C-SAT Sample Paper Class IXC-SAT Sample Paper Class IX Q. 9 A block is placed on a rough horizontal...

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C-SAT Sample Paper Class IX

Q. 1 A boy sitting on the top most berth in the compartment of a train which is just going to stop

on the railway station, drops an apple aiming at the open hand of his brother situated

vertically below his hands at a distance of about 2m. The apple will fall:

(a) In the hand of his brother

(b) Slightly away from the hand of his brother in the direction of the motion of the train

(c) Slightly away from the hands of his brother in the direction opposite to the direction of the motion

of the train.

(d) None of these

Q. 2 The velocity-time graph of a body falling from rest under gravity and rebounding from a solid

surface is represented by

where υ = velocity and t = time

(a) (b) (c) (d)

Q. 3 A body falling from rest describes distances S1, S2 and S3 is the first, second and third

seconds of its fall. Then the ratio of S1 : S2 : S3 is

(a) 1 : 1 : 1 (b) 1 : 3 : 5 (c) 1 : 2 : 3 (d) 1 : 4 : 9

Q. 4 Correct relation is . . .

(a) v u a s (b) v u a s (c) v u as (d) v u a s

SECTION – A (PHYSICS 1–20)

Space for Rough Work



Q. 5 A car travels 40 km at an average speed of 80 km/h and then travels 40 km at an average

speed of 40 km/h. The average speed of the car for this 80 km trip is

(a) 40 km/h (b) 45 km/h (c) 48 km/h (d) 53 km/h

Q. 6 In the adjacent V – T diagram what is the relation between acceleration a1 and a2?

(a) a a

(b) a a

(c) a a

(d) Cannot be predicted

Q. 7 Two bodies of masses m and 3m, moving with velocities 3v and v respectively along same

direction, collide with each other. After collision they stick together and move with a velocity

V1 in the same direction. Then:

(a) (b) (c) V1 = 2v (d)

Q. 8 The distance covered by a body moving along X-axis with initial velocity u and uniform

acceleration a is given by 2 . This result is a consequence of

(a) Newton’s 1st law (b) Newton’s 2nd law

(c) Newton’s 3rd law (d) None of the above


2

1



Q. 9 A block is placed on a rough horizontal surface. A time dependent horizontal force F = kt acts

on the block, where k is positive constant. Acceleration time graph of the block is

(a) (b) (c) (d)

Q. 10 According to Newton’s Second law of Motion

where f = force, m = mass and a = acceleration

(a) f m v (b) f m a (c) m

fa

(d) m

fv

Q. 11 If the momentum of a moving body is increased by 50% then the kinetic energy will be

increased by

(a) 100% (b) 125% (c) 150% (d) 200%

Q. 12 Which law of newton gives the definition of force?

(a) First law (b) Second equation of motion

(c) Third law (d) None of the above

Q. 13 What is the displacement of a cat from initial point when it moves 20 km East & then 60 km

west:

(a) 40 km (b) 20 km (c) 60 km (d) 80 km

Q. 14 If the mass and radius of earth become half and one-fourth, respectively, of their present

values then the value of acceleration due to gravity will become:

(a) 1

8g (b)

1

4g (c) 4 g (d) 8 g




Q. 15 Value of acceleration due to gravity of earth is maximum

(a) At centre of earth (b) At surface of earth

(c) At a height of 50 km from earth’s surface (d) At the pole of earth

Q. 16 Neglecting the rotation of the earth, if suddenly the attractive power of the earth drops to zero

a man standing on the earth will

(a) Fly up (b) Slide along the surfaces

(c) Move a bit (d) Stand unaffected

Q. 17 A planet of volume V and mass m has gravitational acceleration g on its surface. If it

expands to 8 times its original volume, what will be the acceleration due to gravity

(a) 4g (b) 2g (c) 4

g(d)

8

g

Q. 18 Let M denote the mass of earth and let R denote its radius. The ratio g / G at earth’s surface

is

(a) 2R

M(b) 2

M

R(c)

M

R(d)

R

M

Q. 19 The mass of earth is 8 times that of any other planet and its diameter is double that of the

other planet. If the value of acceleration due to gravity on earth is 9.8 m/s2, then the value of

acceleration due to gravity on the other planet will be

(a) 0.98ms (b) 0.49ms (c) 9.8ms (d)

Q. 20 What is the ratio of the force of gravitation between two masses m1 and m

2 kept at a distance

R on the earth and on moon?

(a) 6 : 1 (b) 1 : 1 (c) 1 : 6 (d) None of these




Q. 21 The water boils when

(a) Saturated vapour pressure of water becomes equal to the atmospheric pressure

(b) Boiling point of water becomes more than atmospheric pressure

(c) Saturated vapour pressure of water is less than atmospheric pressure

(d) Vapour pressure of water becomes more than atmospheric pressure

Q. 22 Sublimation is involved in

(a) Incense stick and odonil (b) Camphor and incense stick

(c) Perfume and odonil (d) Naphthalene balls and camphor

Q. 23 Which of the following conditions is most favourable for converting a gas into liquid?

(a) High pressure, low temperature (b) Low pressure, low temperature

(c) Low pressure, high temperature (d) High pressure, high temperature

Q. 24 Before the Medical professional gives an injection he applies spirit at that site. At that time

skin feels very cool because

(a) The spirit kills the bacteria present on the skin

(b) The spirit evaporates using the heat from our body

(c) The spirit loses its heat when it is taken out of the bottle

(d) The spirit is at low temperature

Q. 25 Ice is floating on water in a beaker.When ice completely melts then level of water in beaker:

(a) Increases (b) Decreases

(c) Remains the same (d) First increases then decreases

Q. 26 When the solid melts, its temperature

(a) Increases (b) Decreases

(c) Remains the same (d) First increases then decreases

SECTION – B (CHEMISTRY 21–40)




Q. 27 The physical state of water at 298 K temperature is

(a) Gaseous (b) Solid (c) Liquid (d) Plasma

Q. 28 Sepration of cream from milk is done by

(a) Filtration (b) Centrifugation method

(c) Evaporation (d) Boiling

Q. 29 The process by which a mixture of sodium chloride and ammonium chloride can be separated,

is called

(a) Sublimation (b) Chromatography (c) Evaporation (d) Distillation

Q. 30 Which of the following statement is true?

(a) Colloidal solutions do not show Tyndal effect.

(b) Colloidal solutions show Brownian movement.

(c) Colloidal solutions are homogeneous.

(d) Size of the colloidal particles is less than 1 nm.

Q. 31 The Brownian motion in colloidal solution is due to

(a) Temperature fluctuation

(b) Attraction or repulsion between charged colloidal particles

(c) Bombardment of molecules of dispersion medium on the colloidal particle

(d) None of the above

Q. 32 The substance which is chemically resistant and can hold aqua regia

(a) Ceramics (b) Glass (c) Fibre (d) Thermosetting plastic

Q. 33 Which of the following gases is used to show the clouds or artifical smoke in film or drama?

(a) Carbon Dioxide (b) Oxygen (c) Helium (d) Hydrogen




Q. 34 What will be the mass/mass percentage of a solution containing 30 gm of common salt in 220

gm of water?

(a) 3% (b) 1.2% (c) 12% (d) 22%

Q. 35 Cheese is an example of which type of colloid?

(a) Gel (b) Foam (c) Sol (d) Solid sol

Q. 36 Which process is used to separate a mixture of two miscible liquids A and B having boiling

points 56oC and 65oC respectively?

(a) Distillation (b) Fractional distillation (c) Sublimation (d) Steam distillation

Q. 37 The purity of a substance can be gauged by the following, except:

(a) Its melting point (b) Its boiling point (c) Chromatography (d) Physical appearance

Q. 38 A student was asked to mix the egg white with water and stir well. The student observed that

(a) A transparent solution is formed (b) A translucent mixture is formed

(c) Egg white settles down at the bottom (d) Egg white floats on the surface

Q. 39 When a mixture of sulphur powder and iron fillings is heated

(a) Iron fillings start melting (b) Sulphur sublimates leaving iron filling behind

(c) Ferrous sulphide is formed (d) Sulphur melts

Q. 40 A student recorded the mass of dry raisins as 2.5 g and the mass of raisins after soaking in

water as 4 g. While performing the above experiment the percentage of water absorbed by

raisins is

(a) 20% (b) 30% (c) 60% (d) 40%




Q. 41 Cell organelle which differentiates plant cell from animal cell is

(a) Cell Membrane (b) Plastids (c) Nucleolus (d) Vacuoles

Q. 42 Organisms without nucleus & membrane bound cell organelles belong to

(a) Fungi (b) Protista (c) Algae (d) Monera

Q. 43 Mitosis_____________

(a) Leads to recombinant daughter cells

(b) Is a reduction division

(c) Leads to formation of parental type of daughter cells

(d) Occurs in gametes

Q. 44 Turgidity of cell is maintained by

(a) Vacuole (b) Lysosome (c) Plastid (d) Golgi body

Q. 45 Blood cell without nucleus are

(a) Red blood corpuscles (b) White blood corpuscles

(c) T-lymphocyte (d) None of these

Q. 46 Which is the longest cell in human body?

(a) Liver cell (b) Nerve cell (c) Muscle cell (d) Kidney cell

Q. 47 The muscles found connected to the bones are

(a) Striated muscles (b) Unstriated muscles (c) Cardiac muscles (d) All of above

Q. 48 Notochord is derived from:

(a) Mesoderm (b) Ectoderm (c) Ecto-endoderm (d) Meso-endoderm

Q. 49 Which of the following are cardiac muscles?

(a) Uninucleated and Unstriated (b) Multinucleated and Unbranched

(c) Uninucleated and Branched (d) Uninucleated and Unbranched

SECTION – C (BIOLOGY 41–60)




Q. 50 Which of the following is not the component of phloem?

(a) Companion Cells (b) Sieve Cells

(c) Phloem Parenchyma (d) Phloem Vessels

Q. 51 Living mechanical tissue is

(a) Parenchyma (b) Collenchyma (c) Sclerenchyma (d) Chlorenchyma

Q. 52 In plants, transport of soluble products in the process of photosynthesis occurs in

(a) Xylem (b) Phloem (c) Both of these (d) None of these

Q. 53 Bone is________

(a) Epithelium tissue (b) Muscular tissue (c) Connective tissue (d) Nervous tissue

Q. 54 Which part of neuron shows Dendrite?

(a) D (b) B (c) C (d) A

Q. 55 Which one of the following plant belong to division Pteridophyta?

(a) Funaria (b) Cycas (c) Riccia (d) Fern

Q. 56 Which two of the following animals belong to the same Phylum?

(a) Starfish and Nereis (b) Antedon and Starfish

(c) Antedon and Chiton (d) Nereis and Chiton




Q. 57 The entire body surface and cavities inside the body are lined by

(a) Epithelial tissue (b) Connective tissue (c) Muscle tissue (d) Nervous tissue

Q. 58 A plant has body differentiated into root, stem & leaves. It also has tissue for conduction of

water and other substances, but has naked seed. Under which type will such plants be

classified?

(a) Gymnosperms (b) Angiosperms (c) Bryophyta (d) Pteridophyta

Q. 59 Choose the correct hierarchy in classification group.

(a) Phylum - class - order - family - species

(b) Phylum - order - class - family - species

(c) Phylum - class - family - order - species

(d) Phylum - order - family - class - species

Q. 60 Plant group more sensitive to the levels of sulphur dioxide in air is

(a) Thallophyta (b) Lichen (c) Pteridophyta (d) Gymnosperm




Q. 61 If 7 then (a, b) =

(a) (8, –3) (b) (–8, –3) (c) (–8, 3) (d) (8, 3)

Q. 62 The value of 5 (32) is

(a) 1

8(b)

1

16(c)

1

32(d) None

Q. 63 If x then x =

(a) 0 (b) –1 (c) 1

2(d) 1

Q. 64 If then value of is

(a) –1 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) –2

Q. 65 Factors of are:

(a) 1

6x x (b)

1

6x x (c)

1

6x x (d)

1

6x x

Q. 66 If is a factor of and then the value of a is

(a) m p

n q(b)

n q

m p(c)

n q

m p(d)

m p

n q

SECTION – D (MATHEMATICS 61–80)




Q. 67 In figure, if AB || CD, and o then the value of is

A

G F

B

EC D

(a) 126o (b) 120o (c) 128o (d) 54o

Q. 68 In figure, if PQ || ST, o and o then the value of is

o

o

(a) 60o (b) 120o (c) 80o (d) 90o

Q. 69 In figure, AB || CD, the value of x is

o

o

(a) 185o (b) 280o (c) 285o (d) 195o




Q. 70 In figure, the sum of and is

B

A C P

Q

deca

b

(a) c d (b) d e (c) b c (d) a c

Q. 71 In figure, AB || CD, then the value of x and y respectively aree

o

(a) 50o and 77o (b) 40o and 85o (c) 60o and 90o (d) 85o and 75o

Q. 72 Solution of is

(a) a b c (b) a b c (c) a b c (d) a b c

Q. 73 One forth of one third of one half of a number is 12, then number is

(a) 284 (b) 286 (c) 288 (d) 290

Q. 74 If is a solution of equation then, the value of a is

(a) –3 (b) 3 (c) 7 (d) 5

Q. 75 In a triangle ABC, if and then the measure of is

(a) 88o (b) 55o (c) 37o (d) 60o




Q. 76 In figure, AB = AC and BE = CD. If then AD =

(a) AC

(b) AE

(c) AB

(d) none of these

Q. 77 In fig, and then relation between AD and BC is

(a) AD > BC

(b) AD < BC

(c) AD = BC

(d) None of these

Q. 78 In a DABC and DPQR, three equality relations between same parts are as follows:

AB = QP, and BC = PR

State which of the congruence conditions applies:

(a) SAS (b) ASA (c) SSS (d) RHS

Q. 79 In quadrilateral ABCD, BM and DN are drawn perpendicular to AC such that BM = DN. If

BR = 8 cm, then BD is

(a) 4 cm

(b) 2 cm

(c) 12 cm

(d) 16 cm

Q. 80 If and DABC is not congruent to DRPQ, then which of the following is not true:

(a) BC = PQ (b) AC = PR (c) QR = BC (d) AB = PQ

A

B C

D E

B

A

D

C

O




Q. 81 How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters ESRO using each letter

only once in each word?

(a) One (b) Two (c) Three (d) None

Q. 82 'BF' is related to 'HL' in the same way as 'EI' is related to _________

(a) KO (b) KN (c) JN (d) JO

Q. 83 Pointing to a person, a man said to a woman, "His mother is the only daughter of your

father." How was the woman related to the person ?

(a) Aunt (b) Mother (c) Wife (d) Daughter

Q. 84 K is 40 m South-West of L. If M is 40 m South-East of L, then M is in which direction of

K?

(a) East (b) West (c) North-East (d) South

Q. 85 Find the missing number 1, 2, 3, 10, ?, 9802

(a) 99 (b) 199 (c) 299 (d) 999

Q. 86 It takes five minutes to pass a rumour from one person to two other persons. The tree of

rumour continues. Find how many minutes does it take spread the rumour to 729 persons ?

(a) 45 min (b) 25 min (c) 30 min (d) 36 min

Q. 87 Which of the following Venn- diagram correctly illustrates the relation ship among the classes:

Carrot, Food, Vegetables

(1) (2) (3) (4)

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

SECTION – C (MENTAL ABILITY 81–90)





Q. 88 Given interchanges :

Signs + and – , numbers 4 and 8.

(a) 4 + 8 – 12 = 12 (b) 4 – 8 + 12 = 0

(c) 8 + 4 – 12 = 24 (d) 8 – 4 + 12 = 8

Q. 89 Observe the dots on a dice (one to six dots) in the following figures. How many dots are

contained on the face opposite to that containing four dots?

(a) 2 (b) 3

(c) 6 (d) Cannot be determined

Q. 90 Find the minimum number of straight lines required to make the given figure.

(a) 11 (b) 14 (c) 16 (d) 17

C-SAT Sample Paper Class IXC-SAT Sample Paper Class IX Q. 9 A block is placed on a rough horizontal...

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