Capital Structure - Lakehead...

52
Capital Structure Lakehead University Winter 2005

Transcript of Capital Structure - Lakehead...

Page 1: Capital Structure - Lakehead Universityflash.lakeheadu.ca/~pgreg/assignments/3019chapter15_w05.pdf · i.e. a firm’s WACC is not affected by its capital structure. 12. Analysis

Capital Structure

Lakehead University

Winter 2005

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Outline of the Lecture

• Modigliani and Miller’ Propositions

– With Taxes

– Without Taxes

• The Binomial Pricing Model

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The Value of the Levered Firm

Assumptions:

• Capital markets are frictionless.

• Individuals can borrow and lend at the risk-free rate.

• No bankruptcy costs.

• Firms issue only two types of claims: risk-free debt and

(risky) equity.

• All firms are assumed to be in the same risk class.

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The Value of the Levered Firm

Assumptions:

• Corporate taxes are the only form of government levy.

• No growth.

• No information asymmetry.

• Managers maximize shareholders’ wealth.

• Operating cash flows are unaffected by changes in capital

structure.

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Modigliani and Miller’s Propositions

Irrelevance of the Capital Structure

Proposition I: In the absence of taxes, the market value of a

firm is constant regardless of the amount of leverage that it

uses to finance its assets.

Proposition II: In the absence of taxes, the expected return on a

firm’s equity is an increasing function of the firm’s leverage.

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Analysis of M&M Proposition I

The value of a firm is given by the present value of all the cash

flows its assets are expected to generate in the future.

The value of a firm is equal to the value of its assets.

Unlevered Firm: VU = EU

Levered Firm: VL = D + EL.

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Analysis of M&M Proposition I

M&M Proposition I states that

VU = VL.

Why?

Consider an all-equity firm with valueVU = EU .

Suppose there existed a way to finance this firm’s assets with

debt and equity such that

VL = D + EL > VU .

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Analysis of M&M Proposition I

An arbitrageur could buyα shares of the above firm, place them

in a trust and sell debt and equity claims against these shares in

proportions such that

α(D+EL) > αEU ,

making then a riskless profit.

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Analysis of M&M Proposition I

Similarly, someone could buy all of the firm’s shares forEU and

modify the firm’s capital stucture to have

VL = D + EL > EU

and then resell the firm’s assets for a riskless profit ofVL−VU .

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Analysis of M&M Proposition I

In a frictionless market, this arbitrage opportunity would lead to

an increase in the value of the unlevered firm’s equity to the point

where

VU = EU = D + EL = VL

for any level ofD andEL.

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Analysis of M&M Proposition I

In M&M world, the present value of an unlevered firm is given

by

VU =FCF

ρ=

EBITρ

,

whereρ is the cost of equity of the unlevered firm.

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Analysis of M&M Proposition I

If two firms with the sameEBIT, one levered and the other

unlevered, are such thatVU = VL, then

VL =EBIT

ρ,

i.e. a firm’s WACC is not affected by its capital structure.

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Analysis of M&M Proposition II

M&M Proposition II states that a firm’s expected return on

equity increases with leverage.

Take the firm’s WACC (there are no taxes here):

WACC = rD

(D

D+EL

)+ rLE

(EL

D+EL

).

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Analysis of M&M Proposition II

Without taxes, a firm’s WACC,ρ, is independent of the capital

structure:

ρ = rD

(D

D+EL

)+ rLE

(EL

D+EL

).

Let’s factor outrLE.

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Analysis of M&M Proposition II

ρ = rD

(D

D+EL

)+ rLE

(EL

D+EL

)

⇒ rLE

(EL

D+EL

)= ρ − rD

(D

D+EL

)rLE = ρ

(D+EL

EL

)− rD

DEL

rLE = ρ(

DEL

+1

)− rD

DEL

rLE = ρ +DEL

(ρ − rD) .

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Analysis of M&M Proposition II

rLE = ρ +DEL

(ρ − rD)

Sinceρ is constant regardless ofD/EL, sinceρ− rD > 0 and

since debt is risk-free,rLE increases with leverage.

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Analysis of M&M Proposition II

If debt is not risk-free, doesrLE increase withD?

WhenD/EL increases,rD also increases and thusρ− rD

decreases.

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Analysis of M&M Proposition II

Incorporating more details in the analysis, it is possible to show

that

rLE ↑ asDEL↑ .

Thebinomial pricing model, for instance, can be used to show

this result.

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The Binomial Pricing Model

Consider a firm that can take on two values at timeT, i.e.

VT =

VuT with probability p,

VdT with probability 1− p,

with VuT > Vd

T , whereu stands for “up” andd stands for “down”.

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The Binomial Pricing Model

Let

V ≡ Current value of the firm’s assets

D ≡ Current value of the firm’s debt

E ≡ Current value of the firm’s equity

X ≡ Payment promised to debtholders at timeT

r f ≡ Risk-free rate of interest

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The Binomial Pricing Model

What areD andE?

At time T, the value of the firm’s debt is

DT =

X if VT ≥ X,

VT if VT < X.

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The Binomial Pricing Model: Risk-Free Debt

If VdT ≥ X, thenVu

T > X and thus debt is free of risk.

Risk-free assets are discounted at the risk-free rate, and thus

D =X

(1+ r f )T ,

which gives

E = V − D = V − X(1+ r f )T .

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The Binomial Pricing Model: Risk-Free Debt

Using continuous discounting, this can be rewritten as

D = Xe−r f T

E = V−Xe−r f T .

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The Binomial Pricing Model: Risk-Free Debt

Example

Consider a firm with present valueV = $400, future value

V3 =

Vu3 = $650 with probabilityp = 0.7,

Vd3 = $250 with probability 1− p = 0.3.

in three years, and a pure-discount debt issue that paysX = $200

in three years.

The risk-free interest rate isr f = 5%.

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The Binomial Pricing Model: Risk-Free Debt

Example

Note that the above values give us a return on assets of

rA =

(pVu

3 +(1− p)Vd3

V

)1/3

−1

=(

.7×650+ .3×250400

)1/3

−1

= 9.83%.

Note thatrA≡ ρ.

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The Binomial Pricing Model: Risk-Free Debt

Example

What is the current value of debt?

Debt is risk-free and thusX can be discounted at the risk-free

rate to findD:

D =X

(1.05)3 =200

(1.05)3 = 173.

The current value of equity is then

E = V − D = 400− 173 = 227.

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The Binomial Pricing Model: Risk-Free Debt

Example

The return on equity in this case is

rLE =(

.7×450+ .3×50227

)1/3

−1 = 13.28%.

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The Binomial Pricing Model: Risk-Free Debt

Example

What happens torLE if X increases to 250?

Debt is still risk-free and thus

D =250

(1.05)3 = 216.

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The Binomial Pricing Model: Risk-Free Debt

Example

The value of the firm has a whole remainsV = 400 (M&M

Proposition I), we have

EL = 400− 216 = 184,

which gives

rLE =(

.7×400+ .3×0184

)1/3

−1 = 15.02%.

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The Binomial Pricing Model: Risky Debt

Suppose now that debt is not risk-free. That is, suppose that

VdT < X < Vu

T .

The value of debt at timeT is then

DT =

X if VT = VuT ,

VdT if VT = Vd

T .

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The Binomial Pricing Model: Risky Debt

The value of equity at timeT is

ET =

VuT −X if VT = Vu

T ,

0 if VT = VdT .

Let EuT = Vu

T −X and letEdT = 0.

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The Binomial Pricing Model: Risky Debt

How can we findD andE in this case?

We have the risk-free discount rate and thus we can find the

present value of any risk-free asset.

Can we form a risk-free portfolio withV, D andE?

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The Binomial Pricing Model: Risky Debt

A risk-free portfolio is a portfolio that provides the same payoff

in each state of the worldu andd.

How to make a portfolio that paysK, say, whetherVT = VuT or

VT = VdT ?

What canK be?

What payoff can we guarantee with certainty?

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The Binomial Pricing Model: Risky Debt

Consider a portfolioP, which involves the purchase of all of the

firm’s assets and the short sale of a fractionδ of the firm’s equity.

The payoff of portfolioP at timeT is then

VuT − δEu

T in stateu,

VdT − δEd

T in stated.

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The Binomial Pricing Model: Risky Debt

For portfolioP to be risk-free, we need

VuT − δEu

T = VdT − δEd

T ⇒ δ =Vu

T −VdT

EuT −Ed

T

.

The present value of portfolioP, V−δE, is then given by

V − δE =VT −δET

(1+ r f )T .

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The Binomial Pricing Model: Risky Debt

With δ = VuT−Vd

TEu

T−EdT, we have

VT − δET = VuT − δEu

T = (1−δ)VuT + δX

= VdT − δEd

T = VdT

and thus

V − δE =Vd

T

(1+ r f )T .

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The Binomial Pricing Model: Risky Debt

The current market value of equity is then

E =1δ

(V − Vd

T

(1+ r f )T

)and the current market value of debt is

D = V − E.

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The Binomial Pricing Model: Risky Debt

Example

Consider a firm with present valueV = $400, future value

V3 =

Vu3 = $650 with probabilityp = 0.7,

Vd3 = $250 with probability 1− p = 0.3.

in three years, and a pure-discount debt issue that paysX = $400

in three years.

The risk-free interest rate isr f = 5%.

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The Binomial Pricing Model: Risky Debt

Example

Same firm as before, except thatX = 400.

Debt is not default-free anymore.

What is the current value of debt and equity?

First thing to do: findδ in the portfolioV−δE such that the

latter be risk-free.

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The Binomial Pricing Model: Risky Debt

Example

To haveVu3 −δEu

3 = Vd3 −δEd

3 , we need

δ =Vu

3 −Vd3

Eu3−Ed

3

,

where

Eu3 = max

{0 , Vu

3 −X}

= max{

0 , 650−400}

= 250

Ed3 = max

{0 , Vu

3 −X}

= max{

0 , 250−400}

= 0.

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The Binomial Pricing Model: Risky Debt

Example

This gives

δ =Vu

3 −Vd3

Eu3−Ed

3

=650−250250−0

= 1.6

and thus

E =1δ

(V −

Vd3

(1+ r f )3

)=

11.6

(400− 250

(1.05)3

)= 184

andD = V−E = 400−184= 216.

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The Binomial Pricing Model: Risky Debt

Example

Note that the return required by bondholders in this case is

rD =(

400216

)1/3

− 1 = 22.8%.

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M&M Propositions with Taxes

Consider an unlevered firm, denotedU , that expects constant

earnings before interest and taxes, denotedEBIT, forever.

Each period, if the corporate tax rate isTc, shareholders receive

(1−Tc)EBIT

and the government receives

Tc×EBIT.

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M&M Proposition I with Taxes

Let EU = VU denote the present value of the payment

(1−Tc)EBIT forever.

Let GU denote the present value of the paymentTc×EBIT

forever.

Let ρ denote the rate at which investors discountEBIT, i.e.

EU = VU =(1−Tc)EBIT

ρ.

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M&M Proposition I with Taxes

Consider a levered firm, FirmL, with the sameEBIT asU , but

with a perpetual debt issueD with coupon ratei.

Interest payments are tax exempt.

Shareholders receive(1−Tc)(EBIT− iD) each period forever,

bondholders receiveiD each period forever, and

the government receivesTc(EBIT− iD) each period forever.

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M&M Proposition I with Taxes

Let

QU = EU + GU and QL = EL + D + GL.

From M&M Proposition I without taxes, we know thatQU = QL

sinceEBIT is the same for both firms.EBIT should therefore be

discounted at the same rate for bothU andL, namelyρ.

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M&M Proposition I with Taxes

Each period, the total cash flow to shareholders and bondholders

of Firm L is

(1−Tc)(EBIT− iD) + iD = (1−Tc)EBIT + TciD.

Assuming thatTciD is as safe as debt itself, we have

VL =(1−Tc)EBIT

ρ+

TciDrD

,

whererD is bondholders’ required return (risk-free rate here).

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M&M Proposition I with Taxes

For debt to have been issued at par, we needi = rD and thus

VL =(1−Tc)EBIT

ρ+

TcrDDrD

= VU + TcD.

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M&M Proposition II with Taxes

How doesrLE, the return required by the levered firm’s

shareholders, compare withρ?

Using

EL =(1−Tc)(EBIT− rDD)

rLE⇒ rLE =

(1−Tc)(EBIT− rDD)EL

and

(1−Tc)EBIT = ρVU = ρ(VL − TcD) = ρ(EL + (1−Tc)D),

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M&M Proposition II with Taxes

we find

rLE =ρ(EL + (1−Tc)D) − (1−Tc)rDD

EL

= ρ +DEL

(1−Tc)(ρ− rD).

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M&M Proposition II with Taxes

WACCL =DVL

(1−Tc)rD +EL

VLrLE

=DVL

(1−Tc)rD +EL

VL

(ρ +

DEL

(1−Tc)(ρ− rD))

=D(1−Tc)rD + ELρ + D(1−Tc)(ρ− rD)

VL

=(VL−D)ρ + D(1−Tc)ρ

VL

=VLρ − TcDρ

VL= ρ

(1− TcD

VU +TcD

)

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M&M Proposition II with Taxes

WACCL = ρ(

1− TcDVU +TcD

)= ρ× VU

VU +TcD

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