B Y JU ’ S A l l I n d i a M o ck B o a r d E xa m s

BYJU’S All India Mock Board Exams

CBSE Grade X - Term 1 2021-22

Mock Papers Set -1

TABLE OF CONTENTS

SAMPLE PAPERS 1 MATHEMATICS 2 SCIENCE 24 SOCIAL SCIENCE 53

ANSWER KEYS 75 MATHEMATICS 76 SCIENCE 77 SOCIAL SCIENCE 78

SOLUTIONS 79 MATHEMATICS 80 SCIENCE 116 SOCIAL SCIENCE 162

SAMPLE PAPERS

1

BYJU’S All India Mock Board Exams

CBSE Grade X - Term 1 2021 – 2022

Mock Papers Set - 1 MATHEMATICS

Time Allowed: 90 minutes Maximum Marks: 40

Instructions: 1. The question paper contains three sections. 2. Section A has 20 questions. Attempt any 16 questions. 3. Section B has 20 questions. Attempt any 16 questions. 4. Section C has 10 questions. Attempt any 8 questions. 5. All questions carry equal marks (0.8 each) 6. There is no negative marking.

Section - A Section - A consists of 20 questions. Attempt only 16 questions from this section. The first 16 questions attempted would be evaluated.

Q1 The decimal expansion of an irrational number is:

A. Terminating and recurring B. Non-terminating and recurring C. Terminating and non-recurring D. Neither terminating nor recurring

Q2 ___ 1

𝑠𝑖𝑛 2 θ− 1 =

A. 𝑐𝑜𝑡 2 θ

B. 𝑐𝑜𝑠 2 θ

C. 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐 2 θ

D. 𝑡𝑎𝑛 2 θ

2

Q3 The cricket coach of a school purchases 3 bats and 10 balls for ₹ 3,100. After a few days, he had to purchase 1 bat and 5 balls for ₹ 1,200. The price of each bat is ₹ ____.

A. 500 B. 700 C. 625 D. 750

Q4 Which of the following is not a rule of similarity of triangles?

A. AA B. SAS C. SSS D. ASA

Q5 If a coin is tossed three times, the probability of getting at least 2 heads is ___.

A. 5 8

B. 3 8

C. 7 8

D. 1 8

3

Q6

The radius of the circle shown in the figure is 1 unit. The area of the major and minor segments is _____ and _____, respectively.

A. 3 π 6 𝑎𝑛𝑑 π

6

B. π 6 𝑎𝑛𝑑 5 π

6

C. 5 π 6 𝑎𝑛𝑑 π

6

D. π 6 𝑎𝑛𝑑 3 π

6

Q7 The distance between points (3, 3) and (-1, 6) is ___ units.

A. 4 B. 7 C. 5 D. 6

Q8 A polynomial cuts the x-axis at (2, 0) and the y-axis at (0, 6). The 𝑓 ( 𝑥 ) = 6 − 3 𝑥 zero of the given polynomial is: 𝑓 ( 𝑥 )

A. 6 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

4

Q9

From the given triangle, __ 𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝐴 𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝐴 =

A. 12 5

B. 5 13

C. 0 D. 1

Q10 If a circular swimming pool is enlarged and its circumference is doubled, then the area becomes _____ times the initial area.

A. 2 B. 4 C. 3 D. π

5

Q11 The prime factorisation of 360 is:

A. 3 2 × 4 × 10

B. 2 × 3 2 × 4 × 5

C. 2 3 × 3 2

× 5

D. 2 3 × 9 × 5

Q12

In the given figure, AB = 3 units, BC = 4 units, and CD = 12 units. Also, and ∠ 𝐴𝐵𝐶 are right angles. The length of the side AD = ___ units ∠ 𝐴𝐶𝐷

A. 15 B. 13 C. 12 D. 14

6

Q13 The lines and are _______. 2 𝑥 − 3 𝑦 + 5 = 0 − 4 𝑥 + 6 𝑦 + 5 = 0

A. parallel B. coinciding C. intersecting D. perpendicular

Q14 The LCM of 21, 35, and 40 is ___.

A. 720 B. 840 C. 850 D. 950

Q15 P and Q are the points of trisection of a straight line AB, as shown in the figure. The coordinates of P are:

A. ( 1 3 ,

5 3 )

B. ( 5 3 ,

1 3 )

C. ( 5 3 ,

4 3 )

D. ( 4 3 ,

5 3 )

Q16 The number of solutions of the pair of equations and 2 𝑥 − 3 𝑦 + 7 = 0 is: − 4 𝑥 + 6 𝑦 − 14 = 0

A. One B. Zero C. Two D. Infinite

Q17 The coordinates of the point that divides the line joining the points (2, 0) and (0, 3) in the ratio 1:2 are ____.

7

A. ( 1 , 1 3 )

B. ( 1 , 2 3 )

C. ( 2 3 , 1 )

D. ( 1 3 , 1 )

Q18 If are zeros of the polynomial , then α, β, γ 2 𝑥 2 + 3 𝑥 3 − 15 𝑥 + 12 = 0 ___ αβ + βγ + γα =

A. − 15 2

B. 15 2

C. -5 D. 5

Q19 - - __ 𝑠𝑒𝑐 2 θ + 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐

2 θ − 𝑠𝑖𝑛 2 θ 𝑐𝑜𝑡 2 θ 𝑐𝑜𝑠 2 θ − 𝑡𝑎𝑛 2 θ =

A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. -1

8

Q20 A bag contains 2 white, 3 blue, and 4 black balls. When a ball is drawn at random, the probability of drawing a blue or a black ball is ___.

A. 2 9

B. 3 9

C. 7 9

D. 1

Section - B Section - B consists of 20 questions (21 to 40). Attempt only 16 questions from this section. The first 16 questions attempted would be evaluated.

Q21 Which of the following is a polynomial?

A. 5 𝑥 − 1 + 4 + 3 𝑥 + 2 𝑥 2 + 𝑥

B. 10 𝑥 4 + 5 𝑥 2 + 3

C. 3 𝑥 3 4 + 2 𝑥 2 + 𝑥

1 2

9

D. 𝑥 2 + 𝑥 + 1 𝑥

Q22 The probability that it will rain today is 0.4. The probability that it will not rain today is _____.

A. 0.1 B. 0.3 C. 0.6 D. 0.7

Q23 The perimeter of a rectangle is 12 units, and its length is twice its breadth. Which of the following graphical solutions represents the dimensions of the rectangle correctly?

A.

B.

10

C.

D.

Q24 The centre of a square ABCD is located at (2, 3), and the vertex D is located at (5, 6). The coordinates of the vertex exactly opposite to D are ___.

A. (-1, 0) B. (2, 1) C. (-1, 4) D. (4, -1)

11

Q25

The area of the shaded region if the radius of the arc is 2 units is ____ square units.

A. 2 π 3

B. 2 π 3 − 3

C. - 3 2 π 3

D. π 3 − 3

Q26 The LCM of two co-primes is ___.

A. 𝑃𝑟𝑜𝑑𝑢𝑐𝑡 𝑜𝑓 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑛𝑢𝑚𝑏𝑒𝑟𝑠 2

B. 𝑃𝑟𝑜𝑑𝑢𝑐𝑡 𝑜𝑓 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑛𝑢𝑚𝑏𝑒𝑟𝑠 3

C. 𝐻𝐶𝐹 × 𝑃𝑟𝑜𝑑𝑢𝑐𝑡 𝑜𝑓 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑛𝑢𝑚𝑏𝑒𝑟𝑠 2

D. 𝑃𝑟𝑜𝑑𝑢𝑐𝑡 𝑜𝑓 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑛𝑢𝑚𝑏𝑒𝑟𝑠

12

Q27 The area of is 25 sq. units, and A side of is 3 units, and ∆ 𝐴𝐵𝐶 ∆ 𝐴𝐵𝐶 ∼ ∆ 𝑃𝑄𝑅 . ∆ 𝐴𝐵𝐶 the corresponding side of is 9 units. The area of is ____ sq. units. ∆ 𝑃𝑄𝑅 ∆ 𝑃𝑄𝑅

A. 225 B. 250 C. 200 D. 175

Q28 ____ 𝑠𝑒𝑐 θ 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐 θ =

A. 𝐻𝑦𝑝𝑜𝑡𝑒𝑛𝑢𝑠𝑒 𝐴𝑑𝑗𝑎𝑐𝑒𝑛𝑡 𝑠𝑖𝑑𝑒 𝑜𝑓 θ

B. 𝑂𝑝𝑝𝑜𝑠𝑖𝑡𝑒 𝑠𝑖𝑑𝑒 𝑜𝑓 θ 𝐻𝑦𝑝𝑜𝑡𝑒𝑛𝑢𝑠𝑒

C. 𝐴𝑑𝑗𝑎𝑐𝑒𝑛𝑡 𝑠𝑖𝑑𝑒 𝑜𝑓 θ 𝑂𝑝𝑝𝑜𝑠𝑖𝑡𝑒 𝑠𝑖𝑑𝑒 𝑜𝑓 θ

D. 𝑂𝑝𝑝𝑜𝑠𝑖𝑡𝑒 𝑠𝑖𝑑𝑒 𝑜𝑓 θ 𝐴𝑑𝑗𝑎𝑐𝑒𝑛𝑡 𝑠𝑖𝑑𝑒 𝑜𝑓 θ

Q29 ____ 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐 𝐴 ( 1 − 𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝐴 )( 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐 𝐴 + 𝑐𝑜𝑡 𝐴 ) =

A. 𝑠𝑖𝑛 45 0

B. 𝑐𝑜𝑠 45 0

C. 𝑡𝑎𝑛 45 0

D. 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐 45 0

Q30 Krishna covered 46 km in total by rowing upstream for 7 hours and downstream for 3 hours. If the speed of the stream is 1 kmph, then the upstream speed of Krishna is _____ kmph.

A. 6 B. 5 C. 3 D. 4

Q31 β = , then = 𝑡𝑎𝑛 1

3

2 sin 𝛽 − 3 cos 𝛽 3 sin 𝛽 + 3 cos 𝛽

A. 1 6

B. − 1 6

13

C. 1 4

D. − 1 4

Q32 The HCF of 45 and 60 is ___.

A. 5 B. 20 C. 12 D. 15

Q33 The point on the y-axis which is equidistant from the points (1, 3) and (-1, 5) is ___.

A. (4.0) B. (-4,0) C. (0,-4) D. (0,4)

Q34 In a rectangular swimming pool, Raj takes 8 minutes to reach the other end and return to the starting point, while Kushal takes 12 minutes for the same. Suppose that they start at the same time and the same end of the pool. How many minutes later will they meet at the starting point?

A. 36 minutes B. 30 minutes C. 24 minutes D. 46 minutes

Q35 The ratio in which the point ( ) divides the line joining the points (1, 1) and (3, 5 3 ,

− 1 3

-3) is ___.

A. 2:1 B. 1:3 C. 1:2 D. 3:1

Q36 The solution of the pair of equations and is: 2 𝑥 + 3

𝑦 = 18 5 𝑥 − 2

𝑦 = 7

A. and y = 𝑥 = 1 3

1 4

14

B. and y = 𝑥 = 1 4

1 3

C. and y = 𝑥 = 1 4

1 5

D. and y = 𝑥 = 1 5

1 4

Q37

In the given figure, the area of the shaded region if the side of the square is 1 unit is ____ sq. units.

A. π − 1 B. 2 π − 1 C. 2 π D. 2 π + 1

Q38 The difference between zeros of a quadratic polynomial is 3, and their product is 10. If both the zeros are positive, then the quadratic polynomial is:

A. 𝑥 2 − 7 𝑥 + 10

B. 𝑥 2 − 3 𝑥 + 10

C. 𝑥 2 − 2 𝑥 + 5

D. 𝑥 2 − 5 𝑥 + 10

15

Q39

In the given figure, the triangle is equilateral in nature and has a side equal to 1 unit. The area of the incircle is ____ sq. units.

A. π 3

B. π 4

C. π 2

D. π 12

Q40 A whole number is chosen between 4 and 50 (including 4 and 50). The probability that the number chosen is a prime number is _____ and that the number is not a prime number is ____.

A. and 13 47

34 47

B. and 12 47

35 47

C. and 11 47

36 47

D. None of the above

Section - C Section - C consists of 10 questions (41 to 50). Attempt only 10 questions from this section. The first 8 questions attempted would be evaluated.

16

Case Aditya takes a cab to go to the office and gym every day, which are 6 km and 4 km away from his home, respectively. The cabs charge him ₹110 on his ride from his home to the office and ₹80 from his home to the gym.

One day, Aditya decides to understand the pricing of this cab company and realises that it follows the structure of linear equations in two variables. He notices that there are two variables (x, y): a fare that is fixed for all rides independent of how much distance is travelled (x) and a fare that is dependent on the distance travelled (y).

Q41 Which of the following represents Aditya’s cab trip to his gym?

A. 4 𝑦 = 6 𝑥 B. 4 𝑥 + 6 𝑦 = 190 C. 𝑥 + 4 𝑦 = 80 D. 𝑥 + 6 𝑦 = 80

Q42 Which of the following represents Aditya’s cab trip to his office?

A. 6 𝑦 = 4 𝑥 B. 6 𝑥 + 4 𝑦 = 190 C. 𝑥 + 4 𝑦 = 110 D. 𝑥 + 6 𝑦 = 110

Q43 What is the value of the fixed fare and the varying fare for Aditya’s rides?

A. ₹30, ₹15/km B. ₹30, ₹12.5/km C. ₹20, ₹15/km D. ₹40, ₹10/km

17

Q44 After his calculations, Aditya wanted to test the equation and decided to go to a zoo that was 9 km away. What would the price of his ride be?

A. ₹155 B. ₹140 C. ₹185 D. ₹160

Q45 Happy with his calculations, Aditya went by cab for a few more days. One day, he saw that the fare had increased. His cab now charged him ₹10 more for the gym and ₹14 more for his office. How much would a trip to the zoo cost Aditya with this new fare?

A. ₹157 B. ₹173 C. ₹175 D. ₹193

18

Case A waterpark is constructing a 40-metre-long water slide. The engineers planned it to come down in one single straight line from a height of 24 metres. The slide was also supposed to have two supporting towers underneath perpendicular to the ground. The first tower was constructed at one of the edges of the slide.

19

Q46 What is the height of the second tower if it stands at a distance of 24 metres from point A?

A. 18 m B. 16 m C. 12 m D. 10 m

Q47 In the previous question, what is the length of the portion of the slide from the second tower to the ground (AP)?

A. 32 m B. 36 m C. 24 m D. 30 m

Q48 What is the ratio of the area of ΔABC to the area of ΔAPQ?

A. 4:3 B. 16:9 C. 3:4 D. 9:16

20

Q49 The engineers also decided to add an adventure ladder to get to the top of this slide. If the angle made by the ladder with the first supporting tower would be the same as the angle made by the slide to the ground, which of the following is true?

A. ΔBCD ~ ΔACB B. ΔBCD ~ ΔABC C. ΔBDC ~ ΔACB D. ΔBDC ~ ΔABD

Q50 In the scenario of question 49, what would be the length of the ladder?

A. 30 m B. 32 m C. 36 m D. 40 m

21

BYJU’S All India Mock Board Exams CBSE Grade X - Term 1

2021 – 2022 Mock Paper Set - 1

SCIENCE Time Allowed: 90 minutes Maximum Marks: 40

Instructions: 1. The question paper contains three sections. 2. Section A has 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions. 3. Section B has 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions. 4. Section C has 12 questions. Attempt any 10 questions. 5. All questions carry equal marks (0.8 each). 6. There is no negative marking.


Q1 Which of the following is the most suitable way to dilute concentrated acid?

A. Add water to the acid slowly with constant stirring. B. Add water to the acid slowly with constant heating. C. Add the acid to water slowly with constant heating. D. Add the acid to water slowly with constant stirring.

Q2 Based on the information provided in the given statements, arrange the following elements in an increasing order of their reactivity. Statement 1: Potassium reacts with cold water to produce potassium hydroxide. Statement 2: Aluminium on treatment with steam gives aluminium oxide. Statement 3: Copper does not react with cold water or steam.

A. K < Cu < Al B. Cu < Al < K C. Cu < K < Al D. K < Al < Cu

22

Q3 An acid X is made to react with a base Y. The reaction produces a salt that turns phenolphthalein solution pink. Which of the following options correctly represents X and Y?

A. X = HNO 3 , Y = NaOH B. X = CH 3 COOH, Y = NH 4 OH C. X = HCl, Y = Cu(OH) 2

D. X = CH 3 COOH, Y = NaOH

Q4 Adding a substance X to the beaker shown completes the given electric circuit. Identify X.

A. C 2 H 5 OH(aq) B. KOH(aq) C. C 6 H 12 O 6 (aq) D. C 2 H 4 (aq)

Q5 Which of the following options represents a pair of oxides correctly matched with their respective nature?

A. CO 2 , Na 2 O [Acidic oxide] B. CaO, Al 2 O 3 [Basic oxide] C. Al 2 O 3 , ZnO [Amphoteric oxide] D. H 2 O, K 2 O [Neutral oxide]

23

Q6 A compound D, used in bakeries for making cakes soft and spongy, reacts with hydrochloric acid as per the given reaction.

D + Hydrochloric acid → Salt + Water + Gas T

Which of the given options correctly represents compound D and gas T, respectively?

A. Na 2 SO 3 , SO 2

B. Na 2 SO 4 , SO 2 C. NaHCO 3 , CO 2 D. Na 2 CO 3 , CO 2

Q7 Quicklime reacts with water to produce slaked lime. Identify the type of reaction and the nature of slaked lime.

Option Type of reaction Nature of slaked lime

A. Combination Acidic

B. Combination Basic

C. Decomposition Basic

D. Decomposition Acidic

Q8 The reaction of iron with steam takes place as follows: xFe(s) + yH 2 O(g) → pFe 3 O 4 (s) + qH 2 (g)

For the equation to be balanced, what will be the value of (x + y + p + q)?

A. 7 B. 12 C. 24 D. 14

24

Q9 Consider the following reactions: (i) KI(aq) + Pb(NO 3 ) 2 (aq) → (ii) NaOH(aq) + CuSO 4 (aq) → (iii) NaCl(aq) + AgNO 3 (aq) → (iv) BaCl 2 (aq) + Na 2 SO 4 (aq) →

Which of the given cases will form a white precipitate?

A. (i) and (ii) B. (ii) and (iii) C. (iii) and (iv) D. (i) and (iv)

Q10 Which of the following statements is correct for the given reaction? 2HNO 3 (aq) + Ca(OH) 2 (aq) → Ca(NO 3 ) 2 (aq) + H 2 O(l)

A. The reaction follows the law of conservation of mass. B. The mass of reactants is not equal to the mass of products. C. The number of atoms of all the elements is the same on the reactant

and product sides. D. The amount of calcium by mass is more on the reactant side as

compared to the product side.

25

Q11 Observe the given image:

The correct sequence of the path of oxygen-rich blood through the body is:

A. Lungs → Pulmonary vein → Left atrium → Left ventricle → Aorta → Body cells

B. Lungs → Pulmonary artery → Right atrium → Right ventricle → Vena cava → Body cells

C. Lungs → Pulmonary artery → Left atrium → Left ventricle → Vena cava → Body cells

D. Lungs → Pulmonary vein → Right atrium → Right ventricle → Aorta → Body cells

26

Q12 The given image shows bread mould growing on a piece of bread. How do these bread moulds obtain nutrition?

A. By using nutrients from the bread to prepare their own food B. By allowing other organisms to grow on the bread and then consuming

them C. By breaking down the nutrients of bread and then absorbing them D. By directly ingesting the bread on which they are growing

Q13 The function of the glomerulus and Bowman’s capsule of the nephron is to:

A. Reabsorb water into the blood B. Eliminate ammonia from the body C. Reabsorb salts and amino acids D. Filter the blood and collect the filtrate

27

Q14 Study the diagram of the human digestive system. Select the option that correctly identifies the part and its function/characteristics.

A. (i) Oesophagus : Mixes food with digestive juices B. (ii) Appendix : Produces and stores bile C. (iii) Stomach : Site of complete digestion of carbohydrates, proteins,

and fats D. (iv) Pancreas : Releases juice that helps in breakdown of proteins and

fats

28

Q15 The given image represents an activity to prove the requirements for photosynthesis. During this activity, two healthy potted plants are kept in the dark for about 72 hours. After 72 hours, potassium hydroxide (which absorbs CO 2 ) is kept in the watch glass in setup (i). Both of these setups are air-tight and have been kept in light for 6 hours. After this, dilute iodine solution (brown in colour) is added to one leaf from each of the two plants (i) and (ii).

What results will we get on performing the starch iodine test on the leaf of plant (i) and plant (ii), respectively?

Option Plant (i) Plant (ii)

A Blue-black Brown

B Brown Blue-black

C Blue-black Blue-black

D Brown Brown

29

Q16 Observe the diagram of the human respiratory system.

Match the labelling in column I and correlate them with the functions in column II.

Column I Column II

i. a) Contracts and moves downwards during inhalation

ii. b) Ensures that the air passage does not collapse.

iii. c) Moves upwards and outwards during inhalation

iv. d) Provides a surface where the exchange of gases can take place

A. i. – a); ii. – b); iii. – c); iv. – d) B. i. – b); ii. – c); iii. – d); iv. – a) C. i. – b); ii. – a); iii. – d); iv. – c) D. i. – d); ii. – a); iii. – b); iv. – c)

30

Q17 Identify the type of mirror used in the given figure.

A. Concave B. Convex C. Plane D. None of the above

Q18 Where should an object be placed in front of a convex lens to get a real image of the same size as the object?

A. At the principal focus of the lens B. At twice the focal length C. At infinity D. Between the optical centre of the lens and the principal focus

31

Q19 Choose the correct ray diagram for the given incident ray.

A.

B.

C.

D.

32

Q20 The refractive index of air, water, diamond, and crown glass is 1.0003, 1.33, 2.42, and 1.52, respectively. In which medium would the speed of light be the slowest?

A. Air B. Water C. Diamond D. Crown glass

Q21 While doing the prism experiment, Rakesh passed a monochromatic light through the prism. Which of the following phenomena will he observe?

A. Dispersion B. Refraction C. Reflection D. Both refraction and dispersion

Q22 A concave mirror of radius of curvature R produces a real image n times the size of the object. The distance of the object from the mirror is:

A. − 2 ( 𝑛 − 1 ) 𝑅 B.

−( 𝑛 − 1 ) 2 𝑛 𝑅

C. −( 𝑛 + 1 ) 𝑅

2 𝑛

D. −( 𝑛 + 1 )

2 𝑅

Q23 When light enters from medium P to medium Q, the value of is less than

𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝑖 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑟

1, which means:

A. P is optically denser than Q. B. Q is optically denser than P. C. P and Q have the same optical density. D. P and Q are opaque.

33

Q24 If white light falls on the system arranged in the given manner, what will be the colour of the light coming from the third prism?

A. Only yellow colour B. Seven different colours C. Only red colour D. Only violet colour


Q25 A food safety officer is given the responsibility to prepare two compounds X and Y. Compound X will be used for curdling of milk to produce cheese, while compound Y will be used to produce antacids. Identify the correct reagents from the given table to manufacture X and Y, respectively.

Reagent pH

P 2

Q 7

R 5

S 8

A. P and R B. Q and R C. R and S D. S and P

34

Q26 A gardener analyses a soil sample before using it to grow Brussels sprouts. The pH of the soil is 4.5. It is unsuitable for growing the crop in the current state since the optimum pH range for the growth of Brussels sprouts is between 6 and 7.5. Which of the following salts can be added to the soil to make it fit for growth?

A. X B. Y C. P D. Q

Q27 A school is planning to install a bell on the campus. The administration has listed down its requirements as follows:

1. The bell should be loud enough for the entire school to hear it. 2. It should be strong and durable. 3. It should be shiny so as to impart a good look to it.

Which of the following materials can be used to manufacture the bell?

A. Copper B. Ceramic C. Sodium D. Plastic

35

Q28 Upon heating, a salt S produces compound X, water, and a gas Y according to the following reaction:

Salt S belongs to the sodium family and gives a blue colour with the universal indicator. X on treatment with water forms washing soda. Y is a gas that turns limewater milky. Based on the given information, select the correct option that represents S, X, and Y.

Option S X Y

A. NaCl NaOCl 2 Cl 2

B. Na 2 CO 3 NaHCO 3 CO 2

C. NaHCO 3 Na 2 CO 3 CO 2

D. CH 3 COONa Na 2 CO 3 CO 2

Q29 Which of the following equations represents a redox reaction?

A. NaOH + HCl → NaCl + H 2 O B. CuO + H 2 → Cu + H 2 O C. Na 2 SO 4 + BaCl 2 → 2NaCl + BaSO 4

D. NH 4 OH + CH 3 COOH → CH 3 COONH 4 + H 2 O

36

Q30 Study the given reactions and their characteristics provided in the table. (i) MN + S → MS + NS - Heat (ii) P + Q → PQ + Heat

Observation Reaction (i) Reaction (ii)

a Combination Exothermic

b Endothermic Exothermic

c Endothermic Combination

Which of the following options represents the correct observation(s)? A. a B. b C. Both b and c D. Both a and c

Questions 31 to 34 consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Answer these questions by selecting the appropriate options given below: A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A. B. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A. C. A is true, but R is false. D. A is false, but R is true.

Q31 Assertion: Ionic compounds conduct electricity when dissolved in water. Reason: A solution of an ionic compound contains ions, and the movement of these ions conducts electricity.

Q32 Assertion: An unknown element Y is treated with water to produce a gas Z that is collected by downward displacement of water. Reason: Z is less dense than water and turns limewater milky.

Q33 Assertion: In the human heart, there is no mixing of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood. Reason: Valves present in the heart allow the movement of blood in one direction.

Q34 Assertion: The sky appears dark instead of blue to an astronaut. Reason: Scattering of sunlight cannot happen in outer space due to the absence of the atmosphere.

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Q35 A beaker contains a solution of cold water and a colourless substance P. On adding element X to the solution, there is a violent reaction and the solution turns pink. Which of the following options correctly represents the substances P and X and the nature of the product formed?

Option P X Nature of product

A. Phenolphthalein Copper Acidic

B. Phenolphthalein Potassium Basic

C. Universal indicator

Copper Basic

D. Universal indicator

Potassium Acidic

Q36 Among the following, choose the correct option that includes the organisms that have a holozoic mode of nutrition.

A. Plasmodium and Amoeba B. Cuscuta and Paramoecium C. Plasmodium and Cuscuta D. Paramoecium and Amoeba

Q37 Choose the event that does not occur in photosynthesis.

A. Absorption of light energy by chlorophyll B. Reduction of carbon dioxide to carbohydrates C. Oxidation of carbon to carbon dioxide D. Conversion of light energy into chemical energy

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Q38 Which substances are produced during anaerobic respiration in yeast?

Option Carbon dioxide

Alcohol Lactic acid Water

A. Yes Yes No No

B. Yes No Yes No

C. No Yes No Yes

D. No No Yes Yes

Q39 If lens A has a focal length +15 cm and lens B has a focal length +30 cm, find the lens that has more power.

A. Lens A has more power. B. Lens B has more power. C. Both the lenses have the same power. D. The power of the lenses cannot be determined.

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Q40 Three concave mirrors are cut from a sphere and are placed in such a way that the Sun (which is at infinity) lies on the principal axis of mirror 2. What will be the position of the image(s) formed by these three mirrors?

A. At F 1 , F 2 , and F 3

B. At C C. At P 1 , P 2 , and P 3

D. At F 2 only

Q41 Choose the forms in which most plants absorb nitrogen. (i) Proteins (ii) Nitrates and nitrites (iii) Urea (iv) Atmospheric nitrogen


40

Q42 If saliva contains less amount of salivary amylase, then which of the following events will be adversely affected?

A. Proteins breaking down into amino acids B. Starch breaking down into sugars C. Fats breaking down into fatty acids and glycerol D. Absorption of vitamins

Q43 Find the image’s position (v) and magnification (m) produced by the convex lens if the first image formed by the plane mirror is taken as an object for the given convex lens. Here, F 1 is the principal focus of the convex lens.

A. v = 40 cm from the lens and m = -1 B. v = 20 cm from the lens and m = 1 C. v = 30 cm from the lens and m = -1 D. v = 10 cm from the lens and m = 1

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Q44 Which of the following ray diagrams correctly represents the image formation of an object placed between the centre of curvature and the focus of a concave mirror?

A.

B.

C.

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D.

Q45 A ray of light is allowed to pass through three media of absolute refractive indices μ 1 , μ 2 , and μ 3 , respectively as shown (given that ray RS' is parallel to ray PQ). Which of the following is correct?

A. μ 1 > μ 2 > μ 3

B. μ 1 < μ 2 < μ 3

C. μ 1 = μ 3 < μ 2

D. μ 1 < μ 3 < μ 2

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Q46 If the absolute refractive index of a diamond is 2.42, what is the velocity of light in it?

A. 2 . 41 × 10 8 𝑚 / 𝑠 B. 1 . 23 × 10 8 𝑚 / 𝑠 C. 1 . 75 × 10 8 𝑚 / 𝑠 D. 2 . 66 × 10 8 𝑚 / 𝑠

Q47 When viewed using a convex lens, a 10 cm tall candle appears to be 30 cm tall as shown in the figure. The focal length of the lens is 5 cm. What is the object distance?

A. 10 cm B. 1 cm C. 20 cm D. 3.33 cm

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Q48 Certain properties of elements X, Y, and Z are given below.

X Y Z

(a) Reaction with water Forms oxide Forms hydroxide Forms hydroxide

(b) Reaction with CaCl 2 (aq) No reaction Forms metal

chloride No reaction

(c) Melting point High Low High

Identify elements X, Y, and Z, respectively.

A. Zn, Cu, Al B. Fe, Na, Mg C. Fe, Li, Zn D. K, Na, Mg

Section - C Section - C consists of three cases followed by questions. Out of the 12 questions in this section, attempt any 10. The first 10 questions attempted would be evaluated.

Case Odisha is a land of red soil. The red colour of the soil is due to the presence of large deposits of different ores of iron. The abundance of iron in these ores is represented in the table.

Iron ore Formula % Iron

Haematite Fe 2 O 3 70

Magnetite Fe 3 O 4 72

Siderite FeCO 3 48

Iron pyrite FeS 2 47

The extraction of iron from these ores follows different processes.

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Q49 Which of the following elements will form a compound having a chemical formula similar to that of siderite ore?

A. Al B. Sn C. Mg D. Si

Q50 On oxidation, iron pyrite produces a gas that turns moist blue litmus paper red. What will be the pH of an aqueous solution of the gas?

A. 1.1 B. 5.9 C. 7.8 D. 8.6

Q51

Substance A is an iron ore and B is a gas. Which of the following correctly represents A and B?

A. A = Fe 2 O 3 and B = O 2

B. A = Fe 3 O 4 and B = H 2

C. A = Fe 2 O 3 and B = H 2

D. A = Fe 3 O 4 and B = O 2

Q52 Iron can be extracted from siderite ore through the following reaction: FeCO 3 (s) → FeO(s) + CO 2 (g)

Identify the type of reaction. A. Combination B. Decomposition C. Displacement

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D. Double displacement

Case Avinash was running in a marathon. With the finish line in sight, he started running faster. As he was about to reach the line, he got a severe muscle cramp in his leg. This cramp prevented Avinash from running any further and he lost the marathon. Read the above passage carefully and answer the following questions:

Q53 The process that provided most of the energy to Avinash for running the marathon is:

A. Anaerobic respiration B. Aerobic respiration C. Fermentation D. Breathing

Q54 A substance that likely accumulated in Avinash’s leg muscle cells is ______.

A. pyruvate B. ethanol C. carbon dioxide D. lactic acid

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Q55 The given graph represents the amount of energy supplied with respect to the time while an athlete is running at full speed. Study the graph and choose the option that correctly represents plot A and plot B.

Option Plot A Plot B

A. Aerobic Anaerobic

B. Anaerobic Aerobic

C. Anaerobic Anaerobic

D. Aerobic Aerobic

Q56 Which of the following is correct for the process of anaerobic respiration?

Option CO 2 is always produced

A lot of energy is released

A. Yes No

B. No Yes

C. No No

D. Yes Yes

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Case Ram is experimenting with tracing the path of light through a glass slab as shown.

The teacher asked Ram to take the angle of incidence between and 30 ◦ 60 ◦

and ensure that the glass slab does not displace its boundary during the experiment. He tabulated the corresponding values of the angle of refraction (r) and the angle of emergence (e) with different angles of incidence (i).

Ram Reading 1 Reading 2 Reading 3 Reading 4

∠i 30 ◦ 32 ◦ 40 ◦ 35 ◦

∠r 18 ◦ 20 ◦ 24 ◦ 20 . 5 ◦

∠e 30 ◦ 32 ◦ 40 ◦ 37 ◦

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Q57 The teacher now asked Ram to make a setup where the emergent ray coming out from glass slab 1 is the incident ray for glass slab 2. If both the glass slabs have the same refractive index, what will be the angle of emergence (e)?

A. 45 ◦

B. 20 ◦

C. 30 ◦

D. 20 ◦

Q58 The teacher asked Ram to pass the light that travels from medium 1 (air) to medium 2 (glass) such that the angle of incidence is and the angle of 45 ◦

refraction is What will be the refractive index of the second medium with 30 ◦. respect to the first?

A. 1.41 B. 1.50 C. 1.23 D. 1

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Q59 The teacher asked Ram to pass the light at an angle of with respect to the θ glass slab such that no refraction takes place. What will be the angle ? θ

A. 45 ◦

B. 90 ◦

C. 30 ◦

D. 70 ◦

Q60 Considering all the four readings, the teacher told Ram that one of his readings is incorrect. Find the incorrect reading.

A. Reading 1 B. Reading 2 C. Reading 3 D. Reading 4

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BYJU’S All India Mock Board Exams CBSE Grade X - Term 1

2021 – 2022 Mock Paper Set - 1 SOCIAL SCIENCE

Time Allowed: 90 minutes Maximum Marks: 40

Instructions: 1. The Question Paper contains four sections. 2. Section A has 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions. 3. Section B has 22 questions. Attempt any 18 questions. 4. Section C has 12 questions (Case based). Attempt any 10 questions. 5. Section D contains 2 Map-based questions. Attempt both the questions. 6. All questions carry equal marks. 7. There is no negative marking

Section - A Attempt any 20 out of 24 questions.

Q1 Which among the following monarchs was requested to be the German King but under the provisions of the Parliament and the Constitution?

A. Emmanuel II B. Guisepo Manzzini C. Friedrich Wilhelm IV D. Louis XVIII

Q2 What was the name of the female character that was used to depict the German nation-state?

A. Marianne B. Germania C. Leopold D. Delacroix

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Q3 Which among the following artists used his paintings to portray his utopian vision of the world, symbolising fraternity among nation-states?

A. Frederic Sorrieu B. Michaelangelo C. Pablo Picaso D. Dante Aleghier

Q4 Who among the following was the mastermind behind the plan to unify Italy?

A. Louis Blanc B. Jacob Grimm C. Camillo de Cavour D. Karol Kurpiński

Q5 The word ‘Liberalism’ has been derived from the Latin word, ‘Liber'. What does Liber mean?

A. Free B. Success C. Captive D. War

Q6 During the second half of the eighteenth century, industries began to develop in ______.

A. France B. England C. Germany D. Russia

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Q7 When does a ‘coming together federation’ get formed?

A. When independent states do not come together but pool their sovereignty voluntarily.

B. When independent states come together, but keep their sovereignty. C. When independent states come together and pool their sovereignty

forcefully. D. When independent states come together and pool their sovereignty

voluntarily.

Q8 Which constitutional amendment introduced municipal councils and corporations in India?

A. 73rd B. 74th C. 75th D. 76th

Q9 Which of the following articles of the Indian Constitution gives special provisions to some states for their development?

A. Article 371 B. Article 271 C. Article 471 D. Article 71

Q10 Which of the following bodies ensures that constitutional provisions are upheld in all laws and policies in India?

A. Executive B. Legislature C. Judiciary D. NITI Aayog

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Q11 When did Sri Lanka gain independence?

A. 1946 B. 1947 C. 1948 D. 1984

Q12 Which of the following can be categorised as an institutional reform?

A. Using high yielding variety seeds B. Using tractors C. Using chemical fertilizers and pesticides D. Reforms in land ownership

Q13 Wildlife belongs to which of the following resources?

A. Individual resources B. Community resources C. National resources D. International resources

Q14 Which among the following is not a step in planning the usage of resources?

A. Identification and inventory of resources. B. Developing infrastructure to harness resources. C. Using resources faster than the rate of replenishment. D. Ensuring the development plans of resources align with the nation’s

development plans.

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Q15 Read the following statements and select the most appropriate option.

Statement 1 (S1): The rate of weathering does not depend on the weather conditions.

Statement 2 (S2): Slopes of mountains contain thicker deposits of weathered rock particles.

A. Both S1 and S2 are true. B. Only S1 is true. C. Only S2 is true. D. Both S1 and S2 are not true.

Q16 What do you mean by technological reforms in agriculture?

A. Advanced methods and modern equipment in farming B. Old methods in farming C. Using hands for farming D. Using sickle for farming


Statement 1 (S1): The oceanic resources beyond 200 nautical miles of the Exclusive Economic Zone are called International Resources.

Statement 2 (S2): International resources can be extracted by a country unilaterally, provided it has a strong navy to defend its infrastructure.


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Q18 Which of the following is covered under the human development report published by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP)?

A. Educational levels, health status, and nutritional levels B. Corruption, happiness levels, and per capita income C. Educational levels, health status, and per capita income D. Educational levels, happiness levels, and per capita income

Q19 Which of the following is the correct meaning of infant mortality rate?

A. The number of children that die before the age of one as a proportion of 1,000 live children born in that particular year.

B. The number of children born in a year as a proportion of 1,000 females born in that particular year.

C. The number of children that die before the age of five as a proportion of 1,000 live children born in a particular year.

D. The number of girls born in a year as a proportion of the number of boys born in that particular year.

Q20 Which of the following best describes life expectancy at birth?

A. The total expected length of life of all people in a country in a particular year.

B. The average expected length of life of a person at the time of birth. C. The average expected number of people crossing 70 years of age in a

particular year. D. The ratio of average expected birth to the average expected deaths in a

country in a particular year.

Q21 Which of the following is an example of a renewable resource?

A. Natural gas B. Crude oil C. Coal D. Groundwater

Q22 Which of the following is an example of primary sector activity?

A. Banking B. Trade C. Mining D. Hair-dressing

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Q23 Which of the following examples fall under the organised sector?

A. A driver of a private bus B. A government school teacher C. A daily wage labourer D. A mechanic who owns a small repair shop

Q24 Which of the following is the motive of a public sector enterprise?

A. Maximising profits B. Social welfare C. Entertainment D. Minimising losses

Section - B

Attempt any 18 out of 22 questions.

Q25 Which of the following option(s) is/are true in the context of the French Revolution?

I. The idea of nationalism developed with the French Revolution in 1789. II. In France, regional dialects were encouraged and French, among

other languages, was adopted as the common language of the nation. III. After the French Revolution, the idea of nationalism spread from France

to the rest of Europe.

Options: A. l and II B. I and III C. Only II D. Only I

Q26 Guiseppe Mazzini was sent into exile for attempting a revolution in 1831 at this place. Identify the place.

Options: A. Berne B. Marseilles C. Genoa D. Liguria

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Q27 This meeting gave way for conservatism in Europe. Identify the correct set of parties that attended the meeting.

Options: A. Britain, Russia, Prussia, Austria B. Switzerland, Greece, Italy, Poland C. Britain, Greece, Prussia, Scotland D. Prussia, Russia, Austria, France

Q28 Which of the following virtues is symbolised by the crown of oak leaves worn by Germania?

Options:

A. Readiness to fight B. Heroism C. Freedom D. Peace

Q29 The Act of Union of 1707 led to which of the following development(s) in England?

I. The formation of the United Kingdom of Great Britain II. Domination of the British Parliament by English members

III. Imposition of Scottish influence on the English IV. Systematic suppression of English culture and political institutions


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Q30 Which among the following statements incorrectly describes the reason as to why the power-sharing agreement succeeded in Belgium?

A. The majority community in Brussels, the French-speaking population, gave proportionate representation to the minority community. B. The views and opinions of both major communities, the French- and Dutch-speaking populations, were respected as their support was required to pass major laws. C. The powers of the central government were decentralised to grant to all the communities the right to govern themselves. D. The minority French-speaking population in the country was equally accommodated in the central government.

Q31 Select the option that incorrectly describes why sharing of power is essential for a government.

A. It helps in conflict resolution. B. It helps in addressing the concerns of minority groups. C. It leads to centralisation of political power in the hands of one individual. D. It gives stability to a government and helps in decision-making.

Q32 Assertion (A): The leaders of the Constituent Assembly insisted on making Hindi the national language.

Reason: (R): More than 50% of India’s population speak Hindi.

Read the above given statements and select the option that is true.

A. Both A and R are false. B. Both A and R are true. C. A is true, but R is false. D. A is false, but R is true.

Q33 What makes the practice of federalism a good example of a power-sharing agreement?

A. It allows different groups to share power vis-a-vis central and state institutions. B. It allows for better policy responses towards pandemics or natural disasters. C. Federal governments have at least two levels of government that allows for sharing powers and responsibilities between different levels of government. D. All the above.

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Q34 Which of the following is/are correct with respect to land resources in India?

I. The percentage of net sown area within the total land area is almost the same in all the states and union territories in India.

II. The forest area of the country is far less than the desired 33 percent of geographical area as outlined in the National Forest Policy, 1952.

III. When compared to 1960 – 61, the current land under non-agricultural uses (including settlements, roads, railways, and industries) has increased significantly.

Options:

A. I and II B. II and III C. Only II D. Only III

Q35 With respect to primitive farming, which of the following statements is/are correct?

I. Primitive subsistence farming is more prominent in eastern and northeastern states.

II. It is a profitable form of farming practice because the input cost is very low.

III. It is widely accepted because of its environmental sustainability.

Options:

A. Only I B. Only II C. I and III D. Only III

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Q36 Match the items given in Column A with those in Column B.

Column A Column B

I. Coffee 1. Assam II. Tea 2. Laterite soil

III. Cashew 3. Regur soil IV. Cotton 4. Karnataka

Choose the correct answer from the following options:

A. I-1, II-4, III-3, IV-2 B. I-4, II-1, III-3, IV-2 C. I-1, II-4, III-2, IV-3 D. I-4, II-1, III-2, IV-3

Q37 Identify the crop which satisfies the given conditions:

I. It is a cash crop. II. It is predominantly grown in Maharashtra, Gujarat, and Madhya

Pradesh. III. It requires 210 frost-free days and bright sunshine for its growth.

Options:

A. Cotton B. Maize C. Wheat D. Rice

Q38 Which of the following is the most appropriate reason for the predominance of cultivation of rabi crops in northern India?

A. Existence of large-scale farmers B. Presence of distinct winter climate C. Market demand of cities D. Availability of huge water resources

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Q39 Two statements are given in the question below as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the appropriate option.

Assertion (A): The idea of development is the same for all the people.

Reason (R): What may be development for some may even be destructive for others.

A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct Solution of A. B. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct Solution of A. C. A is true, but R is false. D. A is false, but R is true.

Q40 Read the following table and question carefully.

Countries Monthly income of its citizens in 2020 (in Rupees)

I II III IV V

Country A 4,000 1,500 12,500 22,000 5,000

Country B 700 600 500 700 42,500

Country C 9,300 9,100 8,700 9,500 8,400

Mohan has job offers from three different countries. He has to choose one of the given countries mentioned in the table. All his offer letters say that he will be paid the average income of the country he chooses to work in. After calculating the average income of the countries, he chooses to work in country B.

Identify the reason for which Mohan has chosen country B.

A. Most of its citizens have a lower income than him. B. The total income of its citizens is higher than the other countries. C. He receives twice the salary offered in country A. D. It has the most equitable distribution of income.

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Q41 Given below is the profile of a person. Read the following data and answer the question.

Name: Sanjay Age: 21 Weight: 32 kg Height: 150 cm

Analyse the data of the person given above and select the most suitable option from the following:

A. BMI of Sanjay is 14.2 kg/m 2 , and he is nourished. B. BMI of Sanjay is 14.2 kg/m 2 , and he is undernourished. C. BMI of Sanjay is 24.2 kg/m 2 , and he is nourished. D. BMI of Sanjay is 24.2 kg/m 2 , and he is overweight.

Q42 Read the following statements. Which of the following practices can help in achieving sustainability in development?

I. Using energy-efficient electric appliances II. Shifting to the use of organic pesticides

III. Increasing the use of fossil fuels IV. Using rainwater harvesting techniques

A. I and II B. I and III C. I, III and IV D. I, II, and IV


Assertion (A): The tertiary sector is the largest producing sector in India. Reason (R): The tertiary sector employs the largest share of the Indian population.


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Q44 Raju dropped out of his higher secondary school to help his mother and father in the field. Though his additional labour made no impact on the farm output, he is proud to be employed. Which type of employment is this?

A. Seasonal employment B. Temporary employment C. Underemployment D. Part-time employment

Q45 The following table gives the contribution to the GDP in rupees (crores) of a country by the three sectors:

Primary sector Secondary sector

Tertiary sector

2010 40,000 70,000 90,000

2020 80,000 1,20,000 3,00,000

Choose the correct option.

A. The share of the tertiary sector in the GDP of the country increased from 45% in 2010 to 60% in 2020.

B. The share of the primary sector in the GDP of the country increased from 16% in 2010 to 20% in 2020.

C. The primary sector of the country is gaining more importance in recent years.

D. The share of the secondary sector in the GDP of the country increased from 35% in 2010 to 24% in 2020.

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Q46 Two statements are given in the question below as Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R).

Read the statements and choose the appropriate option.

Assertion (A): The development of primary and secondary sectors may lead to the development of the tertiary sector. Reason (R): The development of primary and secondary sectors leads to an increase in the demand for services such as transport, communication, trade, banking, storage, and many more.


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Section - C This section consists of two cases. There are a total of 12 questions in this section. Attempt any

10 questions from this section.

Q47-52 are based on this case study

Ideas of national unity in early nineteenth-century Europe were closely allied to the ideology of liberalism. The term ‘liberalism’ derives from the Latin root liber , meaning free. For the new middle classes, liberalism stood for freedom for the individual and equality of all before the law. Politically, it emphasised the concept of government by consent. Since the French Revolution, liberalism stood for the end of autocracy and clerical privileges, a constitution and representative government through parliament. Nineteenth-century liberals also stressed the inviolability of private property.

Yet, equality before law did not necessarily stand for universal suffrage. In revolutionary France, which marked the first political experiment in liberal democracy, the right to vote and to get elected was granted exclusively to property-owning men. Men without property and all women were excluded from political rights. Only for a brief period under the Jacobins did all adult males enjoy suffrage. However, the Napoleonic Code went back to limited suffrage and reduced women to the status of a minor, subject to the authority of fathers and husbands. Throughout the nineteenth and early twentieth centuries, women and non-propertied men organised opposition movements demanding equal political rights.

Q47 For a long time, women in France did not have suffrage rights. A. This statement is true. B. This statement cannot be verified. C. This statement is false. D. It was men in France who never had suffrage rights.

Q48 In post-revolutionary France, the concept of liberalism stood for monarchy. A. This statement is false. B. This is true for the USA at the time, not France. C. This statement is true. D. This statement cannot be verified.

Q49 Which of the following is true about suffrage rights in France? A. There were no suffrage rights in France during Napoleon’s rule. B. The Napoleonic Code suppressed only the rights of women. C. Women were never given voting rights. D. There was always universal suffrage in France.

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Q50 During the rule of Napoleon of France, the status of women was reduced to that of a minor.

A. This statement is true. B. This statement is false. C. This statement cannot be verified. D. There were no conservatives in France during this time.

Q51 Choose the right option based on the following statements: I: The concept of liberalism introduced universal adult suffrage in France. II: All male and female adults had voting rights since the republican government took over in 1791.

A. I is true, but II is false. B. Both I and II are true. C. II is true, but I is false. A. Both I and II are false.

Q52 Why was Liberalism attached closely with national unity in the early nineteenth century?

I. It stood for political and economic freedom. II. It stood for the end of autocratic rule of monarchs. III. It stood for universal adult suffrage.

A. I and III B. I and II C. Only I D. II and III

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Q53-58 are based on this case study

The availability of resources is a necessary condition for the development of any region, but mere availability of resources in the absence of corresponding changes in technology and institutions may hinder their fullest utilisation. Resources are vital for any developmental activity. Irrational consumption and overutilisation of resources may lead to socio-economic and environmental problems. To overcome these problems, resource conservation efforts like sustainable development and resource planning at various levels should be implemented.

Resource planning is a widely accepted strategy for the judicious use of resources. There are regions that are rich in certain types of resources but are deficient in some others. For example, Arunachal Pradesh has abundant water resources but lacks infrastructural development. This calls for balanced resource planning at the national, state, regional, and local levels.

Q53 In a survey it was discovered that a region has huge reserves of oil and gas, which is yet to be extracted and used. For such a scenario, predict how this discovery can affect the development journey of that region.

A. The region will witness rapid development regardless of any other condition, as oil and gas are the backbones of the economy.

B. The region will witness development only if the people have the technology at hand that can help in the successful extraction of oil and gas.

C. The region will witness development only if the region has strong institutions to help in the distribution and proper utilisation of the resources.

D. The region will witness development if it has good reserves of the resource, technology for its extraction, and strong institutions for its utilisation and distribution.

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Q54 Sustainable development is a principle that ensures:

A. that development should take place without damaging the environment and should not compromise with the needs of future generations.

B. that the environmental losses caused by the developmental activities should be financially compensated by those who reaped the benefits from such development.

C. that there will be a huge amount of environmental loss during the initial phases of development, but it will be reduced in the latter phases.

D. that technology developed by the present generation will be passed on to the future generation.

Q55 The concept of sustainable development was first introduced _____.

A. at the Rio de Janeiro Earth Summit, 1992 B. at the Club of Rome, 1968 C. by the Brundtland Commission Report, 1987 D. by Schumacher in his book Small is Beautiful .

Q56 The cold desert of Ladakh is relatively isolated from the rest of the country. Resource planning can help in development of this region by ______.

A. utilising its cultural heritage and developing the tourism industry around it

B. utilising the abundance of available water resources C. utilising the precious minerals found in this region D. All of the above

Q57 A region having coal reserves undergoes mining operations by a private company over many years. What could be the potential effects of such an activity?

I. Degradation of land. II. Degradation of water resources of nearby areas.

III. A huge change in the standard of living for the miners and workers who are employed in the mines.

IV. Profits generated by the mining activity are used solely for the development of the local people.

Select the correct options:

A. I only B. I, II, and IV C. II and III D. I and II

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Q58 Resource planning is best suited for countries that _________.

A. have all kinds of resources available in all parts of the country B. have no resources at all and depend on other countries for them C. have some regions blessed with certain resources but at the same

time lack in some other resources D. None of the above

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Section - D Attempt both the map-based questions.

Q59 Observe the map of India given above and identify the type of soil found in the regions marked in red.

A. Alluvial soil B. Laterite soil C. Red and yellow soil D. Black soil

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Q60 In the map of India given above, point A represents a dam across the Narmada river. Identify the name of the dam from the options given below.

A. Hirakud Dam B. Sardar Sarovar Dam C. Bhakra Nangal Dam D. Nagarjuna Sagar Dam

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ANSWER KEYS

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MATHEMATICS

1. D 11. C 21. B 31. B 41. C

2. A 12. B 22. C 32. D 42. D

3. B 13. A 23. D 33. D 43. C

4. D 14. B 24. A 34. C 44. A

5. A 15. A 25. B 35. C 45. C

6. C 16. D 26. D 36. A 46. A

7. C 17. C 27. A 37. B 47. D

8. B 18. C 28. D 38 A 48. B

9. C 19. B 29. C 39. D 49. A

10. B 20. C 30. D 40. A 50. A

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SCIENCE

1. D. 13. D. 25. C. 37. C. 49. C.

2. B. 14. D. 26. C. 38. A. 50. A.

3. D. 15. B. 27. A. 39. A. 51. B.

4. B. 16. B. 28. C. 40. D. 52. B.

5. C. 17. A. 29. B. 41. B. 53. B.

6. C. 18. B. 30. C. 42. B. 54. D.

7. B. 19. A. 31. A. 43. A. 55. A.

8. B. 20. C. 32. C. 44. C. 56. C.

9. C. 21. B. 33. B. 45. C. 57. C.

10. B. 22. C. 34. A. 46. B. 58. A.

11. A. 23. A. 35. B. 47. D. 59. B.

12. C. 24. B. 36. D. 48. B. 60. D.

76

SOCIAL SCIENCE

Q1 C Q13 C Q25 B Q37 A Q49 C

Q2 B Q14 C Q26 D Q38 B Q50 A

Q3 A Q15 D Q27 A Q39 D Q51 D

Q4 C Q16 A Q28 B Q40 A Q52 B

Q5 A Q17 B Q29 A Q41 B Q53 D

Q6 B Q18 C Q30 A Q42 D Q54 A

Q7 D Q19 A Q31 C Q43 C Q55 C

Q8 B Q20 B Q32 C Q44 C Q56 A

Q9 A Q21 D Q33 D Q45 A Q57 D

Q10 C Q22 C Q34 B Q46 A Q58 C

Q11 C Q23 B Q35 A Q47 A Q59 B

Q12 D Q24 B Q36 D Q48 A Q60 B

77

SOLUTIONS

78

MATHEMATICS


Q1 The decimal expansion of an irrational number is:

A. Terminating and recurring B. Non-terminating and recurring C. Terminating and non-recurring D. Neither terminating nor recurring

Answer: ( D) Neither terminating nor recurring

Solution: The decimal expansion of an irrational number is neither terminating nor recurring.

Q2 ___ 1

𝑠𝑖𝑛 2 θ− 1 =

A. 𝑐𝑜𝑡 2 θ

B. 𝑐𝑜𝑠 2 θ

C. 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐 2 θ

D. 𝑡𝑎𝑛 2 θ

Answer: (A) 𝑐𝑜𝑡 2 θ

Solution: 1

𝑠𝑖𝑛 2 θ− 1 = 1 − 𝑠𝑖𝑛 2 θ

𝑠𝑖𝑛 2 θ= 𝑐𝑜𝑠 2 θ

𝑠𝑖𝑛 2 θ= 𝑐𝑜𝑡 2 θ

79

Q3 The cricket coach of a school purchases 3 bats and 10 balls for ₹ 3,100. After a few days, he had to purchase 1 bat and 5 balls for ₹ 1,200. The price of each bat is ₹ ____.

A. 500 B. 700 C. 625 D. 750

Answer: (B) 700

Solution:

Let us denote a bat as ‘t’ and a ball as ‘b’.

Given that,

3 bats + 10 balls = 3,100

3t + 10b = 3,100……. (1)

Also, 1 bat + 5 balls = 1,200

t + 5b = 1,200 …… (2)

Multiplying equation (2) by 2 and subtracting it from equation (1),

3t + 10b = 3,100

(-) 2t + 10b = 2,400

___________________

We get t = 700

∴ The price of a bat is ₹ 700.

80

Q4 Which of the following is not a rule of similarity of triangles?

A. AA B. SAS C. SSS D. ASA

Answer: (D) ASA

Solution:

The three rules of similarity of triangles are AA, SAS, and SSS.

Q5 If a coin is tossed three times, the probability of getting at least 2 heads is ___. A. 1

2

B. 3 8

C. 7 8

D. 1 8

Answer: (A) 1 2

Solution:

The possible outcomes when a coin is tossed thrice = {HHH, HHT, HTT, HTH, THH, TTH, THT, TTT}

∴ The total number of possible outcomes = 8

Number of outcomes with at least 2 heads = 4

∴ The probability of getting at least 2 heads = = 𝑁𝑢𝑚𝑏𝑒𝑟 𝑜𝑓 𝑓𝑎𝑣𝑜𝑢𝑟𝑎𝑏𝑙𝑒 𝑜𝑢𝑡𝑐𝑜𝑚𝑒𝑠 𝑇𝑜𝑡𝑎𝑙 𝑝𝑜𝑠𝑠𝑖𝑏𝑙𝑒 𝑜𝑢𝑡𝑐𝑜𝑚𝑒𝑠

4 8 = 1

2

81

Q6

The radius of the circle shown in the figure is 1 unit. The area of the major and minor segments is _____ and _____, respectively.

A. 3 π 6 𝑎𝑛𝑑 π

6

B. π 6 𝑎𝑛𝑑 5 π

6

C. 5 π 6 𝑎𝑛𝑑 π

6

D. π 6 𝑎𝑛𝑑 3 π

6

Answer: (C) 5 π 6 𝑎𝑛𝑑 π

6

Solution:

Area of the minor segment = 60 360 × π( 1 ) 2 = π

6

Area of the major segment = 300 360 × π( 1 ) 2 = 5 π

6

Q7 The distance between points (3, 3) and (-1, 6) is ___ units.

A. 4 B. 7 C. 5

82

D. 6

Answer: (C) 5

Solution:

Distance between points and = ( 𝑥 1 , 𝑥

2 ) ( 𝑦

1 , 𝑦

2 ) ( 𝑥

2 − 𝑥

1 ) 2 + ( 𝑦

2 − 𝑦

1 ) 2

= (− 1 − 3 ) 2 + ( 6 − 3 ) 2

= = 5 units 4 2 + 3 2

Q8 A polynomial cuts the x-axis at (2, 0) and the y-axis at (0, 6). The 𝑓 ( 𝑥 ) = 6 − 3 𝑥 zero of the given polynomial is: 𝑓 ( 𝑥 )

A. 6 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

Answer: (B) 2

Solution: The zeros of a polynomial are the points where it cuts the x-axis. Since the given polynomial cuts the x-axis at (2, 0), its zero is 2.

Q9

From the given triangle, __ 𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝐴 𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝐴 =

A. 12 5

B. 5 13

83

C. 0 D. 13

5

Answer: (C) 0

Solution: cot A 𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝐴

𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝐴 =

It can be seen in the figure that ∠ 𝐴 = 9 0 ◦

∴ cot A = cot = 0 90 ◦

Q10 If a circular swimming pool is enlarged and its circumference is doubled, then the area becomes _____ times the initial area.

A. 2 B. 4 C. 3 D. π

Answer: (B) 4

Solution: Let r and R be the initial and final radii of the swimming pool. Initial circumference = 2 π 𝑟

Initial area = π 𝑟 2

Final circumference = 2 × 2 π 𝑟 = 4 π 𝑟 = ⇒ 2 π 𝑅 4 π 𝑟

= ⇒ 𝑅 2 𝑟

Final area = π 𝑅 2 = π( 2 𝑟 ) 2 = 4 π 𝑟 2 = 4 × 𝐼𝑛𝑖𝑡𝑖𝑎𝑙 𝑎𝑟𝑒𝑎 ∴ The area becomes 4 times the initial area.

Q11 The prime factorization of 360 is:

A. 3 2 × 4 × 10

B. 2 × 3 2 × 4 × 5

C. 2 3 × 3 2

× 5

D. 2 3 × 9 × 5

84

Answer: (C) 2 3 × 3 2

× 5

Solution:

360 = 2 3 × 3 2

× 5 The other options are incorrect because the factors are not prime.

Q12

In the given figure, AB = 3 units, BC = 4 units, and CD = 12 units. Also, and ∠ 𝐴𝐵𝐶 are right angles. The length of the side AD = ___ units ∠ 𝐴𝐶𝐷

A. 15 B. 13 C. 12 D. 14

Answer: (B) 13

Solution: By applying the Pythagorean theorem in ∆ 𝐴𝐵𝐶 ,

𝐴𝐵 2 + 𝐵𝐶 2 = 𝐴𝐶 2

⇒ 𝐴𝐶 2 = 3 2 + 4 2 = 25 ⇒ 𝐴𝐶 = 5 Then, by applying the Pythagorean theorem in ∆ 𝐴𝐶𝐷 ,

𝐴𝐶 2 + 𝐶𝐷 2 = 𝐴𝐷 2

⇒ 𝐴𝐷 2 = 5 2 + 12 2 = 169 ⇒ 𝐴𝐷 = 13

85

Q13 The lines and are _______. 2 𝑥 − 3 𝑦 + 5 = 0 − 4 𝑥 + 6 𝑦 + 5 = 0

A. parallel B. coinciding C. intersecting D. perpendicular

Answer: (A) parallel

Solution: Here, 𝑎

1 = 2 , 𝑏

1 =− 3 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑐

1 = 5

𝑎 2

=− 4 , 𝑏 2

= 6 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑐 2

= 5 𝑎

1

𝑎 2

=− 1 2

𝑏 1

𝑏 2

=− 1 2

𝑐 1

𝑐 2

= 1

∴ 𝑎

1

𝑎 2

= 𝑏

1

𝑏 2

≠ 𝑐

1

𝑐 2

∴ The lines are parallel.

Q14 The LCM of 21, 35, and 40 is ___.

A. 720 B. 840 C. 850 D. 950

Answer: (B) 840

Solution: 21 = 3 × 7 35 = 5 × 7 40 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 5

LCM = = 840 7 × 5 × 3 × 2 × 2 × 2

Q15 P and Q are the points of trisection of a straight line AB, as shown in the figure. The coordinates of P are:

86

A. ( 1 3 ,

5 3 )

B. ( 5 3 ,

1 3 )

C. ( 5 3 ,

4 3 )

D. ( 4 3 ,

5 3 )

Answer: (A) ( 1 3 ,

5 3 )

Solution: P divides the line AB in the ratio 1:2. m:n = 1:2 The coordinates of P can be obtained by using the section formula.

= ( ) ( 𝑚 𝑥

2 + 𝑛 𝑥

1

𝑚 + 𝑛 , 𝑚 𝑦

2 + 𝑛 𝑦

1

𝑚 + 𝑛 ) = ( 1 ( 3 )+ 2 (− 1 ) 1 + 2 , 1 ( 1 )+ 2 ( 2 )

1 + 2 ) 1 3 ,

5 3

∴ The coordinates of P are ( ). 1 3 ,

5 3

Q16 The number of solutions of the pair of equations and 2 𝑥 − 3 𝑦 + 7 = 0 is: − 4 𝑥 + 6 𝑦 − 14 = 0

A. One B. Zero C. Two D. Infinite

Answer: (D) Infinite

Solution: Here, 𝑎

1 = 2 , 𝑏

1 = − 3 , 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑐

1 = 7

𝑎 2

= − 4 , 𝑏 2

= 6 , 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑐 2

=− 14 𝑎

1

𝑎 2

= − 1 2

𝑏 1

𝑏 2

= − 1 2

87

𝑐 1

𝑐 2

=− 1 2

∴ 𝑎

1

𝑎 2

= 𝑏

1

𝑏 2

= 𝑐

1

𝑐 2

∴ The lines are coincident, and the pair of equations has infinite solutions.

Q17 The coordinates of the point that divides the line joining the points (2, 0) and (0, 3) in the ratio 1:2 are ____.

A. ( 1 , 1 3 )

B. ( 1 , 2 3 )

C. ( 4 3 , 1 )

D. ( 1 3 , 1 )

Answer: (C) ( 4 3 , 1 )

Solution:

Using the section formula, the coordinates of the point are . ( 𝑚 𝑥

2 + 𝑛 𝑥

1

𝑚 + 𝑛 , 𝑚 𝑦

2 + 𝑛 𝑦

1

𝑚 + 𝑛 )

Here, ( ) = (2, 0) 𝑥 1 , 𝑦

1

( ) = (0, 3) 𝑥 2 , 𝑦

2

m : n = 1 : 2

∴ = ( ) = ( , 1) ( 𝑚 𝑥

2 + 𝑛 𝑥

1

𝑚 + 𝑛 , 𝑚 𝑦

2 + 𝑛 𝑦

1

𝑚 + 𝑛 ) 0 + 4 3 , 3

3 4 3

Q18 If are zeros of the polynomial , then α, β, γ 2 𝑥 2 + 3 𝑥 3 − 15 𝑥 + 12 = 0 ___ αβ + βγ + γα =

A. − 15 2

B. 15 2

C. -5 D. 5

Answer: (C) -5

Solution: We know that = αβ + βγ + γα 𝐶𝑜𝑒𝑓𝑓𝑖𝑐𝑖𝑒𝑛𝑡 𝑜𝑓 𝑥

𝐶𝑜𝑒𝑓𝑓𝑖𝑐𝑖𝑒𝑛𝑡 𝑜𝑓 𝑥 3

∴ αβ + βγ + γα = − 15 3 =− 5

88

Q19 __ 𝑠𝑒𝑐 2 θ + 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐

2 θ − 𝑠𝑖𝑛 2 θ− 𝑐𝑜𝑡 2 θ − 𝑐𝑜𝑠 2 θ − 𝑡𝑎𝑛 2 θ =

A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. -1

Answer: (B) 1

Solution:

- - 𝑠𝑒𝑐 2 θ + 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐 2 θ − 𝑠𝑖𝑛 2 θ 𝑐𝑜𝑡 2 θ 𝑐𝑜𝑠 2 θ − 𝑡𝑎𝑛 2 θ

= ( 𝑠𝑒𝑐 2 θ − 𝑡𝑎𝑛 2 θ) + ( 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐 2 θ − 𝑐𝑜𝑡 2 θ) −( 𝑠𝑖𝑛 2 θ + 𝑐𝑜𝑠 2 θ)

= 1 + 1 - 1 =1

Q20 A bag contains 2 white, 3 blue, and 4 black balls. When a ball is drawn at random, the probability of drawing a blue or a black ball is ___.

A. 2 9

B. 3 9

C. 7 9

D. 1

Answer: (C) 7 9

Solution: Number of blue balls + Number of black balls = 3 + 4 = 7 Total number of balls = 9 ∴ Probability of picking a blue or a black ball =

= 𝑁𝑢𝑚𝑏𝑒𝑟 𝑜𝑓 𝑓𝑎𝑣𝑜𝑢𝑟𝑎𝑏𝑙𝑒 𝑜𝑢𝑡𝑐𝑜𝑚𝑒𝑠 𝑇𝑜𝑡𝑎𝑙 𝑛𝑢𝑚𝑏𝑒𝑟 𝑜𝑓 𝑝𝑜𝑠𝑠𝑖𝑏𝑙𝑒 𝑜𝑢𝑡𝑐𝑜𝑚𝑒𝑠

7 9


89

Q21 Which of the following is a polynomial?

A. 5 𝑥 − 1 + 4 + 3 𝑥 + 2 𝑥 2 + 𝑥

B. 10 𝑥 4 + 5 𝑥 2 + 3

C. 3 𝑥 3 4 + 2 𝑥 2 + 𝑥

1 2

D. 𝑥 2 + 𝑥 + 1 𝑥

Answer: (B) 10 𝑥 4 + 5 𝑥 2 + 3

Solution: For an expression to be a polynomial, the variable x should have only positive

integers as exponents. Out of the given options, only satisfies this 10 𝑥 4 + 5 𝑥 2 + 3 condition.

Q22 The probability that it will rain today is 0.4. The probability that it will not rain today is _____.

A. 0.1 B. 0.3 C. 0.6 D. 0.7

Answer: (C) 0.6

Solution: Let P(R) and P(R’) be the probability of the occurrence of rain and no occurrence of rain. As the occurrence of rain and no occurrence of rain are two complementary events, P(R) + P(R’) = 1

0.4 + P(R’) =1 P(R’) =0.6 ⇒

∴ Probability that it will not rain today = 0.6

Q23 The perimeter of a rectangle is 12 units, and its length is twice its breadth. Which of the following graphical solutions represents the dimensions of the rectangle correctly?

90

A.

B.

91

C.

D.

Answer: (D)

Solution: Perimeter of the rectangle = 12 ⇒ 2 ( 𝑙 + 𝑏 ) = 12

……(1) ⇒ 𝑙 + 𝑏 = 6 Also, Length = Breadth 2 ×

…….(2) ⇒ 𝑙 = 2 𝑏

92

By plotting b on the x-axis and l on the y-axis in order to represent equations 1 and 2 graphically, we get,

It can be seen that the two lines are intersecting at (2, 4). The length of the rectangle is 4 units and its breadth is 2 units. ⇒

Q24 The centre of a square ABCD is located at (2, 3), and the vertex D is located at (5, 6). The coordinates of the vertex exactly opposite to D are ___.

A. (-1, 0) B. (2, 1) C. (-1, 4) D. (4, -1)

Answer: (A) (-1, 0)

Solution: The centre (2, 3) of the square becomes the midpoint of the diagonal BD. Let (x, y) be the coordinates of B. Then, (2, 3) = ( ) 𝑥 + 5

2 , 𝑦 + 6 2

and ⇒ 𝑥 + 5 = 4 𝑦 + 6 = 6 ∴ (x, y) = (-1, 0)

93

Q25

The area of the shaded region if the radius of the arc is 2 units is ____ square units.

A. 2 π 3

B. 2 π 3 − 3

C. - 3 2 π 3

D. π 3 − 3

a. Answer: (B) 2 π

3 − 3

Solution: Area of the sector OAB = = 60

360 × π( 2 ) 2 2 π 3

is an equilateral triangle. ∆ 𝑂𝐴𝐵

∴ Area of = ∆ 𝑂𝐴𝐵 3 4 𝑎 2

The side of is the radius of the arc, i.e., 2 units. ∆ 𝑂𝐴𝐵

∴ Area of = ∆ 𝑂𝐴𝐵 3 4 ( 2 ) 2 = 3

Area of the shaded region = Area of sector OAB - Area of ∆ 𝑂𝐴𝐵 = 2 π

3 − 3

94

Q26 The LCM of two co-primes is ___.

A. 𝑃𝑟𝑜𝑑𝑢𝑐𝑡 𝑜𝑓 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑛𝑢𝑚𝑏𝑒𝑟𝑠 2

B. 𝑃𝑟𝑜𝑑𝑢𝑐𝑡 𝑜𝑓 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑛𝑢𝑚𝑏𝑒𝑟𝑠 3

C. 𝐻𝐶𝐹 × 𝑃𝑟𝑜𝑑𝑢𝑐𝑡 𝑜𝑓 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑛𝑢𝑚𝑏𝑒𝑟𝑠 2

D. 𝑃𝑟𝑜𝑑𝑢𝑐𝑡 𝑜𝑓 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑛𝑢𝑚𝑏𝑒𝑟𝑠

Answer: (D) 𝑃𝑟𝑜𝑑𝑢𝑐𝑡 𝑜𝑓 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑛𝑢𝑚𝑏𝑒𝑟𝑠

Solution: HCF of co-primes = 1 We know that, 𝐿𝐶𝑀 × 𝐻𝐶𝐹 = 𝑃𝑟𝑜𝑑𝑢𝑐𝑡 𝑜𝑓 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑛𝑢𝑚𝑏𝑒𝑟𝑠 ∴ 𝐿𝐶𝑀 = 𝑃𝑟𝑜𝑑𝑢𝑐𝑡 𝑜𝑓 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑛𝑢𝑚𝑏𝑒𝑟𝑠

Q27 The area of is 25 sq. units, and A side of is 3 units, and ∆ 𝐴𝐵𝐶 ∆ 𝐴𝐵𝐶 ∼ ∆ 𝑃𝑄𝑅 . ∆ 𝐴𝐵𝐶 the corresponding side of is 9 units. The area of is ____ sq. units. ∆ 𝑃𝑄𝑅 ∆ 𝑃𝑄𝑅

A. 225 B. 250 C. 200 D. 175

Answer: (A) 225

Solution: The ratio of areas of similar triangles is equal to the square of the ratio of their sides.

∴ 𝐴𝑟𝑒𝑎 𝑜𝑓 ∆ 𝐴𝐵𝐶 𝐴𝑟𝑒𝑎 𝑜𝑓 ∆ 𝑃𝑄𝑅 = ( 𝑅𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑜 𝑜𝑓 𝑐𝑜𝑟𝑟𝑒𝑠𝑝𝑜𝑛𝑑𝑖𝑛𝑔 𝑠𝑖𝑑𝑒𝑠 ) 2

= ( 3 9 )

2 = ( 1

3 ) 2

= 1 9

⇒ 25 𝐴𝑟𝑒𝑎 𝑜𝑓 ∆ 𝑃𝑄𝑅 = 1

9

= 225 sq. units ⇒ 𝐴𝑟𝑒𝑎 𝑜𝑓 ∆ 𝑃𝑄𝑅

Q28 ____ 𝑠𝑒𝑐 θ 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐 θ =

A. 𝐻𝑦𝑝𝑜𝑡𝑒𝑛𝑢𝑠𝑒 𝐴𝑑𝑗𝑎𝑐𝑒𝑛𝑡 𝑠𝑖𝑑𝑒 𝑜𝑓 θ

B. 𝑂𝑝𝑝𝑜𝑠𝑖𝑡𝑒 𝑠𝑖𝑑𝑒 𝑜𝑓 θ 𝐻𝑦𝑝𝑜𝑡𝑒𝑛𝑢𝑠𝑒

C. 𝐴𝑑𝑗𝑎𝑐𝑒𝑛𝑡 𝑠𝑖𝑑𝑒 𝑜𝑓 θ 𝑂𝑝𝑝𝑜𝑠𝑖𝑡𝑒 𝑠𝑖𝑑𝑒 𝑜𝑓 θ

95

D. 𝑂𝑝𝑝𝑜𝑠𝑖𝑡𝑒 𝑠𝑖𝑑𝑒 𝑜𝑓 θ 𝐴𝑑𝑗𝑎𝑐𝑒𝑛𝑡 𝑠𝑖𝑑𝑒 𝑜𝑓 θ

Answer: (D) 𝑂𝑝𝑝𝑜𝑠𝑖𝑡𝑒 𝑠𝑖𝑑𝑒 𝑜𝑓 θ 𝐴𝑑𝑗𝑎𝑐𝑒𝑛𝑡 𝑠𝑖𝑑𝑒 𝑜𝑓 θ

Solution: = 𝑠𝑒𝑐 θ

𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐 θ 𝑠𝑖𝑛 θ 𝑐𝑜𝑠 θ = 𝑡𝑎𝑛 θ = 𝑂𝑝𝑝𝑜𝑠𝑖𝑡𝑒 𝑠𝑖𝑑𝑒 𝑜𝑓 θ

𝐴𝑑𝑗𝑎𝑐𝑒𝑛𝑡 𝑠𝑖𝑑𝑒 𝑜𝑓 θ

Q29 ____ 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐 𝐴 ( 1 − 𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝐴 )( 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐 𝐴 + 𝑐𝑜𝑡 𝐴 ) =

A. 𝑠𝑖𝑛 45 ◦

B. 𝑐𝑜𝑠 45 ◦

C. 𝑡𝑎𝑛 45 ◦

D. 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐 45 ◦

Answer: (C) 𝑡𝑎𝑛 45 ◦

Solution: 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐 𝐴 ( 1 − 𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝐴 )( 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐 𝐴 + 𝑐𝑜𝑡 𝐴 ) =( 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐 𝐴 − 𝑐𝑜𝑡 𝐴 )( 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐 𝐴 + 𝑐𝑜𝑡 𝐴 )

= = 1 = 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐 2 θ − 𝑐𝑜𝑡 2 θ 𝑡𝑎𝑛 45 ◦

Q30 Krishna covered 46 km in total by rowing upstream for 7 hours and downstream for 3 hours. If the speed of the stream is 1 kmph, then the upstream speed of Krishna is _____ kmph.

A. 6 B. 5 C. 3 D. 4

Answer: (D) 4

Solution: Let u, d, and s be the upstream speed, downstream speed, and speed of the stream, respectively. Given that, …(1) 7 𝑢 + 3 𝑑 = 46

Let b be the speed of the boat in still water. Upstream speed = ⇒ 𝑏 − 𝑠

Downstream speed = 𝑏 + 𝑠

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Downstream speed - Upstream speed = 𝑏 + 𝑠 − ( 𝑏 − 𝑠 ) = 2 𝑠 ⇒ 𝑑 − 𝑢 = 2 𝑠 It is given that s = 1

…(2) ⇒ 𝑑 − 𝑢 = 2

Multiplying equation (2) by 7 and adding it to equation (1), we get, 7 𝑢 + 3 𝑑 = 46 (+) − 7 𝑢 + 7 𝑑 = 14 ______________ 10 𝑑 = 60 ⇒ 𝑑 = 6 From (2), 𝑑 − 𝑢 = 2 ⇒ 𝑢 = 4 𝑘𝑚𝑝ℎ ∴ The upstream speed of Krishna is 4 kmph.

Q31 β = , then = 𝑡𝑎𝑛 1

3

2 sin 𝛽 − 3 cos 𝛽 3 sin 𝛽 + 3 cos 𝛽

A. 1 6

B. − 1 6

C. 1 4

D. − 1 4

a. Answer: (B) − 1

6

Solution: β = 𝑡𝑎𝑛 1

3 ⇒ β = 30 ◦

β = = 𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝑠𝑖𝑛 30 ◦ 1 2

β = = 𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝑐𝑜𝑠 30 ◦ 3 2

= 2 sin 𝛽 − 3 cos 𝛽 3 sin 𝛽 + 3 cos 𝛽

2 ( 1 2 ) − 3 ( 3

2 )

3 ( 1 2 ) + 3 ( 3

2 )

= 1 − 3

2 3 2 +

3 2

=− 1 2 6 4

= − 1 6

Q32 The HCF of 45 and 60 is ___.

97

A. 5 B. 20 C. 12 D. 15

Answer: (D) 15

Solution: Factorising 45 and 60, we get,

45 = 3 2 × 5

60 = 2 2 × 3 × 5 The highest common factor is ( 3 × 5 ) = 15

Q33 The point on the y-axis which is equidistant from the points (1, 3) and (-1, 5) is ___.

A. (4.0) B. (-4,0) C. (0,-4) D. (0,4)

Answer: (D) (0, 4)

Solution: Let the point on the y-axis be (0, y). Distance between (0, y) and (1, 3) = Distance between (0, y) and (-1, 5)

⇒ 1 + ( 𝑦 − 3 ) 2 = 1 + ( 𝑦 − 5 ) 2

Squaring on both the sides,

= ⇒ 1 + ( 𝑦 − 3 ) 2 1 + ( 𝑦 − 5 ) 2

⇒ 𝑦 − 3 =± ( 𝑦 − 5 ) y - 3 = y - 5 or y - 3 = 5 - y ⇒

y - 3 = 5 - y is a valid equation. 2y = 8 ⇒ y = 4 ⇒

∴ The required point is (0, 4).

Q34 In a rectangular swimming pool, Raj takes 8 minutes to reach the other end and return to the starting point, while Kushal takes 12 minutes for the same. Suppose that they start at the same time and the same end of the pool. How many minutes later will they meet at the starting point?

98

A. 36 minutes B. 30 minutes C. 24 minutes D. 46 minutes

Answer: (C) 24 minutes

Solution:

They will meet at the starting point after a time (in minutes) equal to the LCM of 8 and 12.

LCM of 8 and 12 = 2 3 × 3 = 24 ∴ They will meet again at the starting point after 24 minutes.

Q35 The ratio in which the point ( ) divides the line joining the points (1, 1) and (3, 5 3 , − 1

3

-3) is ___.

A. 2:1 B. 1:3 C. 1:2 D. 3:1

Answer: (C) 1:2

Solution: Let the ratio in which ( ) divides the line joining the points (1, 1) and (3, -3) be 5

3 ,− 1 3

k:1.

( ) = ⇒ 5 3 ,

− 1 3 (

𝑚 𝑥 2 + 𝑛 𝑥

1

𝑚 + 𝑛 , 𝑚 𝑦

2 + 𝑛 𝑦

1

𝑚 + 𝑛 )

( ) = ⇒ 5 3 ,

− 1 3 ( 𝑘 ( 3 )+ 1 ( 1 )

𝑘 + 1 , 𝑘 (− 3 )+ 1 ( 1 ) 𝑘 + 1 )

and ⇒ 3 𝑘 + 1 𝑘 + 1 = 5

3 − 3 𝑘 + 1

𝑘 + 1 = − 1 3

Solving one of the equations, we get 𝑘 = 1 2

∴ The ratio in which the point ( ) divides the line joining the points (1, 1) and 5 3 , − 1

3

(3, -3) is 1:2.

Q36 The solution of the pair of equations and is: 2 𝑥 + 3

𝑦 = 18 5 𝑥 − 2

𝑦 = 7

A. and y = 𝑥 = 1 3

1 4

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B. and y = 𝑥 = 1 4

1 3

C. and y = 𝑥 = 1 4

1 5

D. and y = 𝑥 = 1 5

1 4

Answer: (A) and y = 𝑥 = 1 3

1 4

Solution: Let = p and = q 1

𝑥 1 𝑦

…(1) 2 𝑝 + 3 𝑞 = 18 …(2) 5 𝑝 − 2 𝑞 = 7

Multiplying equation (1) by 5, equation (2) by 2, and subtracting (2) from (1), 10 𝑝 + 15 𝑞 = 90 (−) 10 𝑝 − 4 𝑞 = 14 ________________ 19q = 76 ⇒ 𝑞 = 4 Substituting q = 4 in any of the two equations, we get p = 3

= 3 and = 4 ⇒ 1 𝑥

1 𝑦

⇒ 𝑥 = 1 3 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑦 = 1

4

100

Q37

In the given figure, the area of the shaded region if the side of the square is 1 unit is ____ sq. units.

A. π − 1 B. π

2 − 1

C. 2 π D. 2 π + 1

Answer: (B) π 2 − 1

Solution: The diagonal of the square becomes the diameter of the circle. Side of the square = 1 Using Pythagoras’ theorem to find the diagonal of the square,

= 1 2 + 1 2 2 Diagonal of the square = units 2 ∴ Diameter of the circle = units 2

Area of the circle = π 𝑑 2

4 = π 2

Area of the square = 𝑎 2 = 1 2 = 1 ∴ Area of the shaded region = sq. units π

2 − 1

Q38 The difference between zeros of a quadratic polynomial is 3, and their productis 10. If both the zeros are positive, then the quadratic polynomial is:

A. 𝑥 2 − 7 𝑥 + 10

B. 𝑥 2 − 3 𝑥 + 10

C. 𝑥 2 − 2 𝑥 + 5

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D. 𝑥 2 − 5 𝑥 + 10

Answer: (A) 𝑥 2 − 7 𝑥 + 10

Solution: Let be the zeros of the required quadratic polynomial. α 𝑎𝑛𝑑 β Given that, α − β = 3 𝑎𝑛𝑑 αβ = 10 We can find the polynomial by finding . α + β

(α + β) 2 =(α − β) 2 + 4 αβ= 9 + 40 = 49 = ⇒α + β ± 7

It is given that the zeros are positive. = ⇒α + β 7

The polynomial is = 𝑥 2 − (α + β) 𝑥 + αβ 𝑥 2 − 7 𝑥 + 10

Q39

In the given figure, the triangle is equilateral in nature and has a side equal to 1 unit. The area of the incircle is ____ sq. units.

102

A. π 3

B. π 4

C. π 2

D. π 12

Answer: (D) π 12

Solution: Since the given triangle is equilateral in nature,

Length of the median of the triangle = 3 2 𝑎 = 3

2 ( 1 ) = 3 2

Incentre or centroid, i.e., I in the figure (both are located at the same point since the triangle is equilateral in nature) divides the median in the ratio 1:2.

∴ and 𝐴𝐼 = 2 3 × 𝑀𝑒𝑑𝑖𝑎𝑛 = 2

3 × 3 2 = 1

3

𝐵𝐼 = 1 3 × 𝑀𝑒𝑑𝑖𝑎𝑛 = 1

3 × 3 2 = 1

2 3

BI is the radius of the incircle.

Area of the incircle = sq. units. π 𝑟 2 = π( 1 2 3

) 2

= π 12

Q40 A whole number is chosen between 4 and 50 (including 4 and 50). The probability that the number chosen is a prime number is ____ and that the number is not a prime number is ____.

103

A. and 13 47

34 47

B. and 12 47

35 47

C. and 11 47

36 47

D. and 14 47

33 47

Answer: (A) and 13 47

34 47

Solution: Number of prime numbers between 4 and 50 = 13 Total number of whole numbers between 4 and 50 = 47 Probability of an event = 𝑁𝑢𝑚𝑏𝑒𝑟 𝑜𝑓 𝑓𝑎𝑣𝑜𝑢𝑟𝑎𝑏𝑙𝑒 𝑜𝑢𝑡𝑐𝑜𝑚𝑒𝑠

𝑇𝑜𝑡𝑎𝑙 𝑛𝑢𝑚𝑏𝑒𝑟 𝑜𝑓 𝑜𝑢𝑡𝑐𝑜𝑚𝑒𝑠

∴ Probability that the chosen number is prime = 13 47

Probability that the chosen number is not prime = 47 − 13 47 = 34

47

Section - C Section - C consists of three cases followed by questions. There are a total of 10 questions. Attempt any 8 questions from this section. The first 8 attempted questions would be evaluated.

104

Case Aditya takes a cab to go to the office and gym every day, which are 6 km and 4 km away from his home, respectively. The cabs charge him ₹110 on his ride from his home to the office and ₹80 from his home to the gym.

One day, Aditya decides to understand the pricing of this cab company and realises that it follows the structure of linear equations in two variables. He notices that there are two variables (x, y): a fare that is fixed for all rides independent of how much distance is travelled (x) and a fare that is dependent on the distance travelled (y).

105

Q41 Which of the following represents Aditya’s cab trip to his gym? A. 4 𝑦 = 6 𝑥 B. 4 𝑥 + 6 𝑦 = 190 C. 𝑥 + 4 𝑦 = 80 D. 𝑥 + 6 𝑦 = 80

Answer : (C) 𝑥 + 4 𝑦 = 80

Solution : Given, Aditya’s cab fare to the gym = ₹80 Distance to the gym = 4 km

Given, Fixed fare independent of distance = 𝑥 Fare dependent on distance = 𝑦

So, adding them, … (1) 𝑥 + 4 𝑦 = 80

Q42 Which of the following represents Aditya’s cab trip to his office?

A. 6 𝑦 = 4 𝑥 B. 6 𝑥 + 4 𝑦 = 190 C. 𝑥 + 4 𝑦 = 110 D. 𝑥 + 6 𝑦 = 110

Answer : (D) 𝑥 + 6 𝑦 = 110

Solution : Given, Aditya’s cab fare to the gym = ₹110 Distance to the gym = 6 km

Using the variables, … (2) 𝑥 + 6 𝑦 = 110

Q43 What is the value of the fixed fare and the varying fare for Aditya’s rides?

A. ₹30, ₹15/km B. ₹30, ₹12.5/km C. ₹20, ₹15/km D. ₹40, ₹10/km

106

Answer : (C) ₹20, ₹15/km

Solution : Using equations (1) and (2) from previous questions, 𝑥 + 6 𝑦 = 110 𝑥 + 4 𝑦 = 80 Subtracting (2) from (1), 2 𝑦 = 110 − 80 = 30 ⇒ 𝑦 = 15 Substituting this in (1), 𝑥 + 4 ( 15 ) = 80 ⇒ 𝑥 = 80 − 60 = 20 The fixed fare is ₹20. The varying fare is ₹15.

Q44 After his calculations, Aditya wanted to test the equation and decided to go to a zoo that was 9 km away. What would the price of his ride be?

A. ₹155 B. ₹140 C. ₹185 D. ₹160

Answer : (A) ₹155

Solution : Aditya’s cab fare now would be the sum of the fixed pay and the varying pay. Let,

= Distance of the zoo from his house 𝑑 = Total cab fare 𝑐

… (3) 𝑐 = 15 𝑑 + 20 Hence, substituting d = 9 kms into this equation, 𝑦 = 15 × 9 + 20 = 135 + 20 = ₹155 Therefore, the cab fare would be ₹155.

Q45 Happy with his calculations, Aditya went by cab for a few more days. One day, he saw that the fare had increased. His cab now charged him ₹10 more for the gym and ₹14 more for his office. How much would a trip to the zoo cost Aditya with this new fare?

A. ₹157 B. ₹173 C. ₹175 D. ₹193

107

Answer : (C) ₹175

Solution : From the previous questions, the original fare was in the form: 𝑥 + 6 𝑦 = 110 𝑥 + 4 𝑦 = 80 Also, we know that the updated fares are ₹90 and ₹124. Therefore, the new equations become,

… (4) 𝑥 + 6 𝑦 = 124 … (5) 𝑥 + 4 𝑦 = 90

Subtracting these equations, 2 𝑦 = 124 − 90 = 34 ⇒ 𝑦 = ₹17 Substituting this into (5), 𝑥 = 90 − 4 ( 17 ) = 90 − 68 = ₹22 So, the updated cab fare is of the form . 17 𝑑 + 22 Let us substitute the distance to the zoo in this equation ( ). 𝑑 = 9 Fare = 17 ( 9 ) + 22 = ₹175 Therefore, the updated cab fare to the zoo would be ₹175.

Case A waterpark is constructing a 40-metre-long water slide. The engineers planned it to come down in one single straight line from a height of 24 metres. The slide was also supposed to have two supporting towers underneath perpendicular to the ground. The first tower was constructed at one of the edges of the slide.

108

Q46 What is the height of the second tower if it stands at a distance of 24 metres from point A?

A. 18 m B. 16 m C. 12 m D. 10 m

Answer : (A) 18 m

Solution :

Given, Slide AB is 40 m long. Height of the first supporting tower BC is 24 m. The second tower is 24 m from A (AQ = 24 m). Also, the towers are perpendicular to the ground.

So, using the Pythagorean theorem in ΔABC, AC² = AB² - BC²

= 40² - 24² = 1600 - 576 = 1024 = 32²

⇒AC = 32

109

Also, in ΔABC and ΔAPQ, ∠BAC = ∠PAQ (same angle) ∠BCA = ∠PQA (both are 90°) So, by AA criterion, ΔABC ~ ΔAPQ Hence, the ratio of their corresponding sides will be the same. 𝑃𝑄 𝐵𝐶 = 𝐴𝑄

𝐴𝐶

⇒ 𝑃𝑄 24 = 24

32 = 3 4

⇒ 𝑃𝑄 = 24× 3 4 = 18 𝑚

Q47 In the previous question, what is the length of the portion of the slide from the second tower to the ground (AP)?

A. 32 m B. 36 m C. 24 m D. 30 m

Answer : (D) 30 m

Solution : Given, PQ is 24 m. Also, ΔABC ~ ΔAPQ (from the previous question) The length of the slide from P to the bottom is AP. 𝐴𝑃 𝐴𝐵 = 𝐴𝑄

𝐴𝐶

⇒ 𝐴𝑃 40 = 24

32 = 3 4

⇒ 𝐴𝑃 = 40× 3 4 = 30 𝑚

⇒ AP = 30 m

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Q48 What is the ratio of the area of ΔABC to the area of ΔAPQ?

A. 4:3 B. 16:9 C. 3:4 D. 9:16

Answer : (B) 16:9

Solution : We know that ΔABC ~ ΔAPQ So, their corresponding sides will be of the same ratio. Area of ΔABC = 1

2 × 𝐴𝐶 × 𝐵𝐶

Area of ΔAPQ = 1 2 × 𝐴𝑄 × 𝑃𝑄

Hence, the ratio of areas = 𝐴𝑟𝑒𝑎 𝑜𝑓 Δ 𝐴𝐵𝐶 𝐴𝑟𝑒𝑎 𝑜𝑓 Δ 𝐴𝑃𝑄 = 𝐴𝐶 × 𝐵𝐶

𝐴𝑄 × 𝑃𝑄 We also know that, 𝑃𝑄 𝐵𝐶 = 𝐴𝑄

𝐴𝐶 = 3 4

Therefore, ratio of areas = 𝐴𝐶 𝐴𝑄 × 𝐵𝐶

𝑃𝑄 = 4 3 × 4

3 = 16 9

Therefore, 𝐴𝑟𝑒𝑎 𝑜𝑓 Δ 𝐴𝐵𝐶 𝐴𝑟𝑒𝑎 𝑜𝑓 Δ 𝐴𝑃𝑄 = 16

9

111

Q49 The engineers also decided to add an adventure ladder to get to the top of this slide. If the angle made by the ladder with the first supporting tower would be the same as the angle made by the slide to the ground, which of the following is true?

A. ΔBCD ~ ΔACB B. ΔBCD ~ ΔABC C. ΔBDC ~ ΔACB D. ΔBDC ~ ΔABD

Answer : (A) ΔBCD ~ ΔACB

Solution : Given, Angle made by the ladder with the first supporting tower = ∠DBC Angle made by the slide with the ground = ∠BAC In △BCD and △ACB, ∠DBC = ∠BAC (given) ∠BCD = ∠ACB (both are 90°)

Therefore, by AA criterion, ΔBCD ~ ΔACB

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Q50 In the scenario in question 49, what would be the length of the ladder?

A. 30 m B. 32 m C. 36 m D. 40 m

Answer : (A) 30 m

Solution : We have proven that ΔBCD ~ ΔACB To find BD,

In ΔBCD and ΔACB, ∠DBC = ∠BAC (given) ∠BCD = ∠ACB = 90° (perpendicular supporting towers)

Therefore, by AA criterion, ΔBCD ~ ΔACB Hence, 𝐵𝐶 𝐴𝐶 = 𝐶𝐷

𝐶𝐵 = 𝐵𝐷 𝐴𝐵

⇒ 𝐵𝐷 𝐴𝐵 = 𝐵𝐶

𝐴𝐶 = 24 32 = 3

4

⇒ BD = = 30 m 40 × 3 4

Therefore, the length of the ladder would be 30 m.

113

SCIENCE


Q1 Which of the following is the most suitable way to dilute concentrated acid?

A. Add water to the acid slowly with constant stirring. B. Add water to the acid slowly with constant heating. C. Add the acid to water slowly with constant heating. D. Add the acid to water slowly with constant stirring.

Answer: D. Add the acid to water slowly with constant stirring.

Solution: During the dilution of any concentrated acid or base, the acid/base should be slowly added to water with constant stirring. If water is added to the concentrated acid/base:

● The heat generated will result in splashing the mixture, causing burns. ● The glass container may break due to excessive local heating.

Q2 Based on the information provided in the given statements, arrange the following elements in an increasing order of their reactivity. Statement 1: Potassium reacts with cold water to produce potassium hydroxide. Statement 2: Aluminium on treatment with steam gives aluminium oxide. Statement 3: Copper does not react with cold water or steam.

A. K < Cu < Al B. Cu < Al < K C. Cu < K < Al D. K < Al < Cu

Answer: B. Cu < Al < K Solution: From the given statements, we can understand that copper does not react with cold water or steam. Hence, copper is the least reactive among the given elements. Now, it is given that aluminium reacts with steam and potassium reacts with cold water. Since steam provides more energy compared to cold water, we can infer that potassium requires relatively lower energy to react with water as compared to aluminium. Hence, potassium is more reactive than aluminium. Therefore, the overall increasing order of their reactivity is Cu < Al < K.

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Q3 An acid X is made to react with a base Y. The reaction produces a salt that turns phenolphthalein solution pink. Which of the following options correctly represents X and Y?

A. X = HNO 3 , Y = NaOH B. X = CH 3 COOH, Y = NH 4 OH C. X = HCl, Y = Cu(OH) 2

D. X = CH 3 COOH, Y = NaOH

Answer: D. X = CH 3 COOH, Y = NaOH

Solution: Reaction between an acid and a base produces salt and water. Given that the salt formed during the reaction turns phenolphthalein solution pink, which means that the salt is basic in nature. In other words, the salt is formed by the reaction of a weak acid and a strong base. From the given options, the only combination that contains a weak acid and a strong base is, X = CH 3 COOH, Y = NaOH

Chemical reaction: CH 3 COOH(aq) + NaOH(aq) → CH 3 COONa(aq) + H 2 O(l)

CH 3 COONa, i.e., sodium acetate, is a basic salt.

115

Q4 Adding a substance X to the beaker shown completes the given electric circuit. Identify X.

A. C 2 H 5 OH(aq) B. KOH(aq) C. C 6 H 12 O 6 (aq) D. C 2 H 4 (aq)

Answer: B. KOH(aq)

Solution: The given circuit would be complete only when there is a charge flow in the circuit and the bulb glows. For a flow of charge, there should be charged ions in the solution that can conduct electricity. Ionic compounds like KOH dissociate in water to furnish ions (K + and OH - ).

KOH(aq) → K + (aq) + OH - (aq) These ions would conduct a charge flow in the circuit and the bulb would glow.

On the contrary, the given covalent compounds like C 2 H 5 OH, C 6 H 12 O 6 (aq), and C 2 H 4

(aq) do not furnish any ions in aqueous solutions. Thus, the bulb does not glow.

116

Q5 Which of the following options represents a pair of oxides correctly matched with their respective nature?

A. CO 2 , Na 2 O [Acidic oxide] B. CaO, Al 2 O 3 [Basic oxide] C. Al 2 O 3 , ZnO [Amphoteric oxide] D. H 2 O, K 2 O [Neutral oxide]

Answer: C. Al 2 O 3 , ZnO [Amphoteric oxide]

Solution: ● Metallic oxides are basic in nature. Examples: CaO, K 2 O, Na 2 O ● Non-metallic oxides are acidic in nature. Example: CO 2 ● However, there are certain metal oxides that react with both acids and bases.

These are known as amphoteric oxides. Examples: ZnO, Al 2 O 3

Q6 A compound D, used in bakeries for making cakes soft and spongy, reacts with hydrochloric acid as per the given reaction.

D + Hydrochloric acid → Salt + Water + Gas T

Which of the given options correctly represents compound D and gas T, respectively?

A. Na 2 SO 3 , SO 2

B. Na 2 SO 4 , SO 2 C. NaHCO 3 , CO 2 D. Na 2 CO 3 , CO 2

Answer: C. NaHCO 3 , CO 2

Solution: It is given that compound D is used in baking. Therefore, D is baking soda or sodium bicarbonate (NaHCO 3 ). When we heat NaHCO 3 , it releases carbon dioxide gas that helps the dough to make the baked items soft and spongy. Chemical reaction:

2NaHCO 3 (s) → Na 2 CO 3 (s) + H 2 O(l) + CO 2 (g) Also, metal bicarbonates react with acids to produce salt, water, and carbon dioxide gas. So, gas T is carbon dioxide (CO 2 ).

NaHCO 3 (aq) + HCl(aq) → NaCl(aq) + H 2 O(l) + CO 2 (g)

Q7 Quicklime reacts with water to produce slaked lime. Identify the type of reaction and the nature of slaked lime.

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Option Type of reaction Nature of slaked lime

A. Combination Acidic

B. Combination Basic

C. Decomposition Basic

D. Decomposition Acidic

Answer: B. Combination, Basic

Solution: Quicklime or calcium oxide reacts with water to produce slaked lime (calcium hydroxide) as per the following chemical reaction:

CaO(s) + H 2 O(l) → Ca(OH) 2 (aq)

Calcium hydroxide is an example of metallic oxides that are generally basic in nature. Thus, Ca(OH) 2 is a basic oxide.

Q8 The reaction of iron with steam takes place as follows: xFe(s) + yH 2 O(g) → pFe 3 O 4 (s) + qH 2 (g)

For the equation to be balanced, what will be the value of (x + y + p + q)?

A. 7 B. 12 C. 24 D. 14

Answer: B. 12

Solution: The number of atoms of each element on the reactant and the product sides of the given reaction is as follows:

Element Number of atoms on the reactant side

Number of atoms on the product side

Fe x 3p

H 2y 2q

O y 4p

To balance the reaction, the number of atoms of each element on the reactant and the product sides should be equal.

118

This means, x = 3p -------------------------- (i) 2y = 2q ⇒ y = q -------------------------- (ii) y = 4p -------------------------- (iii)

Now, let the coefficient associated with the maximum number of elements be 1. ⇒ p = 1 y = 4 [From equation (iii)] q = 4 [From equation (ii)] x = 3 [From equation (i)]

So, x + y + p + q = 3 + 4 + 1 + 4 = 12

Thus, the balanced chemical reaction is: 3Fe(s) + 4H 2 O(g) → Fe 3 O 4 (s) + 4H 2 (g)

Q9 Consider the following reactions: (i) KI(aq) + Pb(NO 3 ) 2 (aq) → (ii) NaOH(aq) + CuSO 4 (aq) → (iii) NaCl(aq) + AgNO 3 (aq) → (iv) BaCl 2 (aq) + Na 2 SO 4 (aq) →

Which of the given cases will form a white precipitate? A. (i) and (ii) B. (ii) and (iii) C. (iii) and (iv) D. (i) and (iv)

Answer: C. (iii) and (iv)

Solution: All the given reactions occur via double displacement and involve the formation of a precipitate.

Reaction (i): 2KI(aq) + Pb(NO 3 ) 2 (aq) → 2KNO 3 (aq) + PbI 2 (s) Lead iodide [PbI 2 ] is a yellow precipitate.

Reaction (ii): 2NaOH(aq) + CuSO 4 (aq) → Na 2 SO 4 (aq) + Cu(OH) 2 (s) Copper hydroxide [Cu(OH) 2 ] is a bluish-white precipitate.

Reaction (iii): NaCl(aq) + AgNO 3 (aq) → NaNO 3 (aq) + AgCl(s)

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Silver chloride [AgCl] is a white precipitate.

Reaction (iv): BaCl 2 (aq) + Na 2 SO 4 (aq) →2NaCl(aq) + BaSO 4 (s) Barium sulphate [BaSO 4 ] is a white precipitate.

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Q10 Which of the following statements is correct for the given reaction? 2HNO 3 (aq) + Ca(OH) 2 (aq) → Ca(NO 3 ) 2 (aq) + H 2 O(l)

A. The reaction follows the law of conservation of mass. B. The mass of reactants is not equal to the mass of products. C. The number of atoms of all elements is the same on the reactant and product

sides. D. The amount of calcium by mass is more on the reactant side as compared to

the product side.

Answer: B. The mass of reactants is not equal to the mass of products.

Solution: Given reaction, 2HNO 3 (aq) + Ca(OH) 2 (aq) → Ca(NO 3 ) 2 (aq) + H 2 O(l)

Element Number of atoms on the reactant Side

Number of atoms on the product side

H 4 2

N 2 2

O 8 7

Ca 1 1

The number of H and O atoms on the reactant and product sides are not equal. ⇒ The equation does not obey the law of conservation of mass. ⇒ The total mass of reactants is not equal to the total mass of products. ⇒ The equation is not balanced.

The balanced equation would be: 2HNO 3 (aq) + Ca(OH) 2 (aq) → Ca(NO 3 ) 2 (aq) + 2H 2 O(l)

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Q11 Observe the given image:

The correct sequence of the path of oxygen-rich blood through the body is:

A. Lungs → Pulmonary vein → Left atrium → Left ventricle → Aorta → Body cells

B. Lungs → Pulmonary artery → Right atrium → Right ventricle → Vena cava → Body cells

C. Lungs → Pulmonary artery → Left atrium → Left ventricle → Vena cava → Body cells

D. Lungs → Pulmonary vein → Right atrium → Right ventricle → Aorta → Body cells

Answer: A. Lungs → Pulmonary vein → Left atrium → Left ventricle → Aorta → Body cells

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Solution: Oxygenated blood from the lungs enters the left atrium through the pulmonary vein . From the left atrium, it enters the left ventricle . From the left ventricle, the oxygenated blood is transported through the aorta where it branches into many arteries to supply oxygenated blood to all body cells. Thus, the correct flow is: Lungs → Pulmonary vein → Left atrium → Left ventricle → Aorta → Body cells

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Q12 The given image shows bread mould growing on a piece of bread. How do these bread moulds obtain nutrition?

A. By using nutrients from the bread to prepare their own food B. By allowing other organisms to grow on the bread and then consuming them C. By breaking down the nutrients of bread and then absorbing them D. By directly ingesting the bread on which they are growing

Answer: C. By breaking down the nutrients of bread and then absorbing them

Solution: Bread moulds are examples of fungi. They follow a saprotrophic mode of nutrition. These organisms breakdown the food material outside the body and absorb it.

Q13 The function of the glomerulus and Bowman’s capsule of the nephron is to: A. Reabsorb water into the blood B. Eliminate ammonia from the body C. Reabsorb salts and amino acids D. Filter the blood and collect the filtrate

Answer : D. Filter the blood and collect the filtrate

Solution : The function of the glomerulus is to filter the blood and produce the nephric filtrate.The Bowman’s capsule collects the filtrate and passes it to the other parts of the nephron.

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Q14 Study the diagram of the human digestive system. Select the option that correctly identifies the part and its function/characteristics.

A. (i) Oesophagus : Mixes food with digestive juices B. (ii) Appendix : Produces and stores bile C. (iii) Stomach : Site of complete digestion of carbohydrates, proteins, and fats D. (iv) Pancreas : Releases juice that helps in breakdown of proteins and fats

Answer: D. (iv) Pancreas : Releases juice that helps in breakdown of proteins and fats

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Solution: The pancreas secretes pancreatic juice that contains enzymes like trypsinogen and lipases. Trypsinogen is activated to trypsin and is responsible for digesting proteins, while lipase is responsible for breaking down emulsified fats.

Q15 The given image represents an activity to prove the requirements for photosynthesis. During this activity, two healthy potted plants are kept in the dark for about 72 hours. After 72 hours, potassium hydroxide (which absorbs CO 2 ) is kept in the watch glass in setup (i). Both of these setups are air-tight and have been kept in light for 6 hours. After this, dilute iodine solution (brown in colour) is added to one leaf from each of the two plants (i) and (ii).

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What results will we get on performing the starch iodine test on the leaf of plant (i) and plant (ii), respectively?


A Blue-black Brown

B Brown Blue-black

C Blue-black Blue-black

D Brown Brown

Answer: B.


B. Brown Blue-black

Solution: Plants perform photosynthesis in the presence of carbon dioxide, water, sunlight, and chlorophyll. Both the plants were destarched. When placed in sunlight, plant (ii) starts performing photosynthesis, but plant (i) does not. Plant (i) has no carbon dioxide available since potassium hydroxide (KOH) absorbs it. So, it gives a negative starch test.

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Q16 Observe the diagram of the human respiratory system.

Match the labelling in column I and correlate them with the functions in column II.

Column I Column II

i. a) Contracts and moves downwards during inhalation

ii. b) Ensures that the air passage does not collapse.

iii. c) Moves upwards and outwards during inhalation

iv. d) Provides a surface where the exchange of gases can take place

A. i. – a); ii. – b); iii. – c); iv. – d) B. i. – b); ii. – c); iii. – d); iv. – a) C. i. – b); ii. – a); iii. – d); iv. – c) D. i. – d); ii. – a); iii. – b); iv. – c)

Answer: B. i. – b); ii. – c); iii. – d); iv. – a)

Solution: i. Rings of cartilage: They are present in the trachea and they ensure that the air passage does not collapse. ii. Ribs: The ribs move upwards and outwards during inhalation. iii. Alveoli: They provide a thin, moist surface where the exchange of gases can take place.

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iv. Diaphragm: It contracts and moves downwards during inhalation.

Q17 Identify the type of mirror used in the given figure.

A. Concave B. Convex C. Plane D. None of the above

Answer : A. Concave

Solution: ● Out of all kinds of mirrors, concave mirrors can form magnified images when

the object is placed at a certain distance from the pole of the mirror. ● Hence, concave mirrors are widely used by doctors to examine teeth and the

inner parts of the ear.

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Q18 Where should an object be placed in front of a convex lens to get a real image of the same size as the object?

A. At the principal focus of the lens B. At twice the focal length C. At infinity D. Between the optical centre of the lens and the principal focus

Answer : B. At twice the focal length

Solution:

From the image formation by a convex lens ray diagram: ● Position of object: At 2F 1 ● Image position: At 2F 2 ● Nature and size of the image: Real, inverted, and same size as object

Q19 Choose the correct ray diagram for the given incident ray.

A.

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B.

C.

D.

Answer : A.

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Solution: ● An incident ray passing through the focus of a convex lens emerges as a ray

parallel to the principal axis after being refracted from the lens.

Q20 The refractive index of air, water, diamond, and crown glass is 1.0003, 1.33, 2.42, and 1.52, respectively. In which medium would the speed of light be the slowest?

A. Air B. Water C. Diamond D. Crown glass

Answer : C. Diamond

Solution: From the definition of refractive index, µ = 𝑐

𝑉

Where c is the speed of light in a vacuum and V is the speed of light in a medium ⇒ 𝑉 = 𝑐

µ

∴ 𝑉 ∞ 1 µ

● Thus, the speed of light in a medium is inversely proportional to the refractive index of the medium.

● It means that if the refractive index of the medium is more, the speed of light in that medium will be less.

● Hence, in this case, the speed of light is slowest in the diamond.

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Q21 While doing the prism experiment, Rakesh passed a monochromatic light through the prism. Which of the following phenomena will he observe?

A. Dispersion B. Refraction C. Reflection D. Both refraction and dispersion

Answer: B. Refraction

Solution:

● Rakesh will be able to see the refraction of light through the prism. ● He will not be able to see dispersion because the source of light is

monochromatic, which has only one wavelength.

Q22 A concave mirror of radius of curvature R produces a real image n times the size of the object. The distance of the object from the mirror is:

A. − 2 ( 𝑛 − 1 ) 𝑅 B.

−( 𝑛 − 1 ) 2 𝑛 𝑅

C. −( 𝑛 + 1 ) 𝑅

2 𝑛

D. −( 𝑛 + 1 )

2 𝑅

Answer : C. −( 𝑛 + 1 ) 𝑅

2 𝑛

Solution: A real image with magnification n is given by,

𝑚 = − 𝑣 𝑢 = − 𝑛

So, v = nu

From the mirror formula, 1 𝑣 + 1

𝑢 = 1 𝑓

1 𝑛𝑢 + 1

𝑢 = − 2 𝑅

⇒ 𝑢 = −( 𝑛 + 1 ) 𝑅 2 𝑛

Q23 When light enters from medium P to medium Q, the value of is less than 1, 𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝑖 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑟

which means:

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A. P is optically denser than Q. B. Q is optically denser than P. C. P and Q have the same optical density. D. P and Q are opaque.

Answer : A. P is optically denser than Q.

Solution: Given,

< 1 𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝑖 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑟

⇒ sin i < sin r ⇒ ∠i < ∠r

Angle of incidence < Angle of refraction

● It means that when a light ray travels from medium P to medium Q, the ray bends away from the normal.

● We know that when a light ray travels from a denser medium to a rarer medium, it bends away from the normal.

● Hence, medium P is optically denser than medium Q.

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Q24 If white light falls on the system arranged in the given manner, what will be the colour of the light coming from the third prism?

A. Only yellow colour B. Seven different colours C. Only red colour D. Only violet colour

Answer : B. Seven different colours

Solution :

● Light disperses into seven colours after passing through the first prism. ● The seven colours coming out from the first prism fall on the second prism

and recombine again because of the reversal of the dispersion phenomenon. ● The emergent light from the second prism is a white light that falls on the

third prism. ● Since the incident light is a white light on the third prism, the emergent light is

a seven-coloured VIBGYOR spectrum.

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Q25 A food safety officer is given the responsibility to prepare two compounds X and Y. Compound X will be used for curdling of milk to produce cheese, while compound Y will be used to produce antacids. Identify the correct reagents from the given table to manufacture X and Y, respectively.

Reagent pH

P 2

Q 7

R 5

S 8

A. P and R B. Q and R C. R and S D. S and P

Answer: C. R and S

Solution: Given, X: Used for the curdling of milk ⇒ X: Mild acidic substance (pH < 7) Y: Used to produce antacids ⇒ Y: Mild basic substance (pH > 7)

Out of the given substances, R (pH = 5) and S (pH = 8) are the most suitable reagents for curdling the milk and producing antacids, respectively.

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Q26 A gardener analyses a soil sample before using it to grow Brussels sprouts. The pH of the soil is 4.5. It is not suitable for growing the crop in the current state since the optimum pH range for the growth of Brussels sprouts is between 6 and 7.5. Which of the following salts can be added to the soil to make it fit for the growth?

A. X B. Y C. P D. Q

Answer: C. P

Solution: The pH of the given soil is 4.5, which means that it is acidic. To increase the basic nature of the soil, a salt with pH > 7 should be used. Out of the given options, P has a pH > 7 and can be used in fields to grow crops.

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Q27 A school is planning to install a bell on the campus. The administration has listed down its requirements as follows:

1. The bell should be loud enough for the entire school to hear it. 2. It should be strong and durable. 3. It should be shiny so as to impart a good look to it.

Which of the following materials can be used to manufacture the bell?

A. Copper B. Ceramic C. Sodium D. Plastic

Answer: A. Copper

Solution: To meet the requirements for manufacturing the bell, a substance should be sonorous, strong, durable, and lustrous. All these are the physical properties of metals. Out of the given options, copper and sodium are metals. However, sodium is a soft and non-sonorous metal. Thus, copper is the correct option.

Q28 Upon heating, a salt S produces compound X, water, and a gas Y according to the following reaction:

Salt S belongs to the sodium family and gives a blue colour with the universal indicator. X on treatment with water forms washing soda. Y is a gas that turns limewater milky. Based on the given information, select the correct option that represents S, X, and Y.

Option S X Y

A. NaCl NaOCl 2 Cl 2

B. Na 2 CO 3 NaHCO 3 CO 2

C. NaHCO 3 Na 2 CO 3 CO 2

D. CH 3 COONa Na 2 CO 3 CO 2

Answer: C). S – NaHCO 3 , X – Na 2 CO 3 , Y – CO 2

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Solution: It is given that salt S gives a blue colour with the universal indicator. This implies that S is a basic salt. Out of the given options, Na 2 CO 3 , NaHCO 3 , and CH 3 COONa are basic salts. On heating, S produces a substance X that forms washing soda (Na 2 CO 3 .10H 2 O) when treated with water.

Na 2 CO 3 (s) + 10H 2 O(l) → Na 2 CO 3 .10H 2 O(s) So, X is Na 2 CO 3 (sodium carbonate). It is given that gas Y evolved during the reaction that turns limewater milky. Thus, Y is carbon dioxide (CO 2 ).

Ca(OH) 2 (aq) + CO 2 (g) → CaCO 3 (s) + H 2 O(l)

Therefore, the given reaction is: 2NaHCO 3 (s) → Na 2 CO 3 (s) + H 2 O(l) + CO 2 (g)

Q29 Which of the following equations represents a redox reaction?

A. NaOH + HCl → NaCl + H 2 O B. CuO + H 2 → Cu + H 2 O C. Na 2 SO 4 + BaCl 2 → 2NaCl + BaSO 4

D. NH 4 OH + CH 3 COOH → CH 3 COONH 4 + H 2 O

Answer: B. CuO + H 2 → Cu + H 2 O

Solution: The nature of each reaction is discussed as follows: A. NaOH + HCl → NaCl + H 2 O

This is a neutralisation reaction that involves the reaction of an acid (HCl) with a base (NaOH) to produce salt (NaCl) and water.

B. CuO + H 2 → Cu + H 2 O CuO loses oxygen and gets reduced to Cu. Similarly, H 2 gains oxygen and gets oxidised to H 2 O. Also, the equation obeys the law of conservation of mass. Hence, it is a balanced redox reaction.

C. Na 2 SO 4 + BaCl 2 → 2NaCl + BaSO 4

This is a double displacement reaction that involves the formation of a precipitate (BaSO 4 ).

D. NH 4 OH + CH 3 COOH → CH 3 COONH 4 + H 2 O This is a neutralisation reaction that involves the reaction of an acid (CH 3 COOH) with a base (NH 4 OH) to produce a salt (CH 3 COONH 4 ) and water.

Q30 Study the given reactions and their characteristics provided in the table.

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(i) MN + S → MS + NS - Heat (ii) P + Q → PQ + Heat

Observation Reaction (i) Reaction (ii)

a Combination Exothermic

b Endothermic Exothermic

c Endothermic Combination

A. a B. b C. Both b and c D. Both a and c

Answer: C. Both b and c

Solution: The nature of the given reactions is discussed as follows: ● MN + S → MS + NS - Heat

In the given reaction, heat written on the product side with a minus sign denotes that it is absorbed during the reaction. It can also be represented as: MN + S + Heat → MS + NS So, this is an endothermic reaction.

● P + Q → PQ + Heat In the given reaction, heat written on the product side with a plus sign denotes that heat energy is evolved in this reaction. Thus, it is an exothermic reaction. Also, it forms a single product, which implies that it is a combination reaction.

Questions 31 to 34 consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Answer these questions by selecting the appropriate options given below:

A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A. B. Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A. C. A is true, but R is false. D. A is false, but R is true.

Q31 Assertion: Ionic compounds conduct electricity when dissolved in water. Reason: A solution of an ionic compound contains ions, and the movement of these ions conducts electricity.

Answer: A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

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Solution: An ionic compound is composed of ions that are charged particles. When an ionic compound is dissolved in water, the ions become mobile and the movement of these ions through the electric circuit helps in the conduction of electricity.

Q32 Assertion: An unknown element Y is treated with water to produce a gas Z that is collected by downward displacement of water. Reason: Z is less dense than water and turns limewater milky.

Answer: C. A is true, but R is false.

Solution: Metals like sodium and potassium form the respective hydroxide and liberate hydrogen gas when dissolved in water.

Metal (Y) + Water → Metal hydroxide + Hydrogen gas Hydrogen is collected by downward displacement of water as it is:

● Less dense than water ● Insoluble in water

Hydrogen gas does not turn limewater milky. So, the assertion is correct but the reason is not.

Q33 Assertion: In the human heart, there is no mixing of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood. Reason: Valves present in the heart allow the movement of blood in one direction.

Answer: B. Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.

Solution: In the human heart, there is no mixing of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood as there are different chambers for oxygenated and deoxygenated blood and double circulation. Such separation allows a highly efficient supply of oxygen to the body. This is useful in animals that have high energy needs like birds and mammals, who constantly use energy to maintain their body temperature. On the other hand, valves ensure that blood does not flow backwards when the atria or ventricles contract. Hence, both assertion and reason are correct, but the reason is not the correct solution of the assertion.

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Q34 Assertion: The sky appears dark instead of blue to an astronaut. Reason: Scattering of sunlight cannot happen in outer space due to the absence of atmosphere.

Answer: A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

Solution:

i. Scattering of light is a phenomenon that results in the sky appearing blue. ii. Fine dust particles in Earth's atmosphere scatter the sunlight. iii. Scattering of light cannot happen in outer space due to the absence of the

atmosphere. Therefore, the sky appears dark instead of blue to an astronaut.

Q35 A beaker contains a solution of cold water and a colourless substance P. On adding element X to the solution, there is a violent reaction and the solution turns pink. Which of the following options correctly represents the substances P and X and the nature of the product formed?

Option P X Nature of product

A. Phenolphthalein Copper Acidic

B. Phenolphthalein Potassium Basic

C. Universal indicator Copper Basic

D. Universal indicator Potassium Acidic

Answer: B. Phenolphthalein, Potassium, Basic

Solution: Given, Beaker contains cold water + P Element X + Solution (cold water + P) → Pink colouration

The phenolphthalein indicator attains pink colour in basic solutions. Thus, the product formed is basic in nature. Also, element X reacts with cold water, which implies that X is a highly reactive metal. Hence, out of the given options, element X would be potassium . 2K(s) + 2H 2 O(l) → 2KOH(aq) + H 2 (g)

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Q36 Among the following, choose the correct option that includes the organisms that have a holozoic mode of nutrition.

A. Plasmodium and Amoeba B. Cuscuta and Paramoecium C. Plasmodium and Cuscuta D. Paramoecium and Amoeba

Answer: D. Paramoecium and Amoeba

Solution: Among the given options, Paramoecium and Amoeba have a holozoic mode of nutrition. Here, the complex food materials are taken and broken into simpler forms inside the body of the organisms. On the other hand, Cuscuta and Plasmodium have a parasitic mode of nutrition. These organisms derive nutrition from plants or animals without killing them.

Q37 Choose the event that does not occur in photosynthesis.

A. Absorption of light energy by chlorophyll B. Reduction of carbon dioxide to carbohydrates C. Oxidation of carbon to carbon dioxide D. Conversion of light energy into chemical energy

Answer: C. Oxidation of carbon to carbon dioxide

Solution: The following events occur during photosynthesis:

i. Absorption of light energy by chlorophyll ii. Conversion of light energy into chemical energy and splitting of water

molecules into hydrogen and oxygen iii. Reduction of carbon dioxide to carbohydrates

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Q38 Which substances are produced during anaerobic respiration in yeast?

Option Carbon dioxide

Alcohol Lactic acid Water

A. Yes Yes No No

B. Yes No Yes No

C. No Yes No Yes

D. No No Yes Yes

Answer: A.

Solution: During anaerobic respiration in yeast, ethanol and carbon dioxide are produced. Glucose is broken down into pyruvate (3C molecule) in the cytoplasm. Further, the pyruvate is converted into ethanol and carbon dioxide.

Q39 If lens A has a focal length +15 cm and lens B has a focal length +30 cm, find the lens that has more power.

A. Lens A has more power. B. Lens B has more power. C. Both the lenses have the same power. D. The power of the lenses cannot be determined.

Answer: A. Lens A has more power.

Solution:

Given, Focal length of lens A, 𝑓

𝐴 = + 15 𝑐𝑚 = + 0 . 15 𝑚

Focal length of lens B, 𝑓

𝐵 = + 30 𝑐𝑚 = + 0 . 30 𝑚

Since,

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𝑃𝑜𝑤𝑒𝑟 ( 𝑃 ) = 1 𝐹𝑜𝑐𝑎𝑙 𝑙𝑒𝑛𝑔𝑡ℎ ( 𝑓 )

Therefore, 𝑃

𝐴 = 1

0 . 15 = 6 . 66 𝐷

𝑃 𝐵

= 1 0 . 30 = 3 . 33 𝐷

Hence, > 𝑃 𝐴

𝑃 𝐵

Q40 Three concave mirrors are cut from a sphere and are placed in such a way that the Sun (which is at infinity) lies on the principal axis of mirror 2. What will be the position of the image(s) formed by these three mirrors?

A. At F 1 , F 2 , and F 3

B. At C C. At P 1 , P 2 , and P 3

D. At F 2 only

Answer: D. At F 2 only

Solution: ● If the mirror was complete, the image of an object kept at infinity would be

formed at focus F 2 .

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● If some parts of the mirrors are blocked or cut to form three mirrors as shown in the question, the position of the image will not be affected. However, the brightness of the image reduces (due to the missing part of the mirror).

● Therefore, the image will be formed at F 2 .

Q41 Choose the forms in which most plants absorb nitrogen. (i) Proteins (ii) Nitrates and nitrites (iii) Urea (iv) Atmospheric nitrogen


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Answer: B. (ii) Nitrates and nitrites, (iii) Urea

Solution: Plants cannot absorb atmospheric nitrogen directly. They can absorb nitrogen in the form of nitrates, nitrites, and urea.

Q42 If saliva contains less amount of salivary amylase, then which of the following events will be adversely affected?

A. Proteins breaking down into amino acids B. Starch breaking down into sugars C. Fats breaking down into fatty acids and glycerol D. Absorption of vitamins

Answer: B. Starch breaking down into sugars

Solution: Salivary amylase is an enzyme present in the saliva. It is responsible for the breakdown of starch into simple sugars. If salivary amylase is present in less amounts in the saliva, then the function of starch breakdown will be adversely affected.

Q43 Find the position of the image (v) and magnification (m) produced by the convex lens if the first image formed by the plane mirror is taken as an object for the given convex lens. Here, F 1 is the principal focus of the convex lens.

A. v = 40 cm from the lens and m = -1 B. v = 20 cm from the lens and m = 1 C. v = 30 cm from the lens and m = -1 D. v = 10 cm from the lens and m = 1

Answer: A. v = 40 cm from the lens and m = -1

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Solution: In a plane mirror, the image is formed behind the mirror at the same distance as the object is in front of it. Therefore, the total distance of the image in the plane mirror from the convex lens is 40 cm (20 cm + 10 cm + 10 cm). This image is to be taken as the object for the convex lens.

Given, the focal length of the convex lens is 20 cm. Since the object is at 40 cm from the convex lens, it means that the object is at 2F 1 . From the ray diagram, we have,

Therefore, the image is formed at 40 cm from the lens.

Therefore,

u = -40 cm

v = 40 cm

Magnification, m = = -1 𝑣 𝑢 = 40

− 40

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Q44 Which of the following ray diagrams correctly represents the image formation of an object placed between the centre of curvature and the focus of a concave mirror?

A.

B.

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C.

D.

Answer: C.

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Solution: ● After reflection, a ray parallel to the principal axis of a concave mirror will

pass through the principal focus. ● After reflection, a ray passing through the principal focus of a concave mirror

will emerge parallel to the principal axis. ● Therefore, for the object placed between C and F, the correct ray diagram for

the image formation is:

Q45 A ray of light is allowed to pass through three media of absolute refractive indices μ 1 , μ 2 , and μ 3 , respectively as shown (given that ray RS' is parallel to ray PQ). Which of the following is correct?

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A. μ 1 > μ 2 > μ 3

B. μ 1 < μ 2 < μ 3

C. μ 1 = μ 3 < μ 2

D. μ 1 < μ 3 < μ 2

Answer: C. μ 1 = μ 3 < μ 2

Solution: From Snell’s law, we have,

.--------- (a) µ 1 𝑠𝑖𝑛 θ

1 = µ

2 𝑠𝑖𝑛 θ

2

Where and are the angles made by the incident ray and refracted ray, θ 1

θ 2

respectively with the normal.

Considering rays PQ and QR, the angle made by ray PQ with the normal is greater than the angle made by ray QR with the normal, i.e., > . θ

1 θ

2

Therefore, from equation (a), μ 1 < μ 2 --------- (b)

Since rays PQ and RS’ are parallel to each other, the angle made by ray PQ with the normal is equal to the angle made by the ray RS’ with the normal. Therefore, from equation (a)

= .--------- (c) µ 3

µ 1

Hence, from equations (b) and (c), we get, μ 1 = μ 3 < μ 2

Q46 If the absolute refractive index of the diamond is 2.42, what is the velocity of light in it?

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A. 2 . 41 × 10 8 𝑚 / 𝑠

B. 1 . 23 × 10 8 𝑚 / 𝑠

C. 1 . 75 × 10 8 𝑚 / 𝑠

D. 2 . 66 × 10 8 𝑚 / 𝑠

Answer: B. 1 . 23 × 10 8 𝑚 / 𝑠

Solution: The absolute refractive index of diamond is, µ

𝑑 = 𝑐

𝑉 𝑑

𝑉 𝑑

= 3 × 10 8

2 . 42 = 1 . 23 × 10 8 𝑚 / 𝑠

Q47 When viewed using a convex lens, a 10 cm tall candle appears to be 30 cm tall as shown in the figure. The focal length of the lens is 5 cm. What is the object distance?

A. 10 cm B. 1 cm C. 20 cm D. 3.33 cm

Answer: D. 3.33 cm

Solution: Given, Height of the object (h) = 10 cm

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Height of the image (h’) = 30 cm Focal length (f) = 5 cm Magnification,

𝑚 = ℎ ' ℎ = 30

10 = 3

Also, 𝑚 = 𝐼𝑚𝑎𝑔𝑒 𝑑𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑐𝑒 ( 𝑣 ) 𝑂𝑏𝑗𝑒𝑐𝑡 𝑑𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑐𝑒 ( 𝑢 ) = 3

Therefore, v = 3u From the lens formula, 1 𝑓 = 1

𝑣 − 1 𝑢

1 5 = 1

3 𝑢 − 1 𝑢

u = -3.33 cm Therefore, the object distance is 3.33 cm.

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Q48 Certain properties of elements X, Y, and Z are given below.

X Y Z

(a) Reaction with water Forms oxide Forms hydroxide Forms hydroxide

(b) Reaction with CaCl 2 (aq) No reaction Forms metal

chloride No reaction

(c) Melting point High Low High

Identify elements X, Y, and Z, respectively.

A. Zn, Cu, Al B. Fe, Na, Mg C. Fe, Li, Zn D. K, Na, Mg

Answer: B. Fe, Na, Mg

Solution: The given properties of the elements X, Y, and Z can be interpreted as follows:

(a) Reaction with water ● Iron reacts with steam to form iron oxide and hydrogen gas.

3Fe(s) + 4H 2 O(g) → Fe 3 O 4 (s) + 4H 2 (g) ● Sodium reacts with water to form sodium hydroxide and hydrogen

gas. 2Na(s) + 2H 2 O(l) → 2NaOH(aq) + H 2 (g)

● Magnesium reacts with water to form magnesium hydroxide and hydrogen gas. Mg(s) + 2H 2 O(l) → Mg(OH) 2 (aq) + H 2 (g)

(b) Reaction with CaCl 2

● Iron, being less reactive than calcium, cannot displace it from calcium chloride solution. Fe(s) + CaCl 2 (aq) → No reaction

● Sodium, being more reactive than calcium, displaces it from calcium chloride solution to form sodium chloride. Na(s) + CaCl 2 (aq) → 2NaCl(aq) + Ca(s)

● Magnesium, being less reactive than calcium, cannot displace it from calcium chloride solution. Mg(s) + CaCl 2 (aq) → No reaction

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(c) The metals, iron and magnesium, have high melting points while sodium has a low melting point.

Section - C Section - C consists of three cases followed by questions. Out of the 12 questions in this section, attempt any 10. The first 10 questions attempted would be evaluated.

Case Odisha is a land of red soil. The red colour of the soil is due to the presence of large deposits of different ores of iron. The abundance of iron in these ores is represented in the table.

Iron ore Formula % Iron

Haematite Fe 2 O 3 70

Magnetite Fe 3 O 4 72

Siderite FeCO 3 48

Iron pyrite FeS 2 47

The extraction of iron from these ores follows different processes.

Q49 Which of the following elements will form a compound having a chemical formula similar to that of siderite ore?

A. Al B. Sn C. Mg D. Si

Answer: C. Mg

Solution: The formula of siderite ore is FeCO 3 . Here, iron has a charge of +2 and carbonate has a charge of -2. So, the element which forms a compound similar to siderite ore should also form a di-positive ion. Out of the given elements, only magnesium (Mg) can form a di-positive ion. Formula of the compound: MgCO 3

Q50 On oxidation, iron pyrite produces a gas that turns moist blue litmus paper red. What will be the pH of an aqueous solution of the gas?

A. 1.1

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B. 5.9 C. 7.8 D. 8.6

Answer: A. 1.1

Solution: Iron pyrite (FeS 2 ) is a sulphide ore. On oxidation, it produces iron oxide and sulphur dioxide gas.

4FeS 2 (s) + 11O 2 (g) → 2Fe 2 O 3 (s) + 8SO 2 (g)

Under excess supply of oxygen, when SO 2 dissolves in water, it produces sulphuric acid, which is a strong acid with a pH value of 1.1.

SO 2 (g) + O 2 (g) + H 2 O(l) → H 2 SO 4 (aq)

Q51

Substance A is an iron ore and B is a gas. Which of the following correctly represents A and B?

A. A = Fe 2 O 3 and B = O 2

B. A = Fe 3 O 4 and B = H 2

C. A = Fe 2 O 3 and B = H 2

D. A = Fe 3 O 4 and B = O 2

Answer: B. A = Fe 3 O 4 and B = H 2

Solution: When steam passes through red hot iron, it produces iron(III) oxide and hydrogen gas.

3Fe(s) + 4H 2 O(g) → Fe 3 O 4 (s) + 4H 2 (g)

A is an iron ore, which implies that it is Fe 3 O 4 (magnetite). B burns with a pop sound, which implies that B is H 2 .

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Q52 Iron can be extracted from siderite ore through the following reaction: FeCO 3 (s) → FeO(s) + CO 2 (g)

Identify the type of reaction. A. Combination B. Decomposition C. Displacement D. Double displacement

Answer: B. Decomposition

Solution: In the given reaction, a single compound breaks into more than one simpler products. Thus, this is an example of a decomposition reaction.

Case Avinash was running in a marathon. With the finish line in sight, he started running faster. As he was about to reach the line, he got a severe muscle cramp in his leg. This cramp prevented Avinash from running any further and he lost the marathon. Read the above passage carefully and answer the following questions:

Q53 The process that provided most of the energy to Avinash for running the marathon is:

A. Anaerobic respiration B. Aerobic respiration C. Fermentation D. Breathing

Answer: B. Aerobic respiration

Solution: The process that provided most of the energy to Avinash for running the marathon is aerobic respiration. The breakdown of glucose in the presence of oxygen is known as aerobic respiration. It yields about 36 or 38 molecules of ATP.

Q54 A substance that likely accumulated in Avinash’s leg muscle cells is ______.

A. pyruvate B. ethanol C. carbon dioxide D. lactic acid

Answer: D. lactic acid

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Solution: A substance that likely accumulated in Avinash’s leg muscle cells is lactic acid. This happens due to lack of oxygen in the muscle cells. Here, the pyruvate is converted into lactic acid.

Q55 The given graph represents the amount of energy supplied with respect to the time while an athlete is running at full speed. Study the graph and choose the option that correctly represents plot A and plot B.



B. Anaerobic Aerobic

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C. Anaerobic Anaerobic

D. Aerobic Aerobic

Answer: A.



Solution: Plot A corresponds to aerobic respiration, while plot B corresponds to anaerobic respiration. The amount of energy produced is high and consistent in aerobic respiration.

Q56 Which of the following is correct for the process of anaerobic respiration?

Option CO 2 is always produced A lot of energy is released

A. Yes No

B. No Yes

C. No No

D. Yes Yes

Answer: C. No, No

Solution: Anaerobic respiration happens in the absence of oxygen. It does not always produce carbon dioxide. Lack of oxygen in the muscle cell yields lactic acid with the release of little energy. The release of energy in the aerobic process is greater than that in the anaerobic process.

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Case Ram is experimenting with tracing the path of light through a glass slab as shown.

The teacher asked Ram to take the angle of incidence between and and 30 ◦ 60 ◦

ensure that the glass slab does not displace its boundary during the experiment. He tabulated the corresponding values of the angle of refraction (r) and the angle of emergence (e) with different angles of incidence (i).

Ram Reading 1 Reading 2 Reading 3 Reading 4

∠i 30 ◦ 32 ◦ 40 ◦ 35 ◦

∠r 18 ◦ 20 ◦ 24 ◦ 20 . 5 ◦

∠e 30 ◦ 32 ◦ 40 ◦ 37 ◦

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Q57 The teacher now asked Ram to make a setup where the emergent ray coming out from glass slab 1 is the incident ray for glass slab 2. If both the glass slabs have the same refractive index, what will be the angle of emergence (e)?

A. 45 ◦

B. 20 ◦

C. 30 ◦

D. 70 ◦

Answer: C. 30 ◦

Solution:

● In multiple refractions through a glass slab, if the incident ray and the emergent ray have the same medium, the rays will be parallel.

● Hence, the angle of incidence is equal to the angle of emergence, which is

. 30 ◦

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Q58 The teacher asked Ram to pass the light that travels from medium 1 (air) to medium 2 (glass) such that the angle of incidence is and the angle of refraction is . 45 ◦ 30 ◦

What will be the refractive index of the second medium with respect to the first medium?

A. 1.41 B. 1.50 C. 1.23 D. 1

Answer: A. 1.41

Solution: Refractive index of medium 2 with respect to medium 1 is,

1 µ

2 = 𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝑖

𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝑟 = 𝑠𝑖𝑛 45 ◦

𝑠𝑖𝑛 30 ◦=

1 2

1 2

= 1 . 41

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Q59 The teacher asked Ram to pass the light at an angle of with respect to the glass θ slab such that no refraction takes place. What will be the angle ? θ

A. 45 ◦

B. 90 ◦

C. 30 ◦

D. 70 ◦

Answer: B. 90 ◦

● When a light incident is oblique to an interface, it either bends towards the normal or away from the normal.

● However, when it is incident at with the interface, which means that it is 90 ◦

parallel to the normal, it neither bends away nor towards. ● Therefore, no refraction occurs when light enters the medium normally, i.e.,

at a right angle with respect to the glass slab.

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Q60 Considering all the four readings, the teacher told Ram that one of his readings is incorrect. Find the incorrect reading.

A. Reading 1 B. Reading 2 C. Reading 3 D. Reading 4

Answer: D. Reading 4

Solution: ● When a light ray passes from air to glass, it bends towards the normal due to

the high refractive index of glass. ● The same ray acts as an incident ray for the inner surface of the glass slab

and emerges away from the normal due to a rarer medium (air). ● As the ratio of refractive indices of air and glass slab are the same in both

cases, the emergent ray will be parallel to the incident ray. ● It means that the angle of incidence is equal to the angle of emergence. ● Therefore, Reading 4 is incorrect.

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SOCIAL SCIENCE

Q1 Which among the following monarchs was requested to be the German King but under the provisions of the Parliament and the Constitution?

A. Emmanuel II B. Guisepo Manzzini C. Friedrich Wilhelm IV D. Louis XVIII

Answer: (C) Friedrich Wilhelm IV

Solution: Friedrich Wilhelm IV was requested to be the German King but under the provisions of the Parliament and the Constitution.

Q2 What was the name of the female character that was used to depict the German nation-state?

A. Marianne B. Germania C. Leopold D. Delacroix

Answer: (B) Germania

Solution : Many artists in the 18th century used allegorical paintings to raise nationalistic feelings among their fellow countrymen. Allegories represent abstract ideas portrayed as real-life characters. Germania was a princess warrior who represented the German nation-state.

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Q3 Which among the following artists used his paintings to portray his utopian vision of the world, symbolising fraternity among nation-states?

A. Frederic Sorrieu B. Michaelangelo C. Pablo Picaso D. Dante Aleghieri

Answer: (A) Frederic Sorrieu

Solution: Frederic Sorrieu used his paintings to portray his utopian vision of the world, symbolising fraternity among nation-states.

Q4 Who among the following was the mastermind behind the plan to unify Italy?

A. Louis Blanc B. Jacob Grimm C. Camillo de Cavour D. Karol Kurpiński

Answer: (C) Camillo de Cavour

Solution: The Chief Minister of Sardinia–Piedmont, Count Camillo de Cavour, was the mastermind behind the plan to unify Italy. He was not a revolutionary. He belonged to the elite, educated class. He made a diplomatic alliance with the French and together they defeated the Austrian forces controlling North Italy in 1859.

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Q5 The word ‘Liberalism’ has been derived from the Latin word, ‘Liber'. What does Liber mean?

A. Free B. Success C. Captive D. War

Answer: (A) Free

Solution: The word ‘Liberalism’ has been derived from the Latin word, ‘Liber’, which means ‘free’. In the political sphere, Liberalism stood for the end of autocracy and clerical privileges, and rooted for a government based on the consent of the people. Liberalism also claimed the importance of inviolability of private property and was strongly associated with individual freedom and equality before the law.

Q6 During the second half of the eighteenth century, industries began to develop in ______.

A. France B. England C. Germany D. Russia

Answer: (B) England

Solution: Industries began to develop in England during the second half of the eighteenth century, and by the nineteenth century, industrialisation spread across France and parts of German states. In Western and Central Europe, with the increase of industrial production and trade, there was a growth of towns and new job opportunities for people.

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Q7 When does a ‘coming together federation’ get formed?

A. When independent states do not come together but pool their sovereignty voluntarily

B. When independent states come together but keep their sovereignty C. When independent states come together and pool their sovereignty

forcefully D. When independent states come together and pool their sovereignty

voluntarily

Answer: (D) When independent states come together and pool their sovereignty voluntarily

Solution: In a ‘coming together federation’, independent states come together and pool their sovereignty voluntarily. Being a part of a bigger nation would make individual states feel more secure. Having more resources and people is a good idea to prevent other nations from attacking.

Q8 Which constitutional amendment introduced municipal councils and corporations in India?

A. 73rd B. 74th C. 75th D. 76th

Answer: (B) 74th

Solution: The 74th amendment, introduced in 1992, gave birth to municipal councils and corporations in India. These institutions derive their powers from the individual state governments.

Q9 Which of the following articles of the Indian Constitution gives special provisions to some states for their development?

A. 371 B. 271 C. 471 D. 71

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Answer: (A) 371

Solution: Some states face many disadvantages. Some of them have hilly terrains, strategic international borders and economic backwardness. Others have poor infrastructure and non-viable state finances. To assist them in their development, certain provisions are provided in the Constitution of India, under Article 371.

Q10 Which of the following bodies ensures that constitutional provisions are upheld in all laws and policies in India?

A. Executive B. Legislature C. Judiciary D. NITI Aayog

Answer: (C) Judiciary

Solution: The Judiciary has the power to interpret the basic structure of the Indian Constitution. It oversees the implementation of constitutional provisions, and ensures that all laws and policies framed by the other two organs are in keeping with the spirit of the Constitution.

Q11 When did Sri Lanka gain independence?

A. 1946 B. 1947 C. 1948 D. 1984

Answer: (C) 1948

Solution: India and Sri Lanka won their independence one year apart. India gained independence in 1947, and Sri Lanka won its independence in 1948.

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Q12 Which of the following can be categorised as an institutional reform?

A. Using high yielding variety seeds B. Using tractors C. Using chemicals and fertilisers D. Reforms in land ownership

Answer: (D) Reforms in land ownership

Solution: Reforms related to land ownership, crop subsidies, and selling of farm produce are called institutional reforms. These reforms ensure a holistic development of the farming sector, making agriculture a profitable activity, and improving socio-economic conditions of the farmers.

The other three are categorised as technological reforms.

Q13 Wildlife belongs to which of the following resources?

A. Individual resources B. Community resources C. National resources D. International resources

Answer: (C) National resources

Solution: The wildlife within the political boundary of a nation belongs to that nation. Hence, it is considered a national resource. All resources such as water, minerals, forests, and wildlife within the political boundary of a nation are national resources. Even the resources in the ocean up to 12 nautical miles or 22.2 kilometres from the coast belong to the nation.

Q14 Which among the following is not a step in planning the usage of resources?

A. Identification and inventory of resources B. Developing infrastructure to harness resources C. Using resources faster than the rate of replenishment D. Ensuring the development plans of resources align with the nation’s

development plans

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Answer: (C) Using resources faster than the rate of replenishment

Solution: Resource planning is a complex process that involves three main steps. The first step is the identification and inventory of resources across the regions of the country. The next step is evolving a structure endowed with appropriate technology, skill, and institutional set up for implementing resource development plans. Lastly, matching the resource development plans with the overall national development plans.

Furthermore, resource planning should avoid exhausting resources by consuming the same at a lesser rate than the rate of replenishment.


Statement 1 (S1): The rate of weathering does not depend on the weather conditions.

Statement 2 (S2): Slopes of mountains contain thicker deposits of weathered rock particles.


Answer: (D) Both S1 and S2 are not true.

Solution: The climatic conditions adversely affect the weathering process. Extreme weather conditions such as heavy rains increase the weathering of rocks.

The process of weathering also depends on the land relief features. The slopes of a mountain have thinner deposits of weathered rock materials, as erosion is more on slopes. On the other hand, foothills or plains have thicker deposits, as most eroded materials settle in these areas.

Q16 What do you mean by technological reforms in agriculture?

A. Advanced methods and modern equipment in farming B. Old methods in farming C. Using hands for farming

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D. Using sickle for farming

Answer: (A) Advanced methods and modern equipment in farming

Solution: Technological reforms refer to the advanced methods and modern equipment used in farming to increase productivity.


Statement 1 (S1): The oceanic resources beyond 200 nautical miles of the Exclusive Economic Zone are called International Resources.

Statement 2 (S2): International resources can be extracted by a country unilaterally, provided it has a strong navy to defend its infrastructure.


Answer: (B) Only S1 is true.

Solution: The oceanic resources beyond 200 nautical miles of the Exclusive Economic Zone are not owned by any specific country. These resources are regulated by International Institutions. Their utilisation requires prior approval from these international institutions.

Q18 Which of the following is covered under the human development report published

by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP)?

A. Educational levels, health status, and nutritional levels B. Corruption, happiness levels, and per capita income C. Educational levels, health status, and per capita income D. Educational levels, happiness levels, and per capita income

Answer: (C) Educational levels, health status, and per capita income

Solution: Even though the level of income is an important measure of development, it does not consider the educational levels and the health status of a country. To overcome this shortcoming, the Human Development Report published

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by the UNDP includes educational levels of people, their health status, and per capita income.

Q19 Which of the following is the correct meaning of infant mortality rate?

A. The number of children that die before the age of one as a proportion of 1,000 live children born in that particular year.

B. The number of children born in a year as a proportion of 1,000 females born in that particular year.

C. The number of children that die before the age of five as a proportion of 1,000 live children born in a particular year.

D. The number of girls born in a year as a proportion of the number of boys born in that particular year.

Answer: (A) Infant mortality rate refers to the number of children that die before the age of one as a proportion of 1,000 live children born in that particular year.

Solution: Infant mortality rate can reflect various factors of development like access to clean water, food security, social stigmas, superstitions, diseases, peace, freedom, and environmental conditions. A lower infant mortality rate shows higher development of a region.

Q20 Which of the following best describes life expectancy at birth?

A. The total expected length of life of all people in a country in a particular year.

B. The average expected length of life of a person at the time of birth. C. The average expected number of people crossing 70 years of age in a

particular year. D. The ratio of average expected birth to the average expected deaths in a

country in a particular year.

Answer: (B) The average expected length of life of a person at the time of birth.

Solution: Life expectancy at birth means the average expected length of life of a person at the time of birth. It is a measure used in the Human Development Index (HDI) to measure the dimension of health. According to the Human Development Report of 2020, the life expectancy at birth in India is 69.7.

Q21 Which of the following is an example of a renewable resource?

A. Natural gas B. Crude oil

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C. Coal D. Groundwater

Answer: (D) Groundwater

Solution : Renewable resources are replenished by nature. However, even these resources may get overused. Non-renewable resources like crude oil, coal, and natural gas will get exhausted after a few years of use.

Q22 Which of the following is an example of primary sector activity?

A. Banking B. Trade C. Mining D. Hair-dressing

Ans: (C) Mining

Solution: The primary sector produces the raw materials that are used to make all the other products. The sector comprises activities like farming, mining, fishing, dairy, and logging. Banking, trade, and hair-dressing are all service activities.

Q23 Which of the following examples fall under the organised sector?

A. A driver of a private bus B. A government school teacher C. A daily wage labourer D. A mechanic who owns a small repair shop

Answer: (B) A government school teacher

Solution: In the organised sector, the terms of employment are regular and the employees have assured work. A government school teacher gets regular salaries, provident fund benefits, paid leaves, medical allowances, and much more. Moreover, he/she is employed by the government. Hence, a government school teacher falls under the category of the organised sector.

Q24 Which of the following is the motive of a public sector enterprise?

A. Maximising profits B. Social welfare C. Entertainment

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D. Minimising losses

Answer: (B) Social welfare

Solution: Public sector enterprises offer services not just to earn profits. The government raises money through taxes and other ways to render public services. There are several things in a society which the private sector will not provide at a reasonable cost such as roads, bridges, healthcare facilities, educational institutions, and many other things. So, the government spends on those.

Q25 Which of the following option(s) is/are true in the context of the French Revolution?

l. The idea of nationalism developed with the French Revolution in 1789. II. In France, regional dialects were encouraged and French, among other languages, was adopted as the common language of the nation. III. After the French Revolution, the idea of nationalism spread from France to the rest of Europe.


Answer: (B) I and III

Solution: The French Revolution was a watershed moment in history. It wrested the power from the monarchy and developed the ideas of nationalism and nation-states. These two ideas found great acceptance in the rest of Europe and, later, around the world. The French revolutionaries introduced different measures and practices to create a sense of collective identity among the French population. An example of this would be the adoption of French as the common language of the nation and discouraging the use of regional dialects.

Q26 Guiseppe Mazzini was sent into exile for attempting a revolution in 1831 at this place. Identify the place.

Options: A. Berne B. Marseilles C. Genoa D. Liguria

Answer: (D) Liguria

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Solution: Giuseppe Mazzini was one of the most influential revolutionaries of modern Europe. He was sent into exile for attempting a revolution in Liguria in 1831. Being a fierce critic of the monarchy and a staunch supporter of democratic republics, he established two underground societies Young Italy and Young Europe in Marseilles and Berne respectively.

Q27 This meeting gave way for conservatism in Europe. Identify the correct set of parties that attended the meeting.

Options: A. Britain, Russia, Prussia, Austria B. Switzerland, Greece, Italy, Poland C. Britain, Greece, Prussia, Scotland D. Prussia, Russia, Austria, France

Answer: (A) Britain, Russia, Prussia, Austria

Solution: In 1815 CE, after the defeat of Napoleon, representatives of Britain, Russia, Prussia, and Austria assembled in Vienna to draw up a settlement for Europe. This settlement came to be known as the Treaty of Vienna of 1815. Hosted by Austrian Chancellor Metternich, it aimed to undo the changes brought about by the Napoleonic Wars in Europe. This whole exercise was driven by the spirit of conservatism to restore the traditional institutes of state and society.

Q28 Which of the following virtues is symbolised by the crown of oak leaves worn by Germania?

Options: A. Readiness to fight B. Heroism C. Freedom D. Peace

Answer: (B) Heroism

Solution: Germania is an allegorical figure of the German nation. In the eighteenth and nineteenth centuries, female allegorical figures were introduced by artists to represent nations. Germania can be seen wearing a crown of oak leaves. The German oak represents heroism.

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Q29 The Act of Union of 1707 led to which of the following development(s) in England?

I. The formation of the United Kingdom of Great Britain II. Domination of the British Parliament by English members

III. Imposition of Scottish influence on the English IV. Systematic suppression of English culture and political institutions


Answer: (A) I and II

Solution: The Act of Union of 1707 between England and Scotland led to the formation of the United Kingdom of Great Britain. With this, England was able to impose influence on Scotland. The British Parliament came to be dominated by the English. Scotland’s distinctive culture and political institutions came to be systematically oppressed by the English. Moreover, the Catholic clans that lived in the Scottish Highlands were repressed whenever they tried to assert their independence. They were forbidden to speak their language or wear their national dress. A large number of them were also driven out of their homeland.

Q30 Which among the following statements incorrectly describes the reason as to why the power-sharing agreement succeeded in Belgium?

A. The majority community in Brussels, the French-speaking population, gave proportionate representation to the minority community. B. The views and opinions of both major communities, the French- and Dutch-speaking populations, were respected as their support was required to pass major laws. C. The powers of the central government were decentralised to grant to all the communities the right to govern themselves. D. The minority French-speaking population in the country was equally accommodated in the central government.

Answer: (A) The majority community in Brussels, the French-speaking population, gave proportionate representation to the minority community.

Solution: The Dutch-speaking population was in majority in the country while the French-speaking population was in majority in Brussels. However, the majority communities were willing to accommodate the minority community and grant them equal representation in ministerial positions in the central government and in

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Brussels. Additionally, powers were granted to community governments to make laws giving all communities the right to govern themselves. The views and opinions of all communities were respected. All these measures led to the establishment of trust amongst all communities. Thus, the power-sharing agreement was successful in Belgium.

Q31 Select the option that incorrectly describes why sharing of power is essential for a government?

A. It helps in conflict resolution. B. It helps in addressing the concerns of minority groups. C. It leads to centralisation of political power in the hands of one individual. D. It gives stability to a government and helps in decision-making.

Answer : (C) It leads to centralisation of political power in the hands of one individual.

Solution: Power-sharing agreements help in addressing the concerns of minority groups by giving them representation in the government. It helps in conflict resolution and thus, gives stability to the government. Power-sharing agreements help in decentralisation by distributing powers between different organs/levels of government.

Q32 Assertion (A): The leaders of the Constituent Assembly insisted on making Hindi as the national language.

Reason: (R): More than 50% of India’s population speak Hindi.

Read the above given statements and select the option that is true.

A. Both A and R are false B. Both A and R are true C. A is true, but R is false D. A is false, but R is true

Answer: (C) A is true, but R is false

Solution: Over 40% of the Indian population speak Hindi. Besides, India’s enormous linguistic diversity made it difficult for the leaders of our Constituent Assembly to impose one particular language as the national language. Thus, the leaders were careful to not insist on making Hindi as the national language. Even though Hindi is recognised as an official language in India, there are 21 other languages that are also recognised as Scheduled Languages by the Constitution.

Q33 What makes the practice of federalism a good example of a power-sharing agreement?

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A. It allows different groups to share power vis-a-vis central and state institutions. B. It allows for better policy responses towards pandemics or natural disasters. C. Federal governments have at least two levels of government that allows for sharing powers and responsibilities between different levels of government. D. All the above

Answer : (D) All the above

Solution: Federalism leads to the sharing of powers and responsibilities between different levels of government: at the central, state, or regional levels. Federalism also guarantees some level of autonomy to territorial units such as states, regions, or provinces. It allows for better policy responses towards pandemics or natural disasters as smaller territorial units of government are more aware of their needs and challenges in dealing with a pandemic or a natural disaster. Federalism disperses access to power, wealth, and resources more widely to different territorial groups . Thus, federalism is a safeguard against abuses of power. It limits the power of all governing institutions, thereby preventing any one person or institution from having too much power.

Q34 Which of the following is/are correct with respect to land resources in India?

I. The percentage of net sown area within the total land area is almost the same in all the states and union territories in India.

II. The forest area of the country is far less than the desired 33 percent of geographical area as outlined in the National Forest Policy, 1952.

III. When compared to 1960 – 61, the current land under non-agricultural uses (including settlements, roads, railways, and industries) has increased significantly.

Options:

A. I and II B. II and III C. Only II D. Only III

Answer: (B) II and III

Solution:

● The percentage of net sown area within the total land is not the same in all the states and union territories in India. For example, it is over 80 percent of the total area in Punjab and Haryana while it is less than 10 percent in Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram, Manipur, and Andaman and Nicobar Islands.

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Note: This statement is extreme, and we cannot expect the same level of net sown area in all the states and union territories.

● The forest area of the country is far less than the desired 33 percent of geographical area as outlined in the National Forest Policy,1952. As of 2019, it is 21.67%.

● According to the Directorate of Economics and Statistics, Ministry of Agriculture, 2017, the land under non-agricultural uses increased from 4.95 percent in 1960 – 61 to 8.7 percent in 2014 – 15.

Note: This statement is logical as there has been an increase in the non-agricultural uses of land like development of roads, railways, etc. So, we can consider this to be correct.

Q35 With respect to primitive farming, which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?

I. Primitive subsistence farming is more prominent in eastern and northeastern states.

II. It is a profitable form of farming practice because the input cost is very low. III. It is widely accepted because of its environmental sustainability.

Options:

A. Only I B. Only II C. I and III D. Only III

Answer: (A) Only I

Solution:

● Statement I is correct. Primitive subsistence farming is more prominent in eastern and northeastern states such as Assam, Meghalaya, Mizoram, and Chhattisgarh.

● Statement II is wrong. Though the input cost is very low, the profitability of this farming practice is low because the productivity is very low.

● Statement III is wrong.

It is not widely accepted because:

a. It is not environmentally sustainable. b. It is not profitable. c. It needs more land.

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Q36 Match the items given in Column A with those in Column B.

Column A Column B

I. Coffee 1. Assam II. Tea 2. Lateritic soil

III. Cashew 3. Regur soil IV. Cotton 4. Karnataka

Choose the correct answer from the following options:

A. I-1, II-4, III-3, IV-2 B. I-4, II-1, III-3, IV-2 C. I-1, II-4, III-2, IV-3 D. I-4, II-1, III-2, IV-3

Answer: (D) I-4, II-1, III-2, IV-3

Solution:

● Assam is the largest producer of tea. Around 50 percent of total tea is produced in Assam.

● Karnataka is the largest producer of coffee and contributes around 70 percent of total coffee production in India.

● Regur soil is also called as black soil and it is more suitable for cotton cultivation.

● Laterite soil is suitable for the cultivation of cashew.

Note: Laterite soil is also suitable for tea and coffee cultivation, but cashew is a more appropriate match when compared to other matches.

Q37 Identify the crop which satisfies the given conditions:

I. It is a cash crop. II. It is predominantly grown in Maharashtra, Gujarat, and Madhya Pradesh.

III. It requires 210 frost-free days and bright sunshine for its growth.

Options:

A. Cotton B. Maize C. Wheat D. Rice

Answer : (A) Cotton

Solution:

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https://www.mapsofindia.com/answers/states/which-state-is-the-largest-producer-of-tea-in-india/

https://www.mapsofindia.com/answers/states/which-indian-state-is-the-largest-producer-of-coffee/#:~:text=The%20state%20of%20Karnataka%20is,a%20small%20quantity%20of%20Arabica.

https://www.mapsofindia.com/answers/states/which-indian-state-is-the-largest-producer-of-coffee/#:~:text=The%20state%20of%20Karnataka%20is,a%20small%20quantity%20of%20Arabica.

● Cotton grows well in drier parts of the black cotton soil of the Deccan plateau. It requires high temperature, light rainfall or irrigation, 210 frost-free days, and bright sunshine for its growth.

● It is a Kharif crop and requires 6 – 8 months to mature. ● Major cotton producing states are Maharashtra, Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh,

Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Tamil Nadu, Punjab, Haryana, and UP.

Note: Alternate method to find the answer: Except cotton, all are food crops. This eliminates all the options except cotton from statement I itself.

Q38 Which of the following is the most appropriate reason for the predominance of cultivation of rabi crops in northern India?

A. Existence of large-scale farmers B. Presence of distinct winter climate C. Market demand of cities D. Availability of huge water resources

Answer: (B) Presence of distinct winter climate

Solution: South India is influenced by maritime presence, so the winter is not prominent in southern India. This is not the case in North India, so the rabi crops are predominant in northern India.


Assertion (A): The idea of development is the same for all the people.

Reason (R): What may be development for some may even be destructive for others.


Answer: (D) A is false, but R is true.

Solution: Development may mean different things for different people. Sometimes, the aspirations of some may conflict with the aspirations of others. It may even be destructive for others.

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Q40 Read the following table and question carefully.

Countries Monthly income of its citizens in 2020 (in Rupees)

I II III IV V

Country A 4,000 1,500 12,500 22,000 5,000

Country B 700 600 500 700 42,500

Country C 9,300 9,100 8,700 9,500 8,400

Mohan has job offers from three different countries. He has to choose one of the given countries mentioned in the table. All his offer letters say that he will be paid the average income of the country he chooses to work in. After calculating the average income of the countries, he chooses to work in country B. Identify the reason for which Mohan has chosen country B.

A. Most of its citizens have a lower income than him. B. The total income of its citizens is higher than the other countries. C. He receives twice the salary offered in country A. D. It has the most equitable distribution of income.

Answer: (A) Most of its citizens will have lower income than his.

Solution: The average income of countries A, B, and C is the same. However, country B has a vast disparity in the distribution of income. This means that most of the citizens in country B get less than the average income of the country.

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Q41 Given below is the profile of a person. Read the following data and answer the question.

Name: Sanjay Age: 21 Weight: 32 kg Height: 150 cm

Analyse the data of the person given above and select the most suitable option from the following:

A. BMI of Sanjay is 14.2 kg/m 2 , and he is nourished. B. BMI of Sanjay is 14.2 kg/m 2 , and he is undernourished. C. BMI of Sanjay is 24.2 kg/m 2 , and he is nourished. D. BMI of Sanjay is 24.2 kg/m 2 , and he is overweight.

Answer: (B) BMI of Sanjay is 14.2 kg/m 2 , and he is undernourished.

Solution : Weight in kilograms divided by the square of height in metres gives the Body Mass Index (BMI). Given, Weight = 32 kg Height = 150 cm = 1.5 m

BMI = 32/(1.5) 2

BMI = 14.2 kg/m 2

A person with a BMI of less than 18.5 kg/m 2 is considered to be undernourished, and a person above the BMI of 25 kg/m 2 is considered to be overweight.

Q42 Read the following statements. Which of the following practices can help in achieving sustainability in development?

I. Using energy-efficient electric appliances II. Shifting to the use of organic pesticides

III. Increasing the use of fossil fuels IV. Using rainwater harvesting techniques

A. I and II B. I and III

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C. I, III and IV D. I, II, and IV

Answer: (D) I, II, and IV

Solution: Scientists have been warning that the present types and levels of development are not sustainable. However, development can also happen in sustainable ways. Using energy-efficient appliances such as LED bulbs, shifting to organic farming, reducing fossil fuel usage, and harvesting rainwater are a few steps towards sustainable development.


Assertion (A): The tertiary sector is the largest producing sector in India. Reason (R): The tertiary sector employs the largest share of the Indian population.


Answer: (C) A is true, but R is false.

Solution: The tertiary sector has become the largest producing sector in India, replacing the primary sector. However, the primary sector still employs the largest share of the population in India.

Q44 Raju dropped out of his higher secondary school to help his mother and father in the field. Though his additional labour made no impact on the farm output, he is proud to be employed. Which type of employment is this?

A. Seasonal employment B. Temporary employment C. Underemployment D. Part-time employment

Answer: (C) Underemployment

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Solution: Underemployment or disguised unemployment is a situation where people apparently work but are not fully employed. The primary sector employs more people than is needed, and this has resulted in underemployment.

Q45 The following table gives the contribution to the GDP in rupees (crores) of a country by the three sectors:

Primary sector Secondary sector Tertiary sector

2010 40,000 70,000 90,000

2020 80,000 1,20,000 3,00,000

Choose the correct option.

A. The share of the tertiary sector in the GDP of the country increased from 45% in 2010 to 60% in 2020.

B. The share of the primary sector in the GDP of the country increased from 16% in 2010 to 20% in 2020.

C. The primary sector of the country is gaining more importance in recent years.

D. The share of the secondary sector in the GDP of the country increased from 35% in 2010 to 24% in 2020.

Answer: ( A) The share of the tertiary sector in the GDP of the country increased from 45% in 2010 to 60% in 2020.

Solution: Adding the value of all the three sectors gives GDP.

Therefore, GDP in 2010 = 40,000 + 70,000 + 90,000 = 2,00,000 GDP in 2020 = 80,000 + 1,20,000 + 3,00,000 = 5,00,000

Share of primary sector in the GDP in 2010 = (40,000/2,00,000)* 100 = 20% Share of primary sector in the GDP in 2020 = (80,000/5,00,000)* 100 = 16%

Share of secondary sector in the GDP in 2010 = (70,000/2,00,000)* 100 = 35% Share of secondary sector in the GDP in 2020 = (1,20,000/5,00,000)* 100 = 24%

Share of tertiary sector in the GDP in 2010 = (90,000/2,00,000)* 100 = 45% Share of tertiary sector in the GDP in 2020 = (3,00,000/5,00,000)* 100 = 60%

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The share of the tertiary sector in the GDP of the country has increased in a decade. However, the shares of primary and secondary sectors in the GDP have decreased.

Q46 Two statements are given in the question below as Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R).

Read the statements and choose the appropriate option.

Assertion (A): The development of primary and secondary sectors may lead to the development of the tertiary sector. Reason (R): The development of primary and secondary sectors leads to an increase in the demand for services such as transport, communication, trade, banking, storage, and many more.


Answer: ( A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct Solution of A.

Solution: The development in agriculture and manufacturing will lead to an increase in demand for more services. In fact, one of the reasons behind the growing importance of the service sector in India is the developments in agriculture and manufacturing.

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Q47 to 52 are based on this case study

Ideas of national unity in early nineteenth century Europe were closely allied to the ideology of liberalism. The term liberalism derives from the Latin root liber , meaning free. For the new middle classes, liberalism stood for freedom for the individual and equality of all before the

law. Politically, it emphasised the concept of government by consent. Since the French Revolution, liberalism stood for the end of autocracy and clerical privileges, a constitution

and representative government through parliament. Nineteenth century liberals also stressed the inviolability of private property.

Yet, equality before law did not necessarily stand for universal suffrage. In revolutionary France, which marked the first political experiment in liberal democracy, the right to vote and to get elected was granted exclusively to property-owning men. Men without property and all women were excluded from political rights. Only for a brief period under the Jacobins did all

adult males enjoy suffrage. However, the Napoleonic Code went back to limited suffrage and reduced women to the status of a minor, subjecting them to the authority of men who were their fathers and husbands. Throughout the nineteenth and early twentieth centuries,

women and non-propertied men organised opposition movements demanding equal political rights.

Q47 For a long time, women in France did not have suffrage.

A. This statement is true. B. This statement cannot be verified. C. This statement is false. D. It was men in France who never had suffrage rights.

Answer: (A) This statement is true.

Solution: After the French Revolution of 1789, the republican government took over. At this time, all adult males enjoyed suffrage, until Napoleon took over and non-propertied men lost their voting rights. However, women fought for equal political rights, and it was only in 1946 that the French women won the right to vote.

Q48 In post-revolutionary France, the concept of liberalism stood for absolute monarchy.

A. This statement is false. B. This is true for the USA at the time, not France. C. This statement is true. D. This statement cannot be verified.

Answer: (A) This statement is false.

Solution: Liberalism stood for the end of autocracy, clerical privileges, a constitution, and a representative government.

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Q49 Which of the following is true about suffrage rights in France?

A. There were no suffrage rights in France during Napoleon’s rule. B. The Napoleonic Code suppressed only the rights of men. C. Women were never given voting rights. D. There was always universal suffrage in France.

Answer: ( C) Women were never given voting rights.

Solution: After the French Revolution of 1789, the Liberal era began, but that did not mean equality before law. Women were denied the right to vote or contest elections. During the nineteenth and twentieth centuries, women organised various movements demanding equal political rights.

Q50 During the rule of Napoleon, the status of women was reduced to that of a minor.

A. This statement is true. B. This statement is false. C. This statement cannot be verified. D. There were no conservatives in France during this time.

Answer: (A) This statement is true.

Solution: The Napoleonic Code reduced the status and denied voting rights for non-propertied men and all women. However, the overall status of men in society was higher than women as the Code reduced the status of women to that of minors, subjecting them to a male authority, who was generally a husband or a father.

Q51 Choose the right option based on the following statements: I: The concept of liberalism introduced universal adult suffrage in France. II: All male and female adults had voting rights since the republican government took over in 1791.

A. I is true, but II is false. B. Both I and II are true. C. II is true, but I is false. D. Both I and II are false.

Answer: ( D) Both I and II are false. Solution: After the French Revolution of 1789, the liberal era began, but that did not mean equality before law. In the case of suffrage, the right to vote and to get elected was given only to men with property; men without property and all women were excluded. Only for a brief period under the Jacobins did all adult males enjoy suffrage, though women did not.

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Q52 Why was liberalism attached closely with national unity in the early nineteenth century?

I. It stood for political and economic freedom. II. It stood for the end of the autocratic rule of monarchs. III. It stood for universal adult suffrage.

A. I and III B. I and II C. Only I D. II and III

Answer: (B) I and II

Solution: Ideas of national unity in early nineteenth-century Europe were closely allied to the ideology of liberalism. For the new middle classes that emerged after the fall of King Louis XVI, liberalism stood for freedom for individuals and equality of all before the law. In political terms, liberalism emphasised the concept of government by consent and it stood for freedom, the end of autocracy and clerical privileges, a constitution, and a representative government through parliament.

In economic terms, liberalism meant freedom of markets, that is, the government could not impose restrictions on the movement of goods and capital.

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Q53 to 58 are based on this case study

The availability of resources is a necessary condition for the development of any region, but mere availability of resources in the absence of corresponding changes in technology and institutions may hinder its fullest utilization.Resources are vital for any developmental activity. But irrational consumption and over-utilisation of resources may lead to socio-economic and environmental problems. To overcome these problems, resource conservation efforts like Sustainable Development and Resource planning at various levels should be implemented.

Resource Planning is the widely accepted strategy for judicious use of resources.There are regions which are rich in certain types of resources but are deficient in some other resources.For example Arunachal Pradesh has an abundance of water resources but lacks infrastructural development.This calls for balanced resource planning at the national, state, regional and local levels.

Q53 In a survey it was discovered that a region has huge reserves of oil and gas, which is yet to be extracted and used. For such a scenario, predict how this discovery can affect the development journey of that region.

A. The region will witness rapid development, regardless of any other condition as oil and gas are backbone of the economy

B. The region will witness development only if people just have the technology at hand which can help in successful extraction of the oil and gas.

C. The region will witness development only if the region has strong institutions to help in the distribution and proper utilisation of the resources.

D. The region will witness development if it has good reserves of the resource, technology for its extraction and strong institutions for its utilization and distribution.

Answer: (D) The region will witness development if it has good reserves of the resource technology for its extraction and strong institutions for its utilization and distribution.

Solution: In any region, mere availability of resources won't guarantee development of that region. It also must have technology to extract or transform that resource and strong institutions to properly use and distribute it. Thus, all the three components are required.

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Option A says “regardless of any other condition” thus it can be eliminated. Option B and C uses the words “Just” which indicates that even with just two components development can happen, which is again wrong.

Q54 Sustainable development is a principle which ensures:

A. Development should take place without damaging the environment, and ensuring not to compromise with the needs of future generations.

B. The environmental losses caused by the development activities should be financially compensated by those who reaped the benefits from such development

C. There will be a huge amount of environmental loss in initial phases of development, but it will be reduced in the later phases.

D. Technology developed by the present generation will be passed on to the future generation

Answer: (A) Development should take place without damaging the environment, and ensuring not to compromise with the needs of future generations.

Solution: Sustainable economic development means development should take place without damaging the environment, and development in the present should not compromise with the needs of the future generations.

Option B and C are wrong because they assume there will be environmental losses if development happens. This is against the principle of sustainable development, which says that development can happen without damaging the environment.

Q55 The concept of Sustainable Development was first introduced _____.

A. at the Rio de Janeiro Earth Summit, 1992 B. at the Club of Rome in 1968 C. by the Brundtland Commission Report, 1987 D. by Schumacher in his book Small is Beautiful .

Answer: (C) by the Brundtland Commission Report, 1987

Solution: Development should take place without damaging the environment, and ensuring not to compromise with the needs of future generations. Brundtland Commission Report, 1987 report introduced the concept of Sustainable Development’ and advocated it as a means for resource conservation.

Q56 The cold desert of Ladakh is relatively isolated from the rest of the country. Resource planning can help in the development of this region by ______.

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A. utilising its cultural heritage and developing the tourism industry around it B. utilising the abundance of available water resources C. utilising the precious minerals found in this region D. All of the above.

Answer: (A) utilising its cultural heritage and developing tourism industry around it

Solution: Ladakh has a very rich cultural heritage which can be used for attracting tourists, but it lacks the water and minerals.

Q57 A region having coal reserves undergoes mining operations by a private company over many years. What could be the potential effects of such an activity?

A. Degradation of land. B. Degradation of water resources of the nearby areas. C. A huge change in standard of living for the miners and workers who get

employment by working in the mines. D. Profits generated by the mining activity are used solely for the development of

the local people.

Select the appropriate options:

A. I only B. I, II and IV C. II and III D. I and II

Answer: (D) I and II

Solution: Mining sites are abandoned after excavation work is complete, leaving deep scars and traces of over-burdening, thus causing the degradation of land. Mining operations also produce a lot of harmful chemicals that can pollute the nearby water sources. Although the local people can get employment in the mines, most of the profits generated by mining operations are generally appropriated by the companies running these operations, and local people get very little share of it. This causes a socio-economic disparity between the different sections of society.

Q58 Resource planning is best suited for countries that _________.

A. have all kinds of resources available in all parts of the country

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B. have no resources at all and depend on other countries for them C. have some regions blessed with certain resources but at the same time lack

in some other resources D. None of the above

Answer: (C) Have some regions which are blessed with certain resources but at the same time lack in some other types of resources.

Solution: Planning is the widely accepted strategy for judicious use of resources, especially in countries having enormous diversity in the availability of resources. This means there are some regions which can be considered self-sufficient in terms of the availability of certain resources and there are some regions which have acute shortage of some vital resources. Option A is wrong because when all the places of a country have all the resources then there is hardly any need for such rigorous planning.

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Q59 Observe the map of India given above and identify the type of soil found in the regions marked in red.

A. Alluvial soil B. Laterite soil C. Red and Yellow soil D. Black soil

Answer: (B) Laterite soil

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Q60 In the map of India given above, point A represents a dam across the Narmada river. Identify the name of the dam from the options given below.

A. Hirakud Dam B. Sardar Sarovar Dam C. Bhakra Nangal Dam D. Nagarjuna Sagar Dam

Answer: (B) Sardar Sarovar Dam

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B Y JU ’ S A l l I n d i a M o ck B o a r d E xa m s

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