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NEET Practice SET Section Total Qs Total Marks Time -ve Mark

Biology 90 360 3 Hrs

¼ negative marking

Chemistry 45 180

Physics 45 180

Biology 1. A taxon is (a) a group of related families (b) a group of related species (c) a type of living organisms (d) a taxonomic group of any ranking 2. Phenetic classification is based on (a) sexual characteristics (b) the ancestral lineage of existing organisms (c) observable characteristics of existing organisms (d) dendograms based on DNA characteristics 3. Plasmodium, the malarial parasite, belongs to class (a) Sarcodina (b) Ciliata (c) Sporozoa (d) Dinophyceae 4. Decomposers are organisms that (a) illaborate chemical substances, causing death of tissues (b) operate in living body and simplifying organic substances of cells step by step (c) attack and kill plants as well as animals (d) operate in relay terms, simplifying step by step the organic constituents of dead body 5. Due to which of the following organisms, yield of rice has been increased? (a) Anabaena (b) Bacillus popilliae (c) Sesbania (d) Bacillus polymexa 6. Lichens are well known combination of an alga and a fungus where fungus has (a) a saprophytic relationship with the alga (b) an epiphytic relationship with the alga (c) a parasitic relationship with the alga

(d) a symbiotic relationship with the alga 7. Which one of the following is not a biofertilizer? (a) Agrobacterium (b) Rhizobium (c) Nostoc (d) Mycorrhiza 8. Moss peristome takes part in (a) spore dispersal (b) photosynthesis (c) protection (d) absorption 9. Seed-habit first originated in (a) certain ferns (b) certain pines (c) certain monocots (d) primitive dicots 10. Which one pair of examples will correctly represent the grouping Spermatophyta according to one of the schemes of classifying plants? (a) Ginkgo, Pisum (b) Acacia, Sugarcane (c) Pinus, Cycas (d) Rhizopus, Triticum 11. Read the following statements (A-E) and answer the question which follows them. 1. In liverworts, mosses and ferns gametophytes are free-living 2. Gymnosperms and some ferns are heterosporous. 3. Sexual reproduction in Fucus, Volvox and Albugo is oogamous 4. The sporophyte in liveworts is more elaborate than that in mosses 5. Both, Pinus and Marchantia are dioecious How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Two (b) Three (c) Four (d) One 12. Taenia saginata differs from Taenia solium in (a) absence of scolex hooks (b) absence of scolex hooks and uterine branching (c) absence of scolex hooks and presence of both male and female reproductive organs (d) presence of scolex hooks 13. Bull Frog of India is (a) Rana tigrina (b) R. sylvatica

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(c) R. ecutesbeiana (d) R. esculenta 14. What is true about all sponges without exception (a) They are all marine (b) They have flagellated collar cells (c) They have a mixed skeleton consisting of spicules and spongin fibres (d) They reproduce only asexually by budding 15. Which one of the following is a matching set of a phylum and its three examples? (a) Platyhelminthes - Planaria, Schistosoma, Enterobius (b) Mollusca - Loligo, Teredo, Octopus (c) Porifera - Spongilla, Euplectella, Pennatula (d) Cnidaria - Bonellia, Physalia, Aurelia 16. Which one of the following animals is correctly matched with its one characteristics and the taxon? Animal Characteristic Taxon (a) Duckbilled -- Oviparous -- Mammalian platypus (b) Millipede -- Ventral nerve -- Arachnida cord (c) Sea Anemone -- Triploblastic -- Cnidaria (d) Silverfish-- Pectoral and Chordata -- Pelvic fins 17. Most plants are green in colour because (a) the atmosphere filters out all the colours of the visible light spectrum except green (b) green light is the most effective wavelength region of the visible spectrum in sunlight for photosynthesis (c) chlorophyll is least effective in absorbing green light (d) green light allows maximum photosynthesis 18. Ovary is half-inferior in the flowers of: (a) guava (b) plum (c) brinjal (d) cucumber 19. Death of protoplasm is a pre-requisite for a vital function like (a) transport of sap (b) transport of food (c) absorption of water (d) gaseous exchange

20. What happens during vascularization in plants? (a) Differentiation of procambium is immediately followed by the development of secondary xylem and phloem (b) Differentiation of procambium followed by the development of xylem and phloem (c) Differentiation of procambium, xylem and phloem is simultaneous (d) Differentiation of procambium followed by the development of primary phloem and then by primary xylem 21. In land plants, the guard cells differ from other epidermal cells in having: (a) cytoskeleton (b) mitochondria (c) endoplasmic reticulum (d) chloroplasts 22. Stratum germinativum is an example of which kind of epithelium? (a) Cuboidal (b) Ciliated (c) Columnar (d) Squamous 23. The ciliated columnar epithelial cells in humans are known to occur in: (a) eustachian tube and stomach lining (b) bronchioles and fallopian tubes (c) bile duct and oesophagus (d) fallopian tubes and urethra 24. Ribosomes are the centre for (a) respiration (b) photosynthesis (c) protein synthesis (d) fat synthesis 25. The proteins are synthesised at (a) ribosomes (b) mitochondria (c) centrosomes

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(d) golgi bodies 26. Which one of the following structures between two adjacent cells is an effective transport pathway? (a) Plasmodesmata (b) Plastoquinones (c) Endoplasmic reticulum (d) Plasmalemma 27. A segment of DNA has 120 adenine and 120 cytosine bases. The total number of nucleotides present in the segment is (a) 120 (b) 240 (c) 60 (d) 480 28. The transfer RNA molecule in 3D appears (a) L-shaped (b) E-shaped (c) Y-shaped (d) S-shaped 29. The essential chemical components of many coenzymes are: (a) Nucleic acids (b) Carbohydrates (c) Vitamins (d) Proteins 30. During mitosis ER and nucleolus begin to disappear at: (a) late prophase (b) early metaphase (c) late metaphase (d) early prophase 31. Active and passive transports across cell membrane differ in (a) passive transport is nonselective (b) passive transport is along the concentration gradient while active transport is due to metabolic energy (c) active transport is more rapid (d) passive transport is confined to anions while active transport in confined to cations 32. Phosphorous and nitrogen ions generally get depleted in soil because they usually occur as (a) neutral ions (b) negatively charged ions (c) positively charged ions

(d) both positively and negatively charged but disproportionate mixture 33. An element playing important role in nitrogen fixation is: (a) Molybdenum (b) Copper (c) Manganese (d) Zinc 34. During monsoon, the rice crop of eastern states of India shows lesser yield due to limiting factor of (a) CO2 (b) light (c) temperature (d) water 35. Fixation of one CO2 molecule through Calvin cycle requires (a) 1 ATP and 2NADPH2 (b) 2ATP and 2NADPH2 (c) 3ATP and 2NADPH2 (d) 2ATP and 1NADPH2 36. Photoperiodism was first characterised in: (a) tobacco (b) potato (c) tomato (d) cotton 37. In animal cells, the first stage of glucose breakdown is (a) Krebs cycle (b) glycolysis (c) oxidative phosphorylation (d) E.T.C. 38. Movement of leaves of Sensitive Plant, Mimosa pudica are due to (a) thermonasty (b) seismonasty (c) hydrotropism (d) chemonasty 39. Removal of apical bud results in (a) formation of new apical bud (b) elongation of main stem (c) death of plant (d) formation of lateral branching 40. Opening of floral buds into flowers, is a type of (a) autonomic movement of variation

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(b) paratonic movement of growth (c) autonomic movement of growth (d) autonomic movement of locomotion. 41. Renin acts on (a) milk changing casein into calcium paracaseinate at 7.2 – 8.2 pH (b) proteins in stomach (c) fat in intestine (d) milk changing casein into calcium paracaseinate at 1 – 3 pH. 42. Fluoride pollution mainly affects (a) kidney (b) brain (c) heart (d) teeth 43. Which enzymes are likely to act on the baked potatoes eaten by a man, starting from the mouth and as it moves down the alimentary canal? (a) Salivary maltase → carboxypeptidase → trypsinogen (b) Pancreatic amylase → salivary amylase → lipases (c) Disaccharidase like maltase → lipases → nucleases (d) Salivary amylase → pancreatic amylase → disaccharidases 44. Haemophilia is (a) royal disease (b) faulty blood clotting (c) both a and b (d) mosquito having haemocoel 45. With respect to the ABO group, there are four major blood types because this blood group is determined by (a) three alleles, all of which are recessive (b) three alleles, of which, two are recessive and the third is dominant (c) three alleles, of which two are codominant and the third is recessive (d) three alleles, all of which are codominant 46. ABO blood groups in humans are controlled by the gene I. It has three alleles – IA IB and i. Since there are three different alleles, six different genotypes are possible. How many phenotypes can occur? (a) Three (b) One (c) Four (d) Two

47. In Hydra waste material of food digestion and nitrogenous waste material removed from (a) mouth and body wall (b) mouth and tentacles (c) mouth and nematocyst (d) body wall and tentacles 48. Number of cervical vertebrae in camel is (a) more than that of rabbit (b) less than that of rabbit (c) same as that of whale (d) more than that of horse 49. Acute vision is present in (a) vulture (b) shark (c) bat (d) frog 50. Injury to vagus nerve in humans is not likely to affect (a) tongue movements (b) gastrointestinal movements (c) pancreatic secretion (d) cardiac movements 51. Male hormone is produced in the testis by cells of (a) sertoli (b) epithelial (c) spermatocytes (d) leydig 52. Which steroid is used for microbial transformation? (a) Cortisol (b) Cholesterol (c) Testosterone (d) Progesterone 53. Which of the following statements is correct in relation to the endocrine system? (a) Organs in the body like gastrointestinal tract, heart, kidney and liver do not produce any hormones. (b) Non-nutrient chemicals produced by the body in trace amount that act as intercellular messenger are known as hormones. (c) Releasing and inhibitory hormones are produced by the pituitary gland. (d) Adenohypophysis is under direct neural regulation of the hypothalamus.

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54. Parthenogenesis is (a) development of embryo without fertilization (b) d eve l o p m e n t o f f r u i t w i t h o u t fertilization (c) development of fruit without hormones (d) development of embryo from egg without fertilization 55. Chief pollinators of agricultural crops are (a) butterflies (b) bees (c) moths (d) beetles 56. Filiform apparatus is a characteristic feature of (a) suspensor (b) egg (c) synergid (d) zygote 57. Exponential growth of cells is a characteristic feature of (a) tissue culture cells (b) multicellular organisms (c) unicellular organisms (d) embryo 58. What happens during fertilisation in humans after many sperms reach close to the ovum? (a) Secretions of acrosome helps one sperm enter cytoplasm of ovum through zona pellucida (b) All sperms except the one nearest to the ovum lose their tails (c) Cells of corona radiata trap all the sperms except one (d) Only two sperms nearest the ovum penetrate zona pellucida 59. Mutations used in agriculture are commonly (a) induced (b) spontaneous (c) lethal (d) recessive and lethal 60. A child of O-group has B-group father. The genotype of father will be (a) IO IO (b) IB IB (c) IA IB (d) IB IO 61. Alleles that produce independent effects in their heterozygous condition are called

(a) codominant alleles (b) epistatic alleles (c) complementary alleles (d) supplementary alleles 62. Which character studied by Mendel in garden pea (Pisum sativum) was dominant (a) Wrinkled seed shape (b) Green pod colour (c) Green seed colour (d) Terminal flower position 63. Lack of independent assortment of two genes A and B in fruit fly Drosophila is due to (a) repulsion (b) recombination (c) linkage (d) crossing over 64. Which one of the following conditions in humans. is correctly matched with its chromosomal abnormality/linkage? (a) Klinefelters syndrome-44 autosomes + XXY (b) Colour blindness - Y-linked (c) Erythroblastosis foetalis - X-linked (d) Downs syndrome - 44 autosomes + XO 65. Genetic code consists of (a) cdenine and guanine (b) cytosine and uracil (c) cytosine and guanine (d) all the above 66. The translation termination triplet is (a) UAU (b) UAA (c) UAC (d) UGC. 67. Exon part of m- RNAs have code for (a) protein (b) lipid (c) carbohydrate (d) phospholipid 68. In the DNA molecule (a) the total amount of purine nucleotides and pyrimidine nucleotides is not always equal (b) there are two strands which run parallel in the 5′ → 3′ direction (c) the proportion of Adenine in relation to thymine varies with the organism

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(d) there are two strands which run anti parallel one in 5′ → 3′ direction and other in 3′ → 5′ 69. Theory of inheritance of acquired characters was given by (a) Wallace (b) Lamarck (c) Darwin (d) De Vries 70. Which one of the following includes all homologous organs? (a) The wing of butterfly, wing of bird, wing (patagia) of bat (b) The fore limb of frog, wing of bird and fore limb of rabbit (c) The thoracic leg of cockroach, the hind leg of frog and fore leg of rabbit (d) The wing of bird, wing of bat and wing of "flying" lizard 71. Industrial melanism is an example of (a) defensive adaptation of skin against ultraviolet radiations (b) drug resistance (c) darkening of skin due to smoke from industries (d) protective resemblance with the surroundings 72. What is common to whale, seal and shark? (a) Thick subcutaneous fat (b) Convergent evolution (c) Homoiothermy (d) Seasonal migration. 73. Obstacle to large scale transplantation of organs is (a) insufficiency of organ donors (b) immunological rejection of foreign bodies (c) religious or ethnic considerations (d) lack of effective surgical techniques 74. Small proteins produced by vertebrate cells in response to viral infections inhibiting viral multiplication are known as (a) Lipoproteins (b) Immuglobulins (c) Interferons (d) Antitoxins 75. Which of the following is a pair of viral diseases? (a) Common cold, AIDS (b) Dysentery, common cold (c) Typhoid, tuberculosis

(d) Ringworm, AIDS 76. Most of our crop plants are (a) autopolyploid in origin (b) allopolyploid in origin (c) mixed genotypic in origin (d) heterozygous in origin 77. Reason of fast speciation in present day crop plants is (a) mutation (b) isolation (c) polyploidy (d) sexual reproduction 78. Breeding of crops with high levels of minerals, vitamins and proteins is called (a) Somatic hybridisation (b) Biofortification (c) Biomagnification (d) Micropropagation 79. Which one of the following help in absorption of phosphorus from soil by plants? (a) Glomus (b) Rhizobium (c) Frankia (d) Anabaena 80. A single strand of nucleic acid tagged with a radioactive molecule is called: (a) Vector (b) Selectablemarker (c) Plasmid (d) Probe 81. Consider the following statements (A-D) about organic farming: (A) Utilizes genetically modified crops like Bt cotton (B) Uses only naturally produced inputs like compost (C) Does not use pesticides and urea (D) Produces vegetables rich in vitamins and minerals Which of the above statements are correct? (a) (B), (C) and (D) (b) (C) and (D) only (c) (B) and (C) only (d) (A) and (B) only 82. Human population growth in India (a) tends to follow a sigmoid curve as in case of many other animal species (b) tends to reach a zero population growth as in case of some animal species

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(c) can be reduced by permitting natural calamities and enforcing birth control measures (d) can be regulated by following the national programme of family planning 83. In the case of peppered moth (Biston betularia) the black - coloured form became dominant over the light- coloured form in England during industrial revolution. This is an example of: (a) appearance of the darker coloured individuals due to very poor sunlight (b) protective mimicry (c) inheritance of darker colour character acquired due to the darker environment (d) natural selection whereby the darker forms were selected 84. In a biotic community, the primary consumers are (a) carnivores (b) omnivores (c) detritivores (d) herbivores 85. Which one of the following types of organisms occupy more than one trophic level in a pond ecosystem? (a) Fish (b) Zooplankton (c) Frog (d) Phytoplankton 86. Wildlife is destroyed most when (a) there is lack of proper care (b) mass scale hunting for foreign trade (c) its natural habitat is destroyed (d) natural calamity 87. Which of the following is considered a hot-spot of biodiversity in India? (a) Indo-Gangetic Plain (b) Eastern Ghats (c) Aravalli Hills (d) Western Ghats 88. Ultraviolet radiations from sunlight causes a reaction that produces (a) Fluorides (b) Carbon monoxide (c) Sulphur dioxide (d) Ozone 89. D.D.T. is

(a) a non –degradable pollutant (b) A bio-degradable pollutant (c) not a pollutant (d) an antibiotic 90. A renewable exhaustible natural resource is: (a) coal (b) petroleum (c) minerals (d) forest

Chemistry 1. The number of gram molecules of oxygen in 6.02 × 1024 CO molecules is (a) 10 gm molecules (b) 5 gm molecules (c) 1 gm molecules (d) 0.5 gm molelcules 2. How many moles of lead (II) chloride will be formed from a reaction between 6.5 g of PbOand 3.0 g of HCl? (a) 0.044 (b) 0.333 (c) 0.011 (d) 0.029 3. The ion that is isoelectronic with CO is (a) CN– (b) O2

+

(c) O2– (d) N2

+ 4. Maximum number of electrons in a subshell with: l = 3 and n = 4 is: (a) 14 (b) 16 (c) 10 (d) 12 5. Which one of the following oxides is expected to exhibit paramagnetic behaviour? (a) CO2 (b) SiO2 (c) SO2 (d) ClO2 6. Among the following which compound will show the highest lattice energy? (a) KF (b) NaF (c) CsF

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(d) RbF 7. 48 . The relationship between the dissociation energy of N2 and N2

+ is:

(a) Dissociation energy of N2 + > dissociation energy of N2 (b) Dissociation energy of N2 = dissociation energy of N2

+ (c) Dissociation energy of N2 > dissociation energy of N2

+ (d) Dissociation energy of N2 can either be lower or higher than the dissociation energy of N2

+ 8. What is the dominant intermolecular force or bond that must be overcome in converting liquid CH3OH to a gas? (a) Dipole-dipole interaction (b) Covalent bonds (c) London dispersion force (d) Hydrogen bonding 9. At constant temperature, for a given mass of an ideal gas (a) The ratio of pressure and volume always remains constant. (b) Volume always remains constant. (c) Pressure always remains constant. (d) The product of pressure and volume always remains constant. 10. Agaseous mixture was prepared by taking equal mole of CO and N2 .If the total pressure of the mixture was found 9 atmosphere, the partial pressure of the nitrogen (N2 )in the mixture is: (a) 0.5 atm (b) 0.8 atm (c) 0.9 atm (d) 1 atm 11.

(a) x > y (b) x < y (c) x = y (d) x ≥ y

12.

(a) 750 K (b) 1000 K (c) 1250 K (d) 500 K 13.

(a) K1 /(K2) 2 (b) K1. K2 (c) K1 /K2 (d) K2 /K1 14.

(a) 4.000 (b) 9.0000 (c) 1.000 (d) 7.000 15.

(a) H2O (b) Ni (c) H+

(d) Cr2 O72-

16. Compared with the alkaline earth metals, the alkali metals exhibit (a) Smaller ionic radii (b) Highest boiling points (c) Greater hardness

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(d) Lower ionization energies. 17. Which one of the alkali metals, forms only, the normal oxide, M2Oon heating in air? (a) Rb (b) K (c) Li (d) Na 18. Which one of the following can exhibit cis-trans isomerism? (a) CH3 CHCl COOH (b) H-C=C-Cl (c) ClCH-CHCl (d) ClCH2-CH-Cl2 19. Tautomerism will be exhibited by (a) (CH3)2NH (b) (CH3)3CNO (c) R3CNO2 (d) RCH2NO2

20. Which of the following is least reactive in a nucleophilic substitution reaction. (a) (CH) CCl 3 3 (b) CHCHCl 2 (c) CHCHCl 3 2 (d) CHCHCHCl 21. Which one is most reactive towards electrophilic reagent? (a) CH3 OH (b) CH3 CHOH2 (c) CH3 NHCOCH3 (d) CH3 OCH3 22. The reaction of ethyl magnesium bromide with water would give (a) Ethane (b) Ethyl alcohol (c) Ethyl bromide (d) Ethyl ether

23. The ability of a substances to assume two or more crystalline structures is called (a) Isomerism (b) Polymorphism (c) Isomorphism (d) Amorphism 24. Copper crystallises in a face-centred cubic lattice with a unit cell length of 361 pm. What is the radius of copper atom in pm? (a) 157 (b) 181 (c) 108 (d) 128 25. 1 M, 2.5 litre NaOHsolution is mixed with another 0.5 M, 3 litre NaOH solution. Then find out the molarity of resultant solution (a) 0.80 M (b) 1.0 M (c) 0.73 M (d) 0.50 M 26. If 0.5 amp current is passed through acidified silver nitrate solution for 100 minutes. The mass of silver deposited on cathode, is (eq.wt.of silver nitrate = 108) (a) 2.3523 g (b) 3.3575 g (c) 5.3578 g (d) 6.3575 g 27.

(a) 8.1 × 104 g (b) 2.4 × 105 g (c) 1.3 × 104 g (d) 9.0 × 103 g 28.

(a)

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(b)

(c)

(d) 29. Areaction is 50% completed in 2 hours and 75% completed in 4 hours. The order of reaction is (a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3 30. Hypo is used in photography to (a) Reduce AgBr grains to metallic silver (b) Convert metallic silver to silver salt (c) Remove undecomposed silver bromide as a soluble complex (d) Remove reduced silver 31. Asolution of potassium bromide is treated with each of the following. Which one would liberate bromine? (a) Hydrogen iodide (b) Sulphur dioxide (c) chlorine (d) Iodine 32. Which one of the following orders correctly represents the increasing acid strengths of the given acids? (a) HOClO< HOCl < HOClO3 < HOClO2 (b) HOClO2 < HOClO3 < HOClO< HOCl (c) HOClO3 < HOClO2 < HOClO< HOCl (d) HOCl < HOClO< HOClO2 < HOClO3 33. The transition elements have a general electronic configuration

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d) 34. Lanthanoids are (a) 14 elements in the sixth period (atomic no. = 90 to 103) that are filling 4f sublevel

(b) 14 elements in the seventh period (atomic no. = 90 to 103) that are filling 5f sublevel (c) 14 elements in the sixth period (atomic no. = 58 to 71) that are filling 4f sublevel (d) 14 elements in the seventh period (atomic no. = 58 to 71) that are filling 4f sublevel 35. Among the following complexes, optical activity is possible in

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d) 36. CN– is a strong field ligand. This is due to the fact that (a) it carries negative charge (b) it is a pseudohalide (c) it can accept electrons from metal species (d) it forms high spin complexes with metal species 37. Which among the following is a paramagnetic complex? (a) Mo(CO)6 (b) [Co(NH3) 6] 3+ (c) [Pt(en)Cl2] (d) [CoBr4] 2– 38. Methanol is industrially prepared by (a) Oxidation of CH4 by steam at 900°C (b) Reduction of HCHOusing LiAIH4 (c) Reaction HCHOwith a solution of NaOH (d) Reduction of COusing H2 and ZnO– Cr2O3. 39. Formalin is an aqueous solution of (a) Fluorescein (b) Formic acid (c) Formaldehyde (d) Furfuraldehyde. 40. Iodoform test is not given by (a) 2-Pentanone (b) Ethanol (c) Ethanal (d) 3-Pentanone 41. Propionic acid with Br2 |P yields a dibromo product. Its structure would be:

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(a)

(b)

(c)

(d) 42. The consituent of the powerful explosive RDXis formed during the nitration of (a) toluene (b) phenol (c) glycerol (d) urotropine 43. In reference to biological role, Ca2+ ions are important in (a) triggering the contraction of muscles (b) generating right electrical potential across cell membrane (c) hydrolysis of ATP (d) defence mechanism 44. The helical structure of protein is stabilized by (a) dipeptide bonds (b) hydrogen bonds (c) ether bonds (d) peptide bonds 45. Which one of the following monomers gives the polymer neoprene on polymerization? (a) CF2 = CF2 (b) CH2 = CHCl (c) CCl2 = CCl2 (d) CH2CHCl CH2

Physics 1. The dimensional formula of pressure is (a) [MLT–2] (b) [ML–1T2] (c) [ML–1T–2] (d) [MLT2] 2.

(a) [L1/2T–1/2] (b) [L–1T] (c) [LT–1] (d) [L1/2T1/2] 3. Aball is thrown vertically upward. It has a speed of 10 m/sec when it has reached one half of its maximum height. How high does the ball rise? Take g = 10 m/s2. (a) 10 m (b) 5 m (c) 15 m (d) 20 m 4.

(a) zero (b) A (c) zero vector (d) unit vector 5.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d) 6. 3. A body of mass 5 kg explodes at rest into three fragments with masses in the ratio 1: 1: 3. The fragments with equal masses fly in mutually perpendicular directions with speeds of 21 m/s. The velocity of heaviest fragment in m/s will be (a) 7√0 (b) 5√2 (c) 3√0 (d) √2 7. A block of mass m is placed on a smooth wedge of inclination θ. The whole system is accelerated horizontally so that the block does not slip on the wedge. The force exerted by the wedge on the block (g is acceleration due to gravity) will be (a) mg/cos θ (b) mg cos θ

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(c) mg sin θ (d) mg 8. A force acts on a 30 gm particle in such a way that the position of the particle as a function of time is given by x = 3t – 4t2 + t3, where x is in metres and t is in seconds. The work done during the first 4 seconds is (a) 576 mJ (b) 450 mJ (c) 490 mJ (d) 530 mJ 9. A mass m moving horizontally (along the x-axis) with velocity v collides and sticks to mass of 3m moving vertically upward (along the y-axis) with velocity 2v. The final velocity of the combination is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d) 10.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

11. The moment of inertia of a uniform circular disc of radius Rand mass M about an axis passing from the edge of the disc and normal to the disc is:

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d) 12. Two discs are rotating about their axes, normal to the discs and passing through the centres of the discs. Disc D1 has 2 kg mass and 0.2 m radius and initial angular velocity of 50 rad s–1. Disc D2 has 4kg mass, 0.1 m radius and initial angular velocity of 200 rad s–1. The two discs are brought in contact face to face, with their axes of rotation coincident. The final angular velocity (in rad s–1) of the system is (a) 40 (b) 60 (c) 100 (d) 120 13. The density of a newly discovered planet is twice that of earth. The acceleration due to gravity at the surface of the planet is equal to that at the surface of the earth. If the radius of the earth is R, the radius of the planet would be (a) ½ R (b) 2 R (c) 4 R (d) 1/4 R 14. The angle of contact between pure water and pure glass, is (a) 0° (b) 45° (c) 90° (d) 135° 15. If the cold junction of a thermo-couple is kept at0°Cand the hot junction is kept at T°C then the relation between neutral temperature (Tn) and temperature of inversion (Ti) is (a) Tn = 2Ti (b) Tn = Ti – T (c) Tn = Ti + T (d) Tn = Ti /2

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16. The efficiency of a Carnot engine operating between the temperatures of 100°Cand –23°C will be

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d) 17.

(a) 6 J (b) 10 J (c) 12 J (d) 36 J 18.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

19. Which one of the following statements is true for the speed v and the acceleration a of a particle executing simple harmonic motion? (a) When v is maximum, a is zero (b) When v is maximum, a is maximum (c) Value of a is zero, whatever may be the value of v (d) When v is zero, a is zero

20. Two trains move towards each other with the same speed. The speed of sound is 340 m/s. If the height of the tone of the whistle of one of them heard on the other changes 9/8 times, then the speed of each train should be (a) 20 m/s (b) 2 m/s (c) 200 m/s (d) 2000 m/s 21. Resonance is an example of (a) tuning fork (b) forced vibration (c) free vibration (d) damped vibration 22. When a string is divided into three segments of length l1, l2, and l3 the fundamental frequencies of these three segments are v1, v2 and v3 respectively. The original fundamental frequency (v) of the string is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d) 23.

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(a) pE/2 (b) 2 p E (c) p E (d) √0 pE 24. A solid spherical conductor is given a charge. The electrostatic potential of the conductor is (a) constant throughout the conductor (b) largest at the centre (c) largest on the surface (d) largest somewhere between the centre and the surface 25. Forty electric bulbs are connected in series across a 220 V supply. After one bulb is fused the remaining 39 are connected again in series across the same supply. The illumination will be (a) more with 40 bulbs than with 39 (b) more with 39 bulbs than with 40 (c) equal in both the cases (d) in the ratio 402: 392 26. Two electric bulbs, one of 200 V, 40Wand other of 200 V, 100 W are connected in a domestic circuit. Then (a) they have equal resistance (b) the resistance of 40Wbulb is more than 100 W bulb (c) the resistance of 100Wbulb is more than 40 W bulb (d) they have equal current through them 27.

(a) 1.0 (b) 0.5 (c) 3.0 (d) 2.0

28.

(a) 02 Ω (b) 95 Ω (c) 92 Ω (d) 32 Ω 29. A positively charged particle moving due east enters a region of uniform magnetic field directed vertically upwards. The particle will (a) continue to move due east (b) move in a circular orbit with its speed unchanged (c) move in a circular orbit with its speed increased (d) gets deflected vertically upwards. 30. The current in self inductance L= 40 m His to be increased uniformly from 1 amp to 11 amp in 4 milliseconds. The e.m.f. induced in the inductor during the process is (a) 100 volt (b) 0.4 volt (c) 4.0 volt (d) 440 volt 31. In which of the following, emission of electrons does not take place (a) thermionic emission (b) X-rays emission (c) photoelectric emission (d) secondary emission

32.

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(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

33. (a) 2 m–1 (b) 0.5 m–1 (c) 6 m–1 (d) 3 m–1 34. A person is six feet tall. How tall must a vertical mirror be if he is able to see his entire length? (a) 3 ft (b) 4.5 ft (c) 7.5 ft (d) 6 ft 35. For a normal eye, the cornea of eye provides a converging power of 40Dand the least converging power of the eye lens behind the cornea is 20D. Using this information, the distance between the retina and the eye lens of the eye can be estimated to be (a) 2.5 cm (b) 1.67 cm (c) 1.5 cm (d) 5 cm

36. A radio transmitter operates at a frequency 880 kHz and a power of 10 kW. The number of photons emitted per second is (a) 1.72 × 1031 (b) 1.327 × 1025 (c) 1.327 × 1037 (d) 1.327 × 1045 37. A photosensitive metallic surface has work function, hv0. If photons of energy 2 hv0 fall on this surface, the electrons come out with a maximum velocity of 4 × 106 m/s. When the photon energy is increased to 5 hv0, then maximum velocity of photoelectrons will be (a) 2 × 107 m/s (b) 2 × 106 m/s (c) 8 × 106 m/s (d) 8 × 105 m/s 38. The wavelength λ e of an electron and λp of a photon are of same energy E are related by

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d) 39. Ionization potential of hydrogen atom is 13.6eV. Hydrogen atoms in the ground state are excited by monochromatic radiation of photon energy 12.1 eV. According to Bohr’s theory, the spectral lines emitted by hydrogen will be (a) three (b) Four (c) One (d) Two 40. An electron with (rest mass m0) moves with a speed of 0.8 c. Its mass when it moves with this speed is (a) m0 (b) m0/6 (c) 5m0/3 (d) 3m0/5 41.

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(a) mass number reduces by 4 (b) mass number reduces by 5 (c) mass number reduces by 6 (d) mass number increases by 4 42.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d) 43. (a) (b) (c) (d) 44. In a junction diode, the holes are due to (a) protons (b) extra electrons (c) neutrons (d) missing electrons 45. The radius of germanium (Ge) nuclide is measured to be twice the radius of 94Be . The number of nucleons in Ge are (a) 74 (b) 75 (c) 72 (d) 73 1. d 2. c 3. c 4. d 5. a 6. d 7. a 8. a 9. a 10. a 11. b 12. b 13. a 14. b 15. b 16. a 17. c 18. b 19. a 20. b 21. d 22. c 23. b 24. c 25. a 26. a 27. d 28. a 29. c 30. d 31. b 32. d 33. a 34. b 35. c 36. a 37. b 38. b 39. d 40. c 41. d 42. d 43. d 44. c 45. c 46. c 47. a 48. c 49. a 50. a 51. d 52. b 53. b 54. d 55. b 56. c 57. d 58. a 59. a 60. d 61. a 62. b 63. c 64. a 65. d 66. b 67. a 68. d 69. b 70. b 71. d 72. b 73. b 74. c

75. a 76. a 77. c 78. b 79. a 80. d 81. c 82. d 83. d 84. d 85. a 86. c 87. d 88. d 89. a 90. d 1. b 2. d 3. a 4. a 5. d 6. b 7. c 8. d 9. d 10. a 11. a 12. a 13. d 14. a 15. d 16. d 17. c 18. c 19. d 20. a 21. b 22. a 23. b 24. d 25. c 26. b 27. a 28. b 29. b 30. c 31. a 32. d 33. c 34. c 35. b 36. b 37. d 38. d 39. c 40. d 41. c 42. d 43. b 44. c 45. d 1. c 2. c 3. a 4. c 5. c 6. a 7. a 8. a 9. a 10. b 11. c 12. c 13. a 14. a 15. d 16. d 17. a 18. d 19. a 20. a 21. b 22. c 23. c 24. a 25. b 26. b 27. c 28. c 29. b 30. a 31. b 32. d 33. a 34. a 35. a 36. a 37. c 38. d 39. a 40. c 41. a 42. c 43. b 44. d 45. c