an RNP APCH for the intended destination or the designated alternate, you must obtain a prediction for GNSS integrity availability from a ground-based source *.

If a continuous loss of the GNSS integrity function is predicted for more than 5 minutes for any part of the RNP APCH operation, you must revise the flight plan; for example, by delaying the departure time or planning a different route*.

You must obtain a prediction for GNSS fault detection and exclusion (FDE) availability for the intended route before a flight under PBN planned to operate in oceanic airspace using GNSS departs*.

You must plan so that the maximum FDE outage duration cannot exceed the following*:

› 25 minutes—for an RNP-4 operation

› 34 minutes—for an RNP-10 operation

› 51 minutes—to meet the minimum navigation performance standards for operation in the NAT HLA.

Exceptions: The previous paragraphs marked with an (asterisk)*do not apply for RNP PBN specification that is approved under the AFM to achieve an LNAV accuracy of less than 0.3 NM using requisite GNSS satellites.

For a flight under PBN on a continental en-route operation, you must report to ATC if a continuous loss of the GNSS integrity function occurs for more than 5 minutes during the flight.

Note: A prediction for GNSS integrity availability is not required before departure.

For a PBN flight navigating with SBAS receivers, you must check regularly for GNSS integrity availability in areas where SBAS is not available.

Navigation errors (MOS 27.08)For an IFR flight using PBN specifications you must, before or during the flight, take immediate action to remedy any condition that causes, or is likely to cause, a navigation error in the course of the flight.

Note 1: Under the Transport Safety Investigation Regulations you must report the following navigation errors or events during a flight under PBN:

› a lateral or longitudinal navigational error that exceeds the required accuracy value of the relevant PBN specification for more than a merely transient duration when the aircraft is turning, or

› an aircraft system failure that results in the aircraft losing the use of its area navigation system.

Note 2: You must report loss of RNP capability, but you do not have to report the failure of 1 navigation system in a dual installation since the aircraft can still meet the navigation specification requirements.



7. CommunicationUse of radio—qualifications (91.625) A person must be authorised or qualified before transmitting on a radio frequency published in the AIP or NOTAM that is:

› used by air traffic services, or

› used in aeronautical emergencies, or

› used for communication at:

» a certified, registered, military aerodrome or

» an aerodrome prescribed as a designated non-controlled aerodrome by the Part 91 MOS relating to reg 91.400

CASA has reserved a placeholder in Chapter 24.0 of Part 91 MOS to prescribe designated non-controlled aerodromes for future use if needed. There are currently no designated non-controlled aerodromes.

Use of radio qualifications (MOS Chapter 24) The MOS prescribes certain radio frequencies published in authorised aeronautical information on which a person must not transmit unless authorised or qualified in accordance with Part 61, 64 or 65.

Use of radio—broadcasts and reports (91.630) If you are flying an aircraft that is fitted with, or carries a radio, you must make the broadcasts or reports relating to the flight as follows.

Changed radio frequency (MOS 25.02)You must make broadcasts and reports on the relevant published radio frequency unless ATS agrees to the use of a different frequency for special flight circumstances.

Note: For example, descent from controlled to non-controlled airspace, formation flights, and search-and-rescue, police and security operations. You may initiate a request to ATS to agree to a changed radio frequency for special flight circumstances.

CTAF—prescribed broadcasts (MOS 25.03, ENR 1.1 – 69)You must make broadcasts on the CTAF according to the following table.

Table 4: Broadcasts—aircraft at, or in the vicinity of, a non controlled aerodrome (including a certified or military aerodrome when non-controlled) (MOS table 25.03)

Situation FrequencyBroadcast/report

You are operating at, or in the vicinity of, a non-controlled aerodrome (including a certified or military aerodrome when non-controlled), and › the aircraft is

equipped with an operative VHF radio, and

› you are qualified to use the radio, and

› you consider it reasonably necessary to avoid the risk of a collision with another aircraft.

CTAF Broadcast

Note 1: For the definition of ‘in the vicinity of’ a non-controlled aerodrome, see the Definitions in this document.

Note 2: For an aircraft that must be equipped with an operative VHF radio, see MOS 30.80.

Controlled aerodromes and controlled airspace—prescribed reports (MOS 25.04)You must, when flying in Class A, C or D airspace; or IFR in class E airspace, report and broadcast to ATS according to the following table.



Table 5: An aircraft in Class A, C or D airspace, or an IFR aircraft in class E airspace (MOS table 25.04)

Situation Frequency ReportReady to taxi ATS Report the

situationAirborne ATS Report the

situationDeparture ATS Report the

situationPosition report as per ATS, or route reporting requirements

ATS Report the situation

Previously reported position estimate is more than 2 minutes in error

ATS Corrected position estimate

Sustained variation of more than 10 kts or M0.02 from any previously notified speed or any standard descent profile agreed between the aircraft operator and ATS


Aircraft performance degraded below*: › the level required for

the airspace in which it is operating, or

› the capability of the aircraft reported in the aircraft’s flight notification


Leaving a level or reaching an assigned level


Unable to comply with an ATC clearance or instructions


Arrival ATS If cancelling SARWATCH: report cancellation

Note: * refers to degradation of aircraft performance as a result of the failure or degradation of navigation, communications, altimetry (including RVSM capability), flight control or other systems.

IFR aircraft in Class G airspace—prescribed reports (MOS 25.05)When flying IFR in Class G airspace, you must report and broadcast to ATS according to the following table.

Table 6: IFR aircraft in Class G airspace (MOS table 25.05)

Situation Frequency ReportTaxiing ATS Report the

situationDeparture ATS Report the

situationReaching cruising level ATS Report the

situationPosition report as per ATS, or route reporting requirements


Previously reported position estimate is more than 2 minutes in error


Before changing level ATS Report the situation

Before changing frequency


Requiring clearance into controlled airspace


Before leaving controlled airspace on descent


Before changing to CTAF and not monitoring ATS frequency on second COM system


After landing ATS If cancelling SARWATCH: report cancellation



VFR aircraft in Class E or G airspace—prescribed reports (MOS 25.06)When flying VFR in Class E or G airspace, you must report and broadcast to ATS according to the following table.

Table 7: VFR aircraft in Classes E and G airspace (MOS table 25.06)

Situation Frequency ReportRequiring clearance into controlled airspace


Before, and on completion of, over-water stage

ATS Report in accordance with SAR reporting schedules if arranged before the over-water stage

Communication monitoring in controlled airspaces (91.635) When flying in controlled airspace, you must continuously monitor the primary communication medium used by ATC.

Communicating at certified, registered, military or designated non-controlled aerodromes (91.400)An aircraft must have an operative radio and you must be qualified to use the radio when operating on the manoeuvring area, or in the vicinity of a non-controlled aerodrome that is:

› certified, or

› registered, or

› military, or

› prescribed as a designated non-controlled aerodrome by the Part 91 MOS.

There are currently no designated non-controlled aerodromes.

However, at a non-controlled aerodrome described above, you may operate with an inoperative radio if:

› you are flying during the day in VMC, and

› you are flying in company with another aircraft, and

› the other aircraft is carrying an operative radio which the pilot is qualified to use.

Alternatively, if the radio becomes inoperative during the flight, or the purpose of the flight is to take the inoperative radio to a place for repairs, the flight can continue or take place, and if:

› the aircraft is flying in the vicinity of the aerodrome;

» the landing lights are switched on (if equipped)

» the anti-collision lights are switched on (if equipped)

» the secondary surveillance radar transponder is switched on (if equipped), and

› the aircraft is arriving at the aerodrome with an inoperative radio, you must join the circuit on either the cross-wind or down-wind leg.

Air traffic services—prescribed requirements (91.260)You must operate in a prohibited, restricted or a danger area, control zones, control areas, controlled aerodromes or a class of airspace as follows.

Controlled aerodromes-clearance required (MOS section 12.02)You must operate at a controlled aerodrome in accordance with the AIP.

If you are operating at a Class C controlled aerodrome you must obtain ATC clearance when:

› taxiing on any part of the manoeuvring area

› entering, crossing, or backtracking on, a runway

› taking off

› landing.

If you are operating at a Class D controlled aerodrome and an ATC service is operating, you must not enter the manoeuvring area of the aerodrome until you have established two-way communication with the relevant ATC tower.

If you are operating at a Class D controlled aerodrome and ATC service is operating, you must obtain clearance before:

› entering, crossing, or backtracking on, a runway

› taking off

› landing.

When taxiing on the manoeuvring area of a controlled aerodrome, you must stop and hold at all illuminated stop bars. You may only proceed beyond the stop bars when the stop bar lights are switched off.



Exception: You may proceed beyond a lighted stop bar if ATC advises you that stop bar contingency measures are in effect for the lighted stop bar, and ATC has identified the relevant lighted stop bar to you by reference to the specific holding position, and instructs you to cross it.

Control zones and areas—entry into Class A, C, E airspace (MOS 12.03)You must not enter a control zone or a control area that is Class A, C or E airspace without ATC clearance.

Exception: VFR flights do not require clearance to enter Class E airspace.

Exception: A clearance is not required when an ATC service is not in operation for a control zone.

Control zones and areas—entry into Class D airspace (MOS 12.04)You must not enter a Class D airspace control zone or a control area without an ATC clearance.

Exception: When the control zone or the control area ATC service is not in operation you do not need a clearance.

Control zones and control areas—operating within (MOS 12.05)When flying in a control zone or a control area, you must fly in accordance with the procedures published in the AIP and take positive action to regain track as soon as you recognise a deviation from the cleared track.

You must also notify ATC if any deviation from track exceeds a navigational tolerance.

The relevant procedures and navigational requirements for operations in a control area or control zone, are published in the AIP, including the DAH, the ERSA, NOTAMs and their associated maps and charts. These publications are available at www.airservicesaustralia.com

Control areas—IFR flights—VFR climb/descent and VFR-on-top (MOS 12.06 ENR 1.1-21, ENR 1.1-22)When flying IFR in a control area, if you wish to climb or descend VFR you must request a clearance.

During the climb or descent, you must:

› be in VMC at all times and,

› comply with IFR reporting and communication requirements, and

Note: See Chapter 25 of the Part 91 MOS, Use of radio–broadcast and reports

› maintain separation from other aircraft, and

› visually maintain obstacle clearance.

When flying IFR you must request clearance for VFR-on-top operations.

During VFR-on-top, you must:

› be in VMC at all times, and

› comply with the IFR reporting and communication requirements, and

Note: See Chapter 25 of the Part 91 MOS, Use of radio–broadcast and reports.

› maintain separation from other aircraft, and

› operate at specified VFR cruising levels.

When you are flying IFR, you must obtain ATC clearance to cancel the climb or descent VFR, or the VFR-on-top operation.

Although this procedure may facilitate your climb or descent in controlled airspace, ATC will not apply IFR traffic separation standards therefore vigilance is required by you to see and avoid other aircraft. Also wake turbulence separation is your responsibility. An appropriate clearance must be obtained when entering a different class of airspace.



Prohibited areas (MOS 12.07, ENR 1.4–10, ENR 1.4-12)You must not enter or operate in a prohibited area in any circumstance.

Restricted areas (MOS 12.8, ENR 1.4 – 10 ENR 1.4-12)You must not enter or fly within an active restricted area without the approval of the controlling authority for the area.

Figure 10: Restricted area

Flight within a restricted area is subject to the conditions CASA prescribes (see CASA PRD determination made under the Airspace Regulations 2007). This is published in:

› the ERSA and DAH parts of the AIP, or › a NOTAM.

When ATS is available within an activated restricted area, ATS may give approval to fly within or across the area if you request clearance in the same way as for entering controlled airspace.

Clearances may be withheld when hazardous activities are taking place or when those activities require priority.

Provided you receive an ATC clearance, you may fly:

› from controlled airspace into an adjoining activated restricted area, or

› through an activated restricted area into adjoining controlled airspace, or

› through an activated restricted area within controlled airspace.

Danger areas (MOS 12.09 ENR. 1.4-10, ENR 1.4-13)

Figure 11: Danger area

You may enter or fly within or across a danger area without an approval provided: › the area is not in controlled airspace, and

› before the flight, you make yourself aware of the specific activity which causes the area to be a danger area, and

› you take appropriate precautions against any safety risks that could arise from the flight.

RVSM airspace (MOS 12.10 ENR 1.1-63)When flying in RVSM airspace, you must comply with the following requirements:

› the operation must be in accordance with the procedures published in the AIP

› the aircraft must be fitted with the following operative equipment:

» 2 independent primary altimetry systems

» a Mode C-capable SSR transponder

» an altitude alert system

» an autopilot with height lock.



You must report all flight level deviations of 300 ft or more from the aircraft’s assigned level, regardless of the cause of the deviation, in accordance with the procedures published in the AIP for an RVSM airspace flight in the Australian FIR.

The operator of an aircraft flown in RVSM airspace must comply with the requirements for monitoring height-keeping in RVSM operations mentioned in the RVSM Minimum Monitoring Requirements in accordance with the procedures published in the AIP.

Cleared flight level deviations (MOS 12.11 ENR 1.1-64)When changing levels in RVSM airspace, you must ensure that that you do not overshoot or undershoot your cleared flight level by more than 150 ft.

If the cleared flight level cannot be maintained, you must:

› inform ATC as soon as possible of the circumstances, and

› either:

» obtain a revised ATC clearance before initiating any deviation from the cleared route or flight level, or

» if a revised ATC clearance cannot be obtained before the deviation, obtain a revised clearance as soon as possible after the deviation.

If it is not possible to obtain a revised clearance within RVSM airspace in oceanic control area (OCA), you may initiate a temporary lateral offset procedure with the intention of returning to the cleared route as soon as possible.

Air defence identification zone flights (91.275)Aircraft entering an air defence identification zone (ADIZ) must comply with the published procedures in the AIP for that zone.

An air defence identification zone (ADIZ) is airspace of defined dimensions within which identification of all aircraft is required. Special requirements may be published relative to a particular ADIZ. When operating within an ADIZ, you must follow rules described in the AIP (ENR 1.12 -7).

Air traffic control clearances and instructions (91.265)You must comply with an ATC clearance or instruction.

Exception: If it is not practicable to obtain a clearance beforehand you may deviate from a clearance or instruction, provided it is for the safety of the aircraft and its occupants, and you advise ATC as soon as possible.

Use of radio outside controlled airspaces—listening watch of radio transmissions (91.640) If an aircraft is equipped with a radio and you are qualified to use it, you, or another pilot occupying a pilot seat, must monitor radio transmissions continuously when flying outside controlled airspace.

Aviation distress signals (91.700) A person who has made an aviation distress signal and the reason for making the signal no longer exists must cancel the signal, where the state of the aircraft’s radio and the aircraft’s location allow, and as soon as the circumstances permit.

Standard visual signals (91.670) A person must use standard visual signals when marshalling aircraft.

You must comply with a standard visual signal during a flight unless you reasonably believe that doing so is likely to endanger the safety of the aircraft, any person or property.

A person must not display a standard visual signal if it is likely to endanger the safety of the aircraft, any person or property as a result.

Standard visual signals include light signals, ground marks and hand signals.



Light signals to aircraft on an aerodrome or in flight (MOS 20.02)The following table shows prescribed aircraft light signals.

Table 8: Light signals to aircraft on an aerodrome or in flight

On ground Light mode In flight

Authorised to take-off if pilot is satisfied that no collision risk exists

Green

Authorised to land if pilot is satisfied that no collision risk exists

Authorised to taxi if pilot is satisfied that no collision risk exists

Green flashing

Return for landing

Stop

Red

Give way to other aircraft Continue circling

Taxi clear of landing area In use

Red flashing

Do not land Aerodrome unsafe

Return to starting point on aerodrome

White flashing

Note: A series of projectiles, each discharged at intervals of 10 seconds, showing, on bursting, red or green lights, or stars, may be used to indicate that an aircraft is in the vicinity of a restricted or prohibited area.



Ground marks for aircraft at aerodromes (MOS 20.3)The standard grounds marks for aircraft at aerodromes are set out in the following table.

Table 9: Ground marks for aircraft at aerodromes

Ground Signal

Description

White cross White double cross Horizontal white dumbbell

Where displayed

(a) Adjacent to wind direction indicator(b) On manoeuvring area

Adjacent to wind direction indicator

Adjacent to wind direction indicator

Meaning

(a) Aerodrome completely unservicable(b) An area marked by a cross or crosses with the limit delineated by markers is unfit for use by aircraft

Gliding operations in progress

Use only hard surface movement areas. Where there are sealed and gravel manoeuvring ares, use only the sealed surfaces. Where there are constructed gravel and natural surface manoeuvring areas, use only the gravel surfaces (see ERSA FAC for any local information relating to the dumbbell signal).

Image | Tobias Barth | stock.adobe.com



Hand signals for marshalling aircraft at aerodromes (MOS 20.04)The hand signals depicted and described in the following diagrams are those prescribed for ground personnel (signallers) marshalling aircraft at an aerodrome.

Wing-walker/guideRaise right hand above head level with wand pointing up; move left hand with wand pointing down and repeatedly wave to and from the body.

Note: This signal provides an indication by a person positioned at the aircraft wing tip, to the pilot/marshaller or push-back operator, that the aircraft movement on/off a parking position would be unobstructed.

Identify gateRaise fully extended arms straight above head with wands pointing up.

Proceed to next signaller or as directed by tower/ground controlPoint both arms upward; move and extend arms outward to sides of body and point with wands to direction of next signaller or taxi area.

Straight aheadBend extended arms at elbows and move wands up and down from chest height to head.

Turn left (from pilot’s viewpoint)With right arm and wand extended at a 90-degree angle to body, make ‘come ahead’ signal with left hand. The rate of signal motion indicates the rate of aircraft turn to the pilot.

Turn right (from pilot’s viewpoint)With left arm and wand extended at a 90-degree angle to body, make ‘come ahead’ signal with right hand. The rate of signal motion indicates the rate of aircraft turn to the pilot.

Normal stopFully extend arms and wands at a 90-degree angle to sides and slowly move to above head until wands cross.

Emergency stopAbruptly extend arms and wands to top of head, crossing wands.



Set brakesRaise hand just above shoulder height with open palm. Ensuring eye contact with flight crew, close hand into a fist. Do not move until receipt of ‘thumbs-up’ acknowledgement from flight crew.

Release brakesRaise hand just above shoulder height with hand closed in a fist. Ensuring eye contact with flight crew, open palm. Do not move until receipt of ‘thumbs-up’ acknowledgement from flight crew.

Chocks insertedWith arms and wands fully extended above head, move wands inward in a jabbing motion until wands touch. Ensure acknowledgement is received from flight crew.

Chocks removedWith arms and wands fully extended above head, move wands outward in a jabbing motion. Do not remove chocks until authorised by flight crew.

Start engine(s)

Raise right arm to head level with wand pointing up and start a circular motion with hand; at the same time, with left arm raised above head level, point to engine to be started.

Cut enginesExtend arm with wand forward of body at shoulder level; move hand and wand to top of left shoulder and draw wand to top of right shoulder in a slicing motion across throat.

Slow downMove extended arms downwards in a patting gesture, moving wands up and down from waist to knees.

Slow down engine(s) on indicated sideWith arms down and wands toward ground, wave either right or left wand up and down indicating engine(s) on left or right side respectively should be slowed down.



Move backWith arms in front of body at waist height, rotate arms in a forward motion. To stop rearward movement, use signal 7 or 8.

Turns while backing (for tail to starboard)Point left arm with wand down and bring right arm from overhead vertical position to horizontal forward position, repeating right-arm movement.

Turns while backing (for tail to port)Point right arm with wand down and bring left arm from overhead vertical position to horizontal forward position, repeating left-arm movement.

Affirmative/all clearRaise right arm to head level with wand pointing up or display hand with ‘thumbs-up’; left arm remains at side by knee.

Note: This signal is also used as a technical/servicing communication signal.

Hover (rotorcraft) Fully extend arms and wands at a 90-degree angle to sides.

Move upwards (rotorcraft) Fully extend arms and wands at a 90-degree angle to sides and, with palms turned up, move hands upwards. Speed of movement indicates rate of ascent.

Move downwards (rotorcraft)Fully extend arms and wands at a 90-degree angle to sides and, with palms turned down, move hands downwards. Speed of movement indicates rate of descent.

Move horizontally left (from pilot’s point of view) (rotorcraft)Extend arm horizontally at a 90-degree angle to right side of body. Move other arm in same direction in a sweeping motion.



Move horizontally right (from pilot’s point of view) (rotorcraft)Extend arm horizontally at a 90-degree angle to left side of body. Move other arm in same direction in a sweeping motion.

Land (rotorcraft)Cross arms with wands downwards and in front of body.

Hold position/stand byFully extend arms and wands downwards at a 45-degree angle to sides. Hold position until aircraft is clear for next manoeuvre.

Dispatch aircraftPerform a standard salute with right hand and/or wand to dispatch the aircraft. Maintain eye contact with flight crew until aircraft has begun to taxi.

Do not touch controls (technical/servicing communication signal)Extend right arm fully above head and close fist or hold wand in horizontal position; left arm remains at side by knee.

Connect ground power (technical/servicing communication signal)Hold arms fully extended above head; open left hand horizontally and move fingertips of right hand into and touch open palm of left hand (forming a ‘T’). At night, illuminated wands can also be used to form the ‘T’ above head.

Disconnect power (technical/servicing communication signal)Hold arms fully extended above head with fingertips of right hand touching open horizontal palm of left hand (forming a ‘T’); then move right hand away from the left. Do not disconnect power until authorised by flight crew. At night, illuminated wands can also be used to form the ‘T’ above head.



Negative (technical/servicing communication signal)Hold right arm straight out at 90 degrees from shoulder and point wand down to ground or display hand with ‘thumbs down’; left hand remains at side by knee.

Establish communication via interphone (technical/servicing communication signal)Extend both arms at 90 degrees from body and move hands to cup both ears.

Open/close stairs (technical/servicing communication signal)With right arm at side and left arm raised above head at a 45-degree angle, move right arm in a sweeping motion towards top of left shoulder.

Note: This signal is intended mainly for aircraft with the set of integral stairs at the front.

There are specific hand signals for emergency communications between the aircraft rescue and firefighting (ARFF) incident commander/ARFF firefighters and the cockpit and/or cabin crews of the incident aircraft. ARFF emergency hand signals should be given from the left front side of the aircraft for the flight crew.

Note: To communicate more effectively with cabin crew, ARFF firefighters may give emergency hand signals from other positions.

Recommend evacuationEvacuation recommended based on ARFF and incident commander’s assessment of external situation.

Arm extended from body and held horizontal with hand upraised at eye level. Execute beckoning arm motion angled backward. Non-beckoning arm held against body. Night signal, the same with wands.

Recommended stopRecommend evacuation in progress be halted. Stop aircraft movement or other activity in progress.

Arms in front of head, crossed at wrists.

Night signal, the same with wands.



Emergency containedNo outside evidence of dangerous conditions or ‘all-clear’.

Arms extended outward and down at a 45-degree angle. Arms moved inward below waistline simultaneously until wrists crossed, then extended outward to starting position (umpire’s ‘safe’ signal).


FireMove right hand in a fanning motion from shoulder to knee, while at the same time pointing with left hand to area of fire.


Note: Bare hands, gloved hands, bats, wands, or torches may be used to provide the hand signal.

The signals are designed for use by the signaller with hands illuminated as necessary to facilitate observation by the pilot, and facing the aircraft in a position:

› for an aeroplane—on the left side of the aeroplane where best be seen by the pilot

› for a rotorcraft—where the signaller can best be seen by the pilot

› for an emergency—as far as practicable, in front of the aircraft’s port wing where the signaller, including the rescue and firefighting personnel, can best be seen by the pilot or cabin crew as required.

For a signaller facing an aircraft, the engines are numbered from right to left as viewed by the signaller, so that the pilot’s port (left) outer engine is the signaller’s No. 1 engine.

Interception of aircraft (91.695)The procedures if you are intercepted by another aircraft during your flight are as follows.

Interception of aircraft (MOS 20.05 ENR 1.12)You must comply with the applicable procedures for an intercepted aircraft as set out in:

› ICAO Annex 2 – Appendix 1 – Signals—Section 2 - Signals for use in the event of interception

› ICAO Annex 2 – Appendix 2 - Interception of Civil Aircraft, Attachment A - Interception of Civil Aircraft.

Note: Access relevant ICAO documents at www.icao.int/publications/Pages/default.aspx

See ENR 1.12 Interception of aircraft, for a complete explanation of signals.



http://www.icao.int/publications/Pages/default.aspx

8. FuelFuel requirements (91.455) When planning for, and during, a flight you must comply with the fuel requirements as follows.

These include ensuring the aircraft has sufficient fuel to complete the flight safely, the amount of fuel you must carry, what you must do to monitor fuel and when fuel reaches specified amounts.

Usable fuel required for a flight (MOS 9.03)In calculating the quantity of usable fuel to complete the flight safely, you must consider the following:

› the aircraft’s specific fuel consumption data in the form of:

» the aircraft’s current specific fuel consumption data derived from a fuel consumption monitoring system (if available), or

» the fuel consumption data provided by the engine, or aircraft, manufacturer

› the operating conditions for the planned flight, including the:

» anticipated weight of the aircraft

» relevant NOTAMs

» relevant meteorological reports and forecasts

» relevant ATS procedures, restrictions and anticipated delays

» the effects of deferred maintenance items and configuration deviations

› the potential for deviations from the planned flight because of unforeseen factors.

Amount of fuel to be carried (MOS 9.04)The final reserve and contingency fuel you must carry for a flight are set out in the following table.

Table 10: Final reserve fuel and contingency fuel requirements

Aircraft (by aircraft category)

Kind of flight (by flight rules)

Final reserve fuel flight time

Contingency fuel amount

Small aeroplane (piston engine or turboprop)

VFR 30 minutes

N/A


Night VFR 45 minutes

N/A


IFR 45 minutes

N/A

Turbojet engine aeroplane or large turboprop aeroplane

IFR or VFR

30 minutes

5% of trip fuel

Large aeroplane (piston engine)

IFR or VFR

45 minutes

5% of trip fuel

Rotorcraft VFR 20 minutes

N/A

Rotorcraft Night VFR 30 minutes

N/A

Rotorcraft IFR 30 minutes

N/A

Amount of fuel that must be carried for a flight (MOS 9.05)Before you fly, you must calculate the quantity of fuel on board and record the quantity of usable fuel.

The required amount of usable fuel on board at the commencement of a flight must include:

› taxi fuel

› trip fuel

› contingency fuel (if applicable)

› alternate fuel (if required)

› final reserve fuel

› holding fuel (if required)

› additional fuel (if applicable).



Procedures for fuel monitoring during a flight (MOS 9.06, ENR 1.1-100)You must carry out fuel quantity checks at regular intervals throughout your flight, and evaluate the usable fuel remaining to:

› compare planned fuel consumption with actual fuel consumption, and

› determine that the usable fuel remaining is sufficient to complete the planned flight, and

› determine the expected usable fuel remaining on arrival at the destination, and

› trigger in-flight re-planning of the flight if the usable fuel remaining is insufficient to complete the planned flight.

The required amount of usable fuel on board to continue a flight must include:

› trip fuel





The required amount of usable fuel on board to continue a flight from the point of in-flight re-planning must include:

› trip fuel

› contingency fuel (if applicable)





The use of fuel after a flight commences for purposes other than as planned during pre-flight planning, must be based on a re-analysis and, if applicable, an adjustment, of the planned flight.

Procedures if fuel reaches specified amounts (MOS 9.07 ENR 1.1-101)If an in-flight fuel quantity check shows that the usable fuel on arrival at the destination aerodrome would be less than:

› the required alternate fuel plus final reserve fuel—you must:

» having taken into account the likely traffic and operational conditions on arrival—plan for a safe landing at the destination aerodrome, the destination alternate or another en-route alternate, and

» proceed to whichever of those aerodromes will enable you to make a safe landing with not less than final reserve fuel remaining, or

› the final reserve fuel (where no alternate aerodrome is required)—you must proceed to an en-route alternate to enable you to make a safe landing with not less than final reserve fuel remaining.

If having committed to land at a specific aerodrome, you calculate that any change to the existing clearance to that aerodrome may result in landing with less than the final reserve fuel, you must advise ATS of a ‘Minimum fuel’ state if you have a radio-equipped aircraft.

If the calculated usable fuel on landing at the nearest aerodrome where you can make a safe landing is less than the final reserve fuel, and the aircraft is radio-equipped, you must declare a fuel emergency by broadcasting ‘MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY FUEL’ to the ATS.

Note: The fuel emergency declaration is a distress message.



It is fundamental to flight safety that you have sufficient fuel including final reserve (often called fixed fuel reserve) before you depart. It is also important to exercise sound fuel management during your flight.

The regulations require minimum fuel reserves to be included when planning your flight and having your final reserve still available at the time of landing at your destination. By applying inflight fuel management and monitoring techniques as you progress to your destination you may discover that you would be landing at your planned destination without sufficient final fuel reserves remaining.

If this occurs, you should make an alternative plan to land safely at a different location than you had originally planned. Your new safe landing location will depend on your aircraft capabilities and the conditions. However, if a safe landing location is not an option and you are landing with less than your final fuel reserve and your aircraft is equipped with a radio then you must declare ‘MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY FUEL’.

Preserving final fuel reserve is a foundation for in flight fuel decision making which leads to safer operations. This doesn’t mean that that in all instances preserving your final fuel reserve is the highest priority. There may be occasions where it is more important to exercise judgement to determine the safest outcome, which may include landing with less than final fuel reserve.

Why declare ‘Mayday fuel’.

The ‘Mayday fuel’ declaration aims to increase safety. It alerts other airspace users to a potential fuel problem facing an aircraft in their vicinity and ensures priority is given to that aircraft to reduce the chances of an accident.

The declaration is an internationally recognised standard aligning Australia with the International Civil Aviation Organization standards designed to manage aviation safety risks.

Mandating the declaration of ‘Mayday fuel’ is not aimed at setting conditions to prosecute pilots or operators, nor does it automatically mean that emergency services will be mobilised.

Oil requirements (91.460)An aircraft must carry sufficient oil to complete the flight safely.

Contaminated, degraded or inappropriate fuels (91.465) An aircraft must not be fuelled or supplied with contaminated, degraded or inappropriate fuel.



Image | Duncan Grant

Fire hazards (91.470)When an aircraft is being fuelled, a person must not create a fire hazard, or allow a fire hazard to exist, within 15 m of the aircraft or equipment used to fuel the aircraft.

All reasonable precautions against fire hazard should be taken. All equipment should be of sound design and must be maintained in safe working condition. Give particular attention to sources of ignition such as:

› persons smoking › incandescent carbon or naked flame

which could be emitted from the engine or associated equipment

› arcing between metallic parts of electrical circuits and components caused by: » operation of switch contacts » faulty cable terminals » breakdown of electrical insulation » moving contacts, or rotary electrical equipment

» accidental short circuiting or open circuiting

» exposure of hot parts to combustible matter

» overheating of working parts to the ignition temperature of any oils, fuel or other combustible matter in the vicinity of the engines.

In the case of a fuel spillage measuring more than 2 m in diameter, the fuelling overseer should:

› consider evacuation of the area (it is generally safer to evacuate upwind and upslope of any fuel spillage)

› notify the Aerodrome Rescue and Fire Fighting Service and comply with laid-down aerodrome procedures

› prevent the movement of persons or vehicles into the affected area and restrict all activities in the vicinity to reduce the risk of ignition.

You should not start vehicle engines within 6 m of a spillage until the area is declared safe.

Fuelling aircraft—firefighting equipment (91.475) During fuelling, at least 2 fire extinguishers must be readily available, positioned not less than 6 m and not more than 15 m from the fuelling point.

Each fire extinguisher must be of a type and capacity suitable for extinguishing fuel and electrical fire. A fuelling operation in Australia must comply with Australian/New Zealand Standard AS/NZS 1841.



Fuelling aircraft—Electrical bonding (91.480)When fuelling an aircraft, the aircraft and equipment used to fuel the aircraft must be electrically bonded.

Electrical bonding is important during fuelling to prevent static discharges in aircraft fuel tanks and hoses by ensuring the same electrical potential between the aircraft and the fuelling equipment. Before fuelling, the fuelling equipment must be bonded to the aircraft, and the filler nozzle must be bonded to the aircraft before removing the filler cap. Once fuelling has stopped, and the filler cap is replaced, all bonding can be removed.

Equipment or electronic devices operating near aircraft (91.485)

Operation of equipment or electronic device near aircraft during fuelling When an aircraft is being fuelled a person must not operate equipment or an electronic device within 15 m of a critical fuelling point for the aircraft.

Fuelling aircraft while equipment or electronic device is operated near aircraft A person must not fuel an aircraft when equipment or an electronic device is being operated within 15 m of a critical fuelling point of the aircraft.

Exceptions: The above requirements do not apply if the equipment or electronic device:

› is part of the aircraft or the aircraft’s fuelling equipment, or

› is designed for use during fuelling operations, or

› performs an aircraft servicing function and is safe for use within 15 m of a critical fuelling point for the fuelling of the aircraft, or

› complies with an industry standard about the safe use of equipment or electronic devices within 15 m of a critical fuelling point for the fuelling of the aircraft.

› the auxiliary power unit of the aircraft may be operated during fuelling if it is permitted by the AFM and started before fuelling begins

› an operating electronic device, hazardous to the process of fuelling only because it is designed to produce radio emissions (within the meaning of the Radiocommunications Act 1992), may be used but must be at least 6 m from each critical fuelling point when fuelling the aircraft.

Fuelling turbine-engine aircraft—low-risk electronic devices (91.490)

Use of device inside cabin of aircraft A person may only operate a low-risk electronic device inside the cabin of a turbine-engine aircraft being fuelled when you have given permission, and each cabin door within 3 m of a critical fuelling point is closed.

Use of device outside cabin of aircraft A person may operate a low-risk electronic device outside the cabin of a turbine-engine aircraft while it is being fuelled only if the device is operated more than 3 m from each critical fuelling point. A person may also operate a low-risk electronic device outside the cabin of a turbine-engine aircraft while it is being fuelled and the device is operated less than 3 m from each critical fuelling point, if the person is employed or engaged by the operator and has successfully completed appropriate training.

Only turbine-engine aircraft to be hot fuelled (91.495)Only turbine-engine aircraft may be hot fuelled.




Hot fuelling aircraft—general (91.500) Before hot fuelling a turbine-engine aircraft the following requirements must be met:

› it must be safe to do so, and

» any propeller of an aeroplane must not be within 2.5 m of the fuelling point used for the hot fuelling, and

» a person using the fuelling point must be separated from the propeller by a part of the aeroplane’s structure (such as a wing), and

» must not be able to move directly into the propeller’s arc from the fuelling point

› the doors on the fuelling side of the aircraft are closed, and

› at least 1 door on the non-fuelling side of the aircraft is open, and

› the fuelling system must not allow fuel to be exposed to the atmosphere, and

› the person fuelling the aircraft must have a means available for cutting off the fuel supply at its point of entry into the aircraft’s fuel tank quickly, and

› the person in charge of the aircraft, or the person at the aircraft’s controls, must maintain communication with the person fuelling the aircraft by means of an electronic communication system, or visual contact and an agreed system of signals.

Hot fuelling aircraft—procedures etc (91.505) Hot fuelling of an aircraft may only be undertaken when the aircraft flight manual contains:

› procedures and circumstances for hot fuelling

› procedures for hot fuelling if an emergency occur.

A person who is directly involved in hot fuelling must also be briefed about compliance, with the procedures and circumstances above.

Fuelling aircraft—persons on aircraft, boarding or disembarking (91.510)

Highly volatile fuelFuelling an aircraft with highly volatile fuel must not begin, or continue, when a person other than a crew member is onboard, boarding, or is disembarking the aircraft.

Other than highly volatile fuelFuelling an aircraft with other than highly volatile fuel, must not begin or continue when a person other than a crew member is onboard, boarding, or is disembarking the aircraft unless the pilot holds an approval to fuel the aircraft in those circumstances.

Note: If regs 121.240, 133.195 or 135.220 applies to the operation, this regulation does not apply.

A highly volatile fuel is one which easily evaporates when brought into contact with the air. In aviation, this generally refers to AVGAS or MOGAS fuel. Fuel ‘other than highly volatile’ generally refers to AVTUR or kerosene (also see the definition of ‘highly volatile fuel’ in the CASR dictionary.)

Although the regulation does provide for the pilot to be approved when fuelling, with other than highly volatile fuel and a person other than a crew member is onboard, boarding or disembarking the aircraft, CASA does not recommend such activities under Part 91.

Fuelling aircraft if fuel vapour detected (91.515)If during fuelling fuel vapour is detected in the aircraft anytime a person other than a crew member is onboard, boarding or disembarking, the aircraft, fuelling must stop.



9. Pre-flight planning and preparationFlight preparation (weather assessment) requirements (91.230)You must comply with the following flight preparation requirements.

Forecasts for flight planning (MOS 7.02 ENR 1.10 - 2) Before commencing a flight, you must study the current authorised weather forecast and authorised weather report for your planned route and aerodromes, as well as any other reasonably available relevant weather information, including the following:

› IFR flights−For a destination with an instrument approach procedure: aerodrome forecasts for the departure, destination and when required, the alternate aerodrome; a wind and temperature forecast; and one of the following:

» for any operation—a flight forecast, or

» for a flight at or below 10,000 ft AMSL, a graphical area forecast (GAF)

» for a flight above 10,000 ft AMSL, a significant weather forecast (SIGWX).

› IFR flights−For a destination without an instrument approach procedure: the current weather forecast must be at least a GAF.

› All flights: the authorised weather forecast must cover the whole period of the flight.

» for the destination and alternate aerodromes nominated in a flight plan, an aerodrome forecast must be valid for at least 30 minutes before, and 60 minutes after, the planned ETA

» when a flight is delayed so that the meteorological and operational information does not cover the period of the flight, you must obtain updates, as necessary, to allow the flight to be conducted safely.

If you obtain a pre-flight briefing more than 1 hour before your estimated departure, you must obtain an updated authorised weather forecast for the flight.

You may obtain a wind and temperature forecast from wind and temperature charts, grid point wind and temperature charts, route sector wind and temperature forecasts, a NAIPS wind and temperature profile (applicable for the flight), as well as from approved flight planning systems deriving data from the Bureau of Meteorology or the WAFS (refer ENR1.10-22).




Flights unable to obtain an authorised weather forecast before departure (MOS 7.03 ENR 1.10 – 2, 1.2.2)If you cannot obtain a current weather forecast or report before flying, you may depart, provided you reasonably consider that the weather conditions at the departure aerodrome will allow you to return and land safely within 1 hour after take-off.

You must return to the departure aerodrome if you do not obtain an authorised weather forecast within 30 minutes after take-off.

Figure 12: Departure aerodrome return decision

If you are flying to a destination where you need an aerodrome forecast, but cannot obtain one, or it is ‘provisional’, you may fly provided you nominate an alternate aerodrome on the flight plan, and it meets alternate aerodrome requirements of the regulations and the MOS applicable to your flight.

Flight preparation alternate aerodromes requirements (91.235)When flight preparation requires an alternate aerodrome, you must comply with the following flight preparation (alternate aerodrome) requirements.

Alternate aerodromes—flight planning—general (MOS 8.02, ENR 1.1- 89)You may only nominate an aerodrome as an alternate aerodrome if:

› it is suitable as a destination, and

› the chosen aerodrome does not itself require an alternate.

If you are flying IFR to a destination without a current aerodrome weather forecast, you must nominate an alternate aerodrome that has a current authorised weather forecast.



Weather conditions—general (MOS 8.03, ENR1.1–89)Except when you are flying VFR by day within 50 NM of the departure aerodrome, you must provide for a suitable alternate aerodrome, when your ETA at the destination will be during the currency of, or up to 30 minutes before, the forecast commencement, and any of the following weather conditions are forecast:

› cloud—more than SCT below the prescribed IFR or VFR alternate minimum below as applicable

› visibility—either:

» less than the alternate minimum, or

» equal to, or greater than, the alternate minimum, but the forecast comes with at least a 30% probability of fog, mist, dust or any other phenomenon restricting visibility below the alternate minimum

› wind—a crosswind or downwind component more than the maximum for the aircraft.

Weather conditions—rotorcraft— VMC alternate requirements (MOS 8.04, ENR 1.1-90)You must nominate an alternate when flying a rotorcraft VFR, and the flight is permissible at the destination, in rotorcraft VMC, and either of the following weather conditions are forecast at the destination:

› cloud—more than SCT below a ceiling of 1000 ft, or

› visibility—less than 3000 m.

Note: See the VMC criteria, as well as VFR cruising levels (reg 91.280), for rotorcraft flying requirements in rotorcraft VMC.

Conditions when an alternate is not required (MOS 8.05, ENR 1.1- 90)You do not need to nominate an alternate aerodrome if the weather conditions at the destination are forecast:

› to be below the alternate minima values, and the weather conditions are expected to improve at a specific time, and the aircraft has sufficient fuel to allow it to hold for at least 30 minutes after the specific time, or

› to be above the alternate minima values, and intermittent (INTER) or temporary (TEMPO) deteriorations in the weather are forecast below the values, and the aircraft has sufficient fuel to hold for:

» 30 minutes INTER, and

» 60 minutes TEMPO.

For more information, see AIP ENR 1.1-90 ENR 1.1-91

Where a forecast has multiple INTER or TEMPO deteriorations, the fuel carried must be for the most limiting requirement.

Alternate or holding fuel requirements (MOS 8.06.ENR 1.1- 91) Where a thunderstorm or associated severe turbulence, or at least a 30% probability of this is forecast at the destination aerodrome, you must carry sufficient fuel to either proceed to an alternate aerodrome or have holding fuel for the forecast INTER (30 minutes) or TEMPO (60 minutes).

At all times when a forecast mentions, INTER or TEMPO

› You must carry fuel for the INTER or TEMPO period when the ETA at the destination or alternate aerodrome falls within the period:

» beginning 30 minutes before the forecast time of commencement of the deterioration or thunderstorm event, and

» ending 30 minutes after the forecast time of cessation of the deterioration or thunderstorm event, or

› sufficient fuel to hold for at least 30 minutes after the forecast time of cessation of the deteriorations or thunderstorm event.



Figure 13: Alternate or holding fuel

If a forecast has multiple INTER or TEMPO deteriorations, you must carry fuel for holding, and the fuel must be that for the most limiting requirement.

When terminal area forecast (TAF) for a destination aerodrome include a FM or a BECMG, creating an operational requirement, that operational requirement becomes effective 30 minutes before the start of the FM time, or 30 minutes before the start of the BECMG period.

When the weather forecast following the FM or BECMG removes an operational requirement, it remains effective until 30 minutes after the FM time, or 30 minutes after the end of the BECMG period.

Trend type forecasts (MOS 8.0, ENR1.1-91)When using a trend type forecast (TTF) for the destination aerodrome, the 30-minute buffer periods mentioned (under ‘Alternate holding fuel’ requirements above) do not apply, provided you complete the flight within the validity time of the TTF and plan wholly by reference to that TTF.

The TTF for a destination aerodrome may have either 1 or 2 visibilities included in the report. Operational requirements to carry holding fuel or plan for an alternate apply if:

› the 1 visibility is less than the alternate minimum, or

› the higher of 2 visibilities is less than the alternate minimum.

When a flight cannot use a TTF, you may plan a flight on the current TAF until such time as the destination ETA falls within the validity period of a TTF.

IFR alternate minima (MOS 8.08, ENR1.1-92)For an IFR flight, the alternate minima are as follows:

› for an aerodrome with an instrument approach, the alternate minima published on the relevant approach chart

› for an aerodrome without an instrument approach, the alternate minima are:

» the LSALT for the final route segment or the grid lowest safe altitude, and

» an additional 500 ft and a visibility of 8 km.

You must make provision for a suitable alternate at an aerodrome with an instrument approach where an aerodrome forecast is unavailable.



VFR alternate minima (MOS 8.09, ENR 1.1-92 and ENR 1.2 & 2.5)

Table 11: VFR alternate minima

Aircraft Operation Alternate minimaAeroplane Day VFR or night

VFR1. Cloud more than SCT below a ceiling of 1500 ft, and2. Visibility of less than 8 km

Rotorcraft Day VFR 1. Cloud more than SCT below a ceiling of 1500 ft; and2. Visibility of less than 8 kmIf rotorcraft VMC is possible:1. Cloud more than SCT below a ceiling of 1000 ft, and2. Visibility of less than 3000 mNote: See section (weather conditions – rotorcraft VMC alternate requirements)

Rotorcraft Night VFR 1. Cloud more than SCT below a ceiling of 1500 ft, and2. Visibility of less than 8 km

IFR special alternate minima (MOS 8.10, ENR 1.5–38)Special alternate minima may be applied for operations by aircraft with dual ILS and VOR approach capability that is, with duplicated LOC, G/P, marker and VOR receivers. The requirement for dual marker receivers may be met by having 1 marker receiver plus DME.

Note: The requirements for DME may be met with either DME or GNSS equipment

Special alternate minima must not be used in any of following circumstances:

› when an aerodrome control service is not provided

› when an authorised weather forecast or authorised weather report services are not provided and not available for the aerodrome

› when ground equipment associated with the approach aid has been unserviceable for more than 7 days and continues to be unserviceable.

If after 7 days the ground equipment remains unserviceable, the non-availability of special approach minima will be published in NOTAM.

The special alternate minima where available is depicted on IAP charts in the Notes section.

Alternate aerodromes—navigation requirements (MOS 8.11, ENR 1.1-92)A flight planned to be flown IFR on the last route segment to its destination must provide for a suitable alternate, unless there is a published instrument approach for the destination and the aircraft has a navigation system capable of using the approach. However, you may plan an IFR flight by day to a destination that does not have an instrument approach, provided:

› not more than SCT cloud is forecast below the final route segment LSALT plus 500 ft, and forecast visibility at the destination aerodrome is not less than 8 km, and

› you can navigate to the destination in accordance with the IFR requirements. Where navigational capability is based on GNSS equipment certified to (E)TSO C-129, ADF or VOR navigation to meet the alternate aerodrome navigation requirement.

Note: (E)TSO C-129) may be obtained at http://rgl.faa.gov/Regulatory_and_Guidance_Library/rgTSO.nsf/MainFrame?OpenFrameSet

Runway lighting—alternate aerodrome requirements (MOS 8.12 ENR 1.1-94)Portable lighting—You must make provision for an alternate aerodrome when you plan to land at night at an aerodrome with portable runway lighting, except when you have made reliable arrangements for a qualified and responsible person to attend from at least 30 minutes before your ETA, until you land and taxi.



http://rgl.faa.gov/Regulatory_and_Guidance_Library/rgTSO.nsf/MainFrame?OpenFrameSet

Standby power—When you plan to land at night at an aerodrome with electric runway lighting, whether PAL or otherwise, but without standby power, you must make provision for an alternate aerodrome except when:

› portable runway lights are available, and

› you have made reliable arrangements for a qualified and responsible person to attend to display these portable lights if the primary lighting fails, from at least 30 minutes before your ETA, until you land and taxi.

PAL—When you plan to land at night at a destination aerodrome with PAL and standby power, you must make provision for an alternate aerodrome equipped with runway lighting, unless you have made reliable arrangements for a qualified and responsible person to switch the aerodrome lighting on manually.

Alternate aerodromes—PAL. If you are flying an aircraft fitted with a single VHF radio, you may plan for a PAL-equipped aerodrome to be an alternate only if a responsible person attends to switch on the aerodrome lighting manually, and the aircraft has:

› HF communications, and

› 30 minutes of holding fuel.

Note: A responsible person does not have to be in attendance on the ground. The holding fuel requirement will allow ground staff to be alerted if the aircraft’s VHF communication fails.

Exception: The portable lighting, standby power, PAL and alternate aerodromes—PAL requirements do not apply when the aircraft carries fuel allowing it to hold until first light plus 10 minutes at the destination.

If an alternate aerodrome is nominated because of a requirement under the preceding paragraphs for standby power or PAL, the alternate aerodrome does not have to have standby power or portable runway lighting.

Qualified (when mentioned) for a responsible person means someone who is instructed in, and is competent to display, the standard runway lighting with portable lights.

Partial runway lighting failure—at a controlled aerodrome. If a lighting failure occurs on a runway and doubled spacing of runway edge lights (REDL) results, you must comply with the following requirements for an approach to land:

› in VMC—no restriction

› in less than VMC—the prevailing visibility must be equal to, or greater than, 1.5 times the published minimum.

Note 1: At a controlled aerodrome, if one electrical circuit on a runway equipped with interleaved circuitry lighting fails, pilots will be notified of a doubled spacing of runway edge lights—from 60 m to 120 m spacing.

Note 2: The published minimum is that for the instrument approach procedure being used for the aircraft’s arrival.

Alternate minima for IFR operations outside Australia (MOS 8.14)For operations outside Australia, you or the aircraft operator must use alternate minima criteria not less than the alternate minima criteria that applies in the foreign state where the aerodrome is located, unless the state does not specify alternate minima criteria.

In this case, when determining the alternate minima, you or the operator must:

› add a forecasting tolerance of 500 feet and a visibility tolerance of 2 km to the circling minima, or

› use the minima of the second lowest independent approach procedure suitable for the operation and for which the aircraft is equipped.

Note: Outside Australia, the criteria governing whether you must select an alternate aerodrome for a flight, and the criteria governing whether you can file an aerodrome as an alternate, may differ. The former may be in regulations and the latter published on charts.

If a foreign state’s forecast tolerance for determining whether to provide for an alternate aerodrome cannot be determined, or if the availability or reliability of the approach aid is doubtful, you must add a forecasting tolerance of 500 feet and a visibility tolerance of 2 km to the circling minima. The procedures used by each navigation system must be independent of each other, except for ILS with approved precision approach procedures with minima less than CAT I. When determining alternate criteria, you must not consider minima lower than CAT I.



If the aerodrome has straight-in procedures to a runway that is not suitable for the operation; and circling is approved, the alternate minima must not be lower than the circling minima plus forecast tolerances.

The alternate minima are whichever is the highest of the following:

› the values determined above

› the values determined by the foreign state in which the aerodrome is located, or

› 400 ft ceiling and 1600 m visibility if the values determined above are based entirely on precision landing minima

› 800 ft ceiling and 3000 m visibility if the values determined above are not based solely on precision landing minima.

You must assess alternate minima immediately before departure.

Note: Alternate minima vary with the aerodrome, the aircraft and radio aid serviceability; therefore, you must assess them immediately before departure.

The pilot is responsible for assessing the alternate minima immediately before departure, even if the operator has selected nominal values for a particular port.

For the above requirement, if the operator has selected a nominal value for a particular port for a particular period, the operator must demonstrate that the value will satisfy the requirements of this MOS for scheduled or nonscheduled IFR operations outside Australia which may occur during the time when the values selected apply.

For the above requirement, the demonstration must account for the 3 standard deviation wind values for both landing and crosswind components and may account for a downwind landing to the value allowed by the relevant aircraft’s certification.

Night VFR flights (MOS 8.15, ENR 1.1-93)When flying night VFR, you must provide an alternate aerodrome within 1 hour’s flight time of your destination unless:

› the destination is served by a ground-based radio navigation aid, and

› the aircraft has the appropriate radio navigation system capable of using the aid, and

› you are qualified to use it.

OR

› the aircraft has an approved GNSS receiver, and

› you are qualified to use it.

Specified aircraft performance categories (91.450) You must operate within the specified aircraft performance category for the aircraft on the instrument approach and landing chart at the aerodrome as specified in the following table.

Exception: A lower performance category may be used, provided the operator holds an approval. The operator must give the flight crew the approval details and any conditions CASA may have been imposed on the approval. If the aircraft has an approved lower performance category it must be operated in that category.



Table 12: Aircraft performance category–speeds in knots (MOS 2.02)

Aircraft performance category

Range of speeds for initial and intermediate approach (IAS)

Range of speeds for final approach

Max. speed for visual manoeuvring (circling)

Max. speed for missed approach

A – up to 90 VAT 90–150 70–100 100 110B – from 91 to 120 VAT 120–180 85–130 135 150C – from 121 to 140 VAT 160–240 115–160 180 240D – from 141 to 165 VAT 185–250 130–185 205 265E – from 166 to 210 VAT 185–250 155–230 240 275H – there is no calculated IAS 70–120 60–90 N/A 90

Note: VAT is the indicated airspeed (IAS) at the threshold which is equal to the stalling speed VSO multiplied by 1.3, or the stalling speed VS1G multiplied by 1.23. Both VSO and VS1G apply to aircraft in the landing configuration at the maximum certificated landing weight. If both VSO and VS1G are available for an aircraft, the higher resulting VAT must be used.

If aircraft handling speeds during an approach are in excess of those that would otherwise apply for the aircraft performance category mentioned in the table, the performance category must be increased.

If you operate the aircraft in a higher performance category, the aircraft must nevertheless remain within the range of speeds, or at the maximum speed specified in the IAL procedure.

MOS Part 2 and AIP ENR 1.5-1 provide an explanation of the performance categories that apply to different aircraft based on the VAT of the aircraft (except for CAT H) to determine the landing minima.

Flight plans and notifications (91.240)You must follow the flight planning and notification requirements prescribed in Chapter 10 of the Part 91 MOS. You will find these in in Appendix A of this guide.

Matters to be checked before take-off (91.245) Before take-off, you must complete the following checks.

Matters to be checked before takeoff (MOS11.02)Before commencing a flight, you must:

› obtain a prediction for GNSS RAIM integrity availability from a ground-based source if you plan an RNP approach at the intended destination or designated alternate

› undertake a prediction check for GNSS FDE availability for the intended route if flight navigation is to be based on use of GNSS in oceanic airspace, using the following parameters:

» the route or airspace RNP, where published, or

» a centreline space of:

– 20 NM for flight in CTA, and

– 50 NM for flight in OCA

› complete the checks for a pre-flight briefing.

These checks are:

› that the aircraft’s take-off, en-route and landing performance capabilities meet the performance requirements required by, or under, the regulations for the circumstances and conditions expected during the flight

› that you have sufficient fuel onboard to enable you to comply with the regulations

› by visual means, that the fuel is not contaminated by water or other foreign matter—unless you reasonably believe this check is not necessary




› for an Australian aircraft—that either the certificate of release to service for the most recent maintenance carried out on the aircraft, or a maintenance release, are on the aircraft; unless otherwise allowed under reg 91.110 (i.e. day VFR flight up to 50 NM, or in the training area)

› if required by the AFM—that the pre-flight inspection has been carried out

› all instruments, indicators, equipment and systems required to be fitted to, or carried on, the aircraft by, or under, the regulations are available and functioning properly

› the weight and balance will remain within the weight and balance limits throughout the flight

› carry-on baggage and catering equipment are securely stowed

› the hatches, access ports, panels and tank caps are secured

› the control locks, covers and similar ground safety devices have been removed

› the flight controls have been tested and are functioning correctly

› emergency and survival equipment carried on the aircraft is readily accessible (as applicable)

› the required flight and cabin crew for the flight are on duty; and each crew member is fit to perform their duties

› for each system fitted to the aircraft for measuring and displaying pressure altitude, a check of the system’s accuracy as described in Chapters 11.03 and 11.04 of the MOS

› the QNH has been set

› if an amount of supplemental oxygen or protective breathing equipment is required by, or under, the regulations to be carried for a flight crew member—the following checks (as the case requires) must be made:

» the required amount of supplemental oxygen is available

» the protective breathing equipment is operative

» the oxygen mask is connected to the supply terminal

» each communication system associated with the oxygen mask is connected to the aircraft’s communication system

» if an oxygen mask is adjustable—the mask fits the flight crew member correctly.

Pilots and operators should identify the requirements that must be addressed that are applicable to their aircraft operations. Checks of aircraft equipment should be completed in accordance with any criteria or limitation contained in the AFM, or where the AFM has no instruction for other equipment the manufacturer’s requirements or guidance for that equipment.

Although not mandatory, CASA recommends operators develop a flight checklist system that not only captures the relevant requirements before take-off but also checks that are called up in the AFM for other phases of flight including at least approach and landing.

AC 91-245 provides guidance on developing a flight check system.



Checking systems for measuring and displaying pressure altitude (MOS 11.03 ENR 1.7-1)When you check an aircraft’s pressure altitude systems, the aircraft must be at a known elevation and you must use accurate QNH. Before take-off, you must check the accuracy of each of the pressure altitude systems as follows.

Checking altimeters used for IFR flights (MOS 11.03 ENR 1.7 -1)Any pressure altitude system with an error in excess of ± 75 ft must be considered inoperative.

If the category of operation requires 2 pressure altitude systems:

› the first system must read the known elevation to within 60 ft, and

› if the second system has an error between 60 ft and 75 ft—you may fly to the first point of landing where the accuracy of the second system can be rechecked, and

› if, on rechecking, the second system shows an error in excess of 60 ft—the second system must be considered as inoperative for further IFR flight.

If the category of operation requires 1 pressure altitude system, but 2 are fitted, flight is permitted:

› if the first system reads the known elevation to within 60 ft, and

› if the second system has an error in excess of 75 ft—you must placard the second system as inoperative for IFR flight; and note the error in the aircraft’s flight technical log or aircraft maintenance release (as applicable).

Note: ‘Flight technical log’ has the same meaning as in Part 42; and ‘aircraft maintenance release’ has the same meaning as in CAR 30.

If the category of operation requires only 1 pressure altitude system; and

› the system has an error between 60 ft and 75 ft, you may fly to the first point of landing where the accuracy of the system can be rechecked, and

› if, on rechecking, the system shows an error in excess of 60 ft, the system must be considered as inoperative for further IFR flight.

Certain aircraft manufacturers may specify altimeter check criteria in the AFM more stringent to those stated here. You must comply with the AFM.

Checking altimeters used for VFR flight (MOS 11.04, ENR 1.7 – 2)A pressure altitude system used for a VFR flight that has an accurate QNH set, must read site elevation to within:

› 100 ft, or

› 110 ft at test sites above 3300 ft.

If an aircraft fitted with 2 pressure altitude systems continues to fly VFR with 1 system reading erroneously more than 100 ft (or 110 ft as the case may be), then you must:

› placard the faulty system as inoperative, and

› note the error in the aircraft’s flight technical log or aircraft maintenance release (as applicable).

If you plan to fly VFR above FL200, you must check the altimeter against the IFR altimeter requirements.

Accurate QNH and site elevation (MOS 11.05, ENR 1.7 – 2)QNH is to be considered accurate only if it is provided by one of the following:

› ATIS

› an ATC tower

› an automated weather information service.

You must not use area or forecast QNH for checking the accuracy of a pressure altitude system.

Site elevation must be derived from aerodrome survey data that is:

› authorised in writing:

» directly or indirectly by CASA, or

» by an NAA, or

› supplied in writing by the relevant aerodrome operator.



10. Ground operationsUse of aerodromes (91.410) You may take off or land only at one of the following places:

› a certified aerodrome

› a registered aerodrome

› a military aerodrome

› a place suitable to take off or land from.

At any of these places, the aircraft must be able to take off or land safely, considering all the circumstances, including the prevailing weather conditions.

Parked aircraft not to create hazard (91.420) A person must not park an aircraft in a place where it is a hazard to the movement of other aircraft.

Safety when aeroplane operating on ground (91.425)Only a qualified pilot, a person authorised to taxi the aeroplane (under Part 64), or a person listed in the Part 91 MOS may start the engine of an aeroplane on the ground, provided the aeroplane is secured from moving.

Currently Part 91 does not list person/s who may start the engine of an aeroplane

Hand starting an engine using the propeller—when you are hand starting the engine using the propeller, without assistance, you must secure the aeroplane from moving.

You may have another person in the pilot seat to assist with starting, to apply the brakes and engine controls including shutting down the engine, provided you or another qualified person has instructed them, and you are satisfied they are competent.

Safety when rotorcraft operating on ground (91.430) Only a qualified pilot may start an engine of a rotorcraft on the ground.

Taxiing aircraft (91.415) An aeroplane may only be taxied by a person, who is qualified under Part 61 or 64, or for a rotorcraft, under Part 61.

Taxiing or towing on movement area of aerodrome (91.365)Unless the aircraft or tow vehicle is being operated in accordance with an ATC clearance or instruction, when a person is taxiing or towing an aircraft on the movement area of an aerodrome, they must:

› give way to a landing aircraft, or one on its final approach to land

› give way to an aircraft taking off, or preparing to take off

› keep well clear of another aircraft when overtaking that aircraft

› give way to the aircraft on the right if both aircraft are on a converging course

› stop, or alter course to the right to remain clear of the aircraft approaching head on or approximately head on

› when giving way to an aircraft preparing to take off, taking off, landing, or on final approach to land, hold at the marked runway hold position, or where no hold position is marked, not encroach on a graded runway strip.

Exception: You may take whatever action is necessary to avoid a collision.



11. Aircraft performance and weight and balanceLoading of aircraft (91.805)At all times you must ensure that the aircraft is loaded and operated within the weight and balance limits of the AFM.

Take-off weights (91.795) You must not take off at a weight greater than:

› the aircraft’s maximum take-off weight, or

› the weight determined in accordance with the method prescribed in Chapter 28 of the Part 91 MOS for the circumstances.

Exception 1: this regulation does not apply to an aircraft being operated in accordance with a special flight permit.

Exception: Subpart 91.F does not apply to the aircraft’s operation if Subparts 121F, 133F, 135F and 138F apply

Circumstances for and methods of determining aircraft take-off weight (MOS 28.01)You must calculate the take-off weight of the aircraft:

› in accordance with the AFM instructions, or

› by using an equivalent methodology approved in writing by CASA.

Note: Provided it has been approved by CASA, an equivalent methodology could be an electronic load and trim system based on the AFM data and authorised by a weight control authority holder for the particular aircraft.

Take-off weight for an aircraft (MOS 28.02 & 28.03)You must determine the performance capability of the aeroplane or rotorcraft at the take-off weight, and you must not exceed the weight limitation contained in or derived from either:

› the AFM

› the manufacturer’s data manual (if any), or

› other data approved for the purpose.

› The take-off weight and performance capability must be such that the aircraft may take off safely without being a hazard to the aeroplane, a person or property.

For an aeroplane (MOS 28.02)When calculating the take-off weight and performance you must take into account:

› the take-off distance available

› the pressure altitude and temperature

› the gradient of the runway in the direction of the take-off

› the wind direction, velocity and characteristics

› the take-off and en-route weather forecast

› obstacles in the vicinity of the take-off path

› obstacles en-route.



For a rotorcraft (MOS 28.03)When calculating the take-off weight and performance you must take into account:

› the take-off distance available

› the adequacy of the size of the departure and destination aerodromes and any alternates


› the gradient of the take-off and initial climb stage of the flight

› the climb flight path

› either:

» the wind direction, velocity and characteristics—if known, or

» zero wind—if unknown

› the take-off and en-route weather forecast

› the obstacles in the vicinity of the take-off path

› the obstacles en-route.

For a Category A rotorcraft within populous areas (MOS 28.04)A Category A rotorcraft with a Category A performance supplement may only take off from a place in a populous area from a non-certified aerodrome (including a helicopter landing site [HLS]), or an aerodrome that is not used for the regular take-off or landing of aeroplanes if:

› the take-off weight allows compliance with the Category A procedure for take-off and initial departure at the relevant HLS; and

› either:

» you can ensure that the rotorcraft, with 1 engine inoperative, will maintain an obstacle clear climb gradient until 1000 ft above the take-off surface; or

» a circumstance mentioned in reg 91.315 applies.

Note: In the event of a critical engine failure, the Category A procedure allows for a rejected take-off within take-off distance available. If the critical engine failure occurs after the TDP, the Category A procedure allows for flight clear of persons and property.

Take-off weight for rotorcraft — Category B rotorcraft within populous areas (MOS 28.05)A Category B rotorcraft may take off from a place in a populous area, that is a non-certified aerodrome (including an HLS) or an aerodrome that is not used for the regular take-off or landing of aeroplanes only if:

› the rotorcraft’s weight allows sufficient performance for it to:

» avoid obstacles during the take-off and initial climb stage of the flight, and

» auto-rotate or fly clear of persons or property if there is a critical engine failure, and

› if the area is a confined area for the rotorcraft—the take-off weight allows hover-out-of-ground-effect performance for the take-off, and

› as far as practicable—the planned take-off profile minimises time within the avoid area of the HV curve.

Landing weights (91.800) You must not land at a weight greater than:

› the aircraft’s maximum landing weight, or

› the weight determined in accordance with the following methods.

Landing weight for an aircraft (MOS 29.02 & 29.03)You must not land an aeroplane or rotorcraft unless you have calculated its landing weight and performance capability so you can land safely without being a hazard to the aircraft, a person or property.

You must determine the performance capability of the aeroplane or rotorcraft at the landing weight and you must not exceed the weight limitation contained in, or derived from, either,

› the AFM

› the manufacturer’s data manual (if any)

› other data approved for the purpose.



Landing weight for an aeroplane (MOS 29.02)When calculating your landing weight, you must take into account:

› the landing distance available


› the gradient of the runway in the direction of the landing

› the wind direction, velocity and characteristics

› the landing weather forecast

› the obstacles in the approach path.

Landing weight for a rotorcraft (MOS 29.03)When calculating your landing weight, you must take into account:

› the final approach and take-off (FATO) distance available

› the adequacy of the size of the destination aerodromes and any alternates


› the gradient of the approach and any missed approach

› either:

» the wind direction, velocity and characteristics—if known, or

» zero wind—if unknown

› the en-route and destination weather forecast

› the obstacles in the vicinity of the approach path.

Landing weight for a rotorcraft— Category A rotorcraft within a populous area (MOS 29.04)A Category A rotorcraft with a Category A performance supplement, may only land at a place in a populous area that is a non-certified aerodrome (including an HLS), or an aerodrome that is not used for the regular take-off or landing of aeroplanes if:

› the landing weight allows compliance with the Category A procedure for landing and missed approach at the HLS, and

› the pilot can ensure that the rotorcraft, with 1 engine inoperative, will maintain an obstacle clear approach gradient, including any missed approach.

Note: If there is a critical engine failure at, or after, the landing decision point, the Category A procedure allows you to make a continued approach clear of persons and property and a landing within the landing distance available at the HLS.

Landing weight for rotorcraft—category B rotorcraft within a populous area (MOS 29.05)A Category B rotorcraft may land at a place in a populous area that is a non-certified aerodrome (including an HLS), or an aerodrome that is not used for the regular take-off or landing of aeroplanes only if:

› the rotorcraft’s weight allows sufficient performance for the rotorcraft to:

» avoid obstacles during the landing and any missed approach stage of the flight, and

» auto-rotate or fly clear of persons or property if there is a critical engine failure, and

› the area is a confined area for the rotorcraft—the landing weight allows hover-out-of-ground-effect performance for the landing, and

› as far as practicable, the planned landing profile minimises time within the avoid area of the HV curve.



12. In flight91.280 Definitions (for specified cruising levels)specified IFR cruising level, for a track, means a cruising level prescribed by the Part 91 MOS for an IFR flight on the track.

specified VFR cruising level, for a track, means a cruising level prescribed by the Part 91 MOS for a VFR flight on the track.

Specified IFR cruising level (MOS 13.02, ENR 1.7 - 8)The specified IFR cruising level for the aircraft’s track is shown in the figure 14.

Figure 14: Specified IFR cruising level

Note: Cruising level for an aircraft flown north of latitude 80 degrees south must be selected in accordance with the magnetic track and aircraft flown south of latitude 80 degrees south in accordance with the true track.

IFR flights—class G airspace (MOS 13.03 ENR 1.7- 5)If you are flying IFR outside controlled airspace, and you are unable to fly at the specified cruising level, you must advise the appropriate ATS unit of your intended cruising level and any subsequent changes.

In the event of conflict with another aircraft cruising in compliance with the specified level, you must give way, or assume another specified level until the conflicting aircraft is past and clear.

Specified VFR cruising level (MOS 13.04 ENR 1.7 – 9)The specified VFR cruising level for the aircraft track for VFR flights cruising at or above 3000 ft AMSL and above 1000 ft AGL is shown in figure 15.

Figure 15: Specified VFR cruising levels

Note: Pilots should be aware that aircraft flying VFR outside controlled airspace may be operating at random levels at or below 5000 ft AMSL.

Note: Cruising level for an aircraft flown north of latitude 80 degrees south must be selected in accordance with the magnetic track and aircraft flown south of latitude 80 degrees south in accordance with the true track.

VFR flights in class A airspace must be approved (see reg 91.080).

VFR flights below 3000 ft (MOS 13.04 ENR 1.7-8)If you are flying below 3000 ft AMSL or below 1000 ft AGL, as far as practicable, the specified cruising level for the aircraft’s magnetic track is shown in figure 15.

Altimeter setting procedures (MOS 14.01, ENR 1.7-2)The requirements relating to altimeter setting procedures to be used during prescribed stages of a flight are set out in figure 16.

Transition altitude, transition layer and transition level (MOS 14.02 ENR 1.7 - 4)The transition altitude is 10,000 ft. The transition level of 11,000 ft is as described in figure 16 and varies when an area QNH is below 1013.2 mb.



Figure 16: Positions to change between QNH and 1013.2 hPa

Altimetry

FL125 Not available when area QNH is below 963 hPa




Note: Local QNH of a station along the route within 100 nm of the aircraft.

Note: The intention is to retain a minimum buffer of 1000 ft above the transition altitude.

You must not cruise within the transition layer.

If you are flying below the transition altitude, you must use the following altimeter setting:

› the current local QNH (either an accurate QNH from an ATIS, ATC tower, AWIS) or a forecast QNH of a station along the route within 100 NM of the aircraft; or

› if the current local QNH is not known—the current area forecast QNH.

If you are flying at, or above, the transition altitude, you must use an altimeter setting of 1013.2 hPa.

On climb, you must change between QNH and 1 013.2 hPa after passing 10,000 ft and before levelling off. On descent, you must change between 1 013.2 hPa and the QNH before entering the transition layer.

Instrument approaches—QNH sources (MOS14.03)When flying an instrument approach, before you pass the IAF, you must set one of the following:

› the actual aerodrome QNH from an approved source

› the forecast aerodrome QNH

› the actual QNH (within a 100 km radius) from an approved source

› the forecast area QNH.

You must not use an actual aerodrome QNH for an instrument approach more than 15 minutes after receiving it.

If you use the forecast area QNH, you must increase the minima for the instrument approach by 50 ft.



Specified VFR cruising levels (91.285)You must fly VFR at a specified cruising level for the aircraft track unless:

› in non-controlled airspace, the aircraft is below 3000 ft AMSL; or the aircraft is at, or above, 3000ft AMSL, but below 1500 ft AGL and it is not practicable to do so, or

› when in controlled airspace, and ATC has given you a clearance or instruction.

Minimum heights—VFR flights at night (91.310)You must not fly VFR at night along a route or route segment at a height lower than the lowest of the following minimum heights:

› any published LSALT for the route or route segment

› any minimum sector altitude published in the AIP

› the LSALT for the route or the route segment

› 1000 ft above the highest obstacle on the ground or water within 10 NM ahead of, and to either side of, the aircraft at that point on the route or route segment—see figure 17.

Figure 17: Minimum heights—VFR flights at night

Exceptions: you are permitted to fly below the minimum height when:

› taking off or landing

› within 3 NM of the aerodrome when taking off or landing

› flying in accordance with an air traffic control clearance.

Specified IFR cruising levels (91.290)You must fly IFR at a specified cruising level for the aircraft track unless:

› in non-controlled airspace and it is not practicable to do so; or

› in controlled airspace, ATC has given you a clearance or instruction.

Minimum heights—IFR flights (91.305) You must not fly IFR below:

› any published LSALT

› any published minimum sector altitude

› the lowest safe altitude for the route or route segment.

except when the aircraft:

› is taking off or landing, or

› is being flown in accordance with:

» a visual approach or departure procedure published in the AIP, or

» an instrument departure or approach, or

» an air traffic control clearance,

› the aircraft is being flown in day VMC.



The LSALT specified for a published route segment on Australian ERCs and TACs is only valid for RNP 2. For operations other than RNP 2, pilots must use a grid LSALT or pilot-calculated route LSALT (GEN 3.2 – 4 Lowest safe altitude).

If you are using a grid LSALT for obstacle clearance, you are responsible for calculating what allowance you should apply for navigation error. You must apply this navigation error tolerance to the proposed track and use the highest grid LSALT falling within the area covered by the calculated LSALT.

For RNP 2 routes and route segments not shown on Australian aeronautical charts, the LSALT must not be less than that calculated as follows:

the area to be considered must be within an area 5 NM surrounding and including the departure point, the destination and each side of the nominal track.

Figure 18 shows how to determine LSALT for a route or route segment that is not on an Australian aeronautical chart (GEN 3.3 – 20).

Figure 18: Determination of minimum heights for route segments not published – RNP 2

IFR flights at non-specified cruising levels—notifying air traffic services (91.295)You must notify ATS before flying at a non-specified cruising level for the aircraft track when flying IFR.

IFR flights at non-specified cruising levels—avoiding collisions with VFR aircraft (91.300)Where there is a collision risk, an IFR aircraft not cruising at an IFR-specified cruising level for the track, must give way to a VFR aircraft cruising at a VFR-specified cruising level.



Minimum height rules—populous areas and public gatherings (91.315)

Aeroplane You must not fly an aeroplane over a populous area or public gathering below 1000 ft above the highest feature or obstacle within a horizontal radius of 600 m of the point on the ground or water immediately below the aeroplane (see figure 19).

Figure 19: Minimum height populous areas and public gatherings for aeroplane

Rotorcraft

You must not fly a rotorcraft over a populous area or public gathering below 1000 ft above the highest feature or obstacle within a horizontal radius of 300 m of the point on the ground or water immediately below the rotorcraft (see figure 20).

Figure 20: Minimum height populous areas and public gatherings for rotorcraft

However, in the following circumstances you are permitted to fly below 1000 ft in an aircraft when:


› engaged in a missed approach

› not carrying passengers, and practising emergency procedures at an aerodrome

› circuit training at an aerodrome

› you hold an approval for air display purposes

› for a rotorcraft—hovering, air transiting, air taxiing or ground taxiing at an aerodrome

› for a rotorcraft, seaplane or amphibian—flying within an access lane used by aircraft taking off from, or landing at, a particular place, and details of which are published in the AIP

› for a single-engine seaplane or a single-engine amphibian operating over water and within safe gliding distance of open water suitable for a forced landing, and not flown below 1000 ft above the highest feature or obstacle within a horizontal radius of 300 m of the point on the water immediately below the aeroplane

› engaged in a procedure to determine the suitability of an aerodrome for a landing.



Minimum height rules—other areas (91.320)When flying over an area that is not a populous area or public gathering (reg 91.315), you must not fly an aircraft below 500 ft above the highest feature or obstacle within a horizontal radius of 300 m of the point on the ground or water immediately below the aircraft (see figure 21).

Figure 21: Minimum height for other areas

However, you are permitted to fly below 500 ft when the aircraft is:


› engaged in a missed approach

› not carrying passengers and practising emergency procedures at an aerodrome

› not carrying passengers and practising a forced landing procedure with the consent of the person or authority having control over the land or water above which the procedure is carried out

› being operated by a Part 141 operator for low-flying flight training, or by a Part 142 operator for a low-flying activity, and

» is not carrying passengers, and

» is being flown over an area that, with the consent of the person or authority with control of the area, has been determined by the operator to be suitable as a flight training area and the pilot in command has surveyed it for obstacles before the flight

› performing training circuits at an aerodrome

› flown to determine the suitability of an aerodrome for a landing, or

› flown by a pilot who holds an approval under reg 91.180 (conduct of air displays in Australian territory)

› for areas other than air displays, if you hold a low-flying authorisation under Part 61, or hold an approval, provided the point on the ground or water vertically below the aircraft is not within a 150 m of a person, vessel, vehicle, structure or livestock, and you conduct a risk assessment of the area to be flown over

› for a rotorcraft—when the rotorcraft is hovering, air transiting, air taxiing or ground taxiing at an aerodrome

› for a rotorcraft, seaplane or amphibian—when flying within an access lane used by aircraft taking off from, or landing at, a particular place, and the details of which are published in the AIP.

IFR take-off and landing minima (91.435) You must not operate an aircraft below the following IFR take-off and landing minima.

IFR take-off and landing minima (MOS Chapter 17.01)The following take-off and landing minima requirements for an aerodrome or helideck also apply when conducting a low-visibility operation.Requirements for low-visibility take-off and landing minima apply only if the pilot or the operator of the aircraft holds the appropriate approval under the CASRs.



Take-off minima for certain multi-engine aeroplanes (MOS 17.02, ENR 1.5 – 30)The take-off minima for a qualifying multi-engine aeroplane are:

› a ceiling of zero feet, and

› visibility of

» 550 m

– if the runway has illuminated edge lighting at spacing intervals not exceeding 60 m, and centreline lighting or centreline markings, all of which are supported by a secondary power supply with a switchover capability of one second or less, and

Note: You must be aware of the time interval between failure of the primary power supply and the complete restoration of power following switch-over to a secondary power supply.

– where the aerodrome is non-controlled, or a controlled aerodrome without ATS in operation—if the take-off is by day and the aerodrome is one where you must carry a radio, or

» 800 m.

When considering the take-off minima for your flight you must ensure, as far as practicable and based on the meteorological conditions when you take off, that:

› if it became necessary to return to land at the departure aerodrome because of engine failure—the meteorological conditions would be:

» at or above, the instrument approach and landing minima for the aerodrome; or

» such as to allow a visual approach, and

› if engine failure were to occur at any time after V1, lift-off, or encountering nonvisual conditions—terrain clearance would be assured until reaching either LSALT or the departure aerodrome MSA, and

› if a return to the departure aerodrome is not possible—the aeroplane’s performance and fuel availability would each be adequate to enable the aeroplane to proceed to a departure alternate, having regard to terrain, obstacles and route distance limitations.

Take-off minima for other aeroplanes (MOS 17.03, ENR 1.5 – 32)For an aeroplane that is NOT a qualifying multi-engine aeroplane or approved for low visibility take-off, the take-off minima are:

› a ceiling of 300 ft, and

› visibility of 2000 m.

The pilot of a single-engine IFR aeroplane must ensure:

› terrain clearance is assured until reaching either the en-route LSALT or departure aerodrome MSA, and

› if a return to the departure aerodrome is not possible—the aeroplane’s performance and fuel availability would each be adequate to enable the aeroplane to proceed to a departure alternate having regard to terrain, obstacles and route distance limitations.

When flying a multi-engine aeroplane, you must ensure that, as far as practicable, and based on the meteorological conditions at the time of take-off:

› where it becomes necessary to return to land at the departure aerodrome because of engine failure—the meteorological conditions:

» at or above instrument approach and landing minima for the aerodrome, or


› if an engine failure were to occur at any time after V1 lift-off (where V1 is available for the aircraft), or if you encounter nonvisual conditions that you must be assured of terrain clearance until the aircraft:

» reaches LSALT or departure aerodrome MSA, or

» returns to the departure aerodrome to land.



Take-off minima for certain multi-engine rotorcraft (MOS 17.04, ENR 1.5 – 33)For a qualifying multi-engine rotorcraft not approved to conduct a low visibility take-off, the minima are:

› clear of cloud until attaining the greater of Vyse or Vmin IMC; and

› visibility of:

» 800 m, or

» 550 m, but only if the relevant runway or FATO has:

– both illuminated edge lighting at spacing intervals not exceeding 60 m, and centreline lighting, supported by a secondary power supply with a switchover capability of one second or less, and

– where the aerodrome is non-controlled, or is a controlled aerodrome without ATS in operation—the take-off is by day and the aerodrome is one where you must carry a radio.

After entering IMC, you must take off:

› in accordance with the published IFR departure procedures, or

› if there are no published IFR departure procedures, such that terrain clearance is assured.

You must ensure that:

› if an engine fails at or after the transition point, terrain clearance would be assured until reaching the LSALT or departure aerodrome MSA, and

› if it became necessary to return to land at the departure aerodrome because of engine failure, the meteorological conditions would be:

» at, or above, instrument approach and landing minima for the aerodrome, or


› if a return to the departure aerodrome were not possible—the rotorcraft’s performance and fuel availability would each be adequate to enable the rotorcraft to proceed to a departure alternate having regard to terrain, obstacles and route distance limitations.

Take-off minima for other rotorcraft (MOS 17.05, ENR 1.5 - 34)For an IFR rotorcraft that is not a qualifying multi-engine rotorcraft; or approved to conduct a low-visibility take-off the minima are:

› a ceiling of 500 ft, and

› visibility of 800 m.

After entering IMC, you must take off

› in accordance with the published IFR departure procedures, or

› if there are no published procedures, such that terrain clearance is assured until reaching en-route LSALT or departure aerodrome MSA.

You must ensure that:

› if it became necessary to return to land at the departure aerodrome because of engine failure, the meteorological conditions would be

» at, or above, instrument approach and landing minima for the aerodrome, or


› if a return to the departure aerodrome were not possible, the rotorcraft’s performance and fuel availability would each be adequate to enable the rotorcraft to proceed to a departure alternate having regard to terrain, obstacles and route distance limitations.

Landing minima for IFR aircraft (MOS 17.06, ENR 1.5 -35)For a 3D-approach procedure and CAT I approach operations, the IFR aircraft landing minima are as follows:

› for an aerodrome with an approved instrument approach procedure, the higher of the following:

» the DA and runway visual range (RVR) or visibility specified in the instrument approach chart for carrying out the procedure

» relevant minima specified in the AFM

» where relevant, an adjusted RVR or visibility minimum mentioned below.



For a published CAT I approach, the following visibility minima apply:

› a minimum RVR or visibility of 1500 m must be used if the approach lighting system normally available for the runway is inoperative

› a minimum RVR or visibility of 1200m must be used if:

» the approach cannot be flown to at least the decision altitude (DA) using a flight director or approved heads-up display (HUD), or

» the approach cannot be flown to at least the DA using a suitable autopilot coupled to the precision approach aid, or

» the aircraft is not equipped with a serviceable failure warning system for the primary attitude and heading reference systems, or

» high intensity runway edge lights are not illuminated, or

» the approach lighting system normally available beyond 210 m from the runway threshold is inoperative;

› you must use a minimum RVR or visibility of 800 m if:

» RVR information in the threshold zone is not available, or

» the approach lighting system normally available beyond 420 m from the runway threshold is inoperative.

› IAPs designated authorisation required (AR) may only be used by an approved aircraft operator

› For a 2D-approach procedure, the landing minima for an IFR aircraft for an aerodrome or point in space with an IAP, are the higher of the following:

» the MDA and visibility minima specified in the IAP

» the relevant minima specified in the AFM

» where the approach lighting system normally available for the runway is inoperative, the minima specified in the instrument approach chart plus 900 m.

Operations below DA or MDA (MOS 17.09, ENR 1.5 -18 and 1.5 - 4 various sections)During an instrument approach you may only descend below the MDA or DA as applicable, if you are visual with, and you remain visual with, the aerodrome runway threshold.

You may only continue the approach if:

› the aircraft is continuously in a position from which you can descend to a landing on the intended runway, or (for a rotorcraft) fly to a landing, or hover on, or over, the intended FATO:

» at a normal rate of descent, and

» using normal manoeuvres, and

» that allows touchdown within the touchdown zone of the runway or touchdown and lift-off (TLOF) area of intended landing, and

» the flight visibility is not less than the RVR, or the visibility required by the instrument approach procedure being used, and

› at least one of the following visual references for the intended runway or FATO is distinctly visible and identifiable:

» elements of the approach lighting system

» the threshold

» the threshold markings

» the threshold lights

» the runway identification lights

» the FATO itself

» the visual approach slope indicator

» the touchdown zone or touchdown zone markings

» the touchdown zone lights

» the FATO or runway lights.



Missed approach procedure (MOS 17.10, ENR 1.5 – 9) When flying an IAP you must execute a missed approach immediately if:

› the aircraft is flown outside the approach tolerances for the navigational aid being used, or

› the navigational aid becomes unreliable or inoperative during the approach, or

› before leaving the MDA, an identifiable part of the aerodrome is not distinctly visible, to you, as described in MOS 17.08 during the circling manoeuvre, unless; the lack of distinct visibility is merely the result of normal aircraft manoeuvring during approach, or

› for an instrument approach associated with a DA or DH—the aircraft is at the missed approach point, or DA or DH, and you are not visual as described in MOS 17.08, or

› the aircraft has passed the missed approach point, or DA or DH but has not touched down and you are unable to remain visual as described in MOS 17.08.

Note: Examples of when a navigational aid for an approach becomes unreliable or unserviceable include: a RAIM warning for a GNSS, a red flag for a VOR, and a loss of the ident for an NDB.

Taking off and landing in low visibility (91.445)You may only fly a low visibility take-off or approach if you hold an approval, unless the operator who is required to have an exposition or operations manual holds an approval.

Low-visibility operations (MOS 17.11)This section applies only to pilots or operators holding an approval under reg 91.445 to take off and land in low visibility.

The approval for a low-visibility take-off operation must specify the operation’s minima and associated requirements.

When a low-visibility approach procedure provides for, and requires the use of, a DA or DH, the DA or DH must be whichever of the following is the highest:

› the DA or DH prescribed by the IAP

› the DA or DH prescribed for you

› the DA or DH for which the aircraft is equipped.

If you carry out a low-visibility approach operation that provides for, and requires the use of, a DA or DH, you must not continue the approach below the authorised DA or DH unless you meet the following conditions:

› the aircraft must be continuously in a position from which you are able to descend to a landing on the intended runway:

» at a normal rate of descent, and

» using normal manoeuvres

» so that touchdown will occur within the TDZ of the runway

› you must be able to see continuously, and identify, the following visual references for the intended runway:

» for a CAT III approach using an FO landing system where use of a DH is prescribed—at least 1 centreline light

» for a CAT III approach using an FP landing system—at least 3 consecutive longitudinally aligned lights, being the centreline lights of the ALS, or the TDZ lights, or RCLL, or REDL, or a combination of these lights

» for a CAT III approach utilising an FO hybrid landing system—at least 3 consecutive longitudinally-aligned lights, being the centreline lights of the ALS, or the TDZ lights, or RCLL, or REDL, or a combination of these lights

» for any other low-visibility approach operation:

– at least 3 consecutive longitudinally aligned lights, being the centreline lights of the ALS, or the TDZ lights, or RCLL, or REDL, or a combination of these lighting systems; and

– unless the approach is conducted using a HUD—a lateral element of lighting in the form of an approach lighting crossbar, a landing threshold light, or a barrette of TDZ lights.

If performing a low-visibility approach procedure, you must immediately execute a missed approach procedure whenever, before touchdown, you do not meet below DA or MDA operational requirements.



Approach ban for IFR flights (91.440) The Part 91 MOS prescribes circumstances in which the pilot of an IFR aircraft must not make an approach to land at an aerodrome.

Approach ban (touchdown zone RVR) (MOS 17.07)The following applies to an aerodrome:

› with ATC services in operation, and

› where RVR reports are available for runway approach operations.

Where ATC reports the touchdown zone RVR as continually less than the specified minima for the landing, you must not fly below 1000 ft above the aerodrome elevation.

If, after passing 1000 ft above the aerodrome elevation, ATC reports the touchdown zone RVR falls below the specified minimum, you may continue an approach to the minima.

Approach ban low-visibility operations (controlling zone RVR) (MOS 17.08)Where ATC reports a controlling zone RVR is continually less than the specified minima for the landing, you must not fly below 1000 ft above the aerodrome elevation.

If, after passing 1000 ft above the aerodrome elevation, ATC reports the controlling zone RVR falls below the specified minimum, you may continue an approach to the minima.

The relevant minima and RVR zone requirements are as follows:

› for the TDZ RVR zone report—the RVR value shown on the IAP; and

› for the mid-zone (MID) RVR zone report:

» for a CAT III approach operation conducted without the use of a rollout system—175 m, and

» for a CAT III approach operation conducted with the use of an FO rollout system—75 m, and

» for other approach operations—125 m,

» for the end zone (END) RVR report—75 m

› a RVR zone is controlling if a valid report is received from that zone, whether or not it is a required report

› a TDZ RVR report is always required, unless:

» a CAT III approach operation an FO landing system with an FO or FP rollout system is being conducted, and

» the MID and END RVR zones are providing valid reports.

› other than for a SA CAT I approach operation, a MID RVR report is required:

» for CAT III approach operations without a rollout system, and

» for any other low-visibility approach operations—if the MID RVR zone is not providing valid reports, and

› other than for a SA CAT I approach operation, an END RVR report is required:

» for CAT III approach operations without a rollout system, and

» for any other low-visibility approach operations—if the MID RVR is not providing valid reports.

Note: MID or END RVR reports are not required for SA CAT I approach operations.



13. Non-controlled aerodromesTake-off or landing at non-controlled aerodromes—all aircraft (91.370)

Rules for taking offYou must not commence a take-off until a preceding departing aircraft using the same runway:

› has crossed the upwind end of the runway, or

› has commenced a turn, or

› if the runway is longer than 1800 m, has become airborne and is at least 1800 m beyond the proposed lift-off point of your aircraft; or if the aircraft are each below 2000 kg MTOW, the preceding aircraft must be airborne and at least 600 m beyond the proposed lift-off point of your aircraft.

Also, an aircraft must not commence a take-off until the landing aircraft ahead has:

› vacated the runway, or

› when using a cross runway, crossed or stopped short of the runway intersection of the aircraft about to take off.

Rules for landingYou must not continue an approach to land beyond the threshold of the runway until:

› an aircraft that is taking off from the same runway has become airborne and commenced a turn, or

› an aircraft that is taking off from the same runway is beyond the point of the runway at which your aircraft could be expected to complete its landing roll, and there is enough distance to manoeuvre in the event of a missed approach, or

› another aircraft landing on the same runway has vacated the runway, or is taxing away from the runway, or

› if a landing aircraft ahead is using a crossing runway, the aircraft ahead has crossed or stopped short of the intersecting runway.

Application of rules where gliders or glider tugs operate

At an aerodrome where gliders or glider tugs are operating to a common circuit pattern from either a runway or parallel strip they are to be taken as one. Therefore, you cannot take off or land when another aircraft on the parallel strip or runway is taking off or landing. However, you may take off or land if there is another aircraft taxiing or stationary on either the runway or parallel strip, provided it does not affect your ability to take off or land safely (see figure 22).

Figure 22: Runway with parallel strip

Exception: The above requirements do not apply where gliders and glider tugs are permitted to operate simultaneously in contra-rotating circuits on both runway and parallel strip outside the runway strip, and simultaneous operations on the runway and parallel strip are permitted.



Meaning of ‘in the vicinity of’ a non-controlled aerodrome (91.360)An aircraft is in the vicinity of a non-controlled aerodrome if it is:

› in uncontrolled airspace, and

› within 10 NM of the aerodrome, and

› at a height above the aerodrome that could result in a conflict with operations at the aerodrome.

If within 10 NM of the aerodrome, and the aerodrome reference point is published in the AIP, the distance must be measured from that point.

The definition of ‘in the vicinity of a non-controlled aerodrome’ applies in regs 91.375, 91.380, 91.385 and 91.390.

Operating on manoeuvring area, or in the vicinity, of a non-controlled aerodrome—general requirements (91.375)When operating on the manoeuvring area, or in the vicinity of a non-controlled aerodrome you must:

› keep a lookout for other aircraft to avoid a collision

› ensure that your aircraft does not endanger other aircraft

› either join or avoid the circuit pattern of the aerodrome, and

› for an aeroplane only, take off or land within the aerodrome landing area.

Operating on manoeuvring area, or in the vicinity, of a non-controlled aerodrome—landing and taking off into the wind (91.380)To the extent practicable, you must land and take off into wind unless:

› the aircraft flight manual instructions allow you to land or take off downwind or crosswind, and

› you are satisfied that traffic conditions at the aerodrome will allow you to land or take off safely.

It is well documented that taking off and landing into wind is the safest option. However, runway options do not always allow for an into-wind take-off without some crosswind component. Pilots should be familiar with the crosswind limitation in the AFM.

Although the regulation does not preclude a downwind take-off or landing, they should not be attempted in other than very light winds. Pilots should be aware of the increased take-off and landing distance and apply a considerable safety margin to the normal take-off and landing computations. You should also consider that the climb and descent angle will be lower/flatter than into wind, and safe obstacle avoidance may become a critical issue after take-off or on approach to land. You must not exceed any limitation in the AFM.

Operating on manoeuvring area, or in the vicinity, of non-controlled aerodrome—requirements that apply after joining the circuit pattern (91.385)An aircraft (other than a rotorcraft) in the circuit of a non-controlled aerodrome must make all turns to the left unless the AIP contains alternative instructions.

Exception: The above circuit pattern requirements do not apply to a seaplane or amphibian, where it necessary:

› to avoid an obstacle, or

› without compromising the aircraft’s safety, to avoid undue noise over a populated area, or

› for a single-engine seaplane or amphibian—to enable the aircraft to land on water if its engine fails.



Image | Pilatus Aircraft Ltd

Operating on manoeuvring area, or in the vicinity, of non-controlled aerodrome—requirements related to maintaining the same track after take-off (91.390) An aircraft (other than a rotorcraft) must, after take-off, maintain the take-off track until the aircraft is above 500 ft AGL unless a track change is necessary to avoid terrain.

Exception: The above circuit pattern requirements do not apply to a seaplane or amphibian, where it necessary:

› to avoid an obstacle, or

› without compromising the aircraft’s safety, to avoid undue noise over a populated area, or

› for a single-engine seaplane or amphibian—to enable the aircraft to land on water if its engine fails.

Straight-in approaches at non-controlled aerodromes (91.395)Before commencing a straight-in approach, you must determine the wind direction and the runways in use at the aerodrome.

Except when carrying out an instrument approach in IMC, you must have completed your manoeuvring and be established on final by at least 3 NM from the runway threshold intended to be used for the landing.

An aircraft making the straight in-approach must give way to any other aircraft flying in the circuit pattern for the aerodrome.

See CAAP 166-1 for additional guidance on a straight-in approach.

Aircraft in aerodrome traffic at controlled aerodromes (91.405) When operating at a controlled aerodrome you must:

› have an ATS clearance to, taxi, land or take off

› maintain a continuous listening watch on the ATS frequency for the aerodrome.

If you cannot maintain a continuous listening watch, maintain a continuous watch for any visual signals given by ATS.

Unless complying with an ATC clearance or instruction, or flying in accordance with an instrument departure or approach procedure, you must:

› maintain runway track from the take-off until you reach 500 ft AGL unless a change to the track is necessary to avoid terrain, and

› make all turns in the direction of the circuit pattern when joining the circuit for a landing or when taking off for the purpose of conducting a circuit.

You would only need to watch for light signals if your radio failed, or if ATS approved aircraft operation without a radio. Standard light signals would be used (see reg 91.670 Standard visual signals).



14. IcingFlight in icing conditions—adherence of frost, ice or snow (91.705) Before you begin a flight there must be no frost, ice or snow adhering to the aircraft’s wings, flaps, control surfaces, rotors, propellers, and horizontal or vertical stabilisers. There must also be no ice, frost or snow adhering to the fuselage hazardous to the safe operation of the aircraft. However, for an aircraft with rear-mounted engines there must be no, frost, ice or snow adhering to the top of the fuselage.

Exception: These requirements do not apply if the take-off is conducted in accordance with the AFM that relates to taking off in the above conditions.

Flight in icing conditions—requirements for flight (91.710) If you know of, or suspect, icing conditions on your planned track, or you fly into icing conditions you must, as soon as practicable, change your aircraft’s track to try and avoid the icing. You must not fly an aircraft in icing conditions unless it is type certificated to fly in icing conditions.

15. Special flight operationsAir displays in Australian territory (91.180) A person who conducts an air display must hold an approval. The operator and pilot of an air display flight must ensure the person conducting the air display holds an approval.

For guidance on air displays, see CASA’s Air Display Administration and Procedure Manual.

Conducting aerobatic manoeuvres (91.185)You may only fly aerobatic manoeuvres over a populous area, at an air display, or at night, if you hold an approval.

You must not fly aerobatic manoeuvres in IMC.

Pilots must hold a flight activity endorsement to fly aerobatic manoeuvres: refer reg 61.380 and table 61.1145.

An aerobatic flight manoeuvre is one that has:

› bank angles greater than 60°; or › pitch angles greater than 45° or are

otherwise abnormal to the aircraft type; or › abrupt changes of speed, direction, angle

of bank or angle of pitch.

You must not engage in aerobatic flight below 3000 ft AGL unless your aerobatic activity endorsement permits lower heights.

Before engaging in an aerobatic manoeuvre, you should ensure

› any loose objects are either removed from the aircraft or stowed securely

› all hatches and doors are securely fastened

› seat belts or harnesses are securely and firmly fastened

› seat belts or harnesses of any vacant seat are made secure

› you have checked for other aircraft in your vicinity.



Dropping things from aircraft (91.190)You must not permit anything to be dropped from an aircraft if the safety of the aircraft, any person or property, is likely to be endangered.

Note: This regulation does not apply if reg 138.425 applies.

Although the regulation does not preclude a pilot from dropping something from an aircraft under Part 91, this is normally an aerial work function.

In most cases dropping substances or objects from and aircraft under Part 91 is not normally recommended by CASA. Even the smallest object dropped could cause significant injury to someone on the ground if they were hit by such an object.

An object dropped from an aircraft that is meant to disperse may be a hazard to a person or property on the ground if it failed to disperse. Premature release or dispersion of an object could be a hazard if it blows back into the cockpit or other parts of the aircraft.

Picking up or setting down people or things during flight (91.195) You must not pick up or set down a person or anything during a flight unless you hold an approval or are permitted to do so by another provision of the regulations.

Note: Picking up or down people or things during a flight would normally be an aerial work operation; therefore, this regulation does not apply if reg 138.390 applies.

Flying in formation (91.205)You may only fly an aircraft in formation, if you hold an activity endorsement to fly in formation and have pre-arranged the flight with the other pilots making up the formation.

You may only fly an aircraft in formation at night, or in IMC, if you hold an approval.

Note: Pilots must hold a flight activity endorsement to fly in formation, refer reg 61.380 and table 61.1145.

Aircraft are in formation anytime 2 or more aircraft are flown in close proximity to each other and they operate as a single aircraft with regard to navigation, position reporting and control.

Aircraft are also considered to be in formation when they are manoeuvring to achieve separation from each other in order to effect individual control (break away) and during join up.

In determining ‘close proximity’ to each other, you must consider the type of aircraft in the formation and their speed.

Towing of things by aircraft (91.210) You may tow things with an aircraft only if you hold an approval, or are permitted to do so by another provision of the regulations

Towing things by aircraft, other than when towing gliders, is normally an aerial work operation under Part 138.

NVIS flights (91.085) You must only fly using a NVIS in accordance with the following requirements.

NVIS flights requirements (MOS 5.02) The operator must ensure that the pilot-in-command complies with the following:

A NVIS may only be used if:

› you and the minimum crew specified in the AFM are on board the aircraft and

› you are qualified to use the NVIS, and

› have met all the recency requirements, in accordance with Part 61, and

› the NVG and NVD equipment constituting the NVIS comply with the applicable requirements of Part 21.

In addition, you may only use a certified NVIS in aircraft which are NVFR or IFR certified when:

› in VMC, and

› not below the NVFR LSALT.

Note: To ‘use NVIS’ means using it as the primary method of avoiding terrain and navigating safely by visual surface reference external to the aircraft.

NVIS certification will be shown on the aircraft type certificate, or if an aircraft does not have such certification it may be obtained through a special type certificate (STC) process and added to the AFM as a supplement.



16. Aircraft equipment The following Part 91 provisions listed do not apply to an aircraft that is operated under Subparts 121.K, 133.K, 135.K or 138.K instead (as described in reg 91.035).

Instruments, indicators, equipment and systems—requirements (91.810)The Part 91 MOS sets out operator and pilot requirements relating to aircraft instruments, indicators, items of equipment or systems that:

› must be fitted or carried, and

› must not be fitted to, or carried under, certain circumstances; and apply to inoperative instruments, indicators, items of equipment or systems where carried.

A crew member is subject to the requirements of instruments, indicators, equipment.

When aircraft may be flown with inoperative instruments, indicators equipment or systems (91.815)If an instrument, indicator, item of equipment, or system must be carried or fitted on an aircraft under reg 91.810, it may be inoperative if the circumstances prescribed in the MOS Chapter 30 apply.

The following matters included in Chapter 30 are provided in appendix B.

› Purpose MOS (30.01)

› Approval of aircraft instruments, indicators, items of equipment and systems (MOS 30.03)

› Visibility and accessibility of pilot-operated instruments, indicators, items of equipment and systems (MOS 30.04)

› Prescribed circumstances for flight with inoperative instruments indicators or systems MOS 30.04A

› Aeroplane specific requirements—application (MOS 30.05)

› Aeroplane—day VFR flight (MOS 30.06)

› Aeroplane—night VFR flight (MOS 30.07)

› Aeroplane—IFR flight (MOS 30.08)

› Aeroplane—IFR flight—equipment to measure and record cosmic radiation (MOS 30.09)

› Rotorcraft specific requirements—application (MOS 30.10)

› Rotorcraft—day VFR flight (MOS 30.11)

› Rotorcraft—VFR flight by night (MOS 30.12)

› Rotorcraft—IFR flight (MOS 30.13)

› VFR flight requirements do not apply to certain light sport aircraft. (MOS 30.14)

› VFR and IFR flight requirements do not apply to certain experimental aeroplanes (MOS 30.15)

› VFR and IFR flight requirements do not apply to certain experimental rotorcraft (MOS 30.16)

› VFR and IFR flight requirements do not apply to certain Australian registered aircraft (MOS30.17)

› Electronic flight information systems (MOS 30.18)

› Reserved (MOS 30.19)

› Aircraft lighting systems—night VFR flight and IFR flight (MOS 30.20)

› Anti-collision lights—display (MOS 30.21)



› Navigation lights—display (MOS 30.22)

› Altitude alerting system and assigned altitude indicator— IFR flights (MOS 30.23)

› Reserved—aeroplane airborne collision avoidance system: ACAS II (MOS 30.24)

› Reserved—ACAS II requirements for use (MOS 30.25)

› Aeroplane flight data recorder (MOS 30.26)

› Aeroplane cockpit voice recorder (MOS 30.27)

› Rotorcraft flight data recorder (MOS 3.28)

› Rotorcraft cockpit voice recorder (MOS 3.28A)

› Combination recorders—for aeroplane or rotorcraft (MOS 30.29)

› Recorder technical requirements (MOS 30.30)

› Aircraft flown with inoperative flight recording equipment (MOS 30.31)

› Continuous operation of flight recorders (MOS 30.32)

› Flight data and combination recorders not to be operated during aircraft maintenance (MOS 30.33)

› Reserved—aeroplane datalink recorder (MOS 30.34)

› Reserved—rotorcraft datalink recorder (MOS 30.35)

› Intercommunications system—VFR flights (MOS 30.36)

› Intercommunications system—IFR flights (MOS 30.37)

› Public address system (MOS 30.38)

› Supplemental oxygen (MOS 30.39)

› Oxygen masks—pressurised aircraft above FL250 (MOS 30.40)

› Oxygen masks—pressurised aircraft above FL450 (MOS 30.41)

› Protective breathing equipment—pressurised aircraft (MOS 30.42)

› Portable protective breathing equipment—pressurised aircraft (MOS 30.43)

› First aid oxygen equipment—pressurised aircraft (MOS 30.44)

› ELT—purpose (MOS 30.45)

› ELT—basic requirements (MOS 30.46)

› Automatic ELT (MOS 30.47)

› Survival ELT (MOS 30.48)

› ELT must be fitted or carried (MOS 30.49)

› ELT—single-engine aircraft flown over water (MOS 30.50)

› Aircraft flown with inoperative ELT (MOS 30.51)

› Hand-held fire extinguishers—aeroplanes above 5700 kg MTOW (MOS 30.52)

› Hand-held fire extinguishers—rotorcraft (MOS 30.53)

› Sea anchors etc. and sound signals—seaplanes and amphibians (MOS 30.54)

› Reserved (MOS 30.55)

› Lifejackets for flights over water (MOS 30.56)

› Stowage of life jackets (MOS 30.57)

› Wearing life jackets—aircraft generally (MOS 30.58)

› Wearing life jackets—rotorcraft—special provision (MOS 30.59)

› Life rafts for flights over water (MOS 30.60)

› Stowage of life rafts (MOS 30.61)

› Survival equipment for flight over water or in remote areas—definitions (MOS 30.62)

› Over-water and remote-area survival equipment (MOS 30.63)



› Meaning of remote area (MOS 30.64)

› Carriage of GNSS—IFR aircraft (MOS 30.65)

› Use of GNSS (MOS 30.66)

› Use of suitable area navigation (RNAV) systems on conventional routes and procedures (MOS 30.67)

› Restrictions on use of GNSS (MOS 30.68)

› Procedures for using approved GNSS for certain phases of flight (MOS 30.69)

› RNAV (GNSS) approach procedures (MOS 30.70)

› Use of GNSS in VFR operations (MOS 30.71)

› Operating without RAIM on domestic en-route phase of flight (MOS 30.72)

› Use and supply of GNSS-derived distance information (MOS 30.73)

› GNSS arrivals, and DME or GNSS arrivals (MOS 30.74)

› Use of GNSS instead of DME (MOS 30.75)

› Aircraft computers—purpose (MOS 30.76)

› Computerised navigation systems—databases (MOS 30.77

› Computerised navigation systems—requirements (MOS 30.78)

› Computerised navigation systems—additional requirements for 2 pilot operations (MOS 30.79)

› Aircraft to be fitted with radio communication equipment (MOS 30.80)

› Aircraft flown with inoperative radiocommunication equipment (MOS 30.80A)

› Radio communications equipment—light sport and experimental aircraft (MOS 30.81)

› Definitions (MOS 30.82)

› Carriage of transponders and surveillance equipment (MOS 30.83)

› Operation of transponders—general requirements (MOS 30.84)

› Mode-S transponders—specific requirements (MOS 30.85)

› Alternate GNSS position source for ADS-B OUT—requirements (MOS 30.86)

› Alternate ADS-B OUT equipment configuration—requirements (MOS 30.87)

› Transponders and surveillance equipment—light sport and experimental aircraft (MOS 30.88)



04ADMINISTRATIVE RULES17. Approvals—special certificates and permits 92

18. Foreign aircraft 97

19. Minimum equipment list (MEL) 99

91


17. Approvals—special certificates and permits Approvals by authorised persons for Subpart 91T (91.050)If a provision refers to a person holding an approval, a person may apply to an authorised person, in writing, for the approval.

The approval must be granted provided the applicant meets the requirements of reg 11.055.

Aircraft with more than one certificate of airworthiness—application of Subpart 91.T (91.835)If an aircraft has multiple certificates of airworthiness as provided for in 21.187, it can only be flown under one of the certificates at any one time.

If, for example, the aircraft is being flown under a restricted category, the aircraft must be flown in accordance with Subpart 91.T. If the aircraft then returns to operations under a normal category certificate, Subpart 91.T will cease to apply.

Restricted category aircraft—general operating requirements (91.840) Where a special certificate of airworthiness in the restricted category has been issued for the aircraft, before the flight, you and the operator must ensure the following requirements are met:

› the certificate of airworthiness must be in force

› any condition or requirement on the certificate of airworthiness

› the flight must not be an air transport operation

› the flight must fall under the operations listed in reg 91.845

› a person may only be carried on the flight who is:

» a crew member, or

» for a special purpose operation—a person needed for work activity directly associated with the special purpose for which the certificate of airworthiness was issued, or

» carrying out a demonstration or test of the aircraft for sale (see reg 91.845).

Restricted category aircraft—kinds of operations permitted (91.845) The kinds of operation (reg 91.840) for a restricted category aircraft are:

› a special purpose operation for which the special certificate of airworthiness for the aircraft was issued

› participation in an air display

› taking the aircraft to or from a place where a demonstration or display of the aircraft is to take place

› practice in flying the aircraft for participation in an air display

› taking the aircraft to a place for maintenance

› taking the aircraft from a place where maintenance has been done

› testing the aircraft after maintenance

› flying training (other than for issuing a pilot licence)

› pilot proficiency training, or practice in flying the aircraft

› demonstrating or testing the aircraft for sale

› delivering the aircraft to a person under a contract of sale.

A reference to, a special purpose operation for which the special certificate of airworthiness for the aircraft was issued, includes a reference to the following:

› training in the special purpose operation

› taking the aircraft to a place where the special purpose operation is to start

› taking the aircraft from a place where the special purpose operation has ended

› any other operation necessary to accomplish the special purpose operation.

92 | ADMINISTRATIVE RULES


Provisionally certificated aircraft—operating requirements (91.850) Where a provisional certificate of airworthiness has been issued for the aircraft, you and the operator before the flight must ensure the following requirements are met:


› any condition or requirement on the certificate of airworthiness


› the flight must be an operation of a kind mentioned in reg 91.855

› unless the aircraft is being flown to obtain type certification or supplemental type certification for the aircraft (operations for type certificate or supplemental type certificate [see reg 91.860]) you must fly the aircraft within the limitations stated in the aircraft flight manual

› the requirements for the carriage of people (see reg 91.865) are complied with

› the requirements mentioned in the additional requirements for operators are complied with (see reg 91.870).

Provisionally certificated aircraft—kinds of operations permitted (91.855) The kinds of operation permitted (see reg 91.850) in a provisionally certified aircraft are:

› those required to obtain type certification, or supplemental type certification for the aircraft

› crew members’ training flight, including simulated air transport operations

› a demonstration flight for prospective purchasers by the aircraft’s manufacturer

› a market survey operation by the aircraft’s manufacturer

› a flight to check instruments, accessories and items of equipment that do not affect the aircraft’s airworthiness

› service testing of the aircraft.

Provisionally certificated aircraft—operation for type certification or supplemental type certification (91.860) A provisionally certified aircraft being flown to obtain type certification or supplemental type certification (see reg 91.850) must meet the following requirements:

› if the aircraft’s provisional certificate of airworthiness is subject to a condition limiting the area within which the aircraft may be flown—the flight must not take place outside, or partly outside, that area, unless the holder of the provisional certificate of airworthiness for the aircraft holds an approval under reg 91.045 or 91.050

› if the flight is over a populous area—the holder of the provisional certificate of airworthiness for the aircraft must hold an approval under reg 91.045 or 91.050, and

› either:

» the flight must be day VFR, or

» the holder of the provisional certificate of airworthiness for the aircraft must hold an approval under reg 91.045 or 91.050.

For an approval under reg 91.045 or 91.050, CASA or an authorised person must be satisfied that the aircraft is controllable throughout its normal range of speeds and throughout all manoeuvres to be executed; and has no hazardous operating characteristics or design features.

Provisionally certificated aircraft—requirements for the carriage of people (91.865) You may only carry a person on a provisionally certified aircraft as referenced in reg 91.850 if:

› you notify each person before they board the aircraft that the aircraft is provisionally certificated, and

› either:

» a person carried has a function in the aircraft’s operation, or

» the manufacturer authorised the carriage, and the holder of the provisional certificate of airworthiness holds an approval under reg 91.045 or 91.050 for carrying the person.



Provisionally certificated aircraft—additional requirements for operators (91.870) The operator of a provisionally certificated aircraft must hold an approval under reg 91.045 or 91.050 for procedures for use by flight crew and personnel who carry out a ground support duty in both:

› operating the aircraft, and

› landing at and taking off from an aerodrome if take-off or approach over a populous area is necessary.

Experimental aircraft—operating requirements (91.875) Where an experimental certificate has been issued for the aircraft, you and the operator must ensure before the flight that:

› the experimental certificate must be in force

› if the experimental certificate contains conditions or requirements—these must be complied with


› the flight must be either:

» for a purpose mentioned in reg 21.191 for which the experimental certificate was issued, or

» an operation mentioned in ‘kinds of operation permitted’ under reg 91.880.

› either:

» the flight must be day VFR, or

» the holder of the experimental certificate must hold an approval under reg 91.045 or 91.050

› if the flight is over a populous area—the holder of the experimental certificate must hold an approval under reg 91.045 or 91.050

› if the flight is over a public gathering—the holder of the experimental certificate must hold an approval under reg 91.045 or 91.050

› if the aircraft’s experimental certificate is subject to a condition limiting the area within which the aircraft may be flown—the flight must remain within that area

› if the aircraft is carrying a passenger:

» the total number of persons on board must not exceed that allowed under reg 91.885, and

» each passenger must be notified before boarding that the design, manufacture and airworthiness of the aircraft are not required to meet any standards recognised by CASA, and

» a placard complying with the Part 91 MOS requirements must be displayed inside the aircraft (see figure 23).

› if the aircraft is carrying a person that is not a crew member whose presence is essential to the operation of the aircraft, it must be shown that the aircraft:

» is controllable throughout its normal range of speeds and throughout all manoeuvres to be executed, and

» has no hazardous operating characteristics or design features.

Experimental aircraft—operating requirements (MOS 31.01)The following placard must be displayed inside an experimental aircraft carrying a passenger (including specific aircraft information) in full view of all passengers:

Figure 23: Warning placard



Experimental aircraft—operating requirements in populous areas (MOS 31.02)Reserved

Experimental aircraft—approval for operating over a public gathering (MOS 31.03)Reserved

Experimental aircraft—kind of operations permitted (91.880) For an experimental aircraft the kind of operations permitted under reg 91.875 are:

› taking the aircraft to a place for maintenance

› taking the aircraft from a place where maintenance has been done

› testing the aircraft after maintenance

› flying training (other than for issuing a pilot licence)

› practice in flying the aircraft

› demonstrating or testing the aircraft for sale

› delivering the aircraft to a person under a contract of sale

› for an amateur-built aircraft or a kit-built aircraft—flying training given to the aircraft’s owner.

Experimental aircraft—maximum number of persons to be carried (91.885) The maximum number or persons that may be carried on an experimental aircraft is the number specified in any approval, otherwise the lesser of:

› the number of persons the aircraft was designed to carry, or

› 6.

Primary category aircraft and intermediate category aircraft—operating requirements (91.890) You and the operator must ensure flights in a primary category or an intermediate category aircraft have a special certificate of airworthiness in force for the category and are not an air transport operation.

Light sport aircraft—operators (91.895) You and the operator must ensure flights in a light sport aircraft have a special certificate of airworthiness in force.

Light sport aircraft—pilots (91.900) Before you may fly a light sport aircraft for which a special certificate of airworthiness has been issued, you must meet the following requirements:


› the aircraft is operated:

» solely under Part 91, or

» for flying training

› a placard which complies with Chapter 32 of the Part 91 MOS is displayed inside the aircraft

› each person who boards the aircraft is notified of the contents of the placard

› the aircraft operating instructions* (including instructions for necessary equipment* in the aircraft manufacturer’s equipment list for the aircraft) are complied with

› any safety direction or requirement* issued by manufacturer is complied with.

Exception 1: The aircraft’s manufacturer may approve operation of the aircraft in contravention of those instruction, directions or requirement marked by asterisk (*) above.

Exception 2: If the manufacturer of the aircraft no longer exists, or can no longer provide instructions for the continuing airworthiness of the aircraft, references to the manufacturer of the aircraft include references to a person appointed by CASA to perform the functions of the manufacturer in relation to the continuing airworthiness of the aircraft.



Light sport aircraft—operating requirements (MOS 32.01) The following placard must be displayed inside a light sport aircraft carrying a passenger (including specific aircraft information) in full view of all passengers:

Figure 24: Warning placard


WARNINGTHIS AIRCRAFT WAS MANUFACTURED IN

ACCORDANCE WITH LIGHT SPORT AIRCRAFT AIRWORTHINESS STANDARDS AND DOES

NOT CONFORM TO STANDARD CATEGORY AIRWORTHINESS REQUIREMENTS.

Flights under special flight permits (91.905) You must not fly an aircraft with a special flight permit unless the permit authorises the flight and you are able to comply with the conditions on the permit.

If the pilot is the only person on the aircraft, the pilot must carry a copy of the permit on the aircraft.

If an aircraft carries the pilot and an additional person, you must display a copy of the permit where the person will see it.

Before boarding the aircraft, the operator or the pilot must tell the person:

› that the aircraft is operated under a special flight permit

› the reasons for the issue of the permit, and

› what the permit authorises.

Application of Division 91.T.8 Miscellaneous (91.910)Division 91.T.8 applies to the operation of an aircraft for which a special certificate of airworthiness is in force.

Aircraft with special certificates of airworthiness—maintenance release etc. (91.915)You must not fly an aircraft unless a maintenance release or a certificate of release to service is in force for the aircraft.

Exception: This regulation does not apply to an aircraft for which a special flight permit is in force.

Aircraft with special certificates of airworthiness—flight tests to be conducted in certain areas (91.920)You may only flight test an aircraft over:

› open water, or

› a sparsely populated area, or

› an unpopulated area.

You may only conduct the flight test in an area where, in the event of a loss of control of the aircraft, there would be minimal risk to other air traffic.

For an amateur-built aircraft—the flight test can only be over and in an area for which the holder of the certificate of airworthiness holds an approval under reg 91.045 or 91.050.



18. Foreign aircraftForeign registered aircraft—Chicago Convention (91.965)A foreign registered aircraft flown in Australian territory must comply with the requirements of the Chicago Convention relating to: › the nationality and registration marks of the

aircraft

› the aircraft’s certificate of airworthiness

› the holding, number and description of crew member licences and ratings

› documents to be carried by the aircraft

› flight and manoeuvre of the aircraft

› carriage and use of radio equipment.

Exception: The requirement relating to the aircraft’s certificate of airworthiness does not apply if a special flight authorisation has been granted in relation to the flight.

Note: The requirements of the Chicago Convention about certificates of airworthiness apply to aircraft with a standard certificate of airworthiness. Foreign aircraft with the equivalent of a special certificate of airworthiness or a special flight permit require a special flight permit to be flown in Australian territory (see reg 91.970).

Exception: The requirements of the Chicago Convention relating to documents to be carried, flight and manoeuvre, and radio equipment do not apply to the extent that the requirement is inconsistent with a requirement under another provision of this Part.

Foreign registered aircraft—special flight authorisations (91.970) A person may apply to CASA for a special flight authorisation to fly a foreign registered aircraft in Australian territory without a certificate of airworthiness. You must comply with any conditions of the special flight authorisation for the flight.

Foreign state aircraft—approval to fly in Australian territory (91.975) When a state aircraft of a foreign country is flown in Australian territory, you and the operator must hold an approval for the flight. You must comply with any conditions of the approval held by the operator.

Foreign registered aircraft—major defect—CASA direction (91.980) CASA may issue a written direction to a person imposing conditions on the operation of an aircraft that has a major defect, if requested by the national aviation authority of the contracting state, or CASA is satisfied it is necessary for the safety of air navigation.

Foreign registered aircraft—CASA to notify contracting state of direction (91.985) CASA must give the national aviation authority of the state: › notice in writing of the action taken, together with

a copy of the direction, and

› a written report of the defect.



Foreign registered aircraft—CASA may revoke direction (91.990)

Revocation following notification by contracting state

A direction issued under reg 91.980 may be revoked if the national aviation authority of the state tells CASA, in writing, that it: › has revoked any suspension of the certificate of

airworthiness of the aircraft that the authority had imposed, or

› considers that the defect giving rise to the direction is not of such a nature as to prevent the aircraft from fulfilling the minimum safety requirements adopted by the contracting state under the Chicago Convention, or

› considers that, in the circumstances of the case, the aircraft should be permitted to fly, with nobody on board other than crew members, to a place where the defect can be repaired.

However, CASA must not revoke the direction if it is satisfied that doing so would adversely affect aviation safety.

Revocation if CASA satisfied direction no longer necessary

CASA may revoke a direction if CASA is satisfied that it is is no longer necessary for aviation safety.

Foreign registered aircraft—when direction or revocation takes effect (91.995) A direction issued under reg 91.980 does not have effect until it has been served:

› on the person, or

› by affixing the direction to the relevant aircraft.

Revocation of a direction has effect when:

› it is served on the person on whom the direction was served, or

› if the direction was affixed to the relevant aircraft—CASA affixes the revocation to that aircraft.

Note: For service of documents on a person, see section 28A of the Acts Interpretation Act 1901.




19. Minimum equipment list (MEL)Definitions (91.925) For a type of aircraft, a master minimum equipment list or MMEL, is a document which:

› includes a list of items in the aircraft that may (subject to any conditions or limitations specified in the document) be inoperative for a flight of the aircraft

› is prepared by the holder of the type certificate for the aircraft

› is approved by the national aviation authority that issued the type certificate for the aircraft.

For an aircraft, a minimum equipment list or MEL, is a document which:

› includes a list of items in the aircraft that may (subject to any conditions or limitations specified in the document) be inoperative for a flight of the aircraft

› is prepared by the operator of the aircraft

› is approved under reg 91.935

› complies with the requirements mentioned in reg 91.930; and includes any variation to the document approved under reg 91.940.

A rectification interval, for an item in a MEL that may become inoperative, means the period within which the item must be rectified after the discovery that the item is inoperative.

Requirements for minimum equipment list (91.930) The Part 91 MOS prescribes:

› the contents of a MEL

› the calculation and specification of rectification intervals for items in the MEL

› the conditions and limitations that may or must be included in the MEL.

Contents of a MEL (MOS 33.03)A MEL for an aircraft must include:

› the name of the operator of the aircraft, including any operating or trading name

› the aircraft type, model, registration mark and serial number

› a list of the items in the aircraft, one or more of which may be inoperative for a flight of the aircraft

› identification of the MMEL on which the MEL is based

› definitions of any unique terms used in the MEL

› guidance for the use and application of the MEL

› a statement of whether rectification intervals will be calculated in accordance with the local legal time or UTC.

If the operator intends to extend the rectification interval of an inoperative item in accordance with reg 91.945, the operator must set out, in the MEL, the procedures they will use to extend the rectification interval. The procedures must include the following:

› who, on behalf of the operator, may extend the rectification interval

› how the operator ensures compliance with the requirements of the approval of an extension of the rectification interval (see reg 91.945).

The MEL must:

› describe the item

› specify whether the rectification interval for the item is a Category A, B, C or D

› set out the conditions or limitations (if any) that must be complied with if the aircraft is to fly with the item inoperative

› if the aircraft must comply with an operational procedure to fly with the item inoperative:

» set out the operational procedure, or

» if the procedure is in another document—include a cross-reference to the procedures and the document.

› if the aircraft requires maintenance to fly with the item inoperative:

» set out the maintenance data, or

» if the maintenance data is in another document—include a cross-reference to the data and the document.

Note: For the coordinated universal time (UTC), go to www.bipm.org.



Compliance with the MMEL (MOS 33.04)An aircraft’s MEL must be based on the MMEL for the aircraft type.

The MEL for a flight with an inoperative item must not be less operationally restrictive than the MMEL in the same circumstances.

Examples:

› If the MMEL for an aircraft specifies a rectification interval for an inoperative item, MEL for the aircraft must not specify a less restrictive rectification interval for the item than the interval specified in the MMEL.

› If an aircraft’s MMEL specifies conditions or limitations that must be complied with if the aircraft is to fly with an inoperative item, the aircraft’s MEL must include conditions or limitations for the item that are at least as restrictive as those in the MMEL.

Compliance with the regulations (MOS 33.05)A MEL must not permit an aircraft to fly with an inoperative item if the flight would contravene the regulations.

If the regulations permit an aircraft to operate with an inoperative item, the MEL may permit the operation with the inoperative item in accordance with the regulations, even if the MEL is less restrictive than the MMEL.

Examples:

› If a provision of the regulations permits an aircraft to operate for a period with an inoperative item and the period is less restrictive than the rectification interval for the item specified in the aircraft’s MMEL—the rectification interval for the item in the MEL may be based on the period mentioned in the provision.

› If a provision of the regulations permits an aircraft to fly with an inoperative item subject to conditions or limitations, and these are less restrictive than those in the aircraft’s MMEL—the conditions or limitations specified in the MEL for the item must be at least as restrictive as those specified in the provision.




Compliance with the AFM (MOS 33.06)A MEL for an aircraft must not permit an aircraft to fly with an inoperative item in contravention of any of the conditions, limitations or emergency procedures specified in the AFM.

If the MMEL does not specify rectification intervals (MOS 33.07)If the MMEL for an aircraft type does not specify a rectification interval for an inoperative item, the rectification interval for the item in a MEL for an aircraft of the type must clearly reflect the item’s significance for aviation safety.

Effects of repairs or modifications made to the aircraft (MOS 33.08)If:

› a repair or modification is made to an aircraft, and

› the approval for the repair or modification places a new condition or limitation on the aircraft to fly with an inoperative item,

› then the conditions or limitations specified in the MEL for the inoperative item must be at least as restrictive as those specified in the approval for the repair or modification.

Approval of minimum equipment lists (91.935) The operator of an aircraft may apply, in writing, for the approval of a MEL. The application may be made to:

› CASA, or

› a continuing airworthiness management organisation permitted under Part 42 to approve the MEL, or

› if the aircraft does not operate under Parts 121, 133 or 135—an authorised person.

A person may approve a MEL approval application if in assessing the application they are satisfied that the MEL:

› complies with the requirements in reg 91.930 and 91 MOS Chapter 33, and

› will enable the operator to operate the aircraft safely.

An application must include the proposed MEL.

Note: Not all aircraft must have a MEL. Other provisions of the CASRs may require certain aircraft to have a MEL. This regulation sets out how a MEL for an aircraft must be approved.

Approval of variations (91.940) The aircraft operator may apply, in writing, for an approval of a MEL variation.

You can make the application to: › CASA, or

› a continuing airworthiness management organisation permitted under Part 42 to approve variation, or

› if the aircraft does not operate under Parts 121, 133 or 135—an authorised person.

The operator must include the proposed MEL variation in the application. The variation may be approved if the person assessing the application is satisfied that:

› it complies with the requirements in reg 91.930, and

› it will enable the operator to operate the aircraft safely.

Approval of extensions of rectification intervals (91.945)

Approval of extension on application The aircraft operator may apply, in writing, for the approval of an extension of the rectification interval for an item specified in a MEL. You can make then application to:

› if the operator is not a continuing airworthiness management organisation (CAMO), and there is a Part 42 CAMO for the aircraft permitted to approve the extension−that organisation, or

› in any case—CASA.

A CAMO may approve an extension of the rectification interval for an item specified in a MEL, if:

› the CAMO is the operator of the aircraft, and

› the CAMO is permitted, under Part 42, to approve the extension.

Requirements for approval of extension An extension of the rectification interval (the original rectification interval) for an item specified in a MEL must not be approved unless:

› the item is inoperative, and

› the original rectification interval is of a kind prescribed by the Part 91 MOS (i.e. Category A or B), and



› the operator is unable to rectify the item before the original rectification interval ends because of circumstances beyond the operator’s control, and

› the original rectification interval has not previously been extended in accordance with this regulation during the same continuous period throughout which the item has been inoperative, and

› the aircraft type MMEL does not prohibit extending the rectification interval for the item, and

› if a provision of these regulations (other than Subpart 91.Y) permits the aircraft to operate with the item inoperative for a maximum period—the extended rectification interval for the item will not exceed that period, and

› the extended rectification interval will not exceed the period prescribed by the Part 91 MOS.

Matters to be set out in approval An extension approval must be in writing that sets out the:

› details of the inoperative item

› operation of the aircraft with the inoperative item is permitted in accordance with this regulation

› day on which the extended rectification interval starts (being a day not earlier than the day the notice is given)

› day on which the extended rectification interval ends, and

for a CAMO approval —also include the following:

› the CAMO’s name and approval certificate referencejd signature of the individual who approved the extension on behalf of the CAMO.

Extension of rectification interval (MOS 33.09)For 91.945, an application can be made to extend the rectification interval from the original rectification interval as follows:

› an original Category B rectification interval may be extended up to a maximum of 3 days

› an original Category C rectification interval may be extended up to a maximum of 10 days.

Note 1: A rectification interval that has been extended once may not be further extended.

Note 2: Category B and Category C rectification intervals are the extendable rectification intervals.

Effect of approval (91.950) If an extension of the rectification interval for an item specified in a MEL is approved, the operation of the aircraft with the inoperative item during the extended rectification interval is permitted by the MEL.

If Part 42 does not apply to the aircraft, a copy of the approval of the extension must be kept with the maintenance release throughout the period of the extension.

CASA to be notified of extensions approved by a continuing airworthiness management organisation (91.955) If a CAMO has approved the MEL extension, the operator must notify CASA, in writing, of the following, within 10 days of the start of the extended rectification interval:

› the aircraft’s registration mark

› details of the inoperative item

› the original rectification interval for the item

› the extended rectification interval

› the day the extended rectification interval took effect

› the reason why the item could not be rectified before the end of the original rectification interval.

Operation of aircraft with multiple inoperative items not permitted in certain circumstances (91.960) Where an aircraft has more than one inoperative item under the MEL and the number and kind of inoperative items, or the relationship between the items is such that they:

› reduce the aircraft’s operational level of safety, or

› increase the flight crew’s workload, and

› as a consequence, may make the flight unsafe, then the MEL can no longer be applied to permit the aircraft’s operation.



05APPENDICES and REFERENCESAppendix A 104

Appendix B 107

Abbreviations and acronyms 133

Definitions 135

103


Appendix A: MOS Chapter 10−Flight plans and notification

Flight notification requirements (MOS 10.02)You must submit a flight notification in accordance with the AIP to air traffic services for the following flights:

› an IFR flight

› a VFR flight for which you nominate a SARTIME

› a flight in controlled airspace (but excluding VFR flight in class E airspace).

You must confirm ATS receipt when submitting flight notification with a SARTIME by fax.

To minimise the risk of frequency congestion when using radio to submit a flight notification, you must transmit only the information ATS requires for the current flight stage.

If the aircraft is equipped with VHF only, you must not nominate IFR for any stage of the flight where the aircraft is beyond ATS VHF coverage.

You must not act upon flight notification unless ATS accepts or confirms it.

SARTIME flight notification requirements—VFR (MOS 10.3, ENR 1.10-6)

If you are a VFR flight that is: › air transport, or

› over water, or

› in a designated remote area, or

› at night proceeding beyond 120 NM from the departure aerodrome, you must:

» submit a flight notification with SARTIME to ATS, or

» leave an appropriate flight note with a responsible person.

Note: for flight notes, see the following section titled ‘Information to be included in a flight notification’.

For a VFR flight if you nominate a SARTIME, you must provide ATS with the following:

› aircraft call sign

› aircraft type

› departure point

› route to be flown

› destination

› POB

› SARTIME.

If the details of a VFR flight with SARTIME change, you must provide ATS with the following in the same way as you give a flight notification:

› details of the variation

› position at which the variation is to occur

› which flight rules will apply after the variation.

Only one SARTIME may be current at any time.

Departure SARTIME (MOS 10.04, ENR 1.10-7)When submitting a flight notification, you may nominate a SARTIME for departure for the initial departure aerodrome only. For an intermediate departure, you may nominate a SARTIME:

› by telephone after landing, or

› as part of the arrival report for the intermediate departure aerodrome.

The nomination of a SARTIME for departure does not affect any obligation on you under Part 91 to carry operative radio equipment and make broadcasts and reports.

At an aerodrome where radio or ground communication cannot reasonably be assured, the SARWATCH may be extended for the period of landing and subsequent take-off, by nominating SARTIME for departure at the time of arrival.

104 | APPENDICES AND REFERENCES


Guide to flight notification requirements (MOS 10.05, ENR 1.10-8)The following table shows the flight notification requirements for classes and types of operations when flying IFR or VFR.

Table 13: Guide to flight notification requirements

Flight category Class of operation Type of operation

Summary of flight notification options

IFR All classes All operations Comprehensive flight notification to ATS

VFR Air transport All operations SARTIME to ATS, or flight note to a responsible person

VFR Aerial work and Part 91

Particular operations, namely:1. flights over water, or2. flights in designated remote areas, or3. flights at night proceeding beyond 120 NM from the departure aerodrome

SARTIME to ATS, or flight note to a responsible person

VFR Aerial work and Part 91

Other than particular operations (above) SARTIME to ATS, or flight note to a responsible person, are optional

Information to be included in a flight notification (MOS 10.8, ENR 1.10-8)A flight note must contain the following information:

› the aircraft’s radio call sign

› the ETD for each departure point

› the ETA for each landing point

› the aircraft’s fuelled airborne endurance

› the pilot’s name, and the telephone number at which they are contactable for the flight

› the POB

› the destination contact facility.

Requirement to notify numbers of POB (MOS 10.9, ENR 1.10 – 11)For an IFR flight, you must notify ATS on first contact, with the number of POB.

Note 1: CASA recommends you notify ATS of any subsequent changes to the POB.

Note 2: You can find detailed information on completing a flight notification form, and amendments that are to be notified, in the AIP ENR.

Responsible persons for receipt of a flight note (MOS 10.10) (ENR 1.10) A ‘responsible person’ for the receipt of a flight note must be over 18 years, and

› have access to at least 2 operative and appropriate telephones, and

› must satisfy you they know how to contact the Joint Rescue Coordination Centre Australia and will do so immediately if your flight is overdue.




Cancelling SARTIME —VFR flight (MOS 10.06, ENR 1.10-7, ENR 1.1-86)For a VFR flight, you must cancel your SARTIME, no later than the time nominated, by using the words ‘CANCEL SARTIME’.

For a single VHF radio-equipped aircraft, you must cancel your SARTIME at or before changing to the CTAF, or after landing.

You may cancel SARTIME for VFR flights:

› by phoning CENSAR on 1800 814 931

› if telephone facilities are not available—through use of ATS VHF/HF radio frequencies

› otherwise—as approved in writing by CASA.

Note: For a VFR flight, the preferred method for cancelling SARTIME is to phone CENSAR

Cancelling SARWATCH or SARTIME for an IFR flight (MOS section 10.7, ENR 1.10-7, ENR 1.1-87)When cancelling SARWATCH, you must include:

› the aircraft call sign

› the place of arrival, or point from which SARWATCH services are no longer required

› the words ‘CANCEL SARWATCH’

› when communicating with a unit other than that nominated—the name of the ATS unit to which the report is to be relayed.

ATS will acknowledge ‘CANCEL SARTIME’ reports with a readback of the place of arrival, if appropriate, and the words ‘SARTIME CANCELLED’ (ENR 1.1-87).



Appendix B: MOS Chapter 30−Instruments, indicators, equipment and systems

Purpose (MOS 30.01)The requirements to fit and carry, instruments, indicators, items of equipment or systems on an aircraft are as follows.

In this chapter, the word ‘system/s’ refers to instruments, indicators, items of equipment and systems.

Approval of aircraft instruments, indicators, items of equipment and systems (MOS 30.03)Before an Australian aircraft may begin a flight, CASA must approve under Part 21, any system required to be fitted to or carried on the aircraft in accordance with the following procedures. However, this is not required for the following items:

› equipment used to display the time

› independent portable light, for example a flashlight or torch

› a headset

› a portable megaphone

› a child restraint system

› a sea anchor and other equipment for mooring

› a first aid kit or medical kit

› survival equipment, including signalling equipment.

Before a foreign registered aircraft may fly in Australian airspace, the NAA of the aircraft’s state of registry must approve the systems fitted to, or carried on, the aircraft.

Visibility and accessibility of pilot-operated instruments, indicators, items of equipment and systems (MOS 30.04)Any system in an aircraft for pilot use in, or from, the cockpit must be visible to, and accessible from, the pilot’s seat in the aircraft.

Prescribed circumstances for flight with inoperative instruments, indicators or systems (MOS 30.4A)In spite of a system being required under Chapter 30 of the Part 91 MOS you may operate with an inoperative system in the following circumstances:

› in accordance with the minimum equipment list or MEL for the aircraft, or

› if the system is inoperative because of a defect that has been approved as a permissible unserviceability for the aircraft, under reg 21.007.

Aeroplane specific requirements—application (MOS 30.05)The system requirements set out in MOS 30.05, 30.06, 30.07, 30.08 and 30.09 apply to all aeroplanes subject to the exceptions applicable to light sport aircraft for which a special certificate of airworthiness, or aircraft for which an experimental certificate, have been issued as set out in MOS 30.14, 30.15, 30.16 and 30.17.

Aeroplane—day VFR flight (MOS 30.06)An aeroplane flying day VFR must be fitted with the systems for measuring and displaying the flight information and which meets the requirements in table 14.



Table 14: Requirements for instruments, indicators, items of equipment or systems—day VFR aeroplane

Flight information RequirementsIndicated airspeedMach number Only for an aeroplane with

operating limitations expressed as a Mach number

Pressure altitude

The system must: › have an adjustable datum scale

calibrated in millibars or hPa, and

› be calibrated in feet, except that, for flight in a foreign country which measures FL or altitudes in metres, the system must be calibrated in metres, or fitted with a conversion placard or device.

Magnetic headingTime The system must display accurate

time in hours, minutes, and seconds.The system must be: › fitted to the aircraft, or

› worn by, or immediately accessible to, the pilot for the duration of the flight.

Aeroplane—night VFR flight (MOS 30.07)An aeroplane flying night VFR must have systems displaying the flight information, and which meet requirements in table 15.

Table 15: Requirements for instruments, indicators, items of equipment or systems—night VFR aeroplane night VFR

Flight information RequirementsIndicated airspeed

The system must be capable of being connected to:an alternate source of static pressure that: › a pilot can select; and

› includes a selector that can open or block the aeroplane’s static source and alternative static source simultaneously; or

› a balanced pair of flush static ports.

Flight information RequirementsMach number Only for an aeroplane with operating

limitations expressed as a Mach number

Pressure altitude

The system must be capable of being connected to: › an alternate source of static

pressure that a pilot can select; or



time in hours, minutes, and seconds.The system must be: › fitted to the aircraft; or


Turn and slip The system must display turn-and-slip information, except when a second independent attitude indicating system is fitted, in which case only the display of slip information is required.

AttitudeVertical speed The system must be capable of being

connected to: › an alternate source of static



Stabilised heading

The system must indicate whether the power supply to the gyroscopic instruments is working satisfactorily.Note: A gyro-magnetic type of remote indicating compass meets this requirement if it has a primary and an alternate power supply.

Note: For gyroscopic instruments (if any), a system that indicates whether the power supply is adequate.

Aeroplane—IFR flight (MOS 30.08)An aeroplane flying IFR must be fitted with systems for measuring and displaying the flight information and which meets the requirements in table 16.



Table 16: Requirements for instruments, indicators, items of equipment or systems—aeroplane IFR flight



pressure that is selectable by a pilot


The system for indicated airspeed must include a means of preventing malfunction due to condensation or icing.

Mach number Only for an aeroplane with operating limitations expressed as a Mach number

Pressure altitude

The system must: › have an adjustable datum scale

calibrated in millibars or hPa, and

› be calibrated in feet, except that, if a flight is in a foreign country which measures FL or altitudes in metres, the system must be calibrated in metres, or fitted with a conversion placard or device.


pressure that a pilot can select, and



time in hours, minutes, and seconds.The system must be: › fitted to the aircraft; or


Flight information RequirementsTurn and slip The system must display turn-and-

slip information, except where a second independent source of attitude information is available, in which case only slip information is required.The system must have both a primary power and alternate power supply: › unless the system has a source

of power independent of the power operating other gyroscopic instruments; or

› a second independent source of attitude is available

Attitude The system must have both a primary and alternate power supply, unless: › the system has a power source

independent of source of turn-and-slip information, or

› a second independent source of attitude information is available.

Vertical speed The system must be capable of being connected to: › an alternate source of static



Stabilised heading

The system must have both a primary and alternate power supply, unless: › the system has a power source

independent of that operating the turn-and-slip system; or

› a second independent source of attitude information available

Note: A gyro-magnetic remote indicating compass meets this requirement if it has both a primary and an alternate power supply.




Aeroplane—IFR flight—equipment to measure and record cosmic radiation (MOS 30.09)An aeroplane flying IFR above FL 490, must be fitted with equipment to measure and display the total cosmic radiation received in the cabin. The equipment must continuously measure and display:

› the dose rate of total cosmic radiation being received, and

› the cumulative dose of total cosmic radiation received on each flight.

Total cosmic radiation means ‘the sum total of ionising or neutron radiation of galactic and solar origin’.

Rotorcraft specific requirements—application (MOS 30.10)The system requirements set out in MOS 30.11, 30.12 and 30.13 apply to all rotorcraft subject to the exceptions applicable to light sport aircraft for which a special certificate of airworthiness or aircraft for which an experimental certificate has been issued as set out in 30.14, 30.15, 30.16 and 30.17.

Rotorcraft—day VFR flight (MOS 30.11)A rotorcraft flying day VFR must be fitted with one or more systems for measuring and displaying the flight information and which meets the requirements in table 17.

Table 17: Requirements for instruments, indicators, items of equipment or systems—rotorcraft day VFR flight

Flight information RequirementsIndicated airspeedPressure altitude

The system must have an adjustable datum scale calibrated in millibars or hectopascals.

Magnetic headingTime › The system must display accurate

time in hours, minutes, and seconds.

› The system must be:

» fitted to the aircraft; or

» worn by, or immediately accessible to, the pilot for the duration of the flight.

Rotorcraft—night VFR flight (MOS 30.12)A rotorcraft flying night VFR must have a system fitted for measuring and displaying the flight information and which meets the requirements in table 18.

If you are a single pilot flying a rotorcraft VFR at night over land or water, you must not begin the flight if:

› you cannot maintain the rotorcraft’s attitude by using visual external surface cues from lights on the ground or celestial illumination, and

› the rotorcraft is not fitted with an automatic pilot system or an automatic stabilisation system.

Table 18: Requirements for an instrument, indicator, item of equipment or system—rotorcraft night VFR flight

Flight information RequirementsIndicated airspeedPressure altitude

The system must have an adjustable datum scale calibrated in millibars or hPa.


time in hours, minutes, and seconds. The system must be: › fitted to the aircraft; or


Turn and slip The system must display turn-and-slip information, except where a second independent source of attitude information is available, in which case only the display of slip information is required.Note: A second independent source of attitude information may be a stand-by attitude indicator, or a second attitude-indicating system.

Attitude The system must have a primary and an alternate power supply.

Stand-by attitude

The system must have a primary and an alternate power supply.



Flight information RequirementsVertical speed If the rotorcraft operates on to

vessels or platforms at sea by night, the system must: › be an instantaneous vertical

speed indicator (IVSI); or

› meet performance requirements for acceleration sensitivity equivalent to an IVSI.

Stabilised heading

The system must have a primary and an alternate power supply, unless the system has a power source independent of that powering the turn-and-slip system.The system must have an alternate power supply in addition to its primary power supply, unless the system has a source of power independent of the power operating the turn and slip system.Note: A gyro-magnetic type of remote indicating compass meets this requirement if it has a primary power supply and an alternate power supply.


Rotorcraft—IFR flight (MOS 30.13)A rotorcraft flying IFR must have a system fitted for measuring and displaying the following and which meets the requirements provided in table 19:

A rotorcraft must not begin an IFR flight unless it is fitted with, or carries, an automatic pilot system or an automatic stabilisation system.

A rotorcraft for an IFR flight for which 2 pilots are required by or under the regulations or the AFM must not begin a flight unless it is fitted with at least 1 additional system, independent of the corresponding system mentioned in table 19, for measuring and displaying the following flight information for the rotorcraft:

› indicated airspeed

› pressure altitude

› turn and slip

› attitude

› vertical speed.

The above flight information must meet the requirements detailed in table 19.

Table 19: Requirements instrument, indicator, item of equipment or system—rotorcraft IFR flight


The system must be capable of being connected to:

› an alternate source of static pressure that a pilot can select; and or


At least 1 airspeed indicating system must include a means of preventing malfunction due to condensation or icing.

The system must operate independently of other sources of indicated information

Pressure altitude

The system must have an adjustable datum scale calibrated in millibars or hPa.

The system must be capable of being connected to:

› an alternate source of static pressure that a pilot can select, and


The system must operate independently of other sources of indicated airspeed information.


time in hours, minutes, and seconds.

The system must be:

› fitted to the aircraft; or


Turn and slip The system must operate independently of other sources of turn-and-slip information.



Flight information RequirementsAttitude The system must have both a

primary, and an alternate, power supply.

The system must operate independently of other sources of turn-and-slip information.

Stand-by attitude

The system must: › have a power source

independent of the electrical generating system;

› operate independently of other sources attitude information, and

› continue to operate without any action by the flight crew, for 30 minutes after the electrical power generating system fails.

Vertical speed The system must be capable of being connected to: › an alternate source of static

pressure that a pilot can select, and/or


The system must: › be an instantaneous vertical

speed indicator (IVSI), or

› meet performance requirements equivalent to an IVSI.

The system must operate independently of other sources of turn-and-slip information.

Stabilised heading

The system must have both a primary, and an alternate, power supply.Note: A gyro-magnetic remote indicating compass meets this requirement if it has a primary and an alternate power supply.

Outside air temperature


VFR flight requirements do not apply to certain light sport aircraft (MOS 30.14)The requirements in ‘VFR flight by day’ (MOS 30.06), and ‘Aeroplane VFR flight by night’ (MOS 30.07) do not apply to a light sport aircraft (for which a special certificate of airworthiness has been issued and is in force under reg 21.186, or for which an experimental certificate has been issued and is in force under reg 21.191 [j] or [k]), if it is fitted with systems which provide the pilot with the same flight and navigation information as would be provided through compliance with sections 30.06 and 30.07, as the case may be.

VFR and IFR flight requirements do not apply to certain experimental aeroplanes (MOS 30.15) The requirements to fit approved equipment, instrumentation and systems (MOS 30.03); VFR flight by day (MOS 30.06); VFR flight by night (MOS 30.07) and Aeroplane IFR flight (MOS 30.08) do not apply to an aeroplane with an experimental certificate that has been issued and is in force under reg 21.191 (g), (h), if it is fitted with systems which provide the pilot with the same flight and navigation information as would be provided through compliance with section 30.06, 30.07 or 30.08 as the case may be.

VFR and IFR flight requirements do not apply to certain experimental rotorcraft (MOS 30.16)The requirements to fit approved equipment, instrumentation and systems (MOS 30.03); Rotorcraft VFR flight by day (MOS 30.11); Rotorcraft VFR flight by night (MOS 30.12); and Rotorcraft IFR flight (MOS 30.13); do not apply to a rotorcraft for which an experimental certificate has been issued and is in force under paragraph 21.191 (g) or (h), if it is fitted with systems which provide the pilot with the same flight and navigation information as would be provided through compliance with sections 30.11, 30.12 or 30.13 as the case may be.



VFR and IFR flight requirements do not apply to certain Australian registered aircraft (MOS 30.17)The requirements of ‘Aeroplane-specific requirements’ (MOS Division 30.2) or ‘Rotorcraft-specific requirements’ (MOS Division 30.3) do not apply to any Australian aircraft if it is fitted with a system providing the aircraft’s intended operation with equivalent safety to that which would be achieved if MOS Division 30.2 or MOS Division 30.3 (as the case requires) applied.

For CASA, ‘safety equivalency’ must take into account whether the aircraft’s type-certificating authority of a recognised country considers that it achieves, for its intended operation, a safety level equivalent to that which would be achieved if MOS Division 30.2 or 30.3 applied.

Electronic flight information systems (MOS 30.18)This section applies to light sport (MOS 30.14) and experimental (MOS 30.15) aeroplanes, or experimental rotorcraft (MOS 30.16), fitted with 1 of the following:

› an electronic flight information system (an EFIS)

› an electronic display indicator (EDI)

› another system for displaying flight information electronically.

The system must have a battery-powered back-up, or a power source independent of the aircraft’s primary electrical system.

The battery-powered back-up must be fully charged before flight and have sufficient capacity to power the EFIS panel or other display for at least 60 minutes.

(MOS 30.19)Reserved

Aircraft lighting systems—night VFR flight and IFR flight (MOS 30.20)Aircraft flying night VFR or IFR must be fitted with, or carry, the following lighting systems:

› cockpit lighting meeting the requirements set out below

› cabin lighting that enables each occupant of the aircraft to see and use:

» their seatbelt and oxygen facilities, and

» the normal and emergency exits

› for each FCM—an independent portable light accessible to the FCM from their normal sitting position

› for each other crew member (if any) — an independent portable light accessible to the crew member at their crew station

› if specified in the aircraft type design— the number of anti-collision lights the type design requires for the system

› navigation lights

› at least 1 landing light.

Note: See Part 90 for emergency lighting requirements.

A cockpit lighting system must:

› illuminate each system the flight crew may use, including checklists and flight documents

› be compatible with each instrument or item of equipment a pilot may use

› be arranged in a way that:

» each pilot from their normal sitting position in the aircraft’s pilot’s seat can read all placards and instrument markings

» each pilot’s eyes are shielded from direct and reflected light, and

› be adjustable, so that pilots can vary the intensity of the lighting for the light conditions.



Anti-collision lights—display (MOS 30.21)An anti-collision light system if fitted, must comprise:

› at least 1 red beacon light, or

› at least 2 white strobe lights, or

› a combination of the lights described above.

Where an anti-collision light system comprises red beacon lights only, the lights must be displayed as follows:

› turbine-engine aircraft—from immediately before the engines are started until the engines are shut down at the end of the flight

› any other aircraft—from immediately after the engines are started until the engines are shut down at the end of the flight.

Where an anti-collision light system comprises white strobe lights only, the lights must be displayed as follows:

› turbine-engine aircraft—from immediately before the engines are started until the engines are shut down at the end of the flight, and

› any other aircraft—from immediately after the engines are started until the engines are shut down at the end of the flight.

Where an anti-collision light system comprises a combination of red beacon lights and white strobe lights, the lights must be displayed as follows:

› for the red beacon lights:

» turbine-engine aircraft—from immediately before the engines are started until the engines are shut down at the end of a flight, and

» any other aircraft—from immediately after the engines are started until the engines are shut down at the end of the flight.

› for the white strobe lights:

» any time the aircraft crosses a runway in use for take-offs or landings (an active runway)—while the aircraft is crossing the active runway, and

» at the end of a flight—from the time the aircraft enters the runway until the time the aircraft leaves the runway.

Exception: The above operating requirements do not apply if the pilot reasonably believes that, in the circumstances, reflection or glare from the anti-collision light system may cause a hazard to an aircraft.

Navigation lights (MOS 30.22)You must display a navigation light system, if fitted, at night or in poor visibility, whether the aircraft is in the air, or on the aerodrome movement area.

Altitude alerting system and assigned altitude indicator—IFR flights (MOS 30.23)If flying IFR, the following aircraft must have an altitude alerting system fitted:

› a piston engine aircraft, operating in controlled airspace above FL150

› an unpressurised turbine-engine aircraft, operating in controlled airspace above FL150

› a pressurised turbine-engine aircraft operating in any controlled airspace.

The altitude alerting system must be an assigned altitude indicator and include an aural warning signal alerting the flight crew if the aircraft approaches a selected altitude, or when the aircraft deviates from a preselected altitude.

If an aircraft other than one of the types referred to above is flying IFR in controlled airspace, it must be fitted with an assigned altitude indicator that each FCM must be able to read or adjust from their normal sitting position in a pilot’s seat in the aircraft.

Exception: The requirement above regarding an FCM to be able to read and adjust an assigned altitude indicator from their normal sitting position does not apply if the aircraft is fitted with an altitude alerting system.

Reserved—Aeroplane airborne collision avoidance system ACAS (MOS 30.24)

Reserved—ACAS requirements for use (MOS 30.25)

Aeroplane flight data recorder (MOS 30.26)A flight data recorder (FDR) must be fitted to a turbine powered aeroplane that has a MTOW of more than 5700 kg, and was first issued with a certificate of airworthiness after 1 July 1965.



Aeroplane cockpit voice recorder (MOS 30.27)One cockpit voice recorder (CVR) must be fitted to the following:

› a turbine-powered aeroplane:

» having a MTOW of more than 5700 kg, and

» first issued with a certificate of airworthiness on or after 1 July 1965

› a multi-engine turbine-powered aeroplane that:

» is pressurised, and

» has a MTOW of 5700 kg or less, and

» is type certificated in its country of manufacture for operation with more than 11 seats (including seats specifically designed for the use of crew members), and

» was first issued with a certificate of airworthiness on or after 1 January 1988.

Rotorcraft flight data recorder (MOS 30.28)1 FDR must be fitted to a turbine-powered rotorcraft that:

› has a MTOW of more than 5700 kg, and

› was first issued with a certificate of airworthiness on or after 1 July 1965.

Rotorcraft cockpit voice recorder (MOS section 30.28A)1 CVR must be fitted to the following:

› a turbine-powered rotorcraft that:

» has a MTOW of more than 5700 kg, and

» was first issued with a certificate of airworthiness on or after 1 January 1965

› a multi-engine turbine-powered rotorcraft that:

» is pressurised, and

» has a MTOW of 5700 kg or less, and

» is type certificated in its country of manufacture for operation with more than 11 seats (including seats specifically designed for the use of crew members), and

» was first issued with a certificate of airworthiness on or after 1 January 1988.

Combination recorders—for aeroplane or rotorcraft (MOS 30.29)A combination recorder means a single recording system combining the capabilities and the functions of an FDR and a CVR.

A recorder means a combination recorder, an FDR or a CVR.

You may meet the MOS requirement (under sections 30.26, 30.27, or 30.28) for an aeroplane or a rotorcraft to be fitted with 1 FDR and 1 CVR, by fitting:

› 2 combination recorders, or

› 1 FDR and 1 combination recorder, or

› 1 CVR and 1 combination recorder.

Recorder technical requirements (MOS 30.30)An FDR, a CVR and a combination must comply with one of the following:

› the requirements of CAO 103.19

› (E)TSO-C124a.

A CVR or a combination recorder must comply with 1 of the following:

› the requirements of CAO 103.20

› (E)TSO-C123a.

The operator of an aircraft that is required to be equipped with any of the following must ensure, at any time:

› for an FDR or combination recorder—the recorder retains its last 25 hours of flight data recording, and

› for a CVR or a combination recorder—the recorder retains its last 30 minutes of cockpit voice recording, and

› for an FDR or combination recorder—data from the last 2 occasions on which the flight data recording was calibrated are preserved (this is to enable a determination of the accuracy of the recorded data).



Aircraft flown with inoperative flight recording equipment (MOS 30.31)An FDR, a CVR, or a combination recorder may be inoperative at the beginning of a flight if:

› the flight begins from a departure aerodrome with no facility to repair or replace the recorder, and

› it is not a flight test or a training flight, and

› if the aircraft is fitted with 1CVR and no FDR—the inoperative recorder has not been inoperative for more than 21 days, and

› if the aircraft is fitted with 1 CVR and 1 FDR:

» the inoperative recorder has not been inoperative for more than 21 days, and

» the other recorder is operative, and

› if the aircraft is fitted with 1 combination recorder —the inoperative recorder has not been inoperative for more than 3 days, and

› if the aircraft is fitted with 2 combination recorders

» the inoperative combination recorder has not been inoperative for more than 21 days, and

» the other combination recorder is operative.

Continuous operation of flight recorders (MOS 30.32)An FDR fitted to an aircraft must operate continuously from the time the aircraft begins moving under its own power, until the time the flight is terminated, and the aircraft can no longer move under its own power.

A CVR fitted to an aircraft must operate continuously from the time when the first pilot checklist commences before the engines are started for a flight, until the final pilot checklist is completed at the end of the flight.

The FDR and the CVR functionalities within a combination recorder fitted to an aircraft must operate continuously during the same periods as an FDR and a CVR as described above.

If:

› there is no APU or other alternative power source for the aircraft, and

› it is reasonably necessary to preserve the aircraft’s primary power source to start the aircraft’s engines, and

› the flight data recorder is operated continuously during the period beginning just before the engines are started for take-off and ending when the final pilot checklist is completed at the end of the flight,

Then:

› a cockpit voice recorder fitted to an aircraft must operate continuously from:

» when the engines are started for the flight,

» until the final pilot checklist is completed at the end of the flight.

Flight data and combination recorders not to be operated during aircraft maintenance (MOS 30.33)An FDR or combination recorder fitted to an aircraft must not be operated during maintenance of the aircraft, or of an aeronautical product fitted to the aircraft, except if the maintenance is to the recorder or an aircraft engine (although an APU fitted to the aircraft is not an ‘aircraft engine’ unless it is used to propel the aircraft).

Aeroplane data link recorder (MOS 30.34)Reserved

Rotorcraft data link recorder (MOS 30.35)Reserved

Intercommunications system—VFR flights (MOS 30.36)This section applies to an aircraft that is:

› flown VFR, and

› flown by at least 2 pilots, as the regulations or AFM require, and

› whose cockpit noise levels at any stage of the flight prevent the pilots from communicating with each other in speech at a normal conversation level.

Such aircraft must be fitted with an intercommunication system which:

› includes a headset with a combined microphone, and

› is accessible to each pilot in their normal sitting position in a pilot’s seat.



Intercommunications system—IFR flights (MOS 30.37) When an aircraft flown IFR begins a flight with 1 pilot as its AFM requires, it must be fitted with, or carry:

› 2 headsets with combined microphones, or

› 1 headset with a combined microphone, and 1 hand-held microphone with a loudspeaker.

When an aircraft flown IFR requiring 2 pilots under regulations or the AFM begins a flight, it must be fitted with:

› 3 headsets with combined microphones, or

› 2 headsets with combined microphones, and 1 hand-held microphone with a loudspeaker.

Public address system (MOS 30.38)This section applies to an aircraft that has:

› a maximum operational passenger seating configuration of 20 or more, and

› at least 1 passenger on board for a flight.

When the aircraft begins a flight, it must be fitted with a public address system to enable the pilot in command to address the passengers.

Supplemental oxygen (MOS 30.39)An aircraft must carry, and person must use supplemental oxygen in accordance with the following table.

Table 20: Supplemental oxygen—amount required for a flight

Circumstance Supplemental oxygenWhile the aircraft’s cabin pressure altitude is continuously at least FL 125, but less than FL 140

Available to each FCM after 30 minutes

While the aircraft’s cabin pressure altitude is at least FL 140

Available to each FCM

While the aircraft’s cabin pressure altitude is at least FL150

Available to each passenger on the aircraft

While a pressurised aircraft is flown at an altitude of FL 250 or more

Available to each FCM and, despite any other item in this table, available for at least 10 minutes

While a pressurised aircraft is flown at an altitude of FL 250 or more

Available to each passenger on the aircraft and, despite any other item in this table, available for at least 10 minutes after descending from FL 250




Oxygen masks—pressurised aircraft above FL250 (MOS 30.40)At any time during flight above FL250 in a pressurised aircraft, at least 1 pilot occupying a pilot seat must wear securely a sealed oxygen mask which is being supplied with supplemental oxygen or which automatically supplies supplemental oxygen when the cabin pressure altitude is at or above FL140.; or

› have access to a quick-donning mask supplied with supplemental oxygen when the mask is donned or worn.

A ‘quick-donning mask’ is one which within 5 seconds of it being deployed for use, can be, placed, secured and sealed on the FCM’s face, using one hand.

Oxygen masks—pressurised aircraft above FL450 (MOS 30.41)In a pressurised aircraft flown above FL450, at least 1 pilot occupying a pilot seat must be wearing one of the following types of oxygen masks being supplied with supplemental oxygen:

› a sealed oxygen mask (securely worn), or

› a quick-donning mask.

Protective breathing equipment—pressurised aircraft (MOS 30.42)When a pressurised aircraft begins a flight and is required by either the regulations or the AFM to have at least 2 pilots, it must carry protective breathing equipment for each pilot which must:

› be able to supply oxygen continuously for at least 15 minutes

› be located at their seat

› not prevent, or be likely to prevent, the pilot from effectively using any crew intercommunications system fitted to the aircraft.

Protective breathing equipment means equipment which protects the wearer from heat and smoke while allowing them to breathe.

Portable protective breathing equipment—pressurised aircraft (MOS 30.43)When a pressurised aircraft begins a flight with at least 2 pilots as required by the regulations or the AFM, it must carry the following portable protective breathing equipment for each pilot.

The aircraft must carry the number of portable protective breathing equipment units equal to whichever of the following is the lesser:

› the number of hand-held fire extinguishers which the flight must carry, and

› the number of cabin crew members required for the flight (see reg 91.825).

The portable protective breathing equipment must be able to supply oxygen, or a mixture of oxygen and another suitable gas, for at least 15 minutes continuously.

Portable protective breathing equipment units must be located as follows:

› 1 unit must be located in, or as close as practicable to the cockpit

› the remaining units (if any) must be located adjacent to:

» hand-held fire extinguishers, or

» cabin crew member seats.

First aid oxygen equipment—pressurised aircraft (MOS 30.44)A pressurised aircraft with at least 2 pilots as the regulations or AFM require, flown above FL250, and carrying a passenger:

› must carry, for use in first aid, a volume of undiluted oxygen that will provide an average oxygen gas flow rate, calculated assuming dry oxygen gas at standard temperature and pressure, of 3 litres per minute per person, for:

› whichever of the following is the greater:

» 2 % of the passengers carried on the flight,

» 1 passenger, and

› the flight period during which the aircraft’s cabin altitude exceeds 8000 ft but does not exceed FL150.



The aircraft must carry:

› at least 2 oxygen masks suitable for use in dispensing oxygen for first aid, and

› equipment for dispensing oxygen that:

» is capable of generating a flow rate, calculated assuming dry oxygen gas at standard temperature and pressure, of at least 4 litres per minute per person, and

» has a means of reducing the flow to not less than 2 litres per minute per person at any altitude.

Purpose (MOS 30.45) Requirements for fitting and carrying emergency locator transmitters (ELTs).

ELT—basic requirements (MOS 30.46)An ELT:

› when activated, must transmit simultaneously on 121.5 MHz and 406 MHz

› when fitted to, or carried on, an Australian aircraft—must be registered, solely, with the Australian Maritime Safety Authority (AMSA)

› when fitted to, or carried on, a foreign registered aircraft—must be registered with the authority of the aircraft’s state of registry responsible for search and rescue services, and not with AMSA

› must, for identification purposes, be coded in accordance with the requirements for the transmitter in in Volume III of ICAO Annex 10, Aeronautical Telecommunications (Appendix 1 to Chapter 5 of Part II, ‘Voice Communications’)

› if fitted with a lithium-sulphur dioxide battery, the battery must be authorised by the FAA or EASA in accordance with (E) TSO-C142a.

Automatic ELT (MOS 30.47)An Automatic ELT is one that must automatically activate on impact and either be:

› authorised by the FAA or EASA in accordance with (E)TSO-C126, or

› authorised by EASA in accordance with:

» ETSO-2C91a for operation on 121.5 MHz, and

» ETSO-2C126 for operation on 406 MHz; or

› approved in writing by CASA as having a level of performance equivalent to a type of transmitter mentioned above.

Survival ELT (MOS 30.48)A Survival ELT is one that must be removable from the aircraft and of the following types:

› an emergency position-indicating radio beacon that meets the requirements of AS/NZS 4280.1:2003, or

› a personal locator beacon that meets the requirements of AS/NZS 4280.2:2003, or

› authorised by the FAA or EASA in accordance with (E)TSO-C126, or

› authorised by EASA in accordance with:

» ETSO-2C91a for operation on 121.5 MHz, and

» ETSO-2C126 for operation on 406 MHz; or

› approved in writing by CASA as having a level of performance equivalent to a type mentioned above.

When an ELT must be fitted or carried (MOS 30.49) › An aircraft must not fly unless it:

› is fitted with an automatic ELT, or

› carries a survival ELT.

Exceptions: The following aircraft are excluded from this requirement:

› single-seat aircraft

› newly manufactured aircraft being flight tested or delivered by the manufacturer

› aircraft flown no more than 50 NM from their place of departure.

ELT—single-engine aircraft flown over water (MOS 30.50)A single-engine aircraft must carry a survival ELT when it is flown over water at a distance further than which it could reach a suitable forced landing area, in the event of an engine failure.

Exceptions: The following aircraft are excluded from this requirement:

› single-seat aircraft

› a new manufactured aircraft being flight tested or delivered by the manufacturer

› an aircraft fitted with a radio, or otherwise capable of continuous communication with a person on the ground during flight.



Aircraft flown with inoperative ELT (MOS 30.51)An aircraft may fly with an inoperative approved automatic ELT, or an inoperative survival ELT, if the purpose of the flight is to ferry the aircraft to have the ELT repaired or maintained.

You may fly an aircraft without an automatic or survival ELT if:

› the transmitter has been temporarily removed from the aircraft for maintenance; and there is an entry in the aircraft’s flight technical log, stating:

» the transmitter’s make, model and serial number

» the date on which the transmitter was removed from the aircraft

» the reason for the removal of the transmitter.

› a placard stating ‘Emergency locator transmitter not installed or carried’ has been placed in the aircraft in a position where you can see it, and

› no more than 90 days have passed since the emergency locator transmitter was temporarily removed for maintenance.

If an inoperative automatic ELT has been removed from an aircraft, it is not required to carry an ELT during the period of repair, but for no more than 90 days.

Hand-held fire extinguishers—aeroplanes above 5700 kg MTOW (MOS 30.52)An aeroplane with a MTOW above 5700 kg, must carry at least the following hand-held fire extinguishers:

› 1 in the cockpit

› 1 in each galley

› 1 at the entry of each cargo and each baggage compartment, being a compartment that:

» is accessible in flight, and

» is not fitted with a fixed fire and smoke detection and extinguishing system.

› the number in the passenger compartment is in proportion to the passenger seat capacity set out in the following table.

Table 21: Requirements for number of hand-held fire extinguishers

Passenger seating capacity

Number of extinguishers

7-30 131-60 261-200 3201-300 4301-400 5401-500 6501-600 7601 or more 8

Exception 1: For an aeroplane with a passenger seating capacity of not more than 9, in which the flight crew and the passengers occupy the same compartment—1 hand held fire extinguisher must be, readily available to the pilot.

Exception 2: For an aeroplane with a passenger seating capacity of more than 9, in which the flight crew and the passengers occupy the same compartment—1 hand held fire extinguisher must be, readily available to the: pilot; and 1, hand held fire extinguisher must be, readily available to the passengers.

Hand-held fire extinguishers—rotorcraft (MOS 30.53)A rotorcraft that is type certificated in the transport category must carry the following minimum number of hand-held fire extinguishers:

› 1 in the cockpit, and

› for an aircraft with a passenger seating capacity of 7 or more, 1 in the passenger compartment.

Exception 1: For a rotorcraft with a passenger seating capacity of not more than 9, in which the flight crew and the passengers occupy the same compartment, 1 hand-held fire extinguisher, readily available to the pilot.

Exception 2: For a rotorcraft with a passenger seating capacity of more than 9, in which the flight crew and the passengers occupy the same compartment, 1 hand-held fire extinguisher, readily available to the pilot; and one readily available to the passengers.



Sea anchors etc. and sound signals—seaplanes and amphibians (MOS 30.54)A seaplane or an amphibian taking off from, or landing on, water must carry a sea anchor and other equipment for mooring.

If the flight is on or over water to which international regulations apply, the aircraft must carry equipment for making the sound signals required by the international regulations for the flight.

Flights over water to which international regulations would apply would be those beyond a distance of 12 nm from the Australian coastline, even though you maybe still within the Australian flight information region boundary.

(MOS 30.55)Reserved

Lifejackets for flights over water (MOS 30.56)An aircraft that is:

› a seaplane or an amphibian, or

› a single-engine aircraft not a seaplane or an amphibian—if the flight is over water beyond the distance from which the aircraft could reach a suitable forced landing area if the engine failed, or

› a multi-engine aircraft not a seaplane or an amphibian—if the flight is more than 50 nm from a suitable forced landing area

must carry:

› for each infant on board—a life jacket or other flotation device, and

› for each other person on board—a life jacket with a whistle.

Exception: An aircraft does not have to carry life jackets if it flies over water in the normal course of climbing after take-off, or descending to land, or in accordance with a navigational procedure that is normal for climbing from or descending to, that aerodrome.

Please refer to airworthiness bulletin AWB 25-013 Issue 2 www.casa.gov.au/sites/default/files/_assets/main/airworth/awb/25/013.pdf

In general life jackets must be of a type approved by CASA. It is not the case that life jackets which meet an Australian Standard will meet the approval standards applied by CASA.

Stowage of life jackets (MOS 30.57)This section applies to aircraft required to carry approved life jackets.

Unless the lifejacket or other flotation device is being worn:

› each infant’s life jacket or flotation device must be stowed where it is readily accessible by an adult responsible for the infant, and

› each other person’s life jacket must be stowed where it is readily accessible from the person’s seat.

Life jackets which comply with marine standards may not meet CASA’s standards. Please refer section 6 of AWB 25-013 www.casa.gov.au/sites/default/files/_assets/main/airworth/awb/25/013.pdf



https://www.casa.gov.au/sites/default/files/_assets/main/airworth/awb/25/013.pdf






Wearing life jackets—aircraft generally (MOS 30.58) › A person (other than an infant) on board a single-

engine aircraft must wear a life jacket if it is flown over water beyond the distance from which it could reach land if the engine failed.

› A person (other than an infant) on board a rotorcraft must wear a life jacket with a whistle if the flight is over water, to or from, a helideck.

› A person may be taken to be wearing a life jacket if it is secured to the person in a way that allows the person to quickly and easily put it on in an emergency.

Exception 1: In an aeroplane, a person does not have to wear a life jacket if the flight over water is higher than 2000 ft above the water.

Exception 2: A person does not have to wear a lifejacket if the aircraft flies over water in the normal course of climbing after take-off, or descending to land, or in accordance with a navigational procedure that is normal for climbing from or descending to, that aerodrome.

Wearing life jackets—rotorcraft —special provision (MOS 30.59)If a rotorcraft is taking off or landing at an aerodrome in a populous area, and an area of water is the only reasonably available forced landing area, each person (other than an infant) must wear a life jacket while the rotorcraft is below the minimum operating height determined in accordance with reg 91.315.

The minimum altitude determined in accordance with 91.315 in most circumstances outside access lanes will be 1000 ft above the highest obstacle.

Life rafts for flights over water (MOS 30.60)An aircraft must carry sufficient life rafts to provide a place on a life raft for each person on the aircraft when the aircraft is operated at a greater distance than:

› For a jet-driven multi-engine aeroplane with a MTOW of more than 2722 kg—the lesser of:

» the distance the aeroplane would fly in 2 hours at its normal cruising speed in still air, or

» 400 NM.

› For a turbine-engine propeller-driven aeroplane with a MTOW of more than 5700 kg—the lesser of:

» the distance the aeroplane would fly in 2 hours at its normal cruising speed in still air, or

» 400 NM

› For any other aircraft—the lesser of:

» the distance the aircraft would fly in 30 minutes at its normal cruising speed in still air, or

» 100 NM.

When calculating the number of life rafts to be carried, the life raft’s capacity is the rated capacity specified by the manufacturer; and the number of infants on board need not be taken into account.

Do not take into account any overload capacity of a life raft when determining its carrying capacity.

Stowage of life rafts (MOS 30.61)The life raft must be stowed and secured so that it can be easily deployed if the aircraft has to ditch.

If a life raft is stowed in a compartment or container, mark it clearly so it is easy to see and identify.

Survival equipment for flight over water or in remote areas—definitions (MOS 30.62)A remote area means one of the following:

› Central Australia remote area

› Snowy Mountains remote area

› Tasmania remote area.

Over water and remote area survival equipment (MOS 30.63)An aircraft must carry appropriate survival equipment when operating in or through a remote area.

Where an aircraft must carry a life raft, it must carry appropriate survival equipment and signalling equipment so that if necessary, you can make the distress signals set out in Appendix 1 to ICAO Annex 2, ‘Rules of the Air’.

Exception: For a flight required to carry a life raft, you do not need signalling equipment where:

› the pilot is able to maintain continuous radio contact with ATS or the aircraft operator, or their representative, or

› the aircraft’s automatic onboard continuous tracking system allows the aircraft’s position to be monitored continually from the ground.



Meaning of remote area (MOS section 30.64)‘Central Australia remote area’ means the area of Australia, illustrated by the shading in Figure 25 CA RA:

› enclosed within the boundary of the following lines: a line from Kalgoorlie to Leigh Creek, to Bourke, to Mt Isa, to Townsville, to Cairns, then following the coast north to Cape Horn, then along the coastline of the Gulf of Carpentaria and on to Darwin, then following the coastline to Talgarno, then to Wiluna, to Laverton, and back to Kalgoorlie, and

› includes Australian-administered islands adjacent to the remote area between Cairns and Talgarno, and

› excludes the area within a 50 NM radius of Darwin, and

› excludes the flight corridors within sight of, and not more than, 5 NM from the following:

» the Stuart Highway between Alice Springs and Darwin

» the Barkly Highway between Tenant Creek and Mt Isa

» the Bruce Highway between Townsville and Cairns.

‘Snowy Mountains remote area’ means the area of Australia illustrated by the shading in Figure 26 SM RA, enclosed within the boundary of the following lines: a line from Mt Franklin to Tharwa, to Berridale, to Delegate, to Mt Baw Baw, to Jamieson, to Khancoban, and back to Mt Franklin.

‘Tasmania remote area’ means the area of Australia illustrated by the shading in Figure 27 TAS RA, enclosed within the boundary of the following lines: a line from West Point to Black Bluff, to 15 NM beyond Cape Bruny, then back to West Point at a distance of 15 NM off the coastline (disregarding bays and inlets).

A line, other than a coastline, is taken to be a straight line.

Exception: a line to or from a named town is taken to come no closer than 5 NM from the town centre on the side of the town adjacent to the remote area.

Figure 25: Central Australia remote area

Figure 26: Snowy Mountains remote area

Figure 27: Tasmania remote area



Carriage of GNSS—IFR aircraft (MOS 30.65)An IFR aircraft must be fitted with an approved GNSS area navigation system or an approved GNSS.

Use of GNSS (MOS 30.66)An aircraft must use an approved GNSS as a navigation system for any of the following:

› an approved RNAV IAP, including the related missed approach procedure

› an RNAV standard instrument departure (SID), or an RNAV standard instrument arrival (STAR).

An aircraft may use an approved GNSS as an RNAV system for any of the following:

› an oceanic, remote area or domestic en-route phase of flight that is not an IFR flight

› a VFR operation.

Use of suitable area navigation systems on conventional routes and procedures (MOS 30.67)This section applies for the flight of an aircraft, if:

› a means is required for operating on, or transitioning to, conventional routes and procedures (other than RNAV or RNP), and

› the AFM authorises navigation to RNP 2 (en-route), RNP 1 or RNP AR (terminal and approach), and

› other applicable requirements of MOS Division (30.16) are complied with.

Approved GNSS may be used:

› as a substitute means of navigation if:

» a conventional navigation aid is not available, or

» the aircraft is not equipped with an ADF, VOR or DME, or

» the installed ADF, VOR or DME is inoperative, or

› as an alternative means of navigation if:

» a conventional navigation aid is operative, and

» the aircraft is equipped with operative equipment compatible with the conventional navigation aids.

An approved GNSS may be used as a substitute for, or alternative to, the following conventional navigation aids:

› VOR

› DME

› VOR/DME

› NDB

› Outer Marker

› Middle Marker.

Before using an approved GNSS as a substitute or alternative to the conventional navigation aids for terminal operations (SID or STAR) or approach operations, you must ensure that:

› the intended waypoints or procedures can be loaded from the navigation database by name (using the correct waypoint identifier), and

› manually entered latitude and longitude waypoints are not used, and

› the procedure in the navigation system is exactly the same as published in the AIP chart, and

› RAIM or other approved integrity monitoring is available.

Restrictions on use of GNSS (MOS 30.68)An approved GNSS must not be used for the following:

› navigation using procedures that are advised by NOTAM as not authorised for use, for example, the pilot may not use approved GNSS to navigate on a procedure based on a recently decommissioned navigation aid.

› lateral navigation on LOC-based courses (including LOC back-course guidance) without reference to raw LOC data.

Procedures for using approved GNSS for certain phases of flight (MOS 30.69)When in the en-route phase of flight, you may use approved GNSS with data that has been manually entered into a database, only if the data entries:

› for an operation required by the regulations or AFM to have 2 pilots—have been cross-checked for accuracy by 2 FCM, or

› for a single-pilot operation—have been checked independently against other aeronautical information.

Note: For example, other aeronautical information may be contained in authorised aeronautical information for the flight required under reg 91.110 (3) (a).



When in the en-route phase of flight, you must ensure that GNSS-derived position and tracking information obtained from manually entered data or supplied data is checked:

› at, or before, each reporting point published in the AIP or designated by ATS

› at, or before, each en-route waypoint

› at hourly intervals during area navigation

› after the insertion of new data relating to the flight, such as a new flight plan or alteration of an existing flight plan.

You may use GNSS as a navigation aid for an oceanic or remote area phase of flight only if their appropriate en-route prediction analysis before flight ensures that GNSS availability will provide a useable service.

RNAV(GNSS) approach procedures (MOS 30.70)If you are flying an RNAV(GNSS) approach, you:

› may carry out a GNSS non-precision approach only by using a current approved database with a GNSS non-precision approach procedure for the destination, and

› if carrying out a non-precision approach procedure or missed approach procedure—must not use a GNSS with manually-entered data.

If carrying out a RNAV(GNSS) non-precision approach procedure and you have passed the initial approach fix but have not arrived at the final approach fix, you must carry out a missed approach procedure if there is:

› a RAIM warning or other reason to doubt the validity of GNSS-derived information, or

› RAIM loss.

If a RAIM warning or RAIM loss ends before you commence a missed approach procedure, you may execute the missed approach using GNSS-derived information.

If there is reason to doubt the validity of GNSS-derived arrival information, you must adopt procedures appropriate to losing GNSS for navigation.

You may use an approved GNSS as navigation for descent below the relevant LSALT or (MSA) as described in this section.

Use of GNSS in VFR operations (MOS 30.71)GNSS may be used for a VFR flight:

› to supplement map reading and other visual navigation techniques

› in operations at night—for:

» position fixing and long-range navigation, or

» operations on designated PBN routes, including application of PBN-based LSALT

» deriving distance information for en-route navigation, traffic and ATS separation

» meeting the night VFR requirements for radio navigation systems and alternate aerodrome requirements in this MOS.

If GNSS is used for night VFR PBN applications, the flight crew must be appropriately qualified.

Note: ATS may apply PBN-based separation standards to aircraft meeting the requirements for night-VFR PBN.

Operating without RAIM on domestic en-route phase of flight (MOS 30.72)If there is RAIM loss or loss of integrity on a domestic en-route phase of a flight, you must:

› monitor the aircraft’s track using the aircraft’s other navigation aids, or

› carry out navigation equipment loss procedures, as set out in one of the following:

» the operator’s operations manual

» the AFM

» the GNSS manufacturer’s instructions

» the RAIM loss or loss of integrity procedures published by CASA for this section.

If during a domestic en-route phase of flight, GNSS is used within a control area, you must advise ATS if:

› there is RAIM loss or loss of integrity for more than 5 minutes, or

› RAIM or data integrity is not available when ATS requests the provision of GNSS-derived information, or

› RAIM or data integrity is not available when ATS grants a clearance, or imposes a requirement based on GNSS-derived information, or



› the GNSS receiver is in dead-reckoning mode, or experiences loss of its navigation function, for more than1 minute, or

› the indicated displacement of the aircraft from the centre line of its track is found to exceed 2 NM.

If:

› you lose valid position information, with the GNSS receiver being placed in two-dimensional or dead-reckoning mode, or

› you lose RAIM for more than 5 minutes,

Then:

› you must use another means of navigation until RAIM is restored and the aircraft is re-established on track.

If you lose RAIM for more than 5 minutes, you:

› must not use GNSS-derived information or supply it to ATS, and

› after RAIM is restored—must notify ATS before using or supplying RAIM information.

After RAIM or data integrity is restored, you must notify ATS of its restoration before using GNSS-derived information.

When advising ATS that RAIM has been lost for more than 5 minutes, or of its subsequent restoration, you must use the expression ‘RAIM failure’ or ‘RAIM restored’.

If you supply ATS with GNSS-derived information when RAIM has been unavailable for less than 5 minutes, you must conclude the report with the expression ‘Negative RAIM’.

Use and supply of GNSS-derived distance information (MOS 30.73)This section applies if you are using approved GNSS.

If ATS asks for distance information without specifying the source of the information, you may provide GNSS-derived distance information.

If ATS asks for a DME distance, you may provide GNSS-derived distance information if a DME distance is not available.

When you are supplying GNSS-derived distance information to ATS, you must include the source and the point of reference.

You may only supply GNSS-derived distance information by reference to waypoints, navigation aids and other relevant data from a current approved database.

Note: For example, ‘115 GNSS ML VOR’, ‘80 GNSS CTM NDB’, ‘267 GNSS BEEZA’.

GNSS arrivals, and DME or GNSS arrivals (MOS 30.74)You may use an approved GNSS, or DME arrival or GNSS arrival only if:

› you obtain the coordinates of the destination VOR or NDB to which the procedure relates from a current approved database

› RAIM or data integrity is available when descending below the applicable LSALT or MSA.

During a GNSS or DME or GNSS arrival, you must:

› use the destination VOR or NDB to provide the primary track guidance; and

› if there is a significant disparity between the track guidance provided by the destination VOR or NDB and the GNSS track indication—discontinue the arrival procedure.

You must fly a missed approach immediately, if, at any time during the approach:

› there is doubt as to the validity of the GNSS information (for example, RAIM warning), or

› GNSS integrity is lost (for example, RAIM not available).

A significant disparity is:

› for an NDB—a divergence of more than 6.9 degrees, and

› for a VOR—a divergence of more than 5.2 degrees.

You may use an approved GNSS as a navigation aid to descend below the relevant LSALT or MSA in accordance with this section.



Use of GNSS instead of DME (MOS 30.75)Approved GNSS may be used instead of DME for instrument approaches for which DME is required, but only if:

› the substituted DME reference position can be selected from the database, and

› the reference position used is annotated on the approach chart.

You may use an approved GNSS as a navigation aid to descend below the relevant LSALT or MSA in accordance with this section.

Aircraft computers—purpose (MOS 30.76) MOS Division 30.17 applies to a flight of an aircraft if it is fitted with a computerised navigation system whose database may be used by a pilot for a flight.

Computerised navigation systems—databases (MOS 30.77)The data in the computerised navigation system’s database must be:

› current for the flight, and

› in a form that ensures the operator or pilot cannot change the navigational information within the database, and

› for an Australian registered aircraft—supplied by a data service provider authorised under Part 175.

Updating of the computerised navigation system’s database must be carried out in accordance with the manufacturer’s instructions.

You may only update the database only if you:

› are qualified to fly the aircraft using the system, and

› have the aircraft operator’s written authorisation to do so.

Computerised navigation systems—requirements (MOS 30.78)A computerised navigation system used for an IFR or a night-VFR flight must:

› be operated in accordance with the manufacturer’s instructions

› have any manually entered data checked against published navigational data.

Computerised navigation systems—additional requirements for 2-pilot operations (MOS 30.79)If a computerised navigation system is used for an IFR or a night-VFR flight and flown by 2 pilots as required by the regulations or the AFM, any data which one of the pilots enters manually into the system must be checked against published navigational data by the other pilot.

Aircraft to be fitted with radio communication equipment (MOS 30.80)As a minimum, an aircraft on a flight requiring radio communication must be fitted with equipment capable of continuous radio communication on all frequencies necessary to meet reporting, broadcast and listening watch requirements according to the following table.



Table 22: Radiocommunication equipment— requirements

OperationClass of airspace Requirements

IFR Any class (classes A, B, C, D, E, and G)

1. At least 1 VHF radio communication system required.2. At least 1 radio communication system fitted to the aircraft must be capable of continuous communication with ATS during the flight.3. An HF radio communication system fitted to the aircraft must be used for communication with ATS only when beyond VHF range.

NVFR Any class (classes A, B, C, D, E, and G)

At least 1 VHF radio communication system required.

VFR Classes A, B, C, D and E


VFR Class G—from 5000 ft and above


VFR Class G—at aerodromes where, under regulation, you must carry and use radio.

At least 1 VHF radio communication system required.Note: Under regulation 91.400, you must carry radio in the vicinity of certain non-controlled aerodromes.

Aircraft flown with inoperative radiocommunication equipment (MOS 30.80A)An aircraft which must carry radiocommunication equipment may begin a flight with that equipment inoperative if:

› there are no facilities at the departure aerodrome where the flight begins to repair or replace the equipment, and

› the aircraft flies to the nearest facility at which the equipment can be repaired or replaced.

If the flight is in controlled airspace, you must inform ATC of the inoperative equipment and obtain a clearance before flying.

For further information – see reg 91.815

Radio communications equipment – light sport and experimental aircraft (MOS 30.81)A LSA or experimental aircraft does not have to have a Part 21 approved radio communication system, provided it is fitted with a system giving the pilot with the same radio communication capability as one approved under Part 21.

Transponders and surveillance equipment – definitions (MOS 30.82)Definitions set out in MOS 30.82 have been included in the list of definitions at the end of this Guide.

Carriage of transponders and surveillance equipment (MOS 30.83)A transponder required to be fitted to an aircraft must meet the relevant operational and airspace requirements and be approved.



Table 23: Surveillance equipment—requirements

OperationClass of airspace Aircraft requirements

IFR Any (classes A, B, C, D, E and G)

At least 1 ADS-B OUT with approved equipment configuration.

Any (IFR or VFR)

Class C—at certain aerodromes

At least 1 approved Mode S transponder with ADS-B capability when operating at the following airports: › Brisbane (YBBN)

› Sydney (YSSY)

› Melbourne (YMML)

› Perth (YPPH)

Note: For VFR flight, an approved Mode S transponder with ADS-B capability is not required to transmit ADS-B OUT.

VFR Class A, B, C, or E

At least 1 approved Mode S transponder with ADS-B capability, if the aircraft’s certificate of airworthiness was first issued on or after 6 February 2014, or is an aircraft that has been modified after 6 February 2014 by having its transponder replaced.Note: For a VFR flight, an approved Mode S transponder with ADS-B capability is not required to transmit ADSB-OUT.

For any other aircraft, at least 1 approved transponder.VFR Class G—from

10,000 ft and above

At least 1 approved Mode S transponder with ADS-B capability, if the aircraft’s certificate of airworthiness was first issued on or after 6 February 2014, or is an aircraft that has been modified after 6 February 2014 by having its transponder replaced.Note: For a VFR flight, an approved Mode S transponder with ADS-B capability is not required to transmit ADS-B OUT.

For any other aircraft, at least 1approved transponder.VFR Class A—from

FL290 and above

At least 1ADS-B OUT with approved equipment configuration.



Operation of transponders—general requirements (MOS 30.84)You must operate an approved transponder at all times unless ATC instructs you otherwise.

If you are in formation with other aircraft, you do not have to operate a transponder if a transponder is operated by another aircraft in the formation.

If your aircraft is fitted with more than 1 transponder, you must operate only 1 transponder at any time.

You must set the Mode A code:

› to the transponder code ATC assigns, or

› if no transponder code is so assigned—to the relevant standard code in the following table.

A transponder capable of reporting pressure altitude must be operated with altitude reporting enabled.

Pressure altitude information reported by a transponder must be determined by a barometric encoder of a type authorised by CASA or the NAA of a recognised country in accordance with (E)TSO-C88a.

Table 24: Transponders—Mode A standard codes

SituationMode A Code

Flights in class A, C or D airspace, and IFR flights in class E airspace

3000

IFR flights in class G airspace 2000VFR flights in class E or class G airspace 1200Flights in class G over water at a distance greater than 15 NM from shore

4000

Flights engaged in coastal surveillance 7615Ground testing by aircraft maintenance staff

2100

Unlawful interference 7500Loss of radio communication 7600In-flight emergency (unless ATC instructs otherwise)

7700

Mode S transponders – specific requirements (MOS 30.85)A Mode S transponder must be configured in accordance with the following:

› the assigned aircraft address must be entered into the equipment, and

› as far as practicable for the equipment with 1 of the following forms of aircraft flight identification entered into the equipment:

» if a flight notification is filed with ATC—the aircraft identification mentioned on the flight notification

» if no flight notification is filed with ATC—the aircraft registration mark or ASAO identifier as applicable.

An approved ADS-B OUT equipment configuration must be configured in accordance with the following:

› the assigned aircraft address must be entered into the equipment, and

› with 1of the following forms of aircraft flight identification entered into the equipment:

» if a flight notification is filed with ATC—the aircraft identification mentioned on the flight notification

» if no flight notification is filed with ATC—the aircraft registration mark or ASAO identifier as applicable.

A Mode S transponder must transmit each of the following when interrogated on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome or in flight:

› the assigned aircraft address

› the Mode A code

› the Mode C code

› the aircraft flight identification.



Transmission of the aircraft flight identification by a Mode S transponder is optional for an aircraft that was first issued with a certificate of airworthiness before 9 February 2012 (an older aircraft).

If an approved Mode S transponder transmits any Mode S EHS DAPs, the transmitted DAPs must comply with the standards set out in paragraph 3.1.2.10.5.2.3 and Table 3-10 of Volume IV, ‘Surveillance and Collision Avoidance Systems’, of ICAO Annex 10.

Note 1: Paragraph 3.1.2.10.5.2.3 includes 3.1.2.10.5.2.3.1, 3.1.2.10.5.2.3.2 and 3.1.2.10.5.2.3.3.

Note 2: Australian Mode S SSR supports EHS DAPs Transmission of Mode S. EHS DAPs that are not in accordance with the ICAO standards may provide misleading information to ATC. Operators must ensure that EHS DAPs are being transmitted.

If a Mode S transponder fitted to an aircraft first issued with a certificate of airworthiness on or after 9 February 2012, and

› having a certificated maximum take-off weight above 5700 kg, or

› that is capable of normal operation at a maximum cruising true air speed above 250 kts

the transponder’s receiving and transmitting antennae must:

› be located on the upper and lower fuselage, and

› operate in diversity, as specified in paragraphs 3.1.2.10.4 to 3.1.2.10.4.5 (inclusive) of Volume IV, ‘Surveillance and Collision Avoidance Systems’, of ICAO Annex 10.

Note 3: Compliance with paragraph 3.1.2.10.4.2.1 is recommended only—not mandatory.

An aircraft must not fly in Australian territory if it is fitted with ADS-B OUT equipment configuration, unless the equipment is:

› deactivated, or

› set to transmit only a value of zero for the NUCp, NACp, NIC or SIL.

The previous paragraph does not apply to an aircraft if it is undertaking an ADS-B test flight in airspace below FL290 in VMC.

Note 4: It is considered equivalent to deactivation if NUCp, NACp, NIC or SIL is set to transmit continually only a value of zero.

Alternate GNSS position source for ADS-B OUT—requirements (MOS 30.86)For an aircraft first issued with a certificate of airworthiness on or after 8 December 2016, an alternate GNSS position source is acceptable if the source:

› is certified by the NAA of a recognised country for use in IFR flight, and

› its specification and operation include the following:

» FDE, computed in accordance with the definition at paragraph 1.7.3 of RTCA/DO-229D

» the output function HPL, computed in accordance with the definition at paragraph 1.7.2 of RTCA/DO-229D

» functionality that, for the purpose of HPL computation, accounts for the absence of the SA of the GNSS in accordance with paragraph 1.8.1.1 of RTCA/DO-229D.

For an aircraft first issued with an airworthiness certificate before 8 December 2016, an alternate GNSS position source is acceptable if it meets the above requirements. The requirement that functionality accounts for the absence of the SA of the GNSS is optional.



Alternate ADS-B OUT equipment configuration—requirements (MOS 30.87)An alternate ADS-B OUT equipment configuration is acceptable if:

› an NAA of a recognised country certified it, during type certification, as meeting the standards of EASA AMC 20-24 or EASA CS-ACNS, and

› the AFM or flight manual supplement attests to the certification, and

› the GNSS system meets the performance requirements mentioned in reg 30.86 for an aircraft manufactured on or after 8 December 2016.

An alternate ADS-B OUT equipment configuration is acceptable if:

› EASA certified it, during type certification, as meeting the standards of EASA AMC 20-24, and

› the AFM attests to the certification, and

› the GNSS system meets the performance requirements mentioned in the MOS 30.86 for an aircraft manufactured before 8 December 2016.

For an aircraft first issued with a certificate of airworthiness on or after 8 December 2016, an equipment configuration is acceptable if:

› the FAA certified it, during type certification, as meeting the standards of 14 CFR 91.227, and


› the GNSS system meets the performance requirements mentioned in MOS 30.86 for an aircraft manufactured before 8 December 2016.

For an aircraft first issued with a certificate of airworthiness before 8 December 2016, an equipment configuration is acceptable if:

› the FAA certified it, during type certification, as meeting the standards of 14 CFR 91.227, and


› the GNSS system meets the performance requirements mentioned in MOS 30.86 for an aircraft manufactured before 8 December 2016.

Transponders and surveillance equipment – light sport and experimental aircraft (MOS 30.88)An LSA or experimental aircraft does not have to have a transponder or surveillance equipment approved under Part 21, provided CASA has approved the system in writing, and it gives the pilot and ATC the same transponder and surveillance capability as a Part 21-approved system as set out in MOS 30.03 (1).




Term Meaning

Act Civil Aviation Act 1988

ADF automatic direction finder

ADS-B automatic dependent surveillance–broadcast

AFM aircraft flight manual (instructions)

AIP Aeronautical Information Publication published by Airservices Australia, and includes the AIP Supplement. Comment: The AIP is available through www.airservicesaustralia.com.

AIRAC Aeronautical Information Regulation and Control cycle

AMSL above mean sea level

AMSA Australian Maritime Safety Authority

AOC air operator’s certificate.

APV approach procedure with vertical guidance

APU auxiliary power unit

ASAO approved self-administering organisation

AS/NZS Australian and New Zealand Standard

ATIS automatic terminal information service

ATC air traffic control

ATS air traffic service

ATSB Australian Transport Safety Bureau

ATSO Australian Technical Standard Order

BOM Bureau of Meteorology

BECMG becoming

CAO Civil Aviation Order

CAR Civil Aviation Regulations 1988

CASR Civil Aviation Safety Regulations 1998

CAT category

CTA controlled airspace

CTAF common traffic advisory frequency

Abbreviations and acronymsTerm Meaning

DA decision altitude

DAH Designated Airspace Handbook, published by Airservices Australia as part of the AIP

DAP downlink aircraft parameter-in the context of Mode S EHS

DAP departure and approach procedure

DH decision height

DME distance measuring equipment

EASA European Aviation Safety Agency

ERC en-route chart

ERSA En-Route Supplement Australia

ETA estimated time of arrival

ETD estimated time of departure

ETSO European Technical Standard Order

FAA Federal Aviation Administration (of the United States)

FATO final approach and take-off area

FCM flight crew member

FIR flight information region

FL flight level

FO fail operational

FM from

FP fail passive

ft feet

GAF graphical area forecast

GNSS global navigation satellite system

GNSS FDE

GNSS fault detection and exclusion

G/P glide path

HOGE hover out-of-ground effect

hPa hectopascals

HUD head-up display



http://www.airservicesaustralia.com

Term Meaning

IAF initial approach fix

IAL instrument approach landing

IAP instrument approach procedure

IAS indicated airspeed

IFR instrument flight rules

ILS instrument landing system

IMC instrument meteorological conditions

IRM immediately reportable matter

ISA international standard atmosphere

kts knots

LNAV lateral navigation

LOC localiser

LSA light sport aircraft

LSALT lowest safe altitude

MDA minimum descent altitude

MDH minimum descent height

MEL minimum equipment list

MMEL master minimum equipment list

MOS manual of standards

MSA minimum sector altitude

MSL mean sea level

MTOW maximum take-off weight

NAA national aviation authority

NAIPS National Aeronautical Information Processing System

NAT-HLA North Atlantic Track-High Level Airspace

NDB non-directional beacon

NM nautical miles

Term Meaning

NOTAM notice to airmen

NVD night vision device

NVFR night visual flight rules

NVG night vision goggles

NVIS night vision imaging system

OCA oceanic control area

PAL pilot-activated lighting system

PBN performance-based navigation

PIC pilot in command

POB people on board

RCLL runway centre line lights

REDL runway edge lights

RNAV area navigation

RNP required navigation performance

RVR runway visual range

RVSM reduced vertical separation minimum

SAR search and rescue

SARTIME search and rescue time

SCT scattered

SIGWX significant weather

TAC terminal area chart

TAF terminal area forecast

TSO technical standard order of the FAA

TTF trend type forecast

VFR visual flight rules

VHF very high frequency

VMC visual meteorological conditions

VOR VHF omnidirectional radio range



DefinitionsAct means the Civil Aviation Act 1988

accurate QNH a QNH is to be considered accurate only if it is provided by one of the following:

» an ATIS

» an ATC tower

» an automated weather information service.

› Area or forecast QNH must not be used for checking the accuracy of a pressure altitude system

› Site elevation must be derived from aerodrome survey data that is:

» authorised in writing

– directly or indirectly by CASA or

– by an NAA or

» supplied in writing by the relevant aerodrome operator.

additional fuel means the supplementary amount of fuel required to allow an aircraft that suffers engine failure or loss of pressurisation at the critical point along the route (whichever results in the greater subsequent fuel consumption), to do the following:

› proceed to an alternate aerodrome (or for a rotorcraft, a suitable rotorcraft landing site)

For a rotorcraft, an alternate rotorcraft landing site would constitute the alternate aerodrome.

› fly for 15 minutes at a holding speed at 1500 ft above the aerodrome elevation, in ISA conditions

› make an approach and landing.

Fuel planning in accordance with 7 may place an aircraft in a fuel emergency situation if a failure or loss were to occur as described above. In that case, additional fuel must be carried.

adult means a person who has turned 13.

aerodrome forecast means an authorised weather forecast for an aerodrome also referred to as a TAF.

aerobatic manoeuvres, for an aircraft, means manoeuvres that involve:

› bank angles that are greater than 60°; or

› pitch angles that are greater than 45°, or are otherwise abnormal to the aircraft type; or

› abrupt changes of speed, direction, angle of bank or angle of pitch.

ADS-B means automatic dependent surveillance-broadcast.

ADS-B OUT means the functional capability of an aircraft or vehicle to periodically broadcast its state vector (position and velocity) and other information derived from on-board systems in a format suitable for ADS-B IN capable receivers.

aerodrome means an area of land or water (including any buildings, installations and equipment), the use of which as an aerodrome is authorised under the regulations, being such an area intended for use wholly or partly for the arrival, departure or movement of aircraft.

A helideck and a heliport fall within the statutory definition of an aerodrome if their use as an aerodrome is authorised under the regulations



DefinitionsAFM means aircraft flight manual as approved by the aircraft manufacturer and includes any AFM supplement.

Note: An AFM supplement may be supplied by the original aircraft manufacturer, or by another person, in accordance with Subpart 21.M

AIRAC cycle is the system and frequency setting used by an approved provider to regularly update the aeronautical information in a navigation database.

air crew member

For a flight not involving an aerial work operation—means a crew member for the flight (other than a flight crew member) who carries out a function during the flight relating to the safety of the operation of the aircraft, or the safety of the use of the aircraft.

For a flight involving an aerial work operation—means the following:

› a crew member, for the flight, of a kind mentioned in paragraph (a), other than a crew member of a kind prescribed by the Part 138 Manual of Standards for the purposes of this subparagraph

› a crew member, for the flight, of a kind prescribed by the Part 138 Manual of Standards for the purposes of this subparagraph.

aircraft address means the unique 24-bit binary code available for assignment to an aircraft for the purposes of air-ground communications, navigation and surveillance.

air display means organised flying performed before a public gathering, including the following:

› a contest

› an exhibition of aerobatic manoeuvres

› flying in formation

› other aircraft operations associated with the air display.

aircraft flight manual instructions, for an aircraft, means the following documents and information provided by the aircraft’s manufacturer or issued in accordance with a Part 21 approval:

› the aircraft’s flight manual

› checklists of normal, abnormal and emergency procedures for the aircraft

› any operating limitation, instructions, markings and placards relating to the aircraft.

air traffic services means any of the following, in its capacity as a provider of an air traffic service:

› Airservices Australia

› the Defence Force

› an authorised ATS provider



Definitionsalternate aerodrome means an aerodrome:

› to which the aircraft may proceed when it becomes impossible or inadvisable to proceed to, or land at, the intended aerodrome, and

› where the necessary services and facilities for landing the aircraft are available, and

› where the aircraft’s performance requirements can be met, and

› which is operational at the expected time of use, and

› includes the following:

» a take-off alternate, being an alternate aerodrome at which the aircraft may land if this becomes necessary shortly after take-off and it is not possible to use the departure aerodrome

» an en-route alternate, being an alternate aerodrome at which the aircraft may land in the event that a diversion becomes necessary while en route

» a destination alternate, being an alternate aerodrome at which the aircraft may land if it becomes either impossible, or inadvisable, to land at the intended aerodrome.

The aerodrome from which a flight departs may also be an en-route or a destination alternate for the flight.

The expression alternate aerodrome has a different meaning for this instrument to that given in CAR 2.

alternate fuel means the amount of fuel required to enable an aircraft to do the following in a sequence:

› perform a missed approach at the planned destination aerodrome

› climb to the expected cruising altitude

› fly the expected route to the destination alternate

› descend to the point where the expected approach is initiated

› fly the approach

› land at the destination alternate.

altitude means the vertical distance that a point or object is from MSL.

amphibian means an aeroplane that is designed to take off from, and land on, either land or water

animal means any living thing other than a plant or human being

approved means approved by CASA

approved ADS-B OUT equipment configuration means an equipment configuration capable of ADS-B out operation on the ground and in flight, and that is one of the following:

› an approved Mode S transponder with ADS-B capability connected to an approved GNSS position source

› an alternate ADS-B OUT equipment configuration meeting the requirements mentioned in section 30.87

› another system approved in writing by CASA as having a level of performance equivalent to a system mentioned in the above dot points.



Definitionsapproved GNSS area navigation system or approved GNSS, means:

› a GNSS system that is authorised in accordance with one of the following:

» (E)TSO-C129

» (E)TSO-C145

» (E)TSO-C146

» (E) TSO-C196a

› a multi-sensor navigation system that:

» includes GNSS and inertial integration, and

» is approved in writing by CASA as providing a level of performance equivalent to a GNSS system technical standard referred to above

› An IFR aircraft must be fitted with an approved GNSS.

An approved GNSS authorised in accordance with (E)TSO-C129 is unlikely to satisfy the GNSS position source requirements for ADS-B surveillance.

approved GNSS position source means a GNSS position source that is:

› authorised by the FAA or EASA in accordance with one of the following:

» (E)TSO-C145a

» (E)TSO-C146a

» (E)TSO-C196a, or

› an alternate GNSS position source meeting the requirements mentioned in section 30.86, or

› another system, approved in writing by CASA as having a level of performance equivalent to performance in accordance with the above dot points.

approved Mode A/C transponder means a Mode A or Mode C transponder authorised:

› by CASA or the NAA of a recognised country in accordance with (E)TSO- C74a, or

› by CASA in accordance with ATSO-1C74c.

approved Mode S transponder means a Mode S transponder that is:

› authorised by CASA or the NAA of a recognised country in accordance with (E)TSO-C112, or

› another system, approved in writing by CASA as having a level of performance equivalent to a system mentioned in above dot point.

approved Mode S transponder with ADS-B capability means an approved Mode S transponder that is:

› authorised by CASA or the NAA of a recognised country in accordance with (E)TSO-C166, or

› another system approved in writing by CAA as having a level of performance equivalent to a system mentioned in the above dot point

approved transponder means an approved Mode A/C transponder or an approved Mode S transponder.

area navigation system means the computer hardware installed on an aircraft by its manufacturer, or under a supplementary type certificate, which enables PBN specifications to be used.

area QNH means an altimeter setting which is representative of the QNH of any location within a particular geographical area.



Definitionsassigned aircraft address means an address assigned to an aircraft by:

› CASA, when the aircraft is registered on the Australian civil aircraft register

› the relevant ASAO for the aircraft, when it is placed on the ASAO’s aircraft register

› the relevant NAA, when the aircraft is foreign registered.

ATIS is an aerodrome automatic terminal information service, which automatically provides current, routine information to arriving and departing aircraft.

authorised person for a provision of CASR in which the expression occurs, means a person who is appointed under reg 201.001 to be an authorised person for these regulations or the provision.

authorised aeronautical information for an aircraft’s flight, means the aeronautical maps, charts and other aeronautical information relevant to the route of the flight, and any probable diversionary route, that are published:

› for a flight which is not in a foreign country:

» in the AIP, or

» by a data service provider, or

» in NOTAMs, or

› for a flight in a foreign country:

» in the document that in that country is equivalent to the AIP, or

» by an organisation approved to publish aeronautical information by the national aviation authority of that country.

authorised instrument approach procedure means:

› for an aerodrome other than an aerodrome in a foreign country—an instrument approach procedure that is:

» designed by a certified designer or authorised designer, and published in the AIP or given to CASA under Part 173; or

» prescribed by an instrument issued under reg 201.025 for this paragraph; or

› for an aerodrome in a foreign country—an instrument approach procedure that is authorised by the national aviation authority of the country.

authorised instrument departure procedure means:

› for an aerodrome other than an aerodrome in a foreign country—an instrument departure procedure that is:

» designed by a certified designer or authorised designer, and published in the AIP or given to CASA under Part 173; or

» prescribed by an instrument issued under reg 201.025 for this paragraph; or

› for an aerodrome in a foreign country—an instrument departure procedure that is authorised by the national aviation authority of the country.

authorised weather forecast means:

› in Australia—a weather forecast made by the BOM for aviation purposes; or

› in a foreign country—a weather forecast made by a person that holds an authorisation (however described) to provide weather forecasts, granted by the NAA of the country.



Definitionsauthorised weather report means:

› in Australia—a weather report made by one of the following:

» the BOM for aviation

» an individual who holds a certificate of competency, acceptable to CASA, to perform weather observations and issue weather reports for aviation

» an automatic weather station or RVR system at an aerodrome approved by the BOM for the aerodrome

» an automatic broadcast service published in the AIP

» an individual who holds a pilot’s licence

» a person appointed by an aerodrome operator to make runway visibility assessments under the Part 139 MOS

» a person included in a class of persons specified in the AIP for subparagraph (vii) of the definition of authorised weather report in the CASR Dictionary; or

› in a foreign country—a weather report made by a person or body holding an authorisation (however described), granted by the NAA of the country, to provide weather reports.

avoid area of the HV curve, for a rotorcraft, means the area depicted in the AFM heightvelocity diagram, which identifies the combinations of height above ground and airspeed in knots which a rotorcraft should avoid.

You must avoid this area, as successful autorotation is unlikely under these combinations.

begins a flight means the start of the time at which the aircraft first moves under its own power for take-off.

cabin crew member means a crew member who performs, in the interests of the safety of an aircraft’s passengers, duties assigned by the operator or the pilot in command of the aircraft but is not a flight crew member.

cargo means things other than persons carried, or to be carried, on an aircraft.

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Definitionscargo transport operation means an operation of an aircraft that involves the carriage of cargo and crew only; but

does not include the following:

› an operation conducted for the carriage of the possessions of the operator or the pilot in command for the purpose of business or trade;

› a medical transport operation.

category in relation to the type certification of aircraft, means a grouping of aircraft based upon intended use and operating limitations (for example, transport, normal, utility, acrobatic, limited, restricted and provisional).

Category A rotorcraft means a rotorcraft that:

› meets the requirements stated in the definition Category A, and

› is type-certificated in accordance with any of the following:

» Part 27 of the FARs

» Part 29 of the FARs

» EASA CS — 27

» EASA CS — 29

» an equivalent airworthiness certification code of a contracting state.

These documents are available as follows:

› Part 27 of the FARs—https://www.faa.gov/regulations_policies/faa_regulations/; › Part 29 of the FARs—https://www.faa.gov/regulations_policies/faa_regulations/; › EASA CS-27—https://www.easa.europa.eu/document-library/regulations; › EASA CS-29—https://www.easa.europa.eu/document-library/regulations.

Category A performance in rotorcraft means the one-engine-inoperative performance (as derived from the AFM) from which the pilot in command determines the most critical maximum weight that enables the rotorcraft to avoid all obstacles and complete its operation.

Category B performance, for a single-engine or multi-engine helicopter, means that the helicopter is not capable of Category A performance.

Category B helicopters have no guaranteed capability to continue safe flight in the event of an engine failure and a forced landing is assumed in such circumstances.

Category B rotorcraft means a rotorcraft that is not a Category A rotorcraft.

Category A rectification interval means a rectification interval other than 3, 10 or 120 days.

Category B rectification interval means a rectification interval of 3 days.

Category C rectification interval means a rectification interval of 10 consecutive days.

Category D rectification interval means a rectification interval of 120 consecutive days.



https://www.faa.gov/regulations_policies/faa_regulations/

https://www.faa.gov/regulations_policies/faa_regulations/

https://www.easa.europa.eu/document-library/regulations

https://www.easa.europa.eu/document-library/regulations

DefinitionsCENSAR means an automated, centralised, SARTIME database software package used by an ATS to manage SARTIMEs.

› full position reporting procedures or

› scheduled reporting times (SKEDS) or

› SARTIME.

checking means the assessment of proficiency of the personnel of an aircraft operator, or the operator of a flight simulation training device to ensure that the personnel are competent to carry out their responsibilities.

child means a person who has turned 2, but has not turned 13.

combination recorder (combination FDR/CVR) means a single system combining the capabilities and the functions of an FDR and a CVR.

compartment of an aircraft, includes the space inside a noncompartmentalised fuselage.

confined area for a rotorcraft, means a relevant HLS where the rotorcraft must operate within the avoid area of the HV curve on take-off or landing because of constraints from:

› terrain, or

› other natural, or man-made, obstructions.

configuration deviation list for an aircraft, means a document that:

› is prepared by the aircraft’s type certificate holder or foreign type certificate holder

› is approved by CASA or the national aviation authority that issued the foreign type certificate for the aircraft

› lists each external part of the aircraft that is permitted to be missing from the aircraft, under conditions specified in the document, when a flight of the aircraft begins.

contaminated: a runway is contaminated if more than 25 %of the surface area required for a takeoff or landing is covered by any of the following:

› water or slush more than 3 mm deep

› loose snow more than 20 mm deep

› compacted snow or ice.

contingency fuel for an aircraft in a kind of flight mentioned in an item of Part 91 MOS Chapter 9.0 means the amount of fuel required to compensate for unforeseen factors, and which must not be less than:

› the percentage (if any) of the planned trip fuel for the flight, or

› in the event of in-flight replanning—the percentage (if any) of the trip fuel for the replanned flight.

This means you must carry final reserve fuel and or contingency fuel as set out in table 9.04 of MOS by aircraft category

controlling zone RVR means the reported value of one or more runway visual range reporting locations (touchdown, mid-point and stop-end) used to determine whether operating minima are met.

copilot in relation to an aircraft means a pilot on board the aircraft in a piloting capacity other than:

› the pilot in command; or

› a pilot who is on board the aircraft for the sole purpose of receiving flight training.



Definitionscrew member: a person is a crew member of an aircraft if the person is carried on the aircraft and is:

› a person:

» who is authorised by the operator of the aircraft to carry out a specified function during flight time relating to the operation, maintenance, use or safety of the aircraft, the safety of the aircraft’s passengers or the care or security of any cargo which may affect the safety of the aircraft or its occupants, and

» who has been trained to carry out that function, or

› a person who is on board the aircraft for the purpose of:

» giving or receiving instruction in a function mentioned in first subpoint of above dot point, or

» being tested for a qualification associated with a function mentioned in first subpoint of the above dot point, or

› a person authorised by CASA under these regulations, or by the operator, to carry out an audit, check, examination, inspection or test of a person mentioned in above dot points.

crew station for a crew member of an aircraft, means a position on the aircraft designed and equipped to enable the crew member to carry out their assigned duties on the aircraft.

critical engine means the engine whose failure would most adversely affect the performance or handling qualities of an aircraft.

critical fuelling point in relation to an aircraft, means any of the following:

› a fuel tank filling point on the aircraft

› a fuel tank vent outlet on the aircraft

› the ground fuelling equipment used to fuel the aircraft.

CTAF means common traffic advisory frequency, being a designated frequency on which pilots make positional broadcasts when operating in the vicinity of a non controlled aerodrome.

current for a navigation database, means that the database is up to date in accordance with the AIRAC cycle.

DA means decision altitude, and is a specified altitude, in a 3D-instrument approach operation, at which a missed approach must be initiated if the required visual reference to continue the approach has not been established.

day in relation to a rectification interval for an inoperative item of equipment means the calendar day starting after 0000 (midnight) on the day of discovery of the inoperative item.

days in reg 91.930 and the regulation’s associated MOS Chapter 33 means consecutive days.

day of discovery in relation to an inoperative item of equipment for an aircraft, means the day that information about the inoperative state of the item is recorded in the aircraft’s flight technical log.

decision point means a point en route at which an aircraft can:

› if the flight arrives at the point with adequate fuel to complete the flight to the destination aerodrome while maintaining the final reserve fuel and contingency fuel required under part 91 MOS Chapter 9.0—continue to the destination aerodrome, or

› otherwise—divert to an en-route alternate with adequate fuel to fly there while maintaining the final reserve fuel and contingency fuel required under part 91 MOS Chapter 9.0

destination aerodrome means the aerodrome which a flight is planned to fly to and land at



DefinitionsDH means decision height, and is a specified height, in a 3D-instrument approach operation, at which a missed approach must be initiated if the required visual reference to continue the approach has not been established.

EASA AMC 20-24 means Annex II to ED Decision 2008/004/R titled ‘Certification Considerations for the Enhanced ATS in Non-Radar Areas using ADS-B Surveillance’ (ADS-B-NRA) Application via 1090 MHz Extended Squitter, dated 2 May 2008, of EASA.

EASA CS-ACNS means Annex I to ED Decision 2013/031/R titled ‘Certification Specifications and Acceptable Means of Compliance for Airborne Communications, Navigation and Surveillance’ (CS-ACNS), dated 17 December 2013, of EASA.

Ends a flight means the time when an aircraft comes to rest after being airborne.

ENR means the en-route section of the Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP). Airservices Australia publishes the AIP and the ERSA, DAPS, DAH, WAC AIP/SUP and AIC as part of its Aeronautical Information Package.

equipment means instruments, indicators, items of equipment and systems.

exposition means

for an Australian air transport operator:

› the set of documents approved by CASA under regs 119.075 in relation to the operator; and if the set of documents is changed under regs 119.085, 119.095 or 119.105, or in accordance with the process mentioned in reg 119.100—the set of documents as changed; or

for an ASAO, means:

› the set of documents approved by CASA under reg 149.080 in relation to the ASAO; or if the set of documents is changed under regs 149.115 or 149.120, or in accordance with the process mentioned in paragraph reg 49.340 (i)—the set of documents as changed.

Essentially the exposition is a document or set of documents describing how an organisation operates safely (often referred to as the operations manual).

extendable rectification interval means a Category B, or Category C, rectification interval.

FATO means final approach and take-off area and is a defined area over which the final phase of the approach manoeuvre to hover or land is completed, and from which the take-off manoeuvre is commenced. Where the FATO is to be used by helicopters operated in performance class 1 (as defined by ICAO), the defined area includes the rejected take-off area available.

flight crew member means a crew member who is a pilot or flight engineer assigned to carry out duties essential to the operation of an aircraft during flight time.



Definitionsflight crew licence:

› means a flight crew licence within the meaning of Part 61; and

› includes a certificate of validation of an overseas flight crew licence.

flight crew endorsement:

› means a flight crew endorsement within the meaning of Part 61; and

› includes a certificate of validation of an overseas endorsement.

flight crew rating:

› means a flight crew rating within the meaning of Part 61; and

› includes a certificate of validation of an overseas rating.

FDE means fault detection and exclusion, a feature of a GNSS receiver that excludes faulty satellites from position computation.

final approach and takeoff area, for the operation of a rotorcraft at an aerodrome, means the area of the aerodrome:

› from which a takeoff is commenced, or

› over which the final phase of approach to hover is completed.

flight means:

› in the case of a heavierthanair aircraft, the operation of the aircraft from the moment at which the aircraft first moves under its own power for take-off until the moment at which it comes to rest after being airborne, and

› in the case of a lighterthanair aircraft, the operation of the aircraft from the moment when it becomes detached from the Earth’s surface, or from a fixed object on the Earth’s surface, until the moment when it becomes attached to either of these again.

flight commencement means the moment an aircraft vacates its parking position, whether pushed back or under its own power, for take-off (also known as the off-block time).

flight forecast means a text-based forecast issued for a part of a flight for which a routine GAF is not prepared.

flight level: a reference to a flight level followed by a number, in relation to the flight of an aircraft, is a reference to the altitude at which the aircraft’s altimeter, if it were adjusted to a reading on the subscale of 1013.2 hectopascals, would show an altitude in feet of 100 times that number.

final reserve fuel means the calculated amount of fuel required to fly an aircraft:

› at 1500 ft above aerodrome elevation in ISA conditions for the period of time specified for the flight in Part 91 MOS Chapter 9.0 and

› for an IFR helicopter, an aeroplane or an airship—at holding speed, and

› for a VFR helicopter—at range speed, and

› at the aircraft’s estimated weight on arrival at the destination alternate or the destination aerodrome when no destination alternate is required (the relevant aerodrome), and

› is usable fuel remaining in the fuel tanks on completion of the final landing at the relevant aerodrome.

forecast QNH means forecast altimeter setting from an authorised weather forecast.



DefinitionsFO hybrid landing system means a system which consists of a primary fail-passive automatic landing system and a secondary independent guidance system enabling the pilot to complete a landing manually after failure of the primary system.

frequency confirmation system, for an aerodrome, means a ground radio system for the aerodrome that, on receipt of a transmission from an aircraft on the radio frequency for the aerodrome, sends a signal or message to the aircraft confirming that the transmission has been received.

fuel emergency means the circumstance in which the fuel remaining when the usable fuel calculated to be available on landing at the nearest aerodrome where a safe landing can be made is less than the final reserve fuel and, as a result, the aircraft requires immediate assistance.

GEN means the general section of the Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP). Airservices Australia publishes the AIP and the ERSA, DAPS, DAH, WAC AIP/SUP and AIC as part of its Aeronautical Information Package.

glider means:

› an unpowered, heavier-than-air aircraft that derives its lift in flight chiefly from aerodynamic reactions on surfaces remaining fixed under given conditions of flight; or

› a heavier-than-air aircraft that is fitted with one or more engines and that is capable of soaring flight when the engine or engines are inoperative.

helideck means an area intended for use wholly or partly for the arrival or departure of rotorcraft, on:

› a ship, or

› a floating or fixed structure on water.

highly volatile fuel means:

› aviation gasoline, or

› a hydrocarbon mixture that spans the gasoline and kerosene boiling ranges, or

› a mixture of aviation gasoline and a hydrocarbon mixture mentioned in above dot point

holding fuel means the amount of fuel an aircraft requires to fly for the period of time anticipated for holding (taking into account the operating conditions) calculated at the holding fuel consumption rate established for the aircraft for the anticipated meteorological conditions, or ISA, as applicable.

See also the definition of established

HPL means the horizontal protection level of the GNSS position of an aircraft as an output of the GNSS receiver or system.

HUD or head-up display means a system that displays flight information into a pilot’s forward external field of view.

IAS, or indicated airspeed, means the speed of an aircraft as derived through a pitot static pressure system and calibrated to account for standard atmosphere adiabatic compressible flow at sea level- uncorrected for airspeed system errors.

ICAO Annex, followed by a number, means the annex of the given number, as contained in the Chicago Convention.

IFR (abbreviation for instrument flight rules) means the rules and procedures set out in Part 91 for flight under IMC.

IFR flight means a flight conducted under the IFR.



DefinitionsIMC (abbreviation for instrument meteorological conditions) means meteorological conditions other than:

› VMC; or

› meteorological conditions under which air traffic control permits an aircraft to fly under special VFR.

immediately reportable matter means an investigable matter prescribed by the regulations.

Under the Transport Safety Investigations regulations (section 2.3) this encompasses:

› the death of, or a serious injury to:

» a person on board the aircraft, or in contact with the aircraft or

» anything attached to the aircraft, or

» anything that has become detached from the aircraft, or

» a person who has been directly exposed to jet blast

› the aircraft being missing

› the aircraft suffering serious damage, or the existence of reasonable grounds for believing that the aircraft has suffered serious damage

› the aircraft being inaccessible and the existence of reasonable grounds for believing that the aircraft has been seriously damaged

› breakdown of separation standards, being a failure to maintain a recognised separation standard (vertical, lateral or longitudinal) between aircraft being provided with an air traffic service separation service.

This may result from air traffic service, pilot or other actions, and may occur even if only one of the aircraft involved is under ATS control.

infant means a person who has not turned 2.

inoperative: an item for a flight of an aircraft is inoperative if, due to a defect, the item, or a function of the item, does not:

› accomplish its intended purpose; or

› consistently function within the operating limits or tolerances mentioned in the approved design for the item or the flight manual for the aircraft.

instrument approach operation means an approach and landing:

› flown using instruments for navigation guidance; and

› based on an authorised instrument approach procedure.

instrument approach procedure means a series of predetermined manoeuvres by reference to flight instruments with specified protection from obstacles from the initial approach fix or, where applicable, from the beginning of a defined arrival route to a point from which a landing can be completed and thereafter, if a landing is not completed, to a position at which holding or enroute obstacle clearance criteria apply.



Definitionsinstrument departure procedure for an aircraft, means a series of predetermined manoeuvres by reference to flight instruments with specified protection from obstacles from takeoff until the aircraft reaches:

› the enroute lowest safe altitude; or

› the minimum altitude at which the aircraft, on a minimum climb gradient of 3%, can intercept the planned flight route; or

› in a case where the aircraft has taken off from an aerodrome for which there is a radar control service in operation—the minimum radar vector altitude.

instrument flight procedures mean the visual and instrument procedures for use by aircraft operating IFR.

International Regulations means the International Regulations for Preventing Collisions at Sea, 1972, in the Convention on the International Regulations for Preventing Collisions at Sea, done at London on 20 October 1972, as amended and in force for Australia from time to time.

Note: The Convention is in Australian Treaty Series 1980 No. 5 ([1980] ATS 5) and could in 2019 be viewed in the Australian Treaties Library on the Australasian Legal Information Institute website (http://www.austlii.edu.au).

in the vicinity of a non-controlled aerodrome has the meaning given in regulation 91.360.

For general guidance only:

an aircraft is in the vicinity of a non-controlled aerodrome if it is:

› in uncontrolled airspace, and › within 10 NM of the aerodrome, and › at a height above the aerodrome that could result in conflict with aircraft traffic at the aerodrome.

item means an item of equipment as defined in this section

journey log:

› for a Part 121 operation—means the journey log required for the flight by reg 121.105; or

› for a Part 133 operation—means the journey log required for the flight by reg 133.075; or

› for a Part 135 operation—means the journey log required for the flight by reg 135.085.

JRCC Australia means the Australian Joint Rescue Coordination Centre

landing decision point for landing a rotorcraft, means the point, mentioned in the rotorcraft’s flight manual, from which if an engine failure is recognised:

› you may initiate a baulked landing, or

› continue the landing safely.

landing distance available means for landing a rotorcraft, the total of the following available for it to land from the height above the final approach and take-off area in the rotorcraft’s flight manual:

› the length of the final approach and take-off area

› the length of the area available and suitable for it to land on.

landing distance required means for landing a rotorcraft, the horizontal distance required for it to land and come to a full stop from a point 50 ft above the landing aerodrome.



http://www.austlii.edu.au

Definitionslanding minima means the minimum values of the following that are used for the purpose of determining whether an aerodrome may be used for landing aircraft:

› visibility, including runway visibility and runway visual range;

› cloud ceiling height.

landing weight for a flight of an aircraft, means the total weight of the aircraft, including its load, at landing.

large aircraft means:

› an aeroplane that:

» has a maximum takeoff weight of more than 5700 kg; and

» is not of a type and model specified in the Part 42 Manual of Standards for subparagraph (b)(ii) of the definition of small aircraft; or

› an aeroplane that:

» has a maximum takeoff weight of not more than 5 700 kg; and

» is of a type and model specified in the Part 42 Manual of Standards as a large aircraft; or

› a helicopter that:

» has more than 1 engine; and

» is not of a type and model specified in the Part 42 Manual of Standards for subparagraph (d)(ii) of the definition of small aircraft; or

› a helicopter that:

» has only 1 engine; and

» is of a type and model specified in the Part 42 Manual of Standards as a large aircraft.

Image | Parilov | stock.adobe.com



Definitionslight sport aircraft means an aircraft that:

› has:

» a maximum take-off weight of 600 kgs or less (if the aircraft is not intended for operation on water), or

» a maximum take-off weight of 650 kgs or less (if the aircraft is intended for operation on water), or

» a maximum gross weight of 560 kgs or less if it is a lighter-than-air aircraft, and

› if it is a powered aircraft—has a single, non-turbine engine fitted with a propeller and has a maximum stall speed in the landing configuration (Vso) of 45 knots calibrated air speed, and

› if the aircraft is a glider—has a maximum never-exceed speed (Vne) of 135 kts calibrated air speed, and

› if the aircraft has a cabin—it is un-pressurised, and

› has a maximum seating capacity of 2 persons, including the pilot, if it is designed to be equipped with seating, and

› if it is a manned free balloon not designed to be equipped with seating—can carry no more than 2 persons, and

› has:

» in the case of an amphibian—repositionable landing gear

» in the case of a glider—fixed or retractable landing gear

» in any other case—fixed landing gear.

lowest safe altitude for a route or route segment of a flight of an aircraft, means the lowest altitude that will provide safe terrain clearance for the aircraft for the route or route segment calculated in accordance with a method specified in the Part 173 Manual of Standards, the operator’s exposition or the operator’s operations manual.

lowrisk electronic device means:

› a digital mobile telephone; or

› a handheld personal digital assistant; or

› an electronic device:

» to which the IEEE Standard for Information technology—Telecommunications and information exchange between systems—Local and metropolitan area network—Specific requirements Part 11: Wireless LAN Medium Access Control (MAC) and Physical Layer (PHY) Specifications (as in force from time to time) applies, and

» that transmits only in a way that meets that standard.

lowvisibility approach means an approach using minima for a runway that are below the Category I precision approach minima for the runway as published in the AIP.

lowvisibility operation means:

› a lowvisibility takeoff; or

› a lowvisibility approach.

lowvisibility takeoff means a takeoff with a runway visual range of less than 550 m.



Definitionsmajor defect means:

› in relation to an aeronautical product that is not fitted to an aircraft—a defect of such a kind that the aeronautical product, if fitted to an aircraft, may affect the safety of the aircraft or cause the aircraft to become a danger to persons or property, and

› in relation to an aircraft—a defect of such a kind that it may affect the safety of the aircraft or cause the aircraft to become a danger to persons or property.

maximum certificated passenger seating capacity for an aircraft, means the maximum passenger seating capacity permitted under the aircraft’s type certificate, foreign type certificate, supplemental type certificate or foreign supplemental type certificate.

maximum passenger seating capacity for an aircraft, means the maximum number of seats for persons (excluding flight crew and cabin crew) in the aircraft that is:

› approved by CASA and

› specified in the aircraft operator’s operations manual.

maximum payload capacity means the maximum payload permitted under the aircraft’s type certificate, foreign type certificate, supplemental type certificate or foreign supplemental type certificate.

maximum takeoff weight means the maximum takeoff weight for the aircraft permitted by:

› for an aircraft that is type certificated

» the flight manual for the aircraft, or

› for an aircraft that is not type certificated:

» if a document, published by the manufacturer of the aircraft setting out the operating limitations for the aircraft, specifies a weight—that document; or

» if no weight is specified in the document mentioned in above sub dot point, or if a different weight is specified in the certificate of airworthiness for the aircraft—the certificate of airworthiness for the aircraft.

master minimum equipment list or MMEL, for a type of aircraft, means the document:

› that includes a list of items in the aircraft that may (subject to any conditions or limitations specified in the document) be inoperative for a flight

› prepared by the aircraft’s type certificate holder

› approved by the NAA that issued the aircraft’s type certificate.

METAR means a routine aviation weather report in aeronautical meteorological code.

minimum equipment list or MEL for an aircraft, means a document:

› that includes a list of items in the aircraft that may (subject to any conditions or limitations specified in the document) be inoperative for a flight

› prepared by the aircraft’s operator

› approved under reg 91.935, and

› that complies with the requirements mentioned in 91.930 and includes any variation to the document approved under reg 91.940.



Definitionsminimum fuel means the fuel circumstance in which, having committed to land at a specific aerodrome, a pilot calculates that any change to the existing clearance to the aerodrome may result in landing with less than final reserve fuel.

MDA means minimum descent altitude, and is a specified altitude, in a 2D-instrument approach or circling approach, below which you must not descend without the required visual reference for the operation.

MDH means minimum descent height, and is a specified height, in a 2D-instrument approach or circling approach, below which you must not descend without the required visual reference for the operation.

Mode A is a transponder function that transmits a 4-digit octal identification code for an aircraft’s identity when interrogated by an SSREG.

Mode A code is the 4-digit octal identification code transmitted by a Mode A transponder function.

Mode C is a transponder function that transmits a 4-digit octal identification code for an aircraft’s pressure altitude when interrogated by an SSR.

Mode S is a transponder function that uses a unique aircraft address to call individual aircraft selectively. It supports advanced surveillance using Mode S EHS, Mode S ELS, or Mode S ES capabilities.

Mode S ES means Mode S extended squitter, which is a data transmission capability of a Mode S transponder used to transmit ADS-B OUT information.

Mode S EHS means Mode S enhanced surveillance, which is a data transmission capability of a Mode S transponder.

Mode S ELS means Mode S elementary surveillance, which is a data transmission capability of a Mode S transponder.

MSA or minimum sector altitude means the lowest altitude that provides at least 300 m (or 1000 ft) clearance above all objects within a sector of a circle of radius 46 km (or 25 NM) centred on a significant point.

NACp means navigation accuracy category—position as specified in paragraph 2.4.3.2.7.2.7 of RTCA/DO-260B.

NAIPS or National Aeronautical Information Processing System, is the multifunction, computerised, aeronautical information system, managed by Airservices Australia, which:

› processes and stores meteorological and NOTAM information

› enables the provision of briefing products and services to pilots and ATC

› enables the submission of flight notifications to ATS.

national aviation authority for a foreign country means the authority that is responsible for regulating civil aviation in the country, and

includes:

› the national airworthiness authority for the country

› if EASA carries out functions on behalf of the country—EASA

› for China, for matters relating to Hong Kong—the Civil Aviation Department of Hong Kong.



Definitionsnavigation specification means a set of aircraft and aircrew requirements needed to support a flight under PBN within a defined airspace.

There are 2 kinds of navigation specification—RNAV or area navigation, and RNP, or required navigation performance.

navigational tolerance means one of the following:

› for VOR or localiser—a half-scale deflection or more of the course deviation indicator

› for NDB—+ or – 5 degrees or more from the specified bearing

› for DME—+ or—2 NM or more from the required arc

› area navigation system—the RNAV or RNP value for the route, track or procedure being flown

› visual navigation—more than 1 NM from the cleared track.

night means the period between the end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of the following morning civil twilight.

NIC means navigation integrity category as specified in paragraph 2.2.3.2.7.2.6 of RTCA/DO-260A.

NUCp means navigation uncertainty category—position, as specified in paragraph 2.2.8.1.5 of RTCA/DO-260.

NVIS flight means a flight conducted using a night vision imaging system.

off-block time has the same meaning as flight commencement.

operator of an aircraft, means:

› if the operation of the aircraft is authorised by an AOC, a Part 141 certificate or an aerial work certificate—the holder of the AOC or certificate; or

› otherwise—the person, organisation or enterprise engaged in aircraft operations involving the aircraft.

operative means that a thing is not inoperative

passenger in relation to an aircraft, means a person who:

› intends to travel on a particular flight on the aircraft, or

› is on board the aircraft for a flight, or

› has disembarked from the aircraft following a flight, and

› is not a member of the crew of the aircraft for the flight.

PBN or performance-based navigation means area navigation based on performance requirements for aircraft operating:

› along an ATS route

› on an IAP, or

› in designated airspace.

Note: Performance requirements are expressed in navigation specifications (RNAV specification, and RNP specification) in terms of the accuracy, integrity, continuity, availability and functionality needed for the proposed operation in the context of a particular class of airspace.



DefinitionsPBN database means the data from an approved provider loaded onto the computerised system installed in an aircraft for area navigation using performance-based navigation.

Recent changes to CAO 20.91 may affect this definition

PBN specification means one of the following:

› an RNAV specification which:

» is based on area navigation

» does not include a requirement for on-board performance monitoring and alerting

» is designated by the prefix RNAV

Examples of RNAV specifications are RNAV 5 and RNAV 1.

› an RNP specification which:

» is based on area navigation

» includes a requirement for on-board performance monitoring and alerting

» is designated by the prefix RNP.

Examples of RNP specifications are RNP 4 and RNP APCH.

Performance class 1 (as defined by ICAO) means a helicopter with performance such that in the case of a critical power unit failure, it is able to land on the rejected take-off area, or safely continue the flight to an appropriate landing area, depending on when the failure occurs.

permitted person in relation to an aircraft means:

› a person who is carried on the aircraft for the purpose of:

» giving or receiving flying training or flight engineer training, or

» practising for the grant of a flight crew licence, rating or endorsement, or

» being assessed for the grant of a flight crew licence, rating or endorsement, or

› a person authorised by the operator of the aircraft to conduct an audit of the operation involved, or to supervise it, or

› an authorised officer carrying out an examination, inspection or test of the work of the aircraft’s crew under these regulations.



Definitionspersonnel

› for an Australian air transport operator or an aerial work operator, includes any of the following who have duties or responsibilities relating to the safe conduct of the operator’s Australian air transport operations or aerial work operations:

» an employee of the operator

» a person engaged by the operator (whether by contract or other arrangement) to provide services to the operator

» an employee of a person mentioned in the above sub-dot point, or

› for an ASAO, includes any of the following who have duties or responsibilities relating to the safe performance of the ASAO’s approved functions:

» an employee of the ASAO

» a person engaged by the ASAO (whether by contract or other arrangement) to provide services to the ASAO

» an employee of a person mentioned in above sub dot point

» a person appointed by the ASAO to perform an approved function on behalf of the ASAO.

pilot in command in relation to a flight of an aircraft, means the pilot designated by the operator of the aircraft as being in command and charged with the safe conduct of the flight.

point of in-flight replanning means a point en route at which an aircraft can:

› if the flight arrives at the point with adequate fuel to complete the flight to the destination aerodrome while maintaining the required final reserve fuel and contingency fuel—continue to the destination aerodrome; or

› otherwise—divert to an en route alternate with adequate fuel to complete the flight to the en route alternate while maintaining the required minimum final reserve fuel and contingency fuel

populous area includes a city and town

pre-flight briefing means the information the pilot must obtain before take-off including:

› relevant weather information

› aerodrome, air route and airway facility information the pilot plans to use

› a check and review of the following:

» all head office and FIR NOTAMs applicable to the en-route phase of the flight

» all location-specific NOTAMs for relevant aerodromes.

protective breathing equipment means equipment designed to prevent a person from having to breathe in, and to protect the person’s eyes from, toxic gases and fumes.



Definitionspsychoactive substance:

› includes:

» a therapeutic substance that is a psychoactive substance within the meaning given by Annex 1 to that Convention; and

» a therapeutic substance of which a psychoactive substance (within the meaning given by that Annex) is an ingredient; but

› does not include:

» tea, cocoa, chocolate or any other nonalcoholic drink containing caffeine or guarana; or

» confectionery containing caffeine or guarana.

Therapeutic substance means a substance that is therapeutic goods, within the meaning given by the Therapeutic Goods Act 1989.

published lowest safe altitude for a route or route segment for a flight of an aircraft, means the lowest safe altitude for the route or route segment published in authorised aeronautical information.

QNH is an atmospheric pressure at mean sea level measured in hectopascals, so that when QNH is set an altimeter should show elevation AMSL.

› area QNH means the QNH which is representative of a geographical area

› forecast QNH means forecast mean sea level atmospheric pressure issued in an authorised weather forecast

Qualifying multi-engine aeroplane is one:

that is:

› a multi-engine jet-powered aeroplane with an MTOW more than 2722 kg, or

› a multi-engine turbo propeller-powered aeroplane with an MTOW more than

» 5700 kg:

– operated by 2 pilots, or

– operated by one pilot and fitted with serviceable auto feather, and

for which, before commencing the take-off, the pilot:

› has assessed relevant obstacles along the take-off and climb path in accordance with the AFM, and

› determined that if an engine fails at any time after V1, terrain clearance is assured.

qualifying multi-engine rotorcraft In this section, a qualifying multi-engine rotorcraft means an IFR rotorcraft that:

› has a Category A performance supplement, and

› is operated to the Category A weights, limitations and procedures contained in the supplement.

quick-donning mask means an oxygen mask that:

› is to be worn by a flight crew member, and

› within 5 seconds of being deployed for use, the FCM can, with one hand, place secure and seal the quick- donning mask on their face



Definitionsrecognised country means any of the following:

› Canada

› France

› Germany

› Netherlands

› New Zealand

› United Kingdom

› United States of America.

rectification interval for a MEL item that may become inoperative, means the period within which the item must be rectified after discovering it is inoperative.

relevant aircraft means any of the following:

› a light sport aircraft for which a special certificate of airworthiness has been issued and is in force under reg 21.186;

› a light sport aircraft for which an experimental certificate has been issued and is in force under reg paragraph 21.191 (j) or (k);

› any other aircraft for which an experimental certificate has been issued and is in force under reg paragraph 21.191 (g) or (h).

rescue for an operation, means one to retrieve a person in distress, provide for their initial medical or other needs, and deliver them to safety.

rotorcraft means:

› a helicopter

› a gyroplane, or

› a powered-lift aircraft.

rotorcraft clearway for an aerodrome, means an area of ground or water selected and prepared by the aerodrome operator as being suitable for a rotorcraft to accelerate and achieve a height mentioned in the rotorcraft’s flight manual.

RNAV or area navigation means a method of navigation which permits aircraft operations on any desired flight path within:

› the coverage of ground or space-based navigation aids,

› the limits of the capability of *self-contained navigation aids, or

› a combination of the dot points above.

Area navigation (RNAV) includes as well as other operations that do not meet the definition of performance-based navigation.

* Self-contained navigation aids are such aids on board an aircraft

RNP is a statement of the navigation performance necessary for an aircraft operation within a defined airspace.

RNP 0.3 means your aircraft navigation system accuracy must be no greater than +- 0.3 NM

RNP specification is a particular subset of PBN



DefinitionsRNAV specification is a particular subset of PBN

RNP AR—an RNP AR navigation authorisation entitles an operator to fly:

› RNP AR approach (RNP AR APCH) procedures

› RNP AR departure (RNP AR DEP) procedures, and

› RNP AR engine-out SID (RNP AR EOSID) procedures.

RNP AR APCH (ICAO) procedures do not include one engine inoperative (OEI) provisions.

RTCA/DO-229D means document RTCA/DO-229D: ‘Minimum Operational Performance Standards for Global Positioning System/Wide Area Augmentation System Airborne Equipment’, 13 December 2006, RTCA Inc. of Washington D.C. USA (RTCA Inc.).

RTCA/DO-260 means RTCA Inc. document RTCA/DO-260: ‘Minimum Operational Performance Standards for 1090 MHz Automatic Dependent Surveillance-Broadcast’, 13 September 2000.

RTCA/DO-260B means RTCA Inc. document RTCA/DO-260B: ‘Minimum Operational Performance Standards for 1090 MHz Extended Squitter Automatic Dependent Surveillance-Broadcast (ADS-B) and Traffic Information Services-Broadcast (TIS-B’), 2 December 2009.

RVSM airspace means any of the following:

› the airspace, at or above flight level 290, identified in the AIP as airspace where a vertical separation minimum of 1000 ft applies

› the airspace, at or above flight level 290, designated, or otherwise recognised, by the appropriate authority of a foreign country to be airspace where a vertical separation minimum of 1000 ft applies

› airspace, at or above flight level 290, where a vertical separation of 1000 ft applies under the terms of a regional air navigation agreement.

runway strip means a defined area at an aerodrome, including the runway and stopway (if any) to which it relates, that is intended to:

› reduce the risk of damage to aircraft running off the runway, and

› protect aircraft flying over the area during takeoff, landing or a missed approach.

controlling RVR means the reported value of one or more runway visual range reporting locations (touchdown, mid-point and stop-end) used to determine whether operating minima are met.

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DefinitionsRVR means runway visual range, and is the range over which the pilot of an aircraft on the centreline of a runaway can see:

› the runway surface markings, or

› the lights delineating the runway or identifying its centreline.

RVR system is a system capable of measuring the runway visual range.

SARWATCH means the time for a SAR alert, based on:

› full position reporting procedures, or

› scheduled reporting times (SKEDS), or

› SARTIME.

SBAS means satellite-based augmentation system.

SCT means scattered cloud (3-4 OKTAS, meaning 3 to 4 eighths of the sky is covered by cloud).

seaplane includes an aeroplane with a floating hull.

search for an operation, means one normally coordinated by a rescue coordination centre or subcentre using available personnel and facilities to locate a person in distress.

secondary surveillance radar (SSR) means a surveillance radar system which uses transmitters/receivers (interrogators) and transponders.

serviceable the term applies to aeronautical products and is defined in sub-regulation 42.015 (6). This definition is specific to Part 42.

An aeronautical product is serviceable if the product:

› conforms with its approved design, and

› is fit for its intended use.

The term unserviceable is not defined but in relation to an aeronautical product it means the product is not serviceable.

SIL means source integrity level as specified in paragraph 2.2.3.2.7.2.9 of RTCA/DO-260B.

small aeroplane means an aeroplane with an MTOW of not more than 5700 kg.

SPECI means an aviation special weather report in aeronautical meteorological code.

special VFR

To fly special VFR, you must:

› have ATC authorisation

› not operate in class E airspace

› fly clear of cloud; and only fly if visibility is at least:

» for an aeroplane—1600 m

» for a rotorcraft—800 m

› for a rotorcraft—ensure you fly it at a speed allowing you to see obstructions or other traffic in sufficient time to avoid a collision, and

› ensure you fly in accordance with reg 91.315 and 91.320.



Definitionsspecified aircraft performance category for an aircraft, means the aircraft performance category prescribed for an aircraft’s VAT (as worked out in accordance with the AFM) by the Part 91 MOS

stage for a rotorcraft flight, means any of the following:

› take-off

› take-off and initial climb

› en-route flight

› approach and landing, or baulked landing.

standard pressure region means the airspace above 10,000 ft where the subscale of a pressure altimeter is set to 1013.2 hPa

suitable forced-landing area means:

› an area of ground on which a rotorcraft could make a forced landing with a reasonable expectation that no-one in the rotorcraft or on the ground would be injured, or

› an area of water:

» into which a rotorcraft could ditch with a reasonable expectation, taking into account *surface conditions, that no-one in the rotorcraft or on the water would be injured, and

» in which there would be a reasonable expectation, taking into account the limitations of the rotorcraft’s emergency flotation devices, that those in the rotorcraft would survive for the time that it would take to be rescued; and

» that, for a passenger transport operation, would be:

– adjacent to land, or adjacent to an offshore installation with search and rescue capabilities, or

– a location set out in the operator’s exposition with search and rescue capabilities.

*Surface conditions include, for example, wave height, wind and swell, and rocks and sandbanks only exposed at low tide.

suitable person means a person is a suitable person to occupy an emergency exit row seat or a seat adjacent to an emergency exit if the person:

› is reasonably fit, strong, and able to assist with the rapid evacuation of the aircraft in an emergency; and

› would not, because of a condition or disability, including an inability to understand oral instructions, hinder:

» other passengers during an evacuation of the aircraft in an emergency, or

» the aircraft’s crew in carrying out their duties in an emergency.

supplemental oxygen means oxygen that is provided to an occupant of an aircraft by purposedesigned equipment to supplement the oxygen available in the atmosphere inside the aircraft.

surveillance radar means radar equipment used to determine the position of an aircraft in range and azimuth.

take-off decision point or TDP, for a rotorcraft taking off, means the point used in determining take-off performance from which, if you recognise a power unit failure at that point, either you can make a rejected take-off, or continue to take off safely.



Definitionstakeoff minima means the minimum values of the following that are used to determine whether an aerodrome may be used for aircraft takeoff:

› visibility, including runway visibility and runway visual range;

› cloud ceiling height

take-off weight for a flight of an aircraft, means the total weight of the aircraft, including its load, at the start of:

› for an aeroplane—its take-off run; or

› for a rotorcraft—its take-off manoeuvre.

taxi fuel means the amount of fuel expected to be used before take-off, taking into account:

› local conditions at the departure aerodrome; and

› APU consumption (if applicable).

Note: For rotorcraft operations requiring a take-off before taxi, such as a hover taxi from a confined helipad, taxi fuel would be the fuel you expect to consume before commencing actual departure.

threshold of a runway, means the beginning of that portion of a runway that is useable for landing.

total cosmic radiation means ‘the sum total of ionising or neutron radiation of galactic and solar origin’.

track means the projection on the Earth’s surface of the path of an aircraft, the direction of which at any point is usually expressed in degrees from north (true or magnetic).

transition point for a rotorcraft flight that begins in VMC but is not flown wholly in VMC, means the point in the flight at which the rotorcraft stops flying in VMC and starts flying in IMC.

transition altitude means the altitude:

› at or below which the vertical position of an aircraft is referenced to an average mean sea level atmospheric pressure (QNH), and

› above which the vertical position of the aircraft is referenced to standard pressure (pressure altitude).

transition layer means the airspace between the transition altitude and the transition level.

transition level means the lowest flight level available for use above the transition altitude.

transponder means an aircraft’s SSR transponder.

trip fuel means the amount of fuel required for you to fly from take-off, or the point of in-flight replanning, until landing at the destination aerodrome, taking into account the following operating conditions:

› fuel for take-off and climb from departure aerodrome elevation to initial cruising level or altitude, taking into account the expected departure routing

› fuel for cruise from top of climb to top of descent, including any step climb or descent

› fuel from top of descent to the point where the approach is initiated, taking into account the expected arrival procedure

› fuel for executing an approach and landing at the destination aerodrome.

TSO means technical standard order of the FAA.



Definitionstype for an aircraft, aircraft engine or propeller, means a design and make of aircraft, aircraft engine or propeller and, where appropriate, refers to a group of essentially similar aircraft, aircraft engines or propellers which, although possibly existing in different models, stem from a common basic design.

UTC means coordinated universal time as determined by the International Bureau of Weights and Measures

See www.bipm.org for UTC

use NVIS means to use NVIS as the primary means of avoiding terrain to fly safely by means of visual surface reference external to the aircraft.

unforeseen factors mean factors that could influence fuel consumption to the destination aerodrome, including:

› deviation of the particular aircraft from the expected fuel consumption for aircraft of that type

› deviation from forecast meteorological conditions

› extended delays and deviations from planned routings or cruising levels.

valid for a navigation database, means that an approved provider must supply the database.

VAT, or velocity at threshold means the indicated airspeed at the threshold which is equal to the higher of the following in the landing configuration at the maximum certificated landing mass:

› stall speed VSO multiplied by 1.3; or

› stall speed VS1G multiplied by 1.23.

VAT is short for velocity at threshold.

VFR flight means a flight conducted under the VFR in VMC

Vmin means the minimum operating speed.

VS1G means the stalling speed, or the steady flight speed, obtained in the clean configuration at 1G.

VSO means the stalling speed, or the steady flight speed, in the landing configuration.

Vyse for an aircraft, means the speed mentioned in the AFM for the best rate of climb with one engine inoperative.

weight and balance documents for a flight of an aircraft, are the documents that set out the aircraft’s load for the flight and the distribution of the load during the flight.

weight and balance limits for an aircraft, means the weight and balance limits set out in the aircraft flight manual instructions for the aircraft.



http://www.bipm.org

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