BI 200 - Exam #4

BI 200 - Exam #3

Name

Spring 2004

Lab Section

Disclaimer

Consider each question, and answer each in the appropriate format (e.g., multiple choice). You may qualify your answer if you have reservations. If your comments have merit, you may receive partial or full credit.

Multiple Choice - 1 point each

1. Anaerobic respiratory bacteria differ from humans and other aerobic respiratory organisms

A) in their substrate oxidizing pathways

B) in their electron transport chains

C) because they don’t form proton gradients

D) because they don’t contain the enzyme ATPase

2. Lithotrophic bacteria differ from humans and other chemoorganotrophs

A) in their substrate oxidizing pathways

B) in their electron transport chains

C) because they don’t form proton gradients

D) because they don’t contain the enzyme ATPase

3. The following carry out the detrimental activity where nitrate is depleted from soil

A) denitrifying bacteria

B) nitrogen-fixing bacteria

C) nitrifying bacteria

D) enteric bacteria

4. Which type of metabolism is probably the oldest?

A) anaerobic respiration

B) oxygenic photosynthesis

C) aerobic respiration

5. These bacteria have been implicated in the degradation of pollutants like benzene and toluene in anaerobic sediments and groundwater aquifers

A) Paracoccus

B) Enteric bacteria

C) Iron reducing bacteria

D) Hydrogen-oxidizing bacteria

6. Which of the following organisms grows by transferring electrons from acetic acid to Fe3+ (ferric iron)? It is an obligate anaerobe, and produces Fe2+ (ferrous iron) as end product.

A) Gallionella

B) Thiobacillus ferrooxidans

C) Rusticyanin

D) Geobacter

E) Leptothrix

7. Methanogens

A) have a large separation between the electron donating couple and accepting couple

B) fluoresce under ultraviolet light due to chlorophyll

C) are obligate anaerobes

D) are not widely distributed in nature

E) can be found in cows, but not termites

8. Which statement describes the chromosomal content of a typical bacterium?

A) Two copies of a single double-stranded, circular DNA molecule.

B) Two copies of a single double-stranded, circular RNA molecule.

C) One copy of a single double-stranded, circular DNA molecule.

D) Two copies of multiple double-stranded, linear DNA molecules.

9. The inability to ferment lactose is an example of

A) a visible phenotypic marker

B) a differential phenotypic marker

C) a selectable phenotypic marker

D) a heterozygote

10. Resistance to the antibiotic penicillin is an example of

A) a visible phenotypic marker

B) a differential phenotypic marker

C) a selectable phenotypic marker

D) a homozygote

11. A mutant unable to synthesize the amino acid tryptophan is an example of

A) wild type

B) a prototroph

C) an autotroph

D) an auxotroph

12. Which of the following would be the correctly expressed phenotypic and genotypic designation for the mutant described in the previous question?

A) TRP -; trpA

B) Trp+; trpA

C) Trp-; trpA

D) Lac +; TrpA

13. Which of the following is not a means of gene exchange among bacteria?

A) transcription

B) transformation

C) conjugation

D) transduction

14. Genes on plasmids may be responsible for all of the following except:

A) expression of a virulence factor

B) synthesis of ribosome protein

C) synthesis of pili

D) transfer of drug resistance

E) degradation of pollutants

15. In conjugation genes on plasmids are transferred in matings between:

A) two F- strains

B) F+ and F- cells

C) two F+ strains

D) a and b

E) b and c

16. Which of the following is not true about transformation?

A) Viruses are not involved.

B) The process is not sensitive to the enzyme DNase.

C) DNA can be transferred between species.

D) The donor cell must be lysed before transfer can take place.

17. Independent virus particles (virion)

A) do not contain nucleic acids

B) do not carry out metabolism

C) do not contain ribosomes

D) a, b, and c are all true

E) only b and c are true

18. Viruses that infect bacteria are called

A) retroviruses

B) bacteriorhodopsin

C) bacteriochlorophyll

D) bacteriophage

19. Enzymes that bind DNA fit in the

A) major grooveB) minor grooveC) anti-parallel strand

D) stem-loop

20. Viruses may be as small as

A) 0.02 nm

B) 0.02 (m

C) 0.02 mm

D) 0.02 inches

21. The type of bacterial virus which is covalently inserted into its host’s DNA is called

A) an Hfr strain

B) temperate phage

C) macrophage

D) virulent phage

22. A piece of double stranded DNA has 14% Adenine bases. Which of the following would not be true?

A) there would be 36% cytosine in the DNA

B) there would be 14% uracil in the DNA

C) there would be 36% guanine in the DNA

D) none of the above, all are true in the DNA

23. Although uncommon, double stranded RNA “hair pin” or stem loop structures do occur in

A) mRNA

B) tRNA

C) rRNA

D) all of the above

E) none of the above

24. Which of these is not normally competent for transformation?

A) E. coli

B) Bacillus

C) Haemophilus

D) Streptococcus

25. When lysogenized the bacterial host may undergo phage conversion, and

A) is immune to further infection

B) may produce additional toxins as with diptheria and scarlet fever

C) can reproduce indefinitely

D) all of the above

E) none of the above

26. Which are required for recombination?

A) virus

B) Dnase

C) homologous sequenceD) gyrase

27. Transformation is sensitive to

A) virus

B) Dnase

C) homologous sequenceD) gyrase

28. Forced competence can be achieved by

A) ElectroporationB) DnaseC) Ca2+/Cold shockD) A and CE) A, B, and C

29. An archaea that carries out Sulfur oxidation would be

A) Sulfolobus

B) ThiobacillusC) DesulfovibrioD) Beggiatoa

30. A bacterium that carries out Sulfur oxidation at low pH would be

A) Sulfolobus

B) ThiobacillusC) DesulfovibrioD) Beggiatoa

The figure on the left represents which type of virus structure?

A. Complex

B. Icosohedral

C. Enveloped

D. Helical

E. Corona

The name for the individual protein structural subunits is

A. Nucleocapsid

B. Plaque

C. Retrovirus

D. Capsid

E. Capsomere

The plate on the left is an example of a

A. Tissue culture

B. Replica plate

C. Plaques Assay

D. Eclipse period

E. Prototroph

The diagram on the left would represent substrate oxidation by

A. Hydrogenobacter

B. E. coli

C. Thiobacillus ferroxidans

D. Desulfovibrio

E. a denitrifier

The type of metabolism is

A. FermentationB. Photosynthesis

C. Aerobic Respiration

D. Anaerobic Respiration

The diagram on the left would represent metabolism by

A. Nitrosomonas

B. E. coli

C. Nitrosococcus

D. Lactobacillus

E. a denitrifier

The type of metabolism is

A. Fermentation

B. Photosynthesis

C. Aerobic Respiration

D. Anaerobic Respiration

This metabolic process is important in

A. Acid Mine Drainage

B. Acid Rain

C. Agriculture

D. Degradation of pollutants in the ocean

The diagram above depicts

A. TransductionB. CuringC. TransformationD. Conjugation

After the events in the figure above

A. Both cells are female

B. Both cells are male

C. The cells are clones

D. The cells are cured

The structures inside the bacterium above are sulfur granules and may occur in all but

A. DesulfovibrioB. ThoibacillusC. Beggiatoa

Complete the following narrative by circling the word or phrase in each bold faced parenthesis that most accurately completes the statement. (1 point each).

The viruses that infect vertebrates have (RNA, DNA, either RNA or DNA, protein only) as their genetic material. They often are “cloaked” in an envelope made of (phospholipids, capsomeres, either RNA or DNA, peptidoglycan) that was taken from their host. Many are icosohedral, such as parvovirus, while others are helical like (Kuru, HIV, picornovirus, orthomyxovirus). The largest of the viruses is (pox, corona virus, picornavirus, T4). An example of a zoonoses is (parvovirus, rhinovirus, rhabdovirus, small pox), which has several different animal hosts. Papilloma viruses such as (Mu, HIV, hepatitis A, HPV) can cause certain types of cancers including cervical cancer and (skin, breast, liver, hair) cancer. Herpes viruses include that cause fever blisters, cold sores, genital warts, chicken pox, and (hepatitis, phage conversion, mononucleosis, AIDS). The mode of infection exhibited by herpes viruses is (tumorogenic, latent, persistent, lytic). (HIV, Ebola, Epstien-Barr, T4) is an example of a lytic animal virus. The viral disease with the highest mortality rate is (SARS corona virus, influenzae, Norwalk rotavirus, Ebola hemorrhagic fever), while the one responsible for the most human death in the twentieth century is (AIDS, orthomyxovirus, small pox, polio). Fortunately (polio, HIV, small pox, rabies) has been essentially eliminated from the face of the Earth by an extensive program of (vaccination, vaccination, vaccination, vaccination). Vaccination has led to a great reduction in the number of cases of (polio, HIV, Ebola, HPV) in the United States.

2 points each. Fill in the blank from the proteins, enzymes, RNAs, or other complexes listed on this page. There may be more than one correct answer, and you may use an answer more than once, but put only one answer for each.

1._______________________________

Binds DNA in major groove

2._______________________________

Found only in eukaryotes

3._______________________________

Found only in prokaryotes

4._______________________________

Target of ciproflxin

5._______________________________

Responsible for DNA replication in bacteria

6._______________________________

Recognizes beginning of bacterial operons

7._______________________________

Unique to retroviruses

8._______________________________

Introduces supercoiling in bacteria, makes double-strand breaks

9._______________________________

Found in both eukaryotes and prokaryotes

10.______________________________

Necessary for homologous recombination

11.______________________________

Last enzyme expressed in T4 infection

12.______________________________

Contains exons and introns

13.______________________________α2ββ’

14.______________________________

Your least favorite DNA binding protein

15.______________________________

Your favorite DNA binding protein

16S S rRNA

70S Ribosome

80S Ribosome

Capsomere

Core enzyme of RNA polymerase

DNA pol I

DNA pol III

DNase

Histone

Lysozyme

primary transcript

RecA

Reverse transcriptase

Sigma factor of RNA polymerase

Single stranded binding protein

Topoisomerase I

Topoisomerase II (gyrase)

tRNA

DNA Ligase

For each of the following features of information flow in cells, indicate if each occurs predominantly in prokaryotes (pro), eukaryotes (euk), or both?

1. ____________ DNA

2. ____________ Nucleus

3. ____________ Satellite DNA

4. ____________ Operons

5. ____________ Introns

6. ____________ Sigma factor

7. ____________ Primary transcript

8. ____________ tRNA

9. ____________ 80S Ribosome

10. ____________ 16S Small sub unit rRNA

Match the key biochemical or cell feature that with the type of microorganism in (or on) which it might be found. (1 point each)

A. Hydrogen oxidixing chemolithotroph

B. Fluorescent Methanogenic bacterium

C. Sulfate reducing bacterium

D. Any autotrophic bacterium

E. Iron reducing bacterium

F. NH3 oxidizing Nitrosomonas

G. Iron oxidizing T. ferroxydans

H. Escherichia coli

_____ Dissimilatory Nitrate Reductase

_____ F420

_____ Carboxysome

_____ Ammonium monooxygenase (AMO)

_____ Hydrogenase

_____ Rustcyanin

_____ Menaquinone

_____ APS and Cytochrome c3

Match the gene name with trait or activity it is associated with. (1 point each)

A. ori

B. recA

C. lacZ

D. trpE

E. tra

F. tetA

_____ synthesis of tryptophan

_____ homologous recombination

_____ pilus synthesis

_____ resistance to tetracycline

_____ the origin of replication

_____ β-galactosidase

Double bonus (10 points). Describe the time course of events in T4 infection. Using the time line below, indicate when the early and late genes are transcribed and translated. What are those proteins, and what are their functions? When is the DNA replicated? Make a separate list of the five stages of lytic infection.

O minutes

25 minutes