BTCM-BTWRE Second Yearignou.ac.in/userfiles/BTCM-BTWRE Second Year.pdf · A B C P W Figure 6(b) Q.7...

Assignment Booklet

BTCM/BTWRE (Second Year)

Course Code Course Code

ET-502 (A) ET-524 (B)

ET-502 (B) ET-532 (A)

ET-521 (A) ET-532 (B)

ET-521 (B) ET-533 (A)

ET-521 (C) ET-533 (B)

ET-521 (D) ET-534 (A)

ET-522 ET-534 (B)

ET-523 (A) ET-534 (C)

ET-523 (B) ET-581 (A)

ET-523 (C) ET-581 (F)

ET-524 (A)

School of Engineering and Technology

Indira Gandhi National Open University MAIDAN GARHI, NEW DELHI – 110 068

2013

Dear Student,

This booklet contains the assignments for the BTCM and BTWRE programmes. However, you are required to attempt assignments only for those courses/course topics for which you have registered (as applicable to you) and paid the requisite fee. Before attempting the assignments, please carefully read the instructions given in the Student Handbook and Prospectus for the Engineering and Technology Programmes. Each course topic (e.g. ET-101 (A) and ET-502 (B), etc.) has one assignment, which is based on all the blocks of respective course. You are also advised to write your responses in your own language. This will improve your comprehension skills. Further, you may note that in case your assignment response(s) happens to be a copy of assignment response sheet submitted by another student, your assignment may be summarily rejected by the Coordinator/Programme In-charge/Course Counsellor of your Study Centre/Programme Study Centre and/or your marks may be made null and void. Therefore, you are strongly advised not to allow any other student to copy your answers. The last data of submission of assignment is given against each assignment. You are advised not to wait for the last date to submit your assignments. Therefore, you may note that the assignment answer sheets received after the due date will be summarily rejected and no communication will be entertained in this regard.

You have to submit/send your assignment answer sheets to the Coordinator/Programme In-charge of your Study Centre/Programme Centre, as the case may be so as to reach there on or before the due date.

Instructions for Formatting Your Assignments

• On the top of the first page of your Tutor Marked Assignment (TMA) answer sheet, please write the details exactly in the following format :

Enrolment No. _________________ Date : _____________________

Course Code : _________________ Course Title : _______________

Name : _______________________ Address : __________________

__________________________

__________________________

Signature : __________________________

• Please follow the above format strictly to facilitate evaluation and avoid delay.

• Use only foolscap size writing paper (but not of very thin variety) for writing your answers.

• Leave 3 cm margin on the left, top and bottom of your answer sheet.

• Your answer should be precise and to the point.

• While solving problems, clearly indicate the question number along with the part being solved. Recheck your work before submitting it.

Answer sheet received after the due date shall not be accepted. We strongly feel that you should retain a copy of your assignment answer sheet duly acknowledged by the office of the Coordinator/Programme In-charge of your Study Centre/Programme Study Centre to avoid any unforeseen situation.

All the students may please note that they are required to attempt assignments only for those courses/course topics for which they have registered and paid the requisite fee.

Wishing you all good luck!

Q.1 A bar is 3m long with rectangular cross-section 360mm deep and 480 mm wide. Calculate the change in volume of the solid due to a longitudinal compressive force of 780 kN, if the elastic constant E and Poisson’s Ratio (µ) for the material are known as 126kN/mm2 and 0.2, respectively.

Q.2 A bi-metallic rod of length 600mm is mounted horizontally between rigid abutments. The

rod has a uniform circular section and is made up of a 200mm length of steel and a 400mm length of copper coaxial with each other. If the rod is initially stress free, determine the stress in the rod caused by a temperature rise of 150 K, Given

E copper = 105 GNm-2 E steel = 210 GNm -2

α copper = 18X10-6 K-1

α steel = 12X10-6 K-1

Q.3 A steel wire hangs vertically under its own weight. What is the greatest length it can have if

the allowable Tensile stress is σ1=2000 kg/cm2? The specific weight of steel is 8000 kg/m3.

Q.4 A bar of magnesium alloy 30 mm in diameter was tested on gauge length of 28 cm in tension and in torsion. A tensile load of 6 tones produced an extension of 0.5 mm and a torque of 1500kg cm produced a twist of 1.720. Determine

(i) the young’s modulus (ii) the modulus of rigidity (iii) the bulk modulus (iv) the poisson’s ratio for the material under test

Q.5 A spherical vessel of 750 mm diameter is made from 12 mm thick steel plates with a permissible tensile stress of 140N/mm2. Find the safe internal pressure that can be applied inside the shell.

Q.6 A close coiled helical spring has to absorb 70Nm of energy when compressed to 58 mm. The coil diameter is ten times the wire diameter. If there are 12 coils, estimate the diameters of coil and wire and the maximum shear stress. Take G = 87000N/mm2.

TUTOR MARKED ASSIGNMENT

ET-502A

STRENGTH OF MATERIALS

Note : All questions are compulsory and carry equal marks. This assignment is

based on all Blocks of Strength of Materials.

Maximum Marks : 100

Weightage : 30% Course Code : ET-502A

Last Date of Submission : September 30, 2013

BTWRE

Q.7 The external and internal diameters of a hollow shaft are 60cm and 30 cm respectively. Find the maximum torque which the shaft can transmit, if the angle of twist is not to exceed 1.20 in a length of 12m. Take C = 0.8X106 kg / cm2.

Q.8 Calculate the strain energy stored in a bar of circular cross-section of diameter and length

of 0.2 m and 2m respectively, when it is –

(i) subjected to a tensile load of 25 kN (ii) subjected to a torque of 25 kN m & (iii) subjected to a uniform bending moment of 25 kN m. Take E=208GN/m2, G=80GN/m2 for the material.

Q.9 Figure shows an overhanging beam which is subjected to a uniformly distributed load.

Draw the bending moment and stressforce diagrams and mark the values.

Figure

Q.10 A I-beam is supported over a span of 2000 mm and is loaded by a central load of 500 kN. The section of the beam is shown in figure. Find the shearing stress at points 1, 2 and 3 noting that point 2 lies both in the flange and the web, and point 3 in neutral plane. Show the shean stress variation.

Figure

3 m 1.2 m

5860 N/m

276mm

12

12

200

3

12

N

1

2


ET 502 (Part B)

STRUCTURAL ANALYSIS

Note : All questions are compulsory and carry equal marks. This assignment is based on

all Blocks of Structural Analysis.

Maximum Marks : 100

Weightage : 30% Course Code : ET-502B

Last Date of Submission : Sept. 30, 2013

BTWRE

Q.1 (a) Draw the influence line diagrams for the following components in the structure given in Figure 1(a).

Figure 1(a)

(i) Reaction at A (ii) Reaction at B (iii) Reaction at D (iv) Bending Moment at P (v) Bending Moment at B (vi) Shear at P

(b) Draw the influence line diagram for the forces in members DE, HC, IJ and LF of the truss

shown in Figure 1(b). The load is moving on a floor system resting on the bottom cord of the truss.

Figure 1(b)

Find the maximum value of the axial force in the members due to the following moving load systems :

(i) A 3 m long moving uniform load of 15 kN/m.

A

B C D E F

G

H I J K L

6 @ 4 m

3 m

A B P D C

2 m 2 m 2 m 1 m

(ii) A long uniform moving load of 12 kN/m and a concentrated moving load of 100 kN. (iii) A truck traveling from left to right, the wheel loads of which are shown in Figure 1(c).

Figure 1(c)

Q.2 (a) A three hinged unsymmetrical parabolic arch has a span of 90 m. The right hand springing B is 10 m above the left hand spring A. The crown C is at 50 m from A and 30 m above it. It carries two loads of 80 kN and 120 kN at 10 m and 20 m from left hand support A respectively and a uniformly distributed load of 5 kN/m over the right portion starting from crown C. Draw the bending moment diagram and calculate the bending moment, normal thrust and radial shear at a point 30 m from the right hand support.

(b) Find the forces in the members of the truss shown in Figure 2.

Figure 2

Q.3 (a) Analyse the continuous beam shown in Figure 3(a) using Three Moment Theorem and draw bending moment and shear force diagrams.

Figure 3(a)

A

B C D E

F

G H I J

5 @ 4 m

3 m

60 kN

100 kN

2 m 4 m 4 m 2 m

3 kN/m 40 kN 10 kN 80 kN

EI = Constant

60 kN 50 kN 100 kN 60 kN

2 m 2 m 2 m

(b) For a continuous beam shown in Figure 3(b), the support A settles by 5 mm and support B settles by 2 mm along with the given loading. Draw the bending moment diagram for the beam.

Figure 3(b)

Q.4 (a) Analyse the plane frame shown in Figure 4(a) using slope deflection method and draw bending moment diagram.

Figure 4(a) (b) Analyse the plane frame shown in Figure 4(b) using moment distribution method.

Figure 4(b)

EI = Constant = 72 × 103 kNm

2

2 kN/m

100 kN 60 kN

2 m 2 m 2 m 1 m 1 m

A B

C

3 m

5 kN/m

70 kN

EI = Constant

A

B C

D

4 m

4 m

100 kN

80 kN

A

B C

D

1 m 1 m

2 m 3 m

4 m

Q.5 (a) Analyse the plane frame shown in Figure 5(a) using symmetry concept.

Figure 5(a)

(b) Analyse the plane frame shown in Figure 5(b).

Figure 5(b)

Q.6 (a) Find the deflection at B and slope at C in the beam shown in Figure 6(a) for the given loading.

Figure 6(a)

(b) Find the slope and deflection at point C and slope at Point B in the beam shown in Figure 6(b) for the given loading.

5 kN/m

A

B C

D

5 m

2 m 2 m

100 kN

50 kN

A

B C

2 m 2 m

100 kN

3 m

3 m

6 m I

3 I

1 m 1 m 2 m

5 kN/m 50 kN

A

EI = Constant

B

C

Hinge

A B

C

P

W

Figure 6(b)

Q.7 (a) Analyse the portal frame shown in Figure 7(a) using unit load method.

Figure 7(a)

(b) A semi-circular arch of uniform flexural rigidity, having one end hinged and other end placed on roller subjected to a horizontal force P and a vertical downward load W at crown C in the middle. Find the horizontal displacement of the roller end.

Figure 7(b)

2 m 2 m

5 kN/m

A

B

C

I 3 I

50 kN

50 kN

A

B C

D

2 m 3 m

4 m 5 m

2 I

3 I

I

Q.8 Generate flexibility and stiffness matrix for the plane frame shown in Figure 8.

Figure 8

Q.9 (a) A suspension bridge cable of span 90 m and central dip 12 m is suspended from the same level at two towers. The bridge cable is stiffened by a three hinged stiffening girder which carries two concentrated loads of 50 kN each at points 20 m from both the ends. Draw the Bending Moment and Shear Force diagrams for the girder and calculate the maximum tension in the cable.

(b) A hollow cylindrical cast iron column 150 mm external diameter and 25 mm thick is 6 m in length having both ends hinged. Find the load using Rankine’s formula. Compare this load with that given by Euler’s formula.

Take σc = 550 N/mm2 and a = 1/160.

Q.10 Find the collapse load for the frames and beam shown in Figure 9.

Figure 9(a)

3 m

EI = Constant

A

B

C

D

5 m

6 m

5 m

A

B

C

D

2 m

4 m

3 m

P

5 m

3 MP

4 MP

MP

3 P

Figure 9(b)

Figure 9(c)

2 m 2 m 1 m

3 MP MP

2 P P

A

B C

D

2 m 2 m

4 m

3 m

4 m

2 m

3 m

P 5 m

2MP

3 MP

MP

2 P

Q1. A plot of land measures 11 m x 22 m. The front road is 9 m wide facing north. Service lane is on the

rear measuring 6 m. Prepare a suitable plan of a two bedroom residential house keeping in mind the restrictions imposed by local body as maximum covered area to be 75% of the total plot area with minimum setback of 2 m in front and rear of the building.

Q2. Give the classification under which the following buildings fall. (i) Dormitories (ii) College (iii) Hospital (iv) Gymnasiums (v) Offices (vi) Stores (vii) Refineries (viii) Cold Storages Q3. Determine the minimum area of a plot for three storied residential building having four flats of 180 m2

area in each floor for the given data:- (i) Area for stair case and access should not exceed 25% of the ground floor area of the building,

and (ii) FAR is to be restricted to 1.50.

Q4. (a) Discuss the basic requirements for judging the suitability of a site for all types of buildings.

(b) Explain the procedure of construction of a wind rose diagram for a particular site.. Q5. (a) Discuss the various parameters relevant for a functionally appropriate design of a given

building project. (b) Describe the general requirements of “Industrial Buildings”. Also explain the important points to

be considered in the planning of these buildings. Q6. (a) Explain the minimum standards for rural housing as per NBO. (b) Discuss the essential parts of a rural sanitary latrine with the help of a neat sketch. Q7. (a) Discuss the various causes for settlement of foundations. (b) Describe the various factors to be considered while deciding the depth of a foundation. Q8. (a) Discuss the purpose of providing a bond in the construction of a brickwork. (b) Explain the procedure of construction of plywood partitions in an office building. Q9. (a) Discuss the design of windows in a room. (b) Explain the criteria of fixing the dimensions of treads and risers in stairs. Q10. (a) Explain the main functions of paving surfaces. (b) Discuss the influence of orientation on thermal comfort.


ET 521 (Part A)

PLANNING & CONSTRUCTION OF BUILDINGS

Maximum Marks : 100 Course Code : ET-521A

Weightage : 30% Last Date of Submission : 30.09.2013

BTCM

Note : All questions are compulsory and carry equal marks. This assignment is based on all blocks of

Planning & Construction of Buildings.


ET 521 (Part B)

BUILDING ARCHITECTURE

Note : All questions are compulsory. Marks assign to the question are shown in the

brackets. This assignment is based on all Blocks of Building Architecture.

Maximum Marks : 100


Last Date of Submission : Sept. 30, 2013

BTCM

Q.1 Explain with figures, the functional anthropometric dimensions required for a person working in an

office, seated on a chair, with an overhead storage above his working table. You may assume standard conditions whichever necessary.

(5)

Q.2 You are required to design a master Bedroom with attached bathroom toilet. The master bedroom should also have provisions for 2 sofas, a T.V., a dresser table and a wardrobe. Describe how you will evaluate the space requirement for the bedroom based on the usage of the room, the circulation space and space required for storage units? Assume standard data wherever necessary.

(10)

Q.3 Describe how various building parts / factors help in modulating the environment inside the building?

(5)

Q.4 Explain in brief the working of following structural systems:-

1) Post and lintel system

2) arch and vautt

3) truss

4) space frames

5) shell and pneumatic structures

(10)

Q.5 Explain with examples the various types of Deep foundation.

(10)

Q.6 What is meant by ‘pointing’ with references to finishing of joints? Explain the method of pointing.

(5)

Q.7 What are the various kinds of flooring that you would propose for various areas of a building based on its use? Explain each example that you suggest.

a) Car porch

b) Factory building

c) Sound recording studio

d) An illuminated disco floor

e) A rural hut in Rajasthan

(5)

Q.8 What are the various services offered by an architect? According to the code of professional conduct, what are the various duties of the Architect?

(8)

Q.9 Explain digitizing and printing with respect to architectural drawings.

(5)

Q.10 Explain the device ‘plotters’. How are they different from printers. List the various scales adopted for various types of Architectural drawings.

(5)

Q.11 Explain the visual elements of design. Explain with examples.

(10)

Q.12 What is the structural system that existed during the gothic period? Track the evolution of gothic style of construction from the previous periods.

(7)

Q.13 Differentiate between the ‘Nagara’ style and ‘Dravidian’ style of architecture with relevant example.

(8)

Q.14 Explain the various techniques and methods by Islamic rulers that influenced the Indian Architecture style. Describe this in the context of Fatehpur Sikree.

(7)


ET 521 (Part C)

DESIGN DETAILING

Note : All questions are compulsory. Marks assigned to the questions have been shown

in the brackets. This assignment is based on all Blocks of Design Detailing.

Maximum Marks : 100 Weightage : 30%

Course Code : ET-521C Last Date of Submission : Sept. 30, 2013

2013

BTCM

Q.1 (a) Determine the self weight of a brick wall per running meter, considering its height to be 5 m when brick wall thickness is 230 mm and plaster of 12 m on inner face while 25 mm on the outer face.

(b) Why do we need concrete cover reinforcement? Mention the cover requirement for different member types?

(c) What are the precautions to be taken (a) at the design stage, (b) at the detailing stage and (c) at the construction stage for ensuring a high quality structure?

(4+3+3=10)

Q.2 (a) Draw neat sketch of a square foundation of 4 m x 4 m for a rectangular Column of size 900 mm x 300 mm considering sloping footing.

(b) Determine the limit M.R. of balanced rectangular section 650 x 750 mm assuming an effective cover as 50 mm, and using concrete of grade M25 and steel of grade Fe 415. Draw a neat section using bars upto 25 mm diameter. Compute the working moment of resistance using load factor = 1.5.

(c) State the advantages of limit- state approach method.

(4 + 4 + 2 = 10)

Q.3 (a) Draw to a suitable scale a layout plan of a continuous beam of size 400 x 700 mm over three spans. The two-end spans being 6m while central one is 5 m, construction is monolithic with RCC slab 150 mm thick which is one way continuous in direction perpendicular to the beam. The slab 20 x 9 m is spanning over 4 beam equal spaced at 3 m c/c and overhanging by 0.75 m on either side. The slab is subjected to on imposed live load of 4 kN/m2. Assuming slab to be 150mm thick, draw neat detail of continuous slab. Write a suitable schedule of reinforcement detail of the slab.

(b) Draw typical details of two pile group with 600 mm diameter pile supporting a column 350 mm x 600 mm.

(c) Indicate the names of some important tests on cement as per IS 269 and state the expected requirements.

(5+3+2=10)

Q.4 (a) Draw a typical detail of a Purlin supported on truss with neat sketch.

(b) Draw a detail of an open web girder at its end supported on steel column of I-Section for a hinged connection.

(4 + 6 = 10)

Q.5 (a) Design the formwork in wood for a retaining wall, 3 m below ground level and 4 m above ground level, 25 m long and 250 mm uniform thickness. The clear toe is 1m and heel-slab is 2 meter. Assume the concrete with (a) temp. of 15o (b) slump of 50 mm, and (c) rate of placement of concrete is 3.5 m/hr. Assume wind pressure to be 1.5 kN/m2.

(b) Design the sheeting and beam for RCC flat slab 200 mm thick on 5 m x 5 m module, Height 4 m. Assume 25 m planks are available.

(c) Explain in brief notes :

(i) form lining materials

(ii) Telescopic beam

(iii) Slip form

(3 + 3 + 3 = 10)

Q.6 (a) Determine the working moment of resistance (MR) in kNm units of ISMB 400 and ISMB 400. Refer standard tables, in the IS hand book for structural engineer.

(b) ISMC 200 provided @ 200 mm c/c designed to carry a compression load of 500 kN and the two legs are attended by 250 x 10 mm plates @ 1000 c/c. Design the connecting bolts of 20 mm diameters.

(c) How does built-up section achieve economy?

(4 + 4 + 2 = 10)

Q.7 (a) Design the member and gusset plate connection for a tension member for truss to carry an axial tension of 100 kN. Draw a neat sketch showing the connection details.

(b) A column ISHB 300 carries direct load of 800 kN and has to be spliced by providing plates on the flanges as well as both sides of the web. Design the joint to carry 400 kN through each flange plate and each web plate of the splice.

(5 + 5 = 10)

Q.8 (a) In how many different ways can one weld two structural members. Draw appropriate sketches to explain them.

(b) Draw a welded detail of bearing stiffener of a solid-web girder supported over a steel column of I section.

(c) Draw a built up column of two I section and show a typical lacing details.

(4 + 3 + 3 = 10)

Q.9 (a) Calculate the number of twin mirror optic fluorescent fixtures with 40 w tube lights for an office area of 22 m x 20 m with a floor to false ceiling height of 2.5 m. The required illumination is 400 lux. Use the following data?

C = Coefficient of utilization for the room with spacing to height ratio of 1.3 is 0.7.

D = lamp derating factor is 0.90.

I = lumens per watt is 55.

M = mutual induction for two lamps in the same fittings is 0.92

(b) Sketch and explain physical requirement for lifts in a building.

(5 + 5 = 10)

Q.10 (a) Write short notes on :

(i) Principle of air conditioning

(ii) Water chillers

(iii) UPS system with a block diagram

(iv) Transformers, and

(v) Psychometrics process

(b) Explain the basic principle of air-conditioning with the help of simple block diagram.

(c) Calculate solar and transgain at 3:00 pm for the month of June in New Delhi. Inside design

condition is 25°C DB and 50% RH. The wall under consideration is facing south-west and is 3 m high and 12 m long, with 200 mm thick brick exposed on the exterior but interior plastered.

(4 + 3 + 3 = 10)

Q1. (a) Discuss the various factors influencing the accuracy of estimate in building construction.

(c) What do you mean by abstracting of quantities and how is it done? Q2. Draw (to scale) the plans (off all floors) & sections of polytechnic from where you have received

your diploma in Civil Engineering on a drawing sheet and prepare an estimate of quantities of all the items concerning the structure.

Q3. State the features of a software which is available in the market and useful for preparing the billing of quantities of a eleven storied residential flat.

Q4. (a) Discuss the role of specifications in quality control.

(b) Explain the detailed specification of cement concrete 1 : 1½ : 3.. Q5. Calculate the cost of providing and laying cement concrete 1 : 5 : 10 (1 cement : 5 Coarse sand :

10 graded stone aggregate) in foundation and plinth. Q6. (a) Briefly describe the various methods of calculating depreciation. (b) Discuss the main features of Capital Gains Tax. Q7. Calculate the carpet area of a building having a plinth area of 2500m2. It may be assumed that

30% of the built up area will be taken by the corridors, verandah, lavatories, staircases, etc. and 10% of the built up area will be occupied by walls. Also prepare a preliminary estimate of this building. It is given that.

(i) Plinth area rate Rs. 400 per m2 (ii) Extra for special Architectural treatment 2% of building cost (iii) Extra for Water supply and 5% of building cost

Sanitary installations

(iv) Extra for internal Electric installations 20% of building cost (v) Extra for other services 5% of building cost (vi) Contingencies 4% of overall cost (vii) Supervision charges 8% of overall cost


ET 521 (Part D)

QUANTITY SURVEYING AND VALUATION

Maximum Marks : 100 Course Code : ET-521 D


BTCM

Note : All questions are compulsory and carry equal marks. This assignment is based on all blocks

of Quantity Surveying and Valuation.

Q8. Find the capital value of a premises consisting of land and a well - built house, let out for Rs. 5000/- per month inclusive of all taxes.

Assume the following data : Outgoings : 20% of gross rent Expected rate of return : 8% Future life of the building : 60 years Solve this problem by rental method of valuation. Q9. Write short notes on the following :- (a) Revised Estimate. (b) Computerised Estimation as a management tool. (c) Mechanics of writting specification (d) Reversionary value Q10. Differentiate between the following :-

(a) Plinth Area and Carpet Area (b) Amount and Compensation (c) Secured Ground rent and Unsecured Ground rent (d) Book Value and Salvage Value

Q1. (a) Explain the approximate oxide composition limits of ordinary Portland cement. (b) Describe different methods of classification of cement.

Q2. (a) Explain the effect of porosity of aggregate on the concrete. (b) Describe the tolerable concentration of impurities of the water for concrete making. Q3. (a) Explain the effect of air entrainment on properties of concrete. (b) What do you mean by segregation? Explain the conditions which encourage segregation

of fresh concrete. Q4. (a) Explain the manufacturing process of concrete.

(b) Discuss the effect of water/cement ratio on compressive strength of concrete.

Q5. (a) Discuss the mechanism of frost damage to concrete. (b) Explain the destructive testing of hardened concrete.

Q6. (a) Discuss the statistical quality control of concrete. (b) Explain Fibre Reinforced concrete. Also describe its applications

Q7. (a) Describe Vacuum processed concreting. Discuss the effect of vacuum dewatering on the strength of concrete.

(b) Explain cold weather concreting. Also discuss the measures for cold weather concreting. Q8. (a) Discuss the main disadvantages of dewatering by Electosmosis method.

(b) Explain the procedure of determination of bearing capacity of single pile under vertical load.

Q9. (a) Describe various types of scaffolding. (b) Explain the various factors affecting compaction. Q10. (a) Describe the various steps involved in vacuum dewatering process.

(b) What is Ferro Cement? Explain the advantages and applications of Ferro Cement.


ET 522

CONCRETE TECHNOLOGY & CONSTRUCTION TECHNIQUES

Maximum Marks : 100 Course Code : ET-522


BTCM

Note: All questions are compulsory and carry equal marks. This assignment is based on all

blocks of Concrete Technology & Construction Techniques

Q.1 (a) Discuss the role and responsibilities of a supervisor appointed by a construction agency.

(b) Why specifications are necessary? Enumerate the requirement of good specifications.

Q.2 What is meant by feasibility study of a construction project and why it is necessary? Q.3 Discuss the various types of the contract agreements commonly used in the Construction

Industry.

Q.4 (a) Write various methods to measure the progress of any activity in the construction work. (b) What is the difference between “BAR Chart” and Critical Path Methods (CPM)” of reporting the

progress of any work?

Q.5 What is the purpose of maintaining register of Construction Equipment? Suggest a format for maintenance of such register.

Q.6 (a) Write the precautionary steps that are generally taken before excavation by blasting.

(b) What are the advantages of filling at optimum moisture content level?

.

Q.7 What is the principle of AntI termite treatment? Furnish a check list for anti termite treatment for foundation and basement work.

Q.8 Describe the important ingredients of reinforced concrete. What precautions are required while

bending the reinforcement?

Q.9 (a) Write a check list for supervising terrazzo flooring work. (b) How will you test for installation of pups for a water supply scheme? Q.10 Name the various concrete pumping equipments. With the help of a neat sketch describe the

functioning of piston pumps.


ET 523 (Part A)

CONSTRUCTION WORKS SUPERVISION


all Blocks of Construction Works Supervision. .

.


Course Code : ET-523A Last Date of Submission: 30-09-2013

:September 30, 2013

BTCM

Q.1 (a) “Purchase the equipment as and when it is required”, justify the above statement.

(b) State the advantages and disadvantages of purchase of construction machinery as compared with renting it.

(c) For procurement of a construction machinery for a particular site work, explain how cash flow statement and financing of the machinery gives a clear picture of its mode of procurement.

Q.2 What are the requirement of good fuel and lubricants for various construction equipment? Q.3 (a) What is the purpose of preparing a detailed schedule of construction?

(b) What is the method of insurance of construction machines? How working and idle machines are insured? What is meant by transit insurance?

Q.4 (a) What is investment cost of a construction equipment? Explain what is meant by downtime of construction equipment. How would you compete downtime cost?

(b) Give a brief account on preventive maintenance of construction equipment.

Q.5 (a) What are the main infrastructure facilities of a construction site? Explain how would you plan any one such facility?

(b) Why maintenance records are important for construction equipment? Give examples.

Q.6 (a) “Maintenance after each reason of working of construction equipment is necessary”. Justify.

(b) Distinguish between centrifugal and piston pump. Explain the situations in which they are used.

Q.7 (a) If the hydraulic recharging rate of an aquifer reduces what action to be taken to the submersible pump installed to the aquifer.

(b) A centrifugal pump at 1470 rpm consumes 45 kw to discharge 60 I/s against a head at 60 m.

find its capacity, head and power required at 1820 rpm.


ET 523 (Part B)

OPERATION AND MAINTENANCE OF CONSTRUCTION EQUIPMENT

Note :All questions are compulsory and carry equal marks. This assignment is based on all Blocks of Operation and Maintenance of Construction Equipment.

Maximum Marks : 100


Last Date of Submission: 30-09-2013

:September 30, 2013

BTCM

Q.8 (a) What is a pneumatic pump? Explain how it works.

(b) What is turbo charger of an IC engine? How does it funcution and where is it used?

Q.9 (a) On what factors the working of an Air Compressor affect? (b) A two stage portable Air Compressor delivers 8.58 m3/min has 17.5 cm diameter of L.P

cylinder and 12.7 cm length stroke. It works at 870 rpm. Find its volumetric efficiency. Q.10 (a) Describe briefly the construction of a crane mounted piling rig. Explain its working and state its

advantages and disadvantages. (b) What is Drop Hammer in pile driving? What are the advantages and disadvantages of Drop

Hammer?

Q1. (a) Explain the singular causes of deterioration in structures.

(b) Discuss the various defects in timber. Q2. (a) Discuss the classification of tree.

(b) Explain the defects in timber due to natural forces. Q3. (a) Discuss the defects in steel reinforcement during construction.

(b) Describe the effects of the concrete environment on corrosion. Q4. (a) Explain the various defects in sanitary fittings.

(b) Describe the common defects in Bibtap and Stopcock. Q5. (a) Explain the qualities and requirements of a good preservative. (b) Describe the purposes of seasoning of timber. Q6. (a) Explain the different methods of excluding external sources of chloride ion from concrete. (b) Describe the techniques which prevent corrosion of the reinforcement. Q7. (a) Explain the methods of cleaning out a trap. (b) Discuss the common maintenance problems in a building plumbing. Q8. (a) Discuss the various causes of failure of foundations and their remedial measures. (b) Describe the general classification of floor finishes with the help of a neat sketch. Q9. (a) Enlist the various sources of defects in different stages in the life of a masonry. (b) Explain the various types of waterproofing with the help of a neat sketch. Q10. Write short notes on the following :- (a) Deterioration. (b) Transpassivity.


ET 523 (Part C)

REPAIR AND MAINTENANCE OF BUILDINGS

Maximum Marks : 100 Course Code : ET-523 C


BTCM

Note : All questions are compulsory and carry equal marks. This assignment is based on all

blocks of Repair and Maintenance of Buildings.

Q.1 (a) What is leadership? Differentiate between authoitatian and Democrative style of Leadership. (b) Effective control process is necessary for an organization. Discuss.

Q.2 (a) What are the different measures of elasticity of demand? (b) What is meant by breakeven analysis? How is it useful? Q.3 As a manager, how will you build a team of highly performing and satisfied employees? Q.4 (a) Define division of labour and specification. How they are interrelated and Interdependent in

the context of organizational structure? (b) Define bureaucracy. Discuss the characteristics of an Ideal bureaucracy. Q.5 Differentiate between the following pairs. (a) Power and Authority.

(b) Project Organization and functional Organization

(c) Job description and Job specification Q.6 Name the various models of decision making and discuss in detail any of the models. Q.7 Suppose an organization is manufacturing two products, P1 and P2. The profit per tonne of the two

products are Rs. 50 and Rs. 60 respectively. Both the products require processng in three types of machine. The following Table indicates the available machine hours per week and the time required on each machine for one tonne of P1 and P2. Formulate this product mix problem in the linear programming form.

Table showing the available machine capacities And machine hour requirement of the two products

Profit/tonne Product 1 Rs. 50

Product 2 Rs. 60

Total available Machine hours/weeks

Machine 1 2 1 300 Machine 2 3 4 509 Machine 3 4 7 812


ET 524 (Part-A)/ET-534 (Part A)

PRINCIPLES OF ENGINEERING MANAGEMENT AND ECONOMICS


all Blocks of Principles of Engineering Management and Economics. .


Course Code : ET-523B Last Date of Submission: 30-09-2013

BTCM/BTWRE

Q.8 Discuss to the points to be considered in the preparation of Techno-Economic Feasibility report.

Q.9 What are the main planning techniques used in engineering projects? Q.10 Write an essay on How to organize Value Engineering (VE) study in construction industries.

Q1. (a) Explain the various factors on which site selection of a project depends.

(b) Discuss the necessity of efficient site organization. Q2. (a) Briefly describe the various types of drawings.

(b) “Removal of existing services to be given utmost importance.” Discuss this statement. Q3. (a) Discuss the reasons for removal of top soil in a construction site.

(b) Explain the objectives of estimating in a construction project.

Q4. The arch of a culvert subtends an angle of 0120 at the centre. The span of the arch is 7.00 m and the thickness of the arch is 70 cm. The length of arch from face to face is 10 m. Calculate the quantity of arch masonry work.

Q5. (a) Discuss the meaning and significance of cash flow. (b) Explain the purpose of performing economic comparisons. Q5. (a) Discuss the “Statutory Provisions” of charging depreciation. (b) Explain the various considerations to be kept in view before procuring an equipment. Q5. The network of a certain project is shown in figure -1 with the estimated durations of various

activities. Determine the following :- (a) Earliest event time and latest event time (b) Earliest and latest start and finish times of each activity. (c) Total and free floats for each activity (d) Critical path for the network


ET 524 (Part B)

CONSTRUCTION MANAGEMENT - I

Maximum Marks : 100 Course Code : ET-524B Weightage : 30% Last Date of Submission : 30.09.2013

BTCM

Note : All questions are compulsory and carry equal marks. This assignment is based on all blocks of Construction Management- I.

4

2

1 6

5

8

3 7

B F

H

A

G

L

E

D I

J

KC

= 2t = 6t

= 4t

= 7t

=

0t

= 7

t t = 8

=

6t

= 3t

t = 6

t = 5

=

4t

Figure - 1

Q8. (a) Explain the classification of construction works and the contribution of various participants

in managing the construction process. (b) Discuss the contractual arrangement for Design and Build approach. Q9. (a) Describe the checklist for scrutinizing the tender documents prior to issue. (b) Discuss the functions of Construction Manager. Q10. Write short notes on the followings :- (a) Techniques of pricing (b) Rater of return analysis (c) Work Breakdown Structure (d) Contractual Arrangement for Management Contract


ET 532 (Part A)

HYDROLOGY

Note : All questions are compulsory. Marks assign to the question are shown in the brackets.. This assignment is based on all Blocks of Hydrology.


Course Code : ET-532A Last Date of Submission : Sep. 30, 2013

BTWRE

Q.1 (a) Discuss the major components to be considered for carrying out a regional water budget

study. (c) What are the main processes responsible for making water available on land surface? Why

do we need to study our atmosphere?

(d) Calculate the perceptible water (mm) in a 10 km high saturated atmospheric column if the surface conditions are : air temperature = 24oC, pressure = 101.3 kPa and the lapse rate (α) is 5.0oC/km.

(3 + 3 + 4 = 10)

Q.2 (a) Discuss the net solar energy received at the earth’s surface. Explain atmospheric circulation system.

(b) Discuss differential heating of earth and its effect on the atmosphere.

(c) Discuss the important features of different types of rain gauge.

(d) A reservoir with a surface area of 600 hectares had the following average values of parameters during a given week: water temperature = 22oC, relative humidity = 40% and wind velocity at 1.0 m above the ground = 25 km/h. Estimate the average daily evaporation from the lake and the total volume of water evaporated from the lake during that one week.

(2 + 2 + 2 + 4 = 10)

Q.3 (a) Calculate by energy balance method, the evaporation rate from an open water surface, if the net radiation is 230 W/m2 and the temperature is 28oC, assuming no sensible heat or ground heat flux.

(b) Explain analytical methods for the determination of lake evaporation.

(c) A catchment area, near Delhi, is at a latitude of 12o18’N, and at an elevation of 750 m above MSL.

The mean monthly temperatures are given below :

Month Jan Feb March April May June July Aug Sept Oct Nov Dec

Mean Monthly Temp. (˚c)

16.0 19.0 25.0 26.0 24.0 25.0 22.0 23.5 24.5 24.5 23.0 19.0

Calculate the monthly and annual PET for this catchments using Thornthwaite formula.

(d) Bring out the difference between depression storage and surface detention.

(2 + 2 + 4 + 2 = 10) Q.4 (a) What is the importance of infiltration in hydrologic cycle? Explain the typical shape of an

infiltration curve. Discuss the practical importance of (φ-index).

(b) Explain the basic steps evolved in estimation of storm runoff.

(c) For a catchments in Uttar Pradesh, the mean monthly rainfall and temperature are given below. Calculate the annual runoff coefficient by Khosla formula.


Temp. (oC)

14 18 20 28 30 35 32 30 27 28 20 14

Rainfall (cm)

7 3 3 0 0 9 37 40 10 2 2 5

(d) Explain flow duration curve and also explain the characteristics of flow duration curve.

(3 + 2 + 2 + 2 = 10)

Q.5 (a) Observed values of runoff at a stream gauging site are given below. Upstream of the gauging site, a weir, built across the stream, diverts 3 and 0.7 million m3 of water per month for use in irrigation and industry. The return flows from irrigation, estimated at 1 Mm3 per month, and from the industry at 0.4 Mm3 per month, joins the stream upstream of the gauging site. Estimate the virgin flow of the river. If the catchments area is 120 Km2 and the average annual rainfall is 190 cm. Also determine the runoff-rainfall ratio.


Runoff (cm)

2.0 1.8 0.8 0.7 2.0 8.1 28.0 20.0 11.0 9.0 7.0 2.0

(b) The velocity of float in a stream was observed to be 5.8 m/s. Compute the average flow velocity corresponding to this observation. Adopt a reasonable value of the required coefficient and explain why this coefficient is needed.

(c) In a rectangular channel which is 15 m wide, the depth of flow and cross-sectional areas are measured as 3.5 m, 52.5 m2 and 3.4 m, 51.0 m2 at two sections 250 m apart. The drop in the water surface elevation was found to be 0.10 m. Assuming Manning’s coefficient to be 0.016 estimates the discharge through the channel.

(d) Explain “Synthetic unit hydrograph” and methods used for the development of synthetic unit hydrograph.

(4 + 2 + 2 + 2 = 10)

Q.6 (a) The rainfall records at a station for five days in the month of July are 3, 8, 12, 25, 7mm. Find the mean of the rainfall values.

(b) Evaluate the mean, variance, standard deviation, coefficient of variation, Skewness, coefficient of Skewness, Kurtosis, and coefficient of Kurtosis of the following grouped data :

Rainfall (mm)

15 20 25 30 35 40 45

No. of Days

6 5 4 3 9 5 2

(5 + 5 = 10)

Q.7 (a) Explain the methods of parameter estimation techniques.

(b) Explain Index-flood method (USGS method).

(c) Explain “test of independence in time”.

(d) For a hydraulic structure having a design life of 120 years, what will be the risk involved if it is designed for (i) 60-year return period flood, and (ii) 1000-year return period flood?

(2 + 2 + 2 + 4 = 10)

Q.8 (a) If a dam is having project life of 60 years then what is the probability that a flood with return period of 100 years will occur.

(i) Once, and

(ii) Twice during the life of the dam.

(b) Write in details the design criteria for hydraulic structures.

(5 + 5 = 10)

Q.9 (a) A river cross section was divided into strips, and soundings were taken at the end of each strip. Observations are tabulated as under; plot the section, and compute the total discharge :

Strip No 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 Remarks

Distance of sounding point from left bank (m)

2.0 2.8 4.0 6.5 8.0 10.0 11.0 11.5 13.5 15.0

Tabulate your results

Value of sounding (m)

2.6 2.95 4.2 6.8 6.4 5.1 8.8 9.7 5 1

Average velocity in the strip (m/s)

0.7 0.9 1.2 1.5 2.4 3.8 1.9 1.9 1.0 0.8

(b) Write notes with neat sketch on “stages in life of lake”.

(6 + 4 = 10)

Q.10 (a) Following observations at a gauging station, at the outlet of a chosen basin, due to a 4-h storm are available as under (Area of the basin = 750 km2) :

Time (Hr) 0 13 16 19 22 25 28 31 34 38 41 43 46

Flow (cumec)

0 75 115 240 300 350 260 200 100 72 35 30 0

Plot this hydrograph to a suitable scale, drawing a smooth curve through the plotted points.

(b) Derive the ordinates (and plot) of a 4-h unit hydrograph.

(c) Explain in details the ultrasonic method of river gauging with figure of equipment.

(4 + 2 + 4 = 10)

Q.1 Derive mathematical expressions for estimation of steady state discharge through fully penetrating

wells in confined and unconfined aquifer for known drawdown. Also state assumptions made in each case.

(4 + 4 + 2 = 10)

Q.2 (a) What are the objectives of Command Area Development Programmes.

(b) Calculate capacity of a tube-well to irrigate 550 hectares of sugarcane farm. The monthly consumption use of sugarcane crop and rainfall during the year is given below :

Month Consumption Use (cm)

Precipitation (cm)

January 1.6 0.4

February 5.3 0.5

March 10.2 0.4

April 16.8 0.8

May 24.5 2.8

June 26.3 19.8

July 21.3 26.2

August 22.0 30.9

September 10.8 7.2

October 7.8 2.5

November 3.8 0.3

December 1.6 0.2

The water application efficiency and water conveyance efficiency are 65% and 75%, respectively. Consider that all the rainfall is effective.

(4 + 6 = 10)

Q.3 Write an essay on groundwater investigation techniques giving their prominent features and also state limitations of each method. (10)


ET 532B

GROUND WATER HYDROLOGY

Maximum Marks : 100 Course Code : ET-532B


BTWRE

Note: All questions are compulsory. Marks assign to the question are shown in the brackets. This

assignment is based on all blocks of Ground Water Hydrology.

Q.4 Derive expressions for determination of hydraulic conductivity in a laboratory using constant heat permeameter and falling head permeameter. Why is it necessary to conduct in-situ field tests for determining hydraulic conductivity?

(4 + 4 + 2 = 10)

Q.5 (a) Distinguish between isotropic and anisotropic aquifers.

(b) How does a well interfere with another well located within the radius of influence?

(c) Distinguish between specific yield and specific retention. Also state the condition under which sum of specific yield and specific ratio is equal to porosity of the aquifer.

(d) Distinguish amongst intrinsic permeability, hydraulic conductivity and transmissivity.

(e) Define specific capacity of a well. How is it related to well efficiency?

(5 × 2 = 10)

Q.6 (a) Define a watershed. Describe principles of watershed management and discuss role of conjunctive use of groundwater and surface water in a watershed.

(b) How would you assess the suitability of groundwater for irrigating a crop?

(c) What is an aquifer? Distinguish between aquitard, aquiclude, aquifuge giving examples.

(4 + 4 + 2 = 10)

Q.7 Give step by step procedure involved in design of a tubewell. Design a suitable tubewell to deliver 140 m3/h water using following data:

Well log : 0 – 5 m clay mixed with sand

5 – 25 m very fine sand

25 – 30 m clay

30 – 50 m coarse sand

50 – 60 m medium sand

75 m and above clay

The D10 and D60 of coarse sand are 0.2 mm and 2.2 mm, respectively. Medium sand has D10 = 0.1 mm and D60 = 0.2 mm. The average water table is 10 m below ground surface during winter and 14 m during summer. Give a full sketch along with dimensions. (Assume missing data suitably).

(2 + 8 = 10)

Q.8 A fully penetrating well in a confined aquifer is pumping at a uniform rate of 0.75 cumec. An observation well located at 60 m away has given following readings:

Time since Pumping (s)

0 60 90 120 180 300

Drawdown (m) 0 0.20 0.27 0.30 0.37 0.45

Time since Pumping (s)

600 1800 3600 7200 10800 14400

Drawdown (m) 0.58 0.76 0.90 1.0 1.07 1.11

Calculate transmissivity and storage coefficient of the aquifer. The values of well function W (u) for u values are given in Table 1.

Q.9 A 30 cm radius well of infinite area extent penetrates fully in a confined aquifer. It is discharging 0.05 m3/s water at a certain drawdown. Now, two more identical wells spaced at 60 m apart from each other as well as from existing well are drilled thus forming a equilateral triangle. Then

(i) Find the discharge when all the three wells are pumped simultaneously, and

(ii) Find the decrease in drawdown if only single well is discharging.

(Take radius of influence of well as 320 m and transmissivity of aquifer as 0.05 m2/s.

(7 + 3 = 10)

Q.10 Discuss an artificial groundwater recharge scheme for the area where you live. Your response may include rooftop water harvesting in a residential area to recharge an aquifer and/ or a groundwater recharge scheme for a watershed. Your description may include existing water resources of the area, recharge potential, water harvesting and recharge methods and likely impact of recharge on groundwater table.

(10)

Q1. (a) Describe the management of irrigation projects.

(b) “Over irrigation is synonymous with self destruction.” Justify this statement.

Q2. (a) Explain the various methods of Irrigation with the help of a schematic outline. (b) Describe the Overton Infiltration Model.

Q3. (a) Describe the three stage procedure for the determination of crop evapotranspiration. (b) Explain Net Irrigation Requirement and Field Irrigation Requirement. Q4. (a) Describe the salient features of check basin irrigation.

(b) What do you mean by Border Irrigation? Explain the circumstances where border irrigation is used.

Q5. (a) Explain the design of Sprinkler System. (b) Describe the basic data for the design of Drip System. Q6. (a) Explain the various factors required to be considered for good water allocation pattern.

(b) Describe the advantages of establishing Farmers organisations as regards benefits to the Nation.

Q7. (a) Explain the components of agricultural drainage system.

(b) Starting from the basic principles, show that:

p

i

abKL

)(4 222 −

=

where all the terms have their usual meaning. Q8. (a) Describe the need for Land Grading Design. (b) Discuss the steps in Land Grading Design. Q9. (a) Discuss the situations under which you will use a crawler tractor for Land Grading. (b) List the various factors that affect the output of a Grader.

Q10. (a) Discuss the role of pumps in irrigation engineering.

(b) Explain the characteristics of Vertical Turbine Pumps.


ET 533 (Part A)

IRRIGATION ENGINEERING

Maximum Marks : 100 Course Code : ET-533A


BTWRE

Note : All questions are compulsory and carry equal marks. This assignment is based on all blocks

of Irrigation Engineering.

Q1. (a) What do you mean by normal depth? Derive a relation between normal discharge and

normal depth for a wide rectangular channel using mannings equation. (b) A 6 m wide rectangular channel carries a flow of 12 m3/sec at a depth of 1.0 m. Calculate

(i) Specification energy (ii) Critical Depth (iii) Critical Velocity

Q2. (a) If y1 and y2 are alternate depths in a rectangular channel, show that Specific Energy can

be expressed as :-

21

2

221

2

1

yy

yyyyE

+

++=

(b) In a rectangular channel, the alternate depths are 1.0 m and 2.0 m respectively. Calculate the specific energy in m.

Q3. A rectangular channel 2.5 m wide caries 6.0 m3/sec of flow at a depth of 0.50 m. Calculate the height of a flat topped hump required to be placed at a section to cause critical flow. The energy loss due to the obstruction by the hump can be taken as 0.1 times the upstream velocity head.

Q4. (a) What do you mean by hydraulic Jump? Describe it with the help of specific energy curve

and specific force curve. (b) A spillway discharges a flood flow at a rate of 7.75 m3/sec per meter width. At the

downstream horizontal apron the depth of flow was found to be 0.50 m. What tailwater depth is needed to form a hydraulic Jump?

Q5. (a) Describe the characteristics of flow profiles.

(b) Show that the slope of the water surface with reference to the channel bed in case of a gradually varied flow for a rectangular channel can be expressed as

21 Fr

SfSo

dx

dy

α−

−=

Q6. Explain the BRESSE METHOD of computation of water surface profile. Q7. (a) What do you mean by surge? Describe surges in power canals.


ET 533 (Part B)

OPEN CHANNEL FLOW

Maximum Marks : 100 Course Code : ET-533 B


BTWRE

Note : All questions are compulsory and carry equal marks. This assignment is based on all blocks of

Open Channel Flow.

(b) A rectangular channel 3.0 m wide has a flow of 3.60 m3/sec with a velocity of 0.8 m/sec. If a sudden release of additional flow at the upstream end of the channel causes the depth to rise by 50 percent, determine the absolute velocity of the resulting surge and the new flow rate.

Q8. (a) Explain the factors that guide engineers in evaluating the wave force on structures. Also

explain the significance of each factor. (b) Describe the methods used to draw the water surface profile of uniformly progressive flow. Q9. Write short notes on the following:-

(a) Classification of water surface profiles (b) Reynolds Number (c) Dam Break Problem (d) Transitions

Q10. Differentiate between the following:- (a) Uniform and Varied flow (b) Natural and Artificial channels (c) Hydraulic and Energy Gradients (d) Prismatic and Non-prismatic channels

Q.1 (a) A company has 5 jobs to be done on fine machines. Any job can be done on any machine. The cost of doing the jobs in different machines are given below. Assign the jobs for different machines so as to minimize the total cost:

(b) Are man made systems, such as administrative, economic systems, etc. physical

systems? Give reasons for your answer.

Q.2 (a) Obtain the initial basic feasible solution of a transportation problem using Vogel approximation Method :

(b) What are the peculiar characteristics of process control systems?

Q.3 (a) Use linear programming simplex method for solving the problem.


ET-301 (A)/ET-534(B)

Systems Methods

Note : All questions are compulsory and carry equal marks. This assignment is

based on all Blocks of Systems Methods.


Course Code : ET-301A/ET-534(B) Last Date of Submission : September 30, 2013

BTCM/BTWRE

(b) Explain the construction and principle of operation of a microwave oven used for cooking. Q.4 (a) T.V. repairman finds that the time spent on his jobs is an exponential distribution with

mean 30 minutes. He repairs sets in the order in which they come in. If the arrival of sets is approximately Poisson with an average rate of 10 per 8 hours day, what is the repairman's expected idle time each day? How many jobs are ahead of the average set just brought in?

(b) What is the role of precision control system in process industry?

Q.5 (a) A small project is composed of seven activities whose time estimates are listed in the

table below :

You are required to: (i) Draw the project network. (ii) Find the expected duration and variance of each activity. (iii) Calculate the early and late occurrence for each event and the expected project length. (b) Define inductance and capacitance. Write their S.I.units. Write power and energy

relationship for an inductance and for a capacitance.

Q.6 (a) A company owns two flour mills, X and Y which have different production capacities for high, medium and low grade flour. This company has entered a contract to supply flour to a firm every month with at least 18, 12 and 24 quintals of high, medium and low grade respectively. It costs the company Rs. 2000 and Rs. 1800 per day to run mill X and Y respectively. On a day, mill X produces 2, 4 and 8 quintals of high, medium and low grade flour respectively. How many days per month should each mill be operated in order to meet the contract order most economically?

(b) Consider the domestic temperature controlled electric iron. Draw a block diagram for it. Identify the reference input, error, output signal, error detector and controller.

Q.7 A car manufacturing company has decided to redesign its fuel pump for their new car

model. This project involves several activities which are listed in table below. First, activity is that the engineering department must evolve the design of fuel pump. Second, the marketing department must develop the marketing strategy for its promotion. Third, a new manufacturing process must be designed. Fourth, advertising media must be selected. Fifth, an initial product run must be completed. Finally, the pump must be released to the market.

Draw network diagram for the given project. Identify the critical path. Find out the total project time. Compute total float free float and independent float for each activity.

Q.8 A booking counter takes 10 minutes to book a ticket for each customer. If the customers are assigned according to a Poirson process with a rate of 5 per hour, then find out:

(i) Expected queue length (ii) Expected waiting time of a customer in the queue (iii) Expected time a customer spends in the system

Q.9 A company has A and B as its products with profit margin Rs. 2 and Rs.1 respectively per unit. The table below indicates the labor, equipment and material to produce each product per unit.

Formulate the linear programming problem specifying the product mix which will maximise

profit without exceeding the various levels of resources.

Q.10 Write short notes on the following :

(i) Transient state and steady state (ii) Functions of Inventory Control (iii) Important characteristics of waiting line models (iv) Deterministic Single Item Inventory model (v) First and second order systems

Q.1 What do you mean by land use pattern? Explain its importance and application. Also state the

categories of land use adopted in India.

Q.2 Give the technical terms used in natural circulation of water, near the surface of the earth and

explain each of these terms. Neatly delineate these with the help of sketches.

Q.3 Write short notes on the following:

(i) Intensity of rainfall

(ii) Runoff

(iii) Evaporation and Transpiration.

(iv) Seepage

(v) Deep Percolation

Q.4 Explain the following considering geographical area of India:

(i) Cropping pattern and factors affecting cropping patterns.

(ii) Types of crops and growing seasons.

Q.5 Explain the importance of land use pattern, its changes and causes of change due to Livestock population pressure and social values.

Q.6 Describe the following :

(i) Runoff and the factors affecting the runoff.

(ii) Precipitation and characteristics of precipitation.

Q.7 (a) Define irrigation. Explain various types of irrigation giving examples.

(b) Explain various surface irrigation methods in detail indicating suitability of each.

Q.8 Write short notes on the following:

(i) Water treatment plant

(ii) Coagulation

(iii) Filtration

(iv) Rapid sand filters

(v) Removal of dissolved substances.


ET 534C

WATER RESOURCES PLANNING

Maximum Marks : 100 Course Code : ET-534C


BTWRE

Note: All questions are compulsory and carry equal marks. This assignment is based on all blocks

of Water Resources Planning.

Q.9 (a) What is the importance of forecasting water demand and how does it help in planning? State the steps involved in development of a regression equation.

(b) State the advantages and disadvantages of Gravity dams and Buttress dams.

Q.10 (a) Write short notes on the following:

(i) Cross drainage works

(ii) Aqueduct

(iii) Level crossing

(iv) Spillways

(v) Silt Excluder.


ET 581 (Part A)

TESTING FOR QUALITY CONTROL


all Blocks of Testing for Quality Control.


Course Code : ET-581A

Last Date of Submission : 30-09-2013

BTCM

Q.1 (a) What is the necessity of testing cement?

(b) What is the aim behind conducting Le-Chatelier test?

Q.2 (a) How is moulding of specimen done in compressive strength test on cement?

(b) What do you understand by the term “consistency of standard cement paste”?

Q.3 (a) What does IS: 2386 (Part III) coverD? Explain all these four methods of determining the properties.

(b) Why it is necessary to carry out tests on water to be used for making and curing of concrete?

Q.4 Which are the six tests required to be conducted for the uniform quality of concrete at site? Explain any two of them with sketches if required.

Q.5 (a) Which sieves are used generally in sieve-analysis?

(b) Why test is conducted to determine Soundness of aggregate? How is it conducted?

Q.6 (a) Discuss the effect of time and temperature on workability of concrete.

(b) Explain the failure of compression specimen and effect of light/diameter ration on strength with neat diagram and graphs if required.

Q.7 How will you determine the flexural strength of concrete by Indirect Tension Test Methods? Explain the factors affecting the test strength.

Q.8 What are the properties of normal distribution curve? What are its uses in quality control? Write suggestive criteria for its acceptance and rejection.

Q.9 (a) Explain in detail the sampling of concrete and criteria for acceptance for the same quoting the relevant IS Code provisions.

(b) Discuss the Load Bearing Capacity Test for AC Sheets.

Q.10. Write short notes on the following:

(i) Pulse Echo Method (ii) Magnetic Methods (for RCC) (iii) Determination of Efflorescence (iv) Electrical Method for determination of moisture content in hardened concrete or a trainer?


ET 581 (Part F)

MECHANICAL EQUIPMENT IN CONSTRUCTION (ELECTIVE-I)

Note : All questions are compulsory. Marks assign to the question are shown in the brackets. This assignment is based on all Blocks of Mechanical Equipment in Construction (Elective-I)

Maximum Marks : 100

Weightage : 30% Course Code : ET 581F

Last Date of Submission : September 30, 2013

BTCM

Q.1 (a) Distinguish between bank measure volume and fill volume of earth as applicable to excavation, haul, placement and compaction of earth. On which volume payment of earth work is made?

(b) Why does soil swell or shrunk? What is meant by swell factor? Find swell factor of dry earth

whose bank and loose weights are 1500 and 1200 kg/m3 respectively. Calculate the percentage swell after above earth. Explain the two capacity ratings of earth moving equipment.

(5 + 5 = 10)

Q.2 (a) Define cycle time of an earth moving machine. Explain its two components. Why correction of cycle time is necessary? How are job and management factors used to determine the expected output of equipment?

(b) Elaborate the difference between Draw Bar Pull and Rim Pull. Briefly state the considerations of economic selection of any construction equipment.

((5 + 5 =10))

Q.3 (a) What is depreciation of construction equipment? A construction equipment costs Rs 5.0 lakh. It has a useful life of 10 years and salvage value of 20% of its initial cost. What would be its Book value after 5 years considering straight line method of depreciation?

(b) What is a power shovel? Give an account on selection of type and size of Power Shovels. A Power Shovel has a bucket size 1.33m3 actual depth of cut 3.15 m, angle of suing 900 material to be handled in common earth of good quality. Job and management condition are good. Working hours = 50 min per hour, calculate the expected production rate in m3 / hr from the following given data.

i) Factors of job and management condition = 0.75 ii) Ideal depth of cut for good common earth = 2.90 iii) Ideal output for good common earth = 206 m3/hr iv) Conversion factor for depth of cut and angle of suing of shovel of 900 = 0.88

(5 + 5 =10)

Q.4 What is a Conveyor Belt? What are its essential parts? Give the constructional details of a common Belt of a Belt Conveyor. What are idlers? State its functions in Conveyor Belt system explaining its constructional details. Why training of idlers is necessary? What are the components of power required to drive a belt conveyor?

(10)

Q.5 (a) What are the different types of dredger? Explain briefly their working. How the output of a Bulldozer is estimated? Compare the performance of Crawler mounted and wheel mounted bulldozers.

(b) What are trenchers? State their types and uses. Explain the purpose of an elevator in a

construction project site. (5 + 5 =10)

Q.6 (a) What are the different types of compacting machineries normally used in Civil Construction? Explain sheep’s foot roller compact earth.

(b) Give the expression of out put of a compactor and explain how you would estimate the

volumetric capacity of a vibratory roller. Determine the quantity of material compacted if the sheep’s foot roller travels at 5 km/hr, no. of drums = 2, width of overlap = 120 cm, overlap is ¼ of one drum friction of overlap is 1/8, layer thickness is 0.4m and no. of passes are 5

(5 + 5 =10)

Q.7 (a) What are the different types of concrete buckets used in large construction? How would you define mars concrete? State the practice to reduce the placement temperature of concrete.

(b) How would you estimate the refrigeration plant capacity for pre-cooling of concrete? Give a brief account of control of temperature of concrete.

(5 + 5 =10)

Q.8 (a) Classify concrete vibrators. Why vibrator is required? Briefly describe the working of needle vibrators.

(b) Distinguish the principle of working of external and internal vibrators. Give the constructional details of surface vibrator and its working limits.

(5 + 5 =10)

Q.9 (a) What are the different types of hand held drills? Explain their working principles and main uses.

(b) Explain in brief the different types of cuts used in tunnel excavation. (5 + 5 =10)

Q.10 Give the design aspects and working of the following: (a) Slide Gate (b) Radial Gate (c) Flap Gate (d) Butterfly valve

BTCM-BTWRE Second Yearignou.ac.in/userfiles/BTCM-BTWRE Second Year.pdf · A B C P W Figure 6(b) Q.7...

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