Bio20 Finals Reviewer
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Transcript of Bio20 Finals Reviewer
8/9/2019 Bio20 Finals Reviewer
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C
is polar and forms many hydrogen bonds with the water molecules.
D
has a very reactive primary structure.
E
none of these
Which of the following is NOT true?
A
Acids release hydrogen ions.
B
In a neutral solution, the amounts of hydrogen and hydroxyl ions are almost equal.
C
Salts precipitate out of solution and have no function in cells.
D
Polar water molecules are attracted to water.
E
Hydrogen bonding between water molecules gives water its temperature-stabilizing and cohesive properties.
Cellular pH is kept near a value of 7 because of
A
salts.
B
buffers.
C
acids.
D
bases.
E
water.
Four of the five answers listed below are alkaline (pH above 7). Select the exception.
A
milk of magnesia
B
household ammonia
C
Tums
D
phosphate detergent
E
wine
Four of the five answers listed below are acidic (pH below 7). Select the exception.
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A
vinegar
B
soft drink
C
soap
D
lemon juice
E
beer
Four of the five answers listed below are positively charged ions. Select the exception.
A
potassium ion
B
hydrogen ion
C
calcium ion
D
magnesium ion
E
chlorine ion
Four of the five answers listed below are characteristics of water. Select the exception.
A
stabilizes temperature
B
is a common solvent
C
has cohesion and surface tension
D
produces salts
E
changes shape of hydrophilic and hydrophobic substances
The three most common atoms in your body are
A
hydrogen, oxygen, and carbon.
B
carbon, hydrogen, and nitrogen.
C
carbon, nitrogen, and oxygen.
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D
nitrogen, hydrogen, and oxygen.
E
carbon, oxygen, and sulfur.
An -NH2 group is a(n) __________ group.
A
carboxyl
B
hydroxyl
C
amino
D
methyl
E
ketone
Which are NOT macromolecules?
A
proteins
B
polysaccharides
C
nucleotides
D
lipids
E
nucleic acids
A condensation reaction typically produces
A
monomers.
B
salts.
C
polymers.
D
simple sugars.
E
amino acids.
The relatively unimportant by-product(s) of many condensation reactions is (are)
A
carbon dioxide.
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B
aldehyde groups.
C
enzymes.
D
alcohols.
E
water.
A macromolecule is composed of smaller units called
A
polymers.
B
isomers.
C
monomers.
D
isotopes.
E
dimers.
The primary carbohydrate used in the transport of food from the leaves to the root is
A
glucose.
B
sucrose.
C
fructose.
D
maltose.
E
lactose.
The primary carbohydrate used in the transport of food from the leaves to the root is
A
glucose.
B
sucrose.
C
fructose.
D
maltose.
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E
lactose.
Glucose and fructose are different
A
in the number of carbons they possess.
B
in their relationship to the sucrose molecules.
C
in the way that their atoms are arranged.
D
in the number of double bonds they possess.
E
both in the way that their atoms are arranged and in the number of double bonds they possess.
Plants store their excess carbohydrates in the form of
A
starch.
B
glycogen.
C
glucose.
D
cellulose.
E
fats.
Glycogen is a polysaccharide used for energy storage by
A
animals.
B
plants.
C
protistans.
D
monerans.
E
both animals and protistans.
Which of the following includes all the others?
A
sucrose
B
glucose
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C
cellulose
D
glycogen
E
carbohydrate
Which of the following is more soluble in a nonpolar solvent (such as acetone) than in water?
A
lipids
B
polysaccharides
C
fats
D
sterols
E
all of these except polysaccharides
Oils are
A
liquid at room temperatures.
B
unsaturated fats.
C
found only in animals.
D
complex carbohydrates.
E
both liquid at room temperature and unsaturated fats.
Cholesterol
A
is synthesized in the large intestine.
B
floats free in the bloodstream.
C
is used in the construction of biomembranes.
D
levels in the bloodstream can be increased by eating plant fats.
E
is much greater in the bloodstream of rats than humans.
Polyunsaturated fats
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A
have fewer hydrogens than saturated fats.
B
are more characteristic of animal fats than plant fats.
C
contribute to the possibility of arteriosclerosis.
D
have no double bonds.
E
are solid at room temperature.
An example of a saturated fat is
A
olive oil.
B
corn oil.
C
butter.
D
oleo.
E
soybean oil.
An example of a saturated fat is
A
olive oil.
B
corn oil.
C
butter.
D
oleo.
E
soybean oil.
Sterols are
A
compounds that are related to lipids.
B
sex hormones.
C
components of membranes.
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D
troublesome on artery walls.
E
all of these
Proteins may function as
A
structural units.
B
hormones.
C
storage molecules.
D
transport molecules.
E
all of these
Which of the following is structurally the simplest of the amino acids?
A
proline
B
serine
C
tryptophan
D
cysteine
E
glycine
Amino acids are linked by what kind of bonds to form the primary structure of a protein?
A
disulfide
B
hydrogen
C
ionic
D
peptide
E
none of these
Denaturation of proteins may result in all but one of the following. Which one is it?
A
breakage of hydrogen bonds
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B
loss of three-dimensional structure
C
removal of R groups from amino acids
D
alteration of enzyme activity
E
endangerment of cell's life
Nucleotides are the building blocks for
A
proteins.
B
steroids.
C
lipids.
D
ATP, NAD+, and FAD
E
carbohydrates.
Which of the following is NOT found in every nucleic acid?
A
ribose
B
phosphate group
C
single-ring base
D
double-ring base
E
All of these are characteristic of every nucleotide.
DNA
A
is one of the adenosine phosphates.
B
is one of the nucleotide coenzymes.
C
contains protein-building instructions.
D
translates protein-building instructions into actual protein structures.
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E
none of these
Which molecule is incorrectly matched with its component parts?
A
fat: fatty acids
B
starch: riboses
C
protein: amino acids
D
glycogen: glucoses
E
nucleic acids: nucleotides
Four of the five answers listed below are carbohydrates. Select the exception.
A
glycerol
B
cellulose
C
starch
D
sucrose
E
glycogen
Four of the five answers listed below are polysaccharides. Select the exception.
A
chitin
B
cellulose
C
collagen
D
starch
E
glycogen
Four of the five answers listed below are lipids. Select the exception.
A
triglyceride
B
wax
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C
butter
D
insulin
E
steroid
Four of the five answers listed below are amino acids. Select the exception.
A
glycine
B
adenine
C
phenylalanine
D
valine
E
tyrosine
Four of the five answers listed below are functional groups. Select the exception.
A
R group
B
amino group
C
carboxyl group
D
hydroxyl group
E
aldehyde group
Friedrich Miescher is credited with
A
proposing DNA as the hereditary material.
B
finding a cure for pneumonia.
C
telling us that A=T and G=C.
D
discovering nucleic acids.
The significance of Fred Griffith's experiment in which he used two strains of Streptococcus pneumoniae is that
A
the semiconservative nature of DNA replication was finally demonstrated.
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B
it demonstrated that harmless cells had become permanently transformed through a change in the bacterial hereditary system.
C
it established that pure DNA extracted from disease-causing bacteria transformed harmless strains into killer strains.
D
it demonstrated that radioactively labeled bacteriophages transfer their DNA but not their protein coats to their host bacteria.
E
all of these
Which scientist(s) identified the transforming substance involved in changing rough (R) bacteria to smooth (S)?
A
Avery
B
Griffith
C
Chargaff
D
Hershey and Chase
E
Pauling
Bacteriophages are
A
large bacteria.
B
pathogens (disease-producing bacteria).
C
viruses.
D
cellular components.
E
protistans.
The significance of the experiments in which 32P and 35S were used is that
A
the semiconservative nature of DNA replication was finally demonstrated.
B
it demonstrated that harmless bacterial cells had become permanently transformed through a change in the bacterial hereditary system.
C
it established that pure DNA extracted from disease-causing bacteria transformed harmless strains into killer strains.
D
it demonstrated that radioactively labeled bacteriophages transfer their DNA but not their protein coats to their host bacteria.
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E
none of these
Nucleic acid contains
A
sulfur.
B
phosphorus.
C
potassium.
D
iron.
E
manganese.
The building blocks of nucleic acids are
A
amino acids.
B
nucleotides.
C
pentose sugars.
D
phosphate groups.
E
nitrogenous bases.
DNA varies from species to species in its
A
base-pair bonding.
B
relative amounts of nucleotide bases.
C
sequence of base pairs.
D
base-pair bonding and sequence of base pairs.
E
relative amounts of nucleotide bases and sequence of base pairs.
Rosalind Franklin's research contribution was essential in
A
establishing the double-stranded nature of DNA.
B
establishing the principle of base pairing.
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C
establishing most of the principal structural features of DNA.
D
sequencing DNA molecules.
E
determining the bonding energy of DNA molecules.
Rosalind Franklin used which technique to determine many of the physical characteristics of DNA?
A
transformation
B
transmission electron microscopy
C
density-gradient centrifugation
D
x-ray diffraction
E
all of these
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PART 2
James Watson and Francis Crick
A
established the double-stranded nature of DNA
B
confirmed the principle of base pairing.
C
explained how DNA's structure permitted it to be replicated.
D
proposed the concept of the double helix.
E
all of these
In DNA, complementary base pairing occurs between
A
cytosine and uracil.
B
adenine and guanine.
C
adenine and uracil.
D
adenine and thymine.
E
all of these
Which of the following statements is true?
A
The hydrogen bonding of cytosine to guanine is an example of complementary base pairing.
B
Adenine always pairs up with guanine in DNA, and cytosine always teams up with thymine.
C
Each of the four nucleotides in a DNA molecule has the same nitrogen-containing base.
D
When adenine base pairs with thymine, they are linked by three hydrogen bonds.
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E
In the DNA of all species, the amount of purines never equals the amount of pyrimidines.
Each DNA strand has a backbone that consists of alternating
A
purines and pyrimidines.
B
nitrogen-containing bases.
C
hydrogen bonds.
D
sugar and phosphate molecules.
E
amines and purines.
The ultimate explanation for resemblances of traits from one generation to another is
A
gamete formation.
B
semiconservative DNA replication.
C
sexual reproduction.
D
protein synthesis.
E
bloodlines.
Replication of DNA
A
produces RNA molecules.
B
produces only new DNA.
C
produces two molecules, each of which is half-new and half-old DNA joined lengthwise to each other.
D
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generates excessive DNA, which eventually causes the nucleus to divide.
E
is too complex to characterize.
The primary function of DNA ligase is to
A
cut the two strands of the DNA molecule prior to replication.
B
attach free nucleotides to the growing chain.
C
remove bases that might have been inserted incorrectly.
D
seal new short stretches of nucleotides into one continuous strand.
E
fragment old DNA that is no longer of use to the cell.
DNA polymerase
A
is an enzyme.
B
adds new nucleotides to a strand.
C
proofreads DNA strands to see that they are correct.
D
derives energy from ATP for synthesis of DNA strands.
E
all of these
Four of the five answers listed below are bases used to construct nucleic acids. Select the exception.
A
cytosine
B
adenine
C
thymine
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D
guanine
E
phenylalanine
Four of the five answers listed below are correctly paired. Select the exception.
A
A - C
B
C - G
C
A - T
D
T - A
E
purine - pyrimidine
The DNA molecule usually is made up of how many strands?
A
1
B
2
C
3
D
6
E
12
__________ molecules carry protein-assembly instructions from the nucleus to the cytoplasm.
A
Template DNA
B
Messenger RNA
C
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Transfer RNA
D
Ribosomal RNA
E
all of these
The form of RNA that carries the code from the DNA to the site where the protein is assembled is called
A
messenger RNA.
B
nuclear RNA.
C
ribosomal RNA.
D
transfer RNA.
E
structural RNA.
The nitrogenous base found in DNA but not in RNA is
A
adenine.
B
cytosine.
C
guanine.
D
uracil.
E
thymine.
The synthesis of an RNA molecule from a DNA template strand is
A
replication.
B
translation.
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C
transcription.
D
DNA synthesis.
E
metabolism.
Transcription starts at a region of DNA called a(n)
A
sequencer.
B
promoter.
C
activator.
D
terminator.
E
transcriber.
If the DNA triplets were ATG-CGT, the mRNA codons would be
A
AUG-CGU.
B
ATG-CGT.
C
UAC-GCA.
D
UAG-CGU.
E
none of these
If the DNA triplets were ATG-CGT, the tRNA anticodons would be
A
AUG-CGU.
B
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ATG-CGT.
C
UAC-GCA.
D
UAG-CGU.
E
none of these
Which of the following could NOT be an RNA transcript?
A
AUGCGU
B
ATGCGT
C
UACGCA
D
UAGCGU
E
GCGUUU
The genetic code
A
is universal for all organisms.
B
is based upon 64 codons made of sequences of three nucleotides.
C
also comes equipped with punctuation marks.
D
is redundant, that is, each amino has more than one codon.
E
all of these
There are how many different kinds of RNA codons?
A
3
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B
12
C
28
D
64
E
120
Of all the different codons that exist, three of them
A
are involved in mutations.
B
do not specify a particular amino acid.
C
cannot be copied.
D
provide punctuation or instructions such as "stop."
E
do not specify a particular amino acid and provide punctuation or instructions such as "stop."
Which of the following carries amino acids to ribosomes, where amino acids are linked into the primary structure of a polypeptide?
A
mRNA
B
tRNA
C
hnRNA
D
rRNA
E
all of these
All mRNA transcripts begin with
A
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methionine.
B
a ribosome.
C
AUG.
D
the P site.
E
an anticodon.
A gene mutation
A
is a change in the nucleotide sequence of DNA.
B
may be caused by environmental agents.
C
may arise spontaneously.
D
can occur in any organism.
E
all of these
Mutations can be
A
random.
B
beneficial
C
lethal.
D
all of these
E
heritable.
In a mutation,
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A
the new codon may specify a different amino acid, but may not change the function of the new protein produced.
B
the new codon may specify the same amino acid as the old codon.
C
the new codon and resulting amino acid may destroy the function of the protein specified.
D
All of these may be true.
Four of the five answers listed below are steps in the process of transcription. Select the exception.
A
cap put on one end
B
introns snipped out
C
action by DNA polymerase
D
poly-A tail placed on one end
E
exons spliced together
Three of the four answers listed below are steps in translation. Select the exception.
A
initiation
B
replication
C
chain elongation
D
termination
The cell theory was proposed by
A
Robert Hooke.
B
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B
synthesize glucose.
C
store food in the form of fat.
D
form proteins.
Which of the following is the primary advantage of the eukaryotic nuclear envelope?
A
providing residence for ribosomes
B
allowing isolation of DNA from cytoplasmic machinery
C
providing pore entry places
D
enabling faster cell division
E
enabling larger cell size
Which of the following is NOT found as a part of all cells?
A
cell membrane
B
cell wall
C
ribosomes
D
DNA
E
RNA
The cell wall
A
provides skeletal support for plants.
B
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C
nucleoid
D
lysosome
E
vacuole
Which of the following is true of the basement membrane?
A
It overlies the epithelium at its free surface.
B
It is composed partially of epithelial cells and partially of connective tissue.
C
It is mostly lipid and embedded celluloid fibers.
D
It lies between the epithelium and connective tissue.
E
It cements the layers of stratified epithelium together.
Which of the following is NOT defined as connective tissue?
A
bone
B
skeletal muscle
C
cartilage
D
collagen
E
blood
Which of the these is NOT connective tissue?
A
cartilage
B
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blood
C
bone
D
fat
E
outer layer of skin
Collagen fibers supply
A
strength.
B
elasticity.
C
energy.
D
rigidity.
E
all except "energy."
Which of the following correctly matches connective tissue with its deposits?
A
blood: fats
B
adipose: polysaccharide
C
bone: mineral ions
D
cartilage: calcium
Rapid communication throughout the body is accomplished by
A
neurons.
B
blood.
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PART 3
Within a single neuron, the direction an impulse follows is
A
dendrite -> axon -> cell body.
B
axon -> dendrite -> cell body.
C
dendrite -> cell body -> axon.
D
cell body -> dendrite -> axon.
E
cell body -> axon -> dendrite.
The movement of potassium into the neuron when it is at rest is a result of
A
diffusion leakage.
B
the presence of some open potassium channels.
C
the attraction of the positively charged potassium ions by the negatively charged interior of the neuron.
D
both diffusion leakage and the presence of some open potassium channels.
E
both the presence of some open potassium channels and the attraction of the positively charged potassium ions by the negatively charged interior of
the neuron.
The resting potential of a neuron is approximately
A
70 microvolts.
B
70 millivolts.
C
70 volts.
D
70 electrovolts.
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E
70 megavolts.
Action potentials are
A
faster in neurons than in muscle cells.
B
faster in muscles than in neurons.
C
essentially the same in neurons and muscle cells.
D
completely different in neurons and muscle cells.
During the passage of a nerve impulse,
A
sodium ions pass through gated channels.
B
positive feedback causes more sodium ions to enter the cell.
C
the interior of the cell becomes positive.
D
changing voltage increases the number of open gates.
E
all of these
The reason that an action potential is so brief is that
A
a wave of repolarization immediately follows an action potential.
B
the opening of potassium gates allows the voltage difference across the neural membrane to be restored.
C
the protein channels for sodium movement remain open.
D
the sodium-potassium pump restores the electrical gradients.
E
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the membrane limits electrical activity.
Which of the following is a junction between two neurons?
A
Schwann cell
B
chemical synapse
C
node of Ranvier
D
sodium gate
E
all of these
The myelin sheath
A
is formed by the Schwann cell.
B
speeds up the transmission of impulses.
C
does not surround all nerves.
D
is interrupted along the axon by nodes.
E
all of these
The occipital lobe of the brain is responsible for
A
coordination of hands and fingers.
B
coordination of hands and fingers.
C
memory.
D
sense of taste and smell.
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E
vision.
The left hemisphere of the brain is responsible for
A
music.
B
artistic ability.
C
spatial relationships.
D
language skills.
E
abstract abilities.
The right hemisphere of the cerebrum is specialized for
A
verbal ability.
B
mathematics.
C
music interpretation.
D
control over the right side of the body.
Studies of memory indicate that
A
short-term memory is the product of chemical changes in neurons.
B
long-term memory is limited to a few years' duration.
C
long-term memories are lost more frequently in amnesia.
D
long-term memory depends on structural or chemical changes in the brain.
E
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short-term memory is limited to several hundred bits of information.
Active chemicals found in chocolate, tea, coffee, and soft drinks are examples of which of the following?
A
depressant
B
stimulant
C
narcotic analgesic
D
hallucinogen or psychedelic
E
antipsychotic
Pain relievers such as endorphins and enkephalins are
A
depressants.
B
stimulants.
C
analgesics.
D
hallucinogens or psychedelics.
E
antipsychotics.
Receptors in the human nose are
A
chemoreceptors.
B
mechanoreceptors.
C
photoreceptors.
D
nocireceptors.
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E
none of these
Hair cells are important in the sense of
A
equilibrium.
B
hearing.
C
taste.
D
smell.
E
both equilibrium and hearing.
The acoustical sense deals with the sense of
A
taste.
B
smell.
C
touch.
D
sight.
E
hearing.
In hearing, the last place that pressure or sound waves pass through is the
A
bones of the middle ear.
B
tympanic membrane.
C
oval window.
D
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round window.
E
tectorial membrane.
Movable bones are features of the sense organs associated with
A
sight.
B
hearing.
C
taste.
D
smell.
E
touch.
Which of the following has receptors for ultraviolet light?
A
bears
B
bees
C
birds
D
reptiles
E
amphibians
Eyes are
A
chemoreceptors.
B
mechanoreceptors.
C
photoreceptors.
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D
nocireceptors.
E
none of these
The layer of the eye where photoreceptors are located is the
A
lens.
B
cornea.
C
pupil.
D
iris.
E
retina.
The dark middle layer of the eye that prevents the scattering of light is the
A
fovea.
B
retina.
C
sclera.
D
choroid.
E
cornea.
Accommodation involves the ability to
A
change the sensitivity of the rods and cones by means of neurotransmitters.
B
change the curvature of the cornea.
C
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change the width of the lens by contracting or relaxing certain muscles.
D
adapt to large changes in light intensity.
E
all of these
The outer transparent protective cover of the eyeball is the
A
fovea.
B
retina.
C
sclera.
D
choroid.
E
cornea.
Rods and cones are located in the
A
lens.
B
cornea.
C
pupil.
D
iris.
E
retina.
Rhodopsin is a
A
protein.
B
carbohydrate.
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C
vitamin.
D
steroid.
E
alkaloid.
Four of the five answers listed below are related by a similar sense receptor. Select the exception.
A
touch or pressure
B
olfaction
C
balance (equilibrium)
D
hearing
E
muscle sense
Four of the five answers listed below are somatic senses. Select the exception.
A
light
B
pressure
C
touch
D
temperature
E
pain
Vitamin D is required for __________ metabolism.
A
sulfur
B
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phosphorus
C
calcium
D
potassium
E
zinc
Which of the following is NOT characteristic of the epidermis?
A
stratified epithelium
B
fat for insulation and capillaries
C
keratinocytes
D
stratum corneum
E
melanin pigments
Organisms with external skeletons are exemplified by
A
octopuses and earthworms.
B
mollusks.
C
sea anemones.
D
insects and crabs.
E
vertebrates.
Bones in fingers or toes are called
A
hyoid.
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B
patella.
C
scapula.
D
clavicle.
E
phalanges.
Growth of long bones
A
follows the cartilage model.
B
occurs in the middle at first, then at both ends.
C
is characterized by bone tissue replacing calcified cartilage.
D
is characterized by the persistence of cartilage at both ends of the shaft at the epiphyseal plates until growth stops.
E
all of these
The ability to extend a leg originates from
A
contraction of ligaments and tendons.
B
contraction of a muscle.
C
lengthening of a muscle.
D
combination of push and pull by antagonistic muscle pairs.
Each muscle fiber is also called a
A
muscle.
B
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muscle cell.
C
myofibril.
D
sarcomere.
E
all of these
During muscle contractions,
A
the myofibrils shorten.
B
the actin and myosin filaments slide over each other.
C
the filaments move toward the middle of the sarcomere during contraction and away on relaxation.
D
the muscle fibers thicken.
E
all of these
In their action, muscles would be most like
A
ropes.
B
levers.
C
push rods.
D
screws.
E
hammers.
Which cell does NOT belong with the others?
A
erythrocytes
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B
neutrophils
C
lymphocytes
D
eosinophils
E
monocytes
Which cell is the most abundant in the human body?
A
lymphocytes
B
basophils
C
erythrocytes
D
neutrophils
E
platelets
Human red blood cells
A
have no nucleus.
B
are the primary carriers of carbon dioxide in the blood.
C
are phagocytes.
D
release clotting factors when they are ruptured.
E
are produced in lymphoid organs.
What percent of the total blood volume does plasma normally amount to?
A
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15 to 25
B
33 to 40
C
50 to 60
D
66 to 75
E
about 80
Hemoglobin contains which element?
A
chlorine
B
sodium
C
iron
D
copper
E
magnesium
Type A blood will NOT agglutinate when mixed with
A
type B blood.
B
type A blood.
C
type AB blood.
D
type O blood.
E
types A and AB, but will clump with types B and O.
Which blood type is the universal donor?
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A
A+
B
B
C
AB+
D
AB
E
O
Blood in arteries
A
always travels away from the heart.
B
travels away from the heart only if it is oxygen-rich.
C
always travels toward the heart.
D
travels from the lungs.
E
is always oxygen-rich.
Blood from the body is first received by the heart in the
A
coronary vein.
B
left atrium.
C
right ventricle.
D
right atrium.
E
left ventricle.
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The pacemaker is which of the following nodes?
A
sinoatrial
B
semilunar
C
atrioventricular
D
inferior vena cava
E
superior vena cava
Blood pressure is highest in the
A
aorta.
B
pulmonary artery.
C
capillary bed.
D
subclavian vein.
E
inferior vena cava.
The diastolic pressure for a normal young adult would be
A
60 mm Hg.
B
80 mm Hg.
C
100 mm Hg.
D
120 mm Hg.
E
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140 mm Hg.
Cholesterol is believed to be carried by
A
albumin.
B
high-density lipoproteins.
C
low-density lipoproteins.
D
triglycerides.
E
both high-density and low-density lipoproteins.
Four of the five answers listed below are related by a common property. Select the exception.
A
neutrophil
B
erythrocyte
C
lymphocytes
D
monocyte
E
basophil
Four of the five answers listed below are blood proteins. Select the exception.
A
epinephrine
B
globulin
C
hemoglobin
D
fibrinogen
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E
albumin
Four of the five answers listed below are related by the "type" of blood they carry. Select the exception.
A
pulmonary artery
B
aorta
C
hepatic portal vein
D
inferior vena cava
E
jugular vein
Four of the five answers listed below are characteristics of most veins. Select the exception.
A
blood volume reservoirs
B
contain valves
C
low resistance-transport tubes
D
transport oxygen
E
low blood pressure
Four of the five answers listed below are related by a common feature. Select the exception.
A
A
B
B
C
AB
D
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Rh+
E
O
Four of the five answers listed below are related by a common function. Select the exception.
A
heart
B
spleen
C
thymus
D
tonsils
E
lymph node