ATAL SAHODAYA

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ATAL SAHODAYA CLASS – X MCQ QUESTION BANK TERM - 1

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TERM - 1
Chapter – CHEMCIAL REACTIONS AND EQUATIONS
1. During burning of magnesium, we should wear sun glasses to protect our eyes from white
dazzling light as it:
(a) damage the retina (b) leads to loss of our vision
(c) both (a) & (b) (d) none of these
Answer: (c) both (a) & (b)
2. Fermentation of grapes is considered as a chemical reaction as it is a
(a) chemical change (b) sugar in grapes converts into alcohol
(c) Irreversible change (d) all the above
Answer: (d) all the above
3. During photosynthesis, energy is absorbed by chlorophyll, therefore it is:
(a) exothermic reaction (b) endothermic reaction
(c) neither exothermic nor endothermic reaction (d) the process takes place in plants only
Answer: (b) endothermic reaction
4. Which of the following sign shows that a product is obtained as a precipitate?
(a) (b) (c) (d)
H2 (g) + O2 (g) H2O (l)
(a) skeleton chemical reaction (b) skeletal chemical equation
(c) chemical equation (d) none of the above
Answer: (b) skeletal chemical equation
6. xFe + yH2O Fe3O4 + zH2
What are x, y, z in balanced equation respectively?
(a) 3, 4, 4 (b) 3, 4, 2 (c) 2, 4, 3
Answer: (a) 3, 4, 4
7. Which of the following observations is / are not correct about the given equation:
Pb(NO3)2 (aq) + 2 KI (aq) PbI2 (s) + 2KNO3 (aq)
(a) PbI2 is yellow precipitate insoluble in water
(b) It is precipitation reaction
(c) It is single displacement reaction
(d) It is very fast reaction
Answer: (c) It is single displacement reaction
8. A green coloured solid compound X‘, gets oxidized to reddish brown solid in presence of air.
X‘ on heating gives brown coloured solid Y‘ and two pungent smelling gases A‘ and B‘.
A‘ turns acidified potassium dichromate solution green. Name X‘, Y‘, A‘ , B‘ and type of
Reaction.
Answer: (c) FeSO4, Fe2O3, SO2, SO3, decomposition
9. Rusting of iron and respiration:
(a) both are exothermic processes
(b) both are endothermic processed
(c) rusting is exothermic, respiration is endothermic
(d) rusting is endothermic, respiration is exothermic
Answer: (a) both are exothermic processes
10. On immersing gold pins in CuSO4 solution for few minutes, you will observe
(a) displacement reaction
(c) the surface of gold pins acquire a black coating
(d) No change
Answer: (d) No change
11. Which of the following statements about the given reaction are correct?
3Fe(s) + 4HO(g) → FeO (s) + 4H (g)
(a) Iron metal is getting oxidized.
(b) Water is getting reduced.
(c) Water is acting as reducing agent.
(d)Water is acting as oxidizing agent.
A) (A), (B) & (C)
Answer: (c) (A), (B) & (D)
12. Barium chloride on reacting with ammonium sulphate forms barium sulphate and
ammonium
chloride. Which of the following correctly represents the type of the reaction involved?
(a) Displacement reaction
(b) Precipitation reaction
(c) Combination reaction
Answer: (d) (B) & (D)
13. Which of the following statement(s) is (are) true for the given situation? Exposure of silver
chloride to sunlight for a long duration turns grey due to
(i) formation of silver by decomposition of silver chloride
(ii) sublimation of silver chloride
(iii) decomposition of chlorine gas from silver chloride
(iv) oxidation of silver chloride
(a) (i) only
(d) (iv) only
Answer: (a) (i) only
14. The displacement reaction between iron (III) oxide and a metal X is used for welding the rail
tracks. Here X is:
Answer: (d) Aluminum dust
15. The chemical reaction between Hydrogen sulphide and iodine to give Hydrogen iodide and
sulphur is given below:
The oxidizing and reducing agents involved in this redox reaction are:
(a) Iodine and sulphur respectively
(b) Iodine and hydrogen sulphide respectively
(c) Sulphur and iodine respectively
(d) Hydrogen sulphide and sulphur
Answer: (b) Iodine and hydrogen sulphide respectively
16. Which of the following can be used for storage of fresh sample of an oil for a long time?
(a) CO2 and O2
(b) N2 and Cl2
(c) CO2 and He
(d) He and N2
Answer: (d) He and N2
17. The Classical example of redox reaction is Combustion of fossil fuel. During combustion of fossil
fuels, the carbon compound in the fossil fuel reacts with oxygen in the presence of a heat source to
form carbon dioxide (CO2) and water. Energy is also needed for the fossil fuel to react with oxygen, so
the energy used in portion of combustion is an endothermic reaction.
Combustion of fossil fuel
(a) Oxygen is reduced
Answer: (d) Both (a) and (b)
(2) What happens when a substance gains oxygen during reaction? The substance gets –
(a) Oxidised
(b) Reduced
Answer: (a) Oxidised
(3) What happens when a substance loses oxygen during reaction? It is said to be
(a) Oxidised
(b) Reduced
(c) Both
Answer: (b) Reduced
(4) Example of redox reactions can be observed in following processes –
(a) Corrosion
(b) Photosynthesis
(c) Respiration
(5) In the process of photosynthesis CO2 is reduced.
(a) True
(b) False
Q. 18.
Above image shows an experiment where copper sulphate crystals are heated. When we heat the
crystals, they turn white. If you moisten the crystals again with water you will find that colour of
crystals reappears .
(1) How many water molecules are present in one formula unit of copper sulphate
(a)5
(b)2
(c)6
(d)7
Answer: (a) 5
(2) If the crystal is moistened with water which colour of crystals appear----
(a) Green
(b) Red
(c) Blue
(d) Yellow
Answer: (c) Blue
(3) The water of crystallization is the variable number of water molecules present in a salt –
(a) True
(b) False
Answer: (b) False
(4) The salt which does not possess water of crystallization is
(a) Bleaching powder
Answer: (a) Bleaching powder
(a) CuSo4.2H2O
(b) CuSo4.6H2O
(c) CuSO4.4H2O
(d) CuSO4.5H2O
Answer (d) CuSO4.5H2O
19. A substance X, which is an oxide of an element, is used intensively in the cement industry,
This element is present in bones also. On treatment with water, it forms a solution which
turns red litmus blue.
(a) copper (b) carbon
Answer: (c) calcium
(a) Slaking of lime (b) quick lime
(c) both (a) and (b) (d) none of the above
Answer: (b) quick lime
(a) lime
Answer: (c) milk of lime
(4) Which of the following is a correct observation when water is added to substance X‘
(a) vigorous bubbling and a hissing sound
(b) slow bubbling with no sound
(c) vigorous bubbling with evolution of heat and a hissing sound
(d) only hissing sound
Answer: (c) vigorous bubbling with evolution of heat and a hissing sound
(5) Reaction of substance X with water is
(a) Decomposition reaction
(b) Combination reaction
(c) Displacement reaction
(d) Double displacement reaction
Answer: (b) Combination reaction
20. Decomposition of vegetable matter into compost is an example of exothermic reaction.
Compost provides a stable organic matter that improves the physical, chemical and
biological properties of soil, thereby enhancing soil quality and crop production. This
compost can be used as fertilizers supplement by farmers in their field.
1. Which of the following is/ (are) exothermic process(es)?
(a) burning of natural gas
(b) dilution of an acid
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these
2. Which among the following changes are endothermic in nature
(a) decomposition of ferrous sulphate
(b) dissolution of ammonium chloride in water
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) dilution of hydrochloric acid
Answer: (c) both (a) and (b)
3. How many types of decomposition reaction are there:
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Answer: (c) 3
4. During decomposition, energy is absorbed in the form of heat, light or electricity for
breaking down the reactants which is known as:
(a) exothermic reaction
(b) endothermic reaction
(c) reduction reaction
5. All decomposition reaction are endothermic but decomposition of vegetable matter into
compost is exothermic because
(b) decomposition done by microbes
(c) releases heat energy
(d) all the above
Answer: (d) all the above
Following questions consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer these
questions selecting the appropriate option given below: (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
(e) Both A and R are false.
21. Assertion (A): Lead nitrate on thermal decomposition gives lead oxide, brown colored
nitrogen dioxide and oxygen gas.
Reason (R): Lead nitrate reacts with potassium iodide to form yellow ppt. of lead iodide and
the reaction is double displacement as well as precipitation reaction.
Answer: (b) )Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
22. Assertion(A): The Chemical reaction during which hydrogen is lost is called reduction.
Reason(R): Reducing agent removes hydrogen
Answer: (e) Both A and R are false
23. Assertion(A): Method used for balancing chemical equation is called hit and trial method.
Reason(R): As we make trials to balance the equation by using the smallest whole number
coefficient.
Answer: (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
24. Assertion(A): After white washing the walls, a shiny white finish on walls is obtained after
two or three days.
Reason(R): Calcium oxide reacts with carbon dioxide to form calcium hydrogen carbonate
which gives shiny white finish.
Answer: (c) A is true but R is false.
25. Assertion(A): During chemical reaction atoms of one element do not change into those of
another element nor disappear from the mixture.
Reason(R): As chemical reaction involves the breaking and making of bonds between
atoms to produce new substance.
Answer: (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
Chapter-2, ACID BASE AND SALT
1. Which one of the following salts does not contain water of crystallisation?
a) Soda Blue vitriol
a) Acetic acid
b) Citric acid
c) Tartaric acid
d) Oxalic acid
a) bleaching powder
b) baking powder
c) baking soda
d) washing soda
5. What is the natural colour of lichen‘s juice?
a) Blue
b) Red
c) Purple
d) Orange
Answer: (c) purple
6. Which one of the following salts does not con-tain water of crystallisation?
a) Blue vitriol
b) Baking soda
c) Washing soda
Answer: (c) aqueous solution of sodium chloride
8. At what temperature is gypsum heated to form Plaster of Paris?
a) 90°C
b) 100°C
c) 110°C
d) 120°C
9. The pH of gastric juice released during digestion is
a) Less than seven
b) More than seven
c) Equal to seven
d) Equal to zero
10. Which of the following is acidic in nature?
a) Apple juice
b) Soap solution
c) Slaked lime
11. Nettle sting is a natural source of which acid?
a) Methanoic acid
b) Lactic acid
c) Citric acid
d) Tartaric acid
a) Potassium
a) Below 7
b) Below 6
c) Below 5.6
d) Above 7
Answer: below 5.6
14. 1.Which of the following statements is correct about an aqueous solution of an acid and of a
base?
(a) (i) and (iii)
(b) (ii) and (iii
(c) (i) and (iv)
(d) (ii) and (iv)
Answer: d (ii) and (iv)
15. An aqueous solution turns red litmus solution blue. Excess addition of which of the following
solution would reverse the change?
(a) Baking powder
Answer: d Hydrochloric acid
16. Which one of the following salts does not contain water of crystallisation?
(a) Blue vitriol
(b) Baking soda
(c) Washing soda
4 . Sodium hydroxide is used
(a) as an antacid
(d) in alkaline batteries
5. What is formed when zinc reacts with sodium hydroxide?
(a) Zinc hydroxide and sodium
(b) Sodium zincate and hydrogen gas
(c) Sodium zinc-oxide and hydrogen gas
(d) Sodium zincate and water
Answer: b Sodium zincate and hydrogen gas
6. An ant‘s sting can be treated with …………which will neutralise the effect of the chemical injected
by the ant‘s sting into our skin.
(a). Methanoic acid
(b). formic acid
(c). Baking soda
(d). Caustic soda
Answer: c Baking soda
7. Copper sulphate crystals when heated strongly, lose their water of crystallization to give anhydrous
copper sulphate accompanied by a change in color from:
(a). Blue to green
(b). Blue to white
(d). Blue to grey
Answer: b Blue to white
8. Zinc granules on treating with an acid X, form the zinc sulphate (ZnSO4) salt along with the
evolution of a gas Y which burns with a pop sound when brought near to a burning candle. Identify
the acid X and gas evolved Y
(a). X- Sulphuric acid and Y- Oxygen gas
(b). X- Hydrochloric acid and Y- Oxygen gas
(c). X- Sulphuric acid and Y- Hydrogen gas
(d). X- Hydrochloric acid and Y- Hydrogen gas
Answer : c X- Sulphuric acid and Y- Hydrogen gas
9. Which of the following acid is also known as vinegar?
(a) Dilute hydrochloric acid
(b) Dilute sulphuric acid
(c) Dilute acetic acid
(d) Dilute tartaric acid
Answer : c) Dilute acetic acid
10.What happens when excess of carbon dioxide gas is passed through lime water?
(a) Lime water first turns milky and then colorless
(b) Lime water turns bluish
me water turns milky
Answer : (a) Lime water first turns milky and then colorless
11. The nature of calcium phosphate present in tooth enamel is
(a)Basic
(b)Acidic
(a) Carbon di oxide
Answer: (c) Hydrogen
13 .During neutralization reaction acids react with ……..to form ……..and water.
(a) Metals ,Gas
(b) Bases, Salt
(c) Non-Metal , Salt
(a) 7.0-8.0
Answer: (b) 7.0-7.8
15. Gypsum is heated at……..temperature to form plaster of paris.
(a) 110degree Celsius
(b) 120degree Celsius
(c) 100degree Celsius
(d) 101degree Celsius
Answer: (c) 100degree Celsius
16. When a bee stings ,a paste of calamine is applied because
(a) Bee sting consist of base.
(b) To neutralized the effect of formic acid injected via bee sting
(c) Both (A) and (B)
(d) None
Answer: (b) To neutralized the effect of Formic acid injected via bee sting.
17. Indigestion can be treated by using
(a) Antibiotics
(b) Antiseptic
(c) Antacid
(a) Pink
(b) Yellow
(c) Orange
(d) Colourless
19. An indicator is one kind of the following compound
(a) Reducing agent.
Answer: (d) Weak base or acid only.
20. A metal carbonate X on reacting with an acid gives a gas which when passed through a
solution Y gives carbonate back..Identify X and Y.
(a) X is sodium carbonate and Y is Sodium hydroxide
(b) X is Calcium carbonate and Y is calcium hydroxide
(c ) X is Potassium carbonate and Y is Potassium hydroxide.
(d) None of above
Answer: (b) X is calcium carbonate and Y is Calcium hydroxide.
21. A sulphate salt of group 2 element of the periodic table is white ,soft substance which can be
moulded into different shapes by making its dough.Identify the salt .
(a) CaSO4.1/2 H2O
Answer:- (a) CasO4.1/2 H2O
22. Identify the compound X and A on the basis of the reaction given below.
X +Zn A + H2
(d)Both a and c
Answer:- (a) X is Sodium hydroxide and A is sodium zincate
23. Name the acid present in Ant sting and its chemical formula.
(a) Methanoic acid and HCOOH
(b) Formic acid and HCOOH
(c) Acetic acid and CH3COOH
(d) Both a and b
Answer:- (d) ) Both a and b
24. The reagent used to distinguish iron(II) chloride and iron (ii) chloride
(a)distilled water
(b) NaOH
(a) NaOH
(b) KOH
( c) NH4OH
(d)C2H5 OH
Answer:-( d) C2H5 OH
ASSERTION REASON BASED QUESTION
Directions: In the following questions, a statement of assertion is followed by a statement of reason.
Mark the correct choice as:
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If Assertion is false and Reason are true.
1. Assertion (A): The aqueous solutions of glucose and alcohol do not show acidic character.
Reason (R): Aqueous solutions of glucose and alcohol do not give H+ ions.
Answer: (a) both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of
Assertion.
2. Assertion (A): Pure water is neither acidic nor basic.
Reason (R): The pH of a solution is universally proportional to the concentration of hydrogen in it.
Answer: (b) both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of
Assertion.
3. Assertion (A): On adding H2SO4 to water the resulting aqueous solution get corrosive.
Reason (R): Hydronium ions are responsible for corrosive action.
Answer (a) both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of
Assertion.
4. Assertion (A) : During electrolysis of concentrated aqueous solution of sodium chloride,
hydrogen is produced at anode and chlorine gas is produced at cathode.
Reason (R) : Ions get attracted to oppositely charged electrodes.
Answer : d A is false but R is true.
5. Assertion (A) : The aqueous solutions of glucose and alcohol do not show acidic character.
Reason (R) : Aqueous solutions of glucose and alcohol do not give H+ ions.
Answer : a Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
6. Assertion (A) : Dry HCl gas does not change the colour of dry blue litmus paper.
Reason (R) : HCl gas dissolves in the water present in wet litmus paper to form H+ ions.
Answer : b Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
7. Assertion (A) : washing soda is sodium carbonate hexahydrate.
Reason (R) : chlorine is used for making bleaching powder.
Answer : d A is false but R is true.
8. . Assertion (A) : Gypsum contain 2 water of crystallization.
Reason (R) : Gypsum is heated at 373k to give P.O.P
Answer : b Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
9. Assertion: Pure water is neither acidic nor basic.
Reason: The ph of a solution is inversely proportional to the concentration of H ions
Answer : (b) Both Assertion and reason is true but Reason is not a correct explanation of
Assertion.
Reason: pH of acetic acid is greater than 7.
Answer: (c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
11. Assertion: The reason of tooth decay is the value of pH lower than 5.5 in mouth.
Reason : Enamel starts to corrod less than 5.5pH.
Answer : (a) Both Assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of
assertion.
12. Assertion: Al2O3, is an amphoteric oxide.
Reason: Al2O3 reacts with acid as well as base to form salt and water.
Answer: (a) Both A and R are true but R is the correct explanation of A
13. Assertion:-When zinc is added to dilute hydrochloric acid ,hydrogen is given off.
Reason:- Hydrogen chloride molecules contain hydrochloric acid and hydrogen atoms.
Answer:- (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
14. Assertion:-In water hydrochloric acid behaves as a weak monobasic acid.
Reason:- In water ,hydrochloric acid acts as a proton donor.
Answer:-(d) A is false but R is true
CASE STUDY BASED QUESTIONS
A child was suffering from stomach pain for a number of days. He consulted a doctor who advised
him to take two antacid tablets after each meal for about a week and avoid spicy food. Child followed
the advise strictly and was cured.
1. What was the problem faced by the child?
a) Anaemia
b) Acidity
c) Anxiety
d) Diarrhoea
2. NaHCO3 + HCl NaCl + H2O +CO2
is the correct chemical reaction happening inside stomach when child takes antacid.
(a) Yes
(b) No
a) Water
b) Base
c) Acid
a) Hypertension
b) Ulcer
c) Anxiety
d) Hepatitis
Answer: (b) ulcer
pH is quite useful to us in a number of ways in daily life. Some of its applications are:
Control of pH of the soil: Plants need a specific pH range for proper growth. The soil may be acidic,
basic or neutral depending upon the relative concentration of H + and OH
- . The pH of any soil can be
determined by using pH paper. If the soil is too acidic, it can be corrected by adding lime to it. If the
soil is too basic, it can be corrected by adding organic manure which contains acidic materials
Regaining shine of a tarnished copper vessel by use of acids: A copper vessel gets tarnished due to
formation of an oxide layer on its surface. On rubbing lemon on the vessel, the surface is cleaned and
the vessel begins to shine again. This is due to the fact that copper oxide is basic in nature, which
reacts with the acid (citric acid) present in lemon to form a salt (copper citrate) which is washed away
with water. As a result, the layer of copper oxide is removed from the surface of the vessel and the
shining surface is exposed.
Q5-9 BASED ON ABOVE PARAGRAPH
(5) When black copper oxide placed in a beaker is treated with dilute HCl, its colour changes
to………
d) No change
ANSWER : c) blue-green
(6) P is an aqueous solution of acid and Q is an aqueous solution of base. When these two are diluted
separately, then
a) pH of A increases and pH of B decreases
b) pH of A inceases and pH of B decreases till pH in each case is 7
c) pH of A and B increase
d) pH of A and B decrease
ANSWER : a) pH of A increases and pH of B decreases
(7) Which of the following acids is present in bee sting?
a) Methanoic acid
b) Citric acid
c) Hydrochloric acid
d) Tartaric acid
ANSWER : a) Methanoic acid
(8) Sting of ant can be cured by rubbing the affected area with soap because
(a) it contains oxalic acid which neutralises the effect of formic acid
(b) it contains aluminium hydroxide which neutralises the effect of formic acid
(c) it contains sodium hydroxide which neutralises the effect of formic acid
(d) none of these
ANSWER : (c) it contains sodium hydroxide which neutralises the effect of
formic acid
(9) The pH of soil X is 7.5 while that of soil Y is 4.5. Which of the two soils, should be treated with
powdered chalk to adjust its pH?
(a) X only (b) Y only (c) Both X and Y (d) None of these
ANSWER : b) Y only
Read the following and answer any four questions: Salt of a strong acid and strong base is neutral with a pH value of 7. NaCl common salt is formed by a
combination of hydrochloride and sodium hydroxide solution. This is the salt that is used in food.
Some salt is called rock salts bed of rack salt were formed when seas of bygone ages dried up. The
common salt thus obtained is an important raw material for various materials of daily use, such as
sodium hydroxide, baking soda, washing soda, bleaching powder.
10. Which of the following salt has water of crystallization?
(A) Washing soda
(B) Baking soda
(A) CaOH
(B) KOH
(C) NaCl
(D) HCl
Answer: (C) NaCl
12. The salt which is used to remove the hardness of water is
(A) NaOH
(B)Baking Soda
(A) Bees sting
(B) Rancid cake
(A)Calcium Chloride
15. The colour of Methyl orange in basic solution is
(A)Orange
(A)Lactic acid
(B) Tartaric acid
(C) Oxalic acid
(D) Citric acid
Baking soda is used in kitchens for making tasty pakora, sometimes it is added to make cooking
faster.it also helps to prepare baking powder.Not only this ,it is also used in fire extinguisher.
17. Baking soda is
Ans (b) basic
18. Salt A commonly used in bakery products on heating gets converted into another salt B which
itself is used for removal the hardness of water and a gas C is evolved. The gas C when passed
through lime water ,turns it milky. Identify A,B and C.
(a) A is sodium hydrogen carbonate ,B is hydrous sodium carbonate and c is carbon dioxide
(b)A is sodium carbonate ,B is sodium hydrogen carbonate and c is Carbon monoxide
© A is baking soda ,B is washing soda and C is carbon dioxide
(d) both a and c
Ans;-( d) both a and c
(19) What is baking powder?
(a) mixture of baking soda with tartaric acid
(b) mixture of washing soda with citric acid
(c) mixture of sodium hydrogen carbonate with edible acid
(d) option a and c both
Ans (d )option a and c both
(20) What is the name and chemical formula of the main product formed by heating baking soda.
(a) sodium carbonate,Na 2CO3
(b) Bleaching powder ,CaOCl2
(c) sodium chloride,Na Cl
(d)Plaster of paris ,CaSO4.I/2H2O
Answer (a) sodium carbonate,Na 2CO3
Washing soda has been known and used since early times.It is crystalline in form .It can be prepared
by reaction of sodium chloride .It has different properties.
(21) Name the process by which washing soda is prepared.
(a)Solvay process
(d)none of above
Answer:- (c)
(22) What will be formed when sodium hydrogen carbonate is heated?
(a) Sodium hydroxide
(b) Sodium carbonate
(c) Sodium ash
Answer:- (d)
(23) What will be formed when hydrous sodium carbonate is heated above 373 K
(a) Soda ash
(d) None of above
Answer:- ( c)
24. The pH value of a sample of hydrochloric acid is 2.pH value of this sample when diluted by
adding water will be
(c) More than 7
Answer:- (b) More than 2 but less than 7
25. Some drops of acetic acid are poured over a pH paper. The colour produced on the paper will
be
(a) Green
(b) Blue
(c) Violet
(d) Orange
Answser:-(b) Blue
26.Which of the following is true when HCL is passed through water.
(i) It does not ionize in the solution as it is a covalent compound
(ii) It ionizes in the solution
(iii) It gives both hydrogen and hydroxyl ions in the solution
(iv) It forms hydronium ion in the solution due to the combination of hydrogen ion with water
molecule.
(d) (iii) and (iv)
CHAPTER-METALS AND NON-METALS
1) Generally Non-metals are not conductors of electricity. Which of the given is a good conductor of
electricity?
Answer B)- Graphite
2) The electronic configuration of three elements X, Y and Z are X-2,8; Y-2,8,7 and Z-2,8,2‘Which of
the given is correct.
c) Zis a non-metal
d) Y is a non-metal and Z is a metal
Answer d) Y is a non-metal and Z is a metal
3) An aluminium strip is kept immersed in a freshly prepared ferrous sulphate solution taken in a test
tube, the change observed is that
a) Green solution slowly turns brown
b) Lower end of the test tube becomes slightly warm
c)A colourless gas with smell of burning sulphur is evolved
c)Light green solution changes to blue
Answer a) Green solution slowly turns brown
4) The property of metals being beaten into thin sheets is called
A) Ductility
B) Malleability
A) Silver and Copper
B) Lead and Mercury
C) Iron and Tin
D) Gold and Platinum
Answer A) Silver and Copper
6)The metals with very low melting points which melts by the temperature of palm are
A) Sodium and potassium
B) Lead and magnesium
C) Aluminium and zinc
D) Gallium and caesium
7) Al2O3 + 2NaOH → …… + H2O
Answer C)- NaAlO2
8) An element X is soft and can be cut with a knife. This is very reactive to air and cannot be kept open
in air. It reacts vigorously with water. Identify the element from the following
A) Mg
B) Na
Answer B)-Na
9) Reaction between X and Y forms compound Z. X loses electron and Y gains electron.
Which of the following properties is not shown by Z?
A) Has high melting point
B) Has low melting point
C) Conducts electricity in molten state
D) Occurs as solid
Answer B)- Explanation: Reason: Z is an ionic compound. It has a high melting point.
10) Metallic oxides which react with both acid and base to produce salt and water are called
A) Neutral Oxides
B) Basic Oxides
C) Amphoteric Oxides
D) Acidic Oxides
Answer C)-Amphoteric Oxides
11) When Calcium reacts with water it starts floating on top of water because
A) bubbles of carbon dioxide formed stick to the surface of metal
B) bubbles of hydrogen formed stick to the surface of metal
C) Calcium is lighter than water
D) None of the above
Answer B)- bubbles of hydrogen formed stick to the surface of metal
12) The reactivity series is a list of metals arranged in order of
A) Increasing reactivity
B) Decreasing reactivity
Answer B) Decreasing reactivity
13) Ionic compounds have high melting and boiling points because
A) less energy is required to break the strong interionic attraction
B) large amount of energy is required to break the interionic attraction
C) No energy is required
D) None of the above
Answer B)- large amount of energy is required to break the interionic attraction
ASSRTION & REASONING
Note: For question numbers 14,15 and 16, two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A)and the
other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the
codes (a), (b), © and (d) as given below:
(a)Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b)Both A and R are true, butR is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c)A is true but R is False.
(d)A is false but R is true.
14)Assertion (A) Hydrogen gas is not evolved when a metal reacts with nitric acid.
Reason (R)Nitric acid is a strong oxidising agent.
Answer a)- Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of the assertion.
15)Assertion (A)Magnesium chloride is an ionic compound.
Reason(R)Metals and non-metals react with mutual transfer of electrons.
Answer a)- Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of the assertion.
16)Assertion (A) Gold occurs in native state.
Reason (R)Gold is a reactive metal.
Answer)- A is true but R is False.
17) 2 ml each of concentrated HCl, HNO3 and a mixture of concentrated hydrochloric acid and
Concentrated nitric acid in the ratio of 3:1were taken in test tubes labelled as A, B and C, A small
piece of metal was put in each test tube. No change occurred in test tubes A and B but the metal
dissolved in test tube C. The metal could be:
A) Al
B) Au
C) Pt
D) Cu
Answer B) Au
18) Which of the following is the correct arrangement of the given metals in ascending order of their
reactivity?
Answer D)- Sodium > Magnesium > Zinc > Iron
19) In general the number of electrons in the outermost shell of the metal is
A)1
20) Which of the given nonmetal is a liquid?
A) Hydrogen
B) Bromine
C) Chlorine
D) Mercury
Answer B)- Bromine
Chapter - HUMAN EYE
1. In the following diagram, the path of a ray of light passing through a glass prism is shown:
In this diagram the angle of incidence, the angle of emergence and the angle of deviation respectively
are (select the correct option):
(a) X, R and T
(b) Y, Q and T
(c) X, Q and P
(d) Y, Q and P
Answer (d) Y, Q and P
2 Which of the following colour is least scattered by fog, dust or smoke : A. Violet
B. Blue
C. Red
D. Yellow
Answer c) Red
3 When a ray passes through a prism ______. A. It goes undeviated
B. It remain parallel to a base
C. It bends towards the base
D. None
Answer C. It bends towards the base
4 The ratio of real depth to apparent depth is called : A. Refractive index
B. Critical angle
C. Lateral displacement
a) Light is least scattered
b) All the colours of the white light are scattered away
c) Red colour is scattered the most
d) Blue colour is scattered the most
Answer a) light is least scattered
6 The image shows the dispersion of the white light in the prism.
What will be the colours of the X, Y and Z?
(a) X: red; Y: green; Z: violet
(b) X: violet; Y: green; Z: red
(c) X: green; Y: violet; Z: red
(d) X: red; Y: violet; Z: green
Answer: Option (b)
7. Which of the following phenomena of light are involved in the formation of a rainbow?
(a) Reflection, refraction and dispersion
(b) Refraction, dispersion and total internal reflection
(c) Refraction, dispersion and internal reflection
(d) Dispersion, scattering and total internal reflection
Answer: Option (b)
Read the following and answer the following questions from (8) to (12):-
Atmospheric refraction is the phenomenon of bending of light on passing through earth‘s atmosphere.
As we move above the surface of earth, density of air goes on decreasing. Local conditions like
temperature etc. also affect the optical density of earth‘s atmosphere. On account of atmospheric
refraction, stars seen appear higher than they actual are; advanced sunrise; delayed sunset, oval
appearance of the sun at sunrise and sunset; stars twinkle, planets do not.
8. Due to atmospheric refraction, apparent length of the day
(a) increases
(b) decreases
9. Apparent position of the star appears raised due to
(a) atmospheric refraction
(d) none of these
Answer: (a) atmospheric refraction.
10. The sun appears oval shaped or flattened due to
(a) dispersion
(b) scattering
Answer: (c) Atmospheric refraction
11. Twinkling of stars and non-twinkling of planets is accounted for by
(a) scattering of light
(b) dispersion of light
12. In absence of atmosphere, the colour of sky appears
(a) blue
(b) black
(c) red
(d) yellow
Answer: (b) Black
13. The bluish colour of water in deep sea is due to
(a) The presence of algae and other plants found in water
(b) Reflection of sky in water
(c) Scattering of light
Answer: (c ) Scattering of light
14. Which image shows the deviation of light in a prism?
(a)
(a) Size of scattering particles
(b) Wavelength of light
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
Answer Both (a) and (b)
16. Which of the following coloured light has the least speed in glass prism?
(a) Violet
(b) Yellow
(c) Red
(d) Green
Answer (a) Violet
17. Name the scientist who was the first to use a glass prism to obtain the spectrum of sunlight.
(a) Isaac Newton
(d) Hans Christian Oersted
Answer (a) Isaac Newton
18. Assertion (A) : The phenomenon of scattering of light by the colloidal particles gives rise to
Tyndall effect.
Reason (R): The colour of the scattered light depends on the size of the scattering particles.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Answer (b)
19. Assertion (A) :Sunlight reaches us without dispersion in the form of white light and not as a
component.
Reason(R) : Dispersion takes place due to variation of refractive index for different wavelength
but in vaccum the speed of light is independent of wavelength and hence vaccum is a non- dispersive
medium
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Answer (a)
20. Assertion : Rainbow is an example of the dispersion of sunlight by the water droplets.
Reason: light of shorter wavelength is scattered much more than light of longer wavelength
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Answer (C)
Chapter -LIFE PROCESSES
1. The diagram shows the arrangement of cells inside the leaf of a green plant. (No cell contents are
shown). Which cells normally contain chloroplasts?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 4
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 2 and 4
Ans : (d) 2 and 4
2. Which of the following structures is involved in gaseous exchange in woody stem of a plant?
(a) Stomata
(b) Lenticel
(c) Hydathode
(d) Epidermis
3. Which substances are produced by anaerobic respiration in yeast?
Carbo
n
dioxid
e
Ans : (a)
4. A plant is kept in the dark for two days. A leaf is used in an experiment to investigate the effect of
two factors on photosynthesis as shown in the diagram.
What are the colours of Q and R , when the leaf is tested for starch, using iodine solution?
Q R
(d) Brown Blue/black Ans : (Q -Brown R -Brown
5. The air consist of 78% Nitrogen . Choose the forms in which most plants absorb nitrogen:
1. Proteins
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 4
Ans : (b) 2 and 3
6. Only two of the following Statements accurately describe what happens in the mouth.
1. Amylase breaks down large starch molecules into smaller maltose molecules.
2. Chewing increases the surface area of food for digestion.
3. Saliva emulsifies fats into smaller droplets.
4. Teeth breakup large insoluble molecules into smaller soluble molecules which statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 4
7. The diagram represents a section through the small intestine.
What is the role of the structure labelled X ?
(a) They secrete enzymes for digestion
(b) They secrete hormones
Ans : (d)
8. In photosynthesis, which substances are used up, which are produced and which are necessary, but
remain unchanged after the reaction?
Used up Produced Remain Unchanged
(a) Carbo
(c) Oxygen Starch Cellulose
(d) Water Oxygen Chlorophyll
Ans : (d) Used up-Water, Produced-Oxygen, Remain Unchanged-Chlorophyll
9. .Lack of qxygen in muscle often leads to cramps among Athletes . This results due to :
(a) conversion of Pyruvate to Ethanol
(b) conversion of Pyruvate to Glucose
(c) conversion of Glucose to Pyruvate
(d) conversion of Pyruvate to Lactic acid
10. The diagram shows part of the human gas exchange system.
What are W, X,Y and Z ?
Bronchu
s
Bronchio
le
Ans: d
11. The diagram represents a part of human circulatory system. Where is the blood pressure
highest?
Ans :(b)
Q.12. What is the correct route for blood flow in a human?
(a) Left atrium " Left ventricle " Lungs " Right ventricle " Right atrium
(b) Left atrium " Left ventricle " Right ventricle " Right atrium " Lungs
(c) Right atrium " Right ventricle " Left ventricle " Left atrium " Lungs
(d) Right atrium " Right ventricle " Lungs " Left atrium " Left ventricle
Ans : (d) Right atrium " Right ventricle " Lungs " Left atrium " Left ventricle
ASSERTION AND REASONING
DIRECTION : The following question consist of two statements - Assertion (A) and Reason
(R). Answer these questions selecting the appropriate option given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
(e) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
1. Assertion : in the daytime, CO2 generated during respiration is used up for photosynthesis. Reason : There is no CO2 release during day.
2. Assertion : Lungs always contain a residual volume of air.
Reason : It provides sufficient time for oxygen to be absorbed and for carbon dioxide to be
released.
3. Assertion : Transpiration is a necessary evil.
Reason : It causes water loss but helps in absorption and upward movement of water and
minerals.
4. Assertion : During physiology of excretion, deamination does not take place in liver.
Reason : Deamination is a process to make use of excess of amino acids which cannot be
incorporated into protoplasm.
5. Assertion : The muscular walls of ventricles are thicker than auricles.
Reason : This helps in preventing the back flow of blood.
6. Assertion : The wall off stomach possess thick layers of muscles.
Reason : These muscles help in mixing the food with the enzymes presents in the alimentary
7. Assertion : The release of energy in aerobic process is much more than in anaerobic process.
Reason : Each glucose molecule produces 2 molecules of ATP and 38 molecules of ATP in
aerobic respiration.
8. Assertion : Lipases help in emulsification of fats. Reason : Lipases hydrolyses fats
9. Assertion : Bile is essential for digestion of lipids. Reason : Bile juice contains enzymes.
Ans : (c) A is true but R is false
CASE STUDY QUESTIONS
Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v)
Sumati wanted to see the stars of the night sky. She knows that she needs a telescope to
see those distant stars. She finds out that the telescopes, which are made of lenses, are
called refracting telescopes and the ones which are made of mirrors are called reflecting
telescopes.
So she decided to make a refracting telescope. She bought two lenses, L1 and L2, out of
which L1 was bigger and L2 was smaller. The larger lens gathers and bends the light,
while the smaller lens magnifies the image. Big, thick lenses are more powerful. So to see
far away, she needed a big powerful lens. Unfortunately, she realized that a big lens is
very heavy. Heavy lenses are hard to make and difficult to hold in the right place. Also
since the light is passing through the lens, the surface of the lens has to be extremely
smooth. Any flaws in the lens will change the image. It would be like looking through a
dirty window.
(i) Based on the diagram shown, what kind of lenses would Sumati need to make the
telescope?
(a) Concave lenses (b) Convex lenses (c) Bifocal lenses (d) Flat lenses
Ans: (b) Convex lenses
(ii) If the powers of the lenses L1 and L2 are in the ratio of 4:1, what would be the ratio of
the focal length of L1 and L2?
(a) 4:1 (b) 1:4 (c) 2:1 (d) 1:1
(iii) What is the formula for magnification obtained with a lens?
(a) Ratio of height of image to height of object
(b) Double the focal length.
(c) Inverse of the radius of curvature.
(d) Inverse of the object distance.
(a) Ratio of height of image to height of object
(iv) Sumati did some preliminary experiment with the lenses and found out that the
magnification of the eyepiece (L2) is 3. If in her experiment with L2 she found an image at 24
cm from the lens, at what distance did she put the object?
(a) 72 cm
(b) 12 cm
(c) 8 cm
(d) 6 cm

(v) Sumati bought not-so-thick lenses for the telescope and polished them. What advantages,
if any, would she have with her choice of lenses?
(a) She will not have any advantage as even thicker lenses would give clearer images.
(b) Thicker lenses would have made the telescope easier to handle.
(c) Not-so-thick lenses would not make the telescope very heavy and also allow considerable
amount of light to pass.
(d) Not-so-thick lenses will give her more magnification.
Answer:-c. Not-so-thick lenses would not make the telescope very heavy and also allow considerable
amount of light to pass.
Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v)
Rear view mirror is a device that allows the driver to see rear ward. It usually finds its place at
the top of windscreen in side the cabin. This device is one of the most basic but essential safety
devices in the vehicle. It provides assistance to the driver during overtaking, parking in reverse
gear etc. Generally, vehicles also have a pair of mirrors attached to the body from outside.
They are popular as 'side mirrors' or Outer Rear View Mirrors (ORVM) which serve the same
purpose. Almost all modern cars mount their side mirrors on the doors-normally at A-pillar
rather than the wings (the portion of the body above the wheel well).
A real image of an object is to be obtained. The mirror required for this purpose is :
(a) convex mirror (b) concave mirror
(c) plane mirror (d) either convex or concave mirror
Ans: (b) Concave mirror
(i) A boy is standing in front of and close to a special mirror. He finds the image of his head
bigger than normal, the middle part of his body of the same size, and his legs smaller than normal.
The special mirror is made up of three types of mirrors in the following order from top downwards:
(a) Convex, Plane, Concave
(b) Plane, Convex, Concave
(c) Concave, Plane, Convex
(d) Convex, Concave, Plane
A plane mirror will produce an image of the same size. A concave mirror will
produce a magnified image.
(c) Concave, Plane, Convex
(a) by a dentist
(c) as a rear view mirror in vehicles
(d) as a light reflector for obtaining a parallel beam of light
Ans: (c) as a rear view mirror in vehicles
(iii) Linear magnification (m) produced by a rear view mirror fitted in vehicles :
(a) is equal to one
(b) is less than one
(c) is more than one
(d) can be more or less than one depending on the position of object
Ans: (b) is less than one
(iv) A concave mirror cannot be used as :
(a) a magnifying mirror
(b) a torch reflector
(c) a dentist‘s mirror
(d) a rear view mirror
We cannot use a concave mirror as a rearview mirror in motor vehicles.
This is because a concave mirror produces inverted images (upside down images) of
distant objects.
Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v)
A ray of light passes from a medium of water to that of air. Light ray will be refracted at the junction
separating the two media. Since it passes from a medium of a higher refractive index to that having a lower
refractive index, the refracted light ray bends away from the normal.
At a specific angle of incidence, the incident ray of light is refracted in such a way that it passes along the
surface of the water. This particular angle of incidence is called the critical angle. Here the angle of refraction
is 90 degrees.
When the angle of incidence is greater than the critical angle, the incident ray is reflected back to
the medium. We call this phenomenon total internal reflectionLight is a form of energy that
produces in us the sensation of sight. Reflection of light is the phenomenon of bouncing back of
light in the same medium on striking the surface of any object. The two laws of reflection are the
incident ray, the reflected ray and the normal (at the point of incidence), all lie in the same plane
and the angle of reflection r is always equal to the angle of incidence (i). Refraction
of light is the phenomenon of change in the path of light in going from one
medium to another.
Mirage is an optical illusion which is responsible for the
appearance of the water layer at short distances in a desert or on the
road. Mirage is an example of total internal reflection which occurs
due to atmospheric refraction.
(i) Mirage is caused due to
(a) total Internal Reflection of light by the various layers of air
(b) illusion of the presence of water
(c) result of refraction of light from a non-uniform medium
(d) during sunny days when driving on a roadway
Ans: (a) total Internal Reflection of light by the various layers of air
(ii) What is mirage?
(b) Mirror is concave and the lens is convex
(c) Goes straight into the second medium
(d) Optical illusion caused due to total Internal Reflection
Ans: (d) Optical illusion caused due to total Internal Reflection
(iii) What is the condition for total internal reflection?
(a) Angle of incidence is less than to critical angle
(b) Angle of incidence is equal to critical angle
(c) Angle of incidence is greater than to critical angle
(d) None of these
Ans: (c) Angle of incidence is greater than to critical angle
(iv) Mirage is observed mainly during days.
(a) Sunny (b) Winter (c) Spring (d) Hot
Ans: (a) Sunny
(a) Between focus and centre of curvature
(b) Is formed away from the normal
(c) Illusion of the presence of water and is a result of refraction of light from
a non- uniform medium
(d) Is reflected along the same path
Ans: (c) Illusion of the presence of water and is a result of refraction
of light from a non-uniform medium
Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v)
Convex mirrors are used as rear-view mirrors in vehicles. The image formed in a
convex mirror is diminished (ray diagram is shown here) due to which it gives a
wide field of view of the traffic behind the vehicle. Consider a convex mirror used
on a moving automobile with radius of curvature 2 m and a truck is coming from
behind it by maintaining a constant distance of 3.5 m.
(i) The distance behind the mirror where the image is formed is
(a) 0.28 m (b) 1.5 m (c) 0.78 m (d) 7.8 m
(ii) The nature of the image formed is
(a) virtual and erect (b) real and inverted
(c) real, erect and enlarged (d) none of these
Ans: (a) virtual and erect
(iii) The size of the image relative to the size of the truck is
(a) 0.30 (b) 0.5 (c) 0.78 (d) 0.22
(iv) The focal length of the mirror is
(a) 0.5 m (b) 1 m (c) 1.5 m (d) 2 m
(v) If instead of 3.5 m, truck maintains a distance of 2 m, the image formed will be
(a) real, erect and diminished
(b) virtual, inverted and diminished
(c) real, erect and enlarged
(d) virtual, erect and diminished
A convex mirror always produces a virtual, erect and diminished image.
Ans: (d) virtual, erect and diminished
Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v)
An overhead projector (OHP), like a film or slide projector; uses light
to project an enlarged image on a screen. In the OHP, the source of
the image is a page-sized sheet of transparent plastic film (also
known as foils) with the image to be projected either printed or hand-
written/drawn. These are placed on the glass surface of the projector,
which has a light source below it and a projecting mirror and lens
assembly above it as shown in the figure.
(i) Based on the diagram shown, what kind of lens is used to make the overhead projector?
(a) concave lenses (b) convex lenses (c) bifocal lenses (d) flat lenses
Ans: (b) convex lenses
(ii) The image obtained will be erect and real. How?
(a) The image when passed through the lens was erect and was directly
obtained on the screen.
(b) The image when passed through the lens was inverted and then it gets
reflected on the mirror to be obtained on the screen.
(c) The screen used automatically makes the image erect and real.
(d) Both (b) and (c)
Ans: (b) The image when passed through the lens was inverted and then it gets reflected on the
mirror to be obtained on the screen.
(iii) Why is concave mirror used and not convex mirror?
(a) because concave mirror can give real image.
(b) because convex mirror can give real image.
(c) because concave mirror cannot give real image.
(d) because convex mirror cannot give virtual image.
Ans: (a) because concave mirror can give real image.
(iv) If the radius of curvature of concave mirror is 12 cm. Then, the focal length will be :
(a) 12 cm (b) 6 cm (c) -24 cm (d) -6 cm
We know that f = R/2 = 12/2 = 6 cm
But the sign of focal length of
concave mirror is negative.
Therefore f = -6 cm
(v) The power of a convex lens is and that of a
concave lens is
Ans: (a) positive, negative
CASE STUDY QUESTION
Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v)
A mirror is a surface that reflects a clear image. Images can be of two types: Real
image and virtual image. An image that can be formed on the screen is known as a
real image and the one which cannot be formed on the screen is known as a
virtual image. These images are formed when light falls on a mirror from the
object and is reflected back by the mirror on the screen.
One useful tool that is frequently used to depict this idea is known as a ray
diagram. A ray diagram is a diagram that traces the path that light takes in order
for a person to view a point on the image of an object. On the diagram, rays (lines
with arrows) are drawn for the incident ray and the reflected ray.
A ray diagram used arrow type lines to represent the incident ray and the reflected
ray. It also helps to trace the direction in which light travels.
(i) Convex mirror always forms, an image :
(a) Virtual, erect and enlarged (b) Virtual, inverted and
enlarged
(c) Virtual, erect and diminished (d) Real, erect and diminished
Ans: (c) Virtual, erect and diminished
(ii) A convex lens forms the image of sun at :
(a) C (b) focus(c) pole(d) between focus and pole
When an object is at infinity from a convex lens, then the image formed is :
(i) at the focus,
(iii) much smaller than the object (or highly diminished).
Ans: (b) focus
(iii) A concave lens can form a real and inverted image, when :
(a) Object is placed at 2f (b) Object is placed beyond 2f
(c) Object is placed between f and 2f (d) It can never form a real and
inverted image.
Ans: (d) It can never form a real and inverted image.
(iv) An object is placed beyond 2F, in front of a convex lens, image will be formed :
(a) between F and 2F
(b) at focus
Ans: (a)
(v) An object is placed at focus of a concave mirror, image will be formed at :
(a) focus
(c) beyond C
(d) at infinity
CASE STUDY QUESTION
Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v)
Mirror formula is a relation between object distance (u), image distance (v) and focal
length (f) of a spherical mirror.
It can be written as 1/u + 1/v = 1/f = 2/R where R is the radius of curvature of the mirror.
This formula is valid in all situations for all spherical mirrors for all positions of the
object. Consider the case, in which a mirror forms a real image of height 4 cm of an
object of height 1 cm placed 20 cm away from the mirror.
Consider the case, in which a mirror forms a real image of height 4 cm of an
object of height 1 cm placed 20 cm away from the mirror.
(i) The distance from the object to its image is
(a) 20 cm (b) 80 cm (c) 60 cm (d) 70 cm
(ii) The focal length of mirror is
(a) -16 cm (b) 12 cm (c) -15 cm (d) 10 cm
Consider the case, in which a mirror forms a real image of height 4 cm of an
object of height 1 cm placed 20 cm away from the mirror.
(iii) The radius of curvature of the mirror is (a) -16 cm (b) -14 cm (c) -30 cm
(d) -32 cm
(iv) The magnification of the image is (a) 3 (b) -6 (c) -4 (d) 8
(v) At what distance must an object be placed from mirror in order that a real image
double its size may be obtained?
(a) -24 cm (b) 32 cm (c) -40 cm (d) 45 cm
CASE STUDY QUESTION
Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v)
Aditya and his friend Manoj placed a candle flame in front of a convex lens at various
distances from it and obtained the image of the candle flame on a white screen.
He noted down the position of the candle, screen and the lens as under Position of candle = 20 cm
Position of convex lens = 50 cm Position of the screen = 80 cm
(i) What is the position of the image formed from the convex lens?
(a) 80 cm (b) 50 cm (c) 30 cm (d) 60 cm
(ii) What is the focal length of the convex lens?
(a) 30 cm
(b) 15 cm
(e) -16 cm
(d) 16 cm
Answer:- (b)
(iii) Where will the image be formed if he shifts the candle towards the lens at a
position of 35 cm?
(c) At infinity
Answer:- © at infinity
(iv) Which of the following statement describes the best about the nature of the image formed if
Aditya shifts the candle towards the lens to 36 cm?
(a) The nature of the image formed will be virtual, inverted and magnified.
(b) The nature of the image formed will be virtual, erect and magnified.
(c) The nature of the image formed will be virtual, erect and diminished.
(d) The nature of the image formed will be real, inverted and diminished.
(v) Manoj noted following observations at different positions of candle from the lens. According
to Aditya one set of observations is incorrect. Find out if Aditya is right or not.
(a) Distance of the flame from the lens = 60 cm;
Distance of the screen from the lens = 20 cm
(b) Distance of the flame from the lens = 45 cm;
Distance of the screen from the lens = 22.5 cm
(c) Distance of the flame from the lens = 30 cm;
Distance of the screen from the lens = 30 cm
(d) Distance of the flame from the lens = 10 cm; Distance of the screen from the
lens = 15 cm
The observation (d) is incorrect. For this observation v = 15, i.e., the image is at the
focus and the object must be formed at infinity and not 10 cm.
Social
Science
History
Chapter- Nationalism in Europe (MCQ Questions)
1). Identify the correct statement with regard to the act of union from the following options
a. The British monarchy surrendered the power to English parliament.
b. The British parliament seized power from Ireland.
c. The formation of the United Kingdom of Great Britain.
d. The British nation was formed as are result of a war with Scotland and Wales.
Answer – (c) The formation of the United Kingdom of Great Britain.
2). Which of the following treaty recognised Greece as an independent nation?
a. Treaty of sevres
b. Treaty of Versailles
c. Treaty of Constantinople
d. Treaty of Lausanne
Answer – (c) Treaty of Constantinople
3) Identify the correct statement with regard to the Zollverein from the following options.
a. It was a measuring unit of cloth in Germany
b. It was a class of trader in Germany
c. It was a custom union formed in 1834.
d. It was the Congress hosted by the American chancellor Duke Metternich in 1815.
Answer – (c) It was a custom union formed in 1834.
4) The following were the features of the Nation state that emerged in Europe in the 20th century.
a. The concept and practices of a modern state with sovereign centralised power developed in
Europe.
b. Nation state was supposed to be a state where majority of its citizens shared common identify and
history.
c. Nations began to be personified i.e.; they were represented as a person with characteristics that
identified their nations. Mainly female figures were used to portray the nation.
d. None of these
Answer – (b) Nation state was supposed to be a state where majority of its citizens shared common
identify and history.
5) Which of the following was a feature of the Conservatism in Europe after 1815?
a. Established traditional systems of state and society
b. Efficient bureaucracy
c. Modern army
6) Who dominated the South regions of Italy?
a. Pope
c. Austrian Habsburgs
Answer – (b) Bourbon Kings of Spain
7) Who described Mazzini as The most dangerous enemy of our social order.
a. Bismarck
b. Cavour
c. Metternich
d. Garibaldi
Answer – (c) Metternich
8) Which of the following aspects best signifies this image of Germania?
a. Anger and revenge
d. Watching Germany
Answer – (b) Germania guarding the Rhine
9) Identify the correct statement with regard to The Civil Code of 1804 from the following options:
a. A new constitution with citizens enjoying equal rights was adopted.
b. A centralised administrative system was formulated.
c. All the privileges based on birth were abolished.
d. It emphasised the concept of government by consent.
Answer – (c) All the privileges based on birth were abolished.
10.Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
Following the defeat of Napoleon in 1815, European governments were driven by a spirit of conservatism.
Conservatives believed that established traditional institutions of state and society -like the monarchy, the
Church, social hierarchies, property and family- should be preserved. Most conservatives, however, did not
propose a return to the society of pre-revolutionary days. Rather, they realised, from the changes initiated by
Napoleon, that modernization could in fact strengthen traditional institutions like the monarchy. It could
make State power more effective and stronger. A modern army, an efficient bureaucracy, a dynamic
economy, the abolition of feudalism and sarfdom could strengthen the autocratic monarchies of Europe. In
1815, representative of the European powers- who had collectively defeated Napoleon, met at Vienna to
draw up a settlement for Europe. The Congress was hosted by the Austrian Chancellor Duke Metternich.
The delegates drew up the treaty of Vienna of 1815 with the object of undoing most of the changes that had
come about in Europe during the Napoleonic wars. The bourbon dynasty, which had been deposed during
the French revolution, was restored to power and French, lost the territories it has annexed under Napoleon.
A series of states were set up on the boundaries of France to prevent French expression in future
Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
10.1) which of the following statements correctly describes about European conservative ideology
a) Preservation of belief introduced by Napoleon
b) Preservation of two sects of Christianity
c) Preservation of socialist ideology in economic sphere
d) Preservation of traditionalist beliefs in state and society.
Answer – (d) Preservation of traditionalist beliefs in state and society.
10.2) Identify the purpose to convene the Vienna of Congress in 1815 from the following options:
a) To declared competition of German unification
b) To restore conservative regime in Europe
c) To declare war against France
d) To start the process of Italian unification.
Answer – (b) To restore conservative regime in Europe
10.3) What did conservatives focus on at the Congress of Vienna? Select the appropriate option
a) To re-establish peace and stability in Europe
b) To establish socialism in Europe
c) To introduce democracy in France
d) To set up a new Parliament in Austria.
Answer – (a) To re-establish peace and stability in Europe
10.4) How did the Congress of Vienna ensure peace in Europe? Select the appropriate option
a) with the restoration of Bourbon dynasty
b) Austria was not given the control of Northern Italy
c) Laying out a balance of power between all the great powers in Europe
d) By giving power to the German confederation.
Answer – (c) Laying out a balance of power between all the great powers in Europe
11. The nationalist in Greece got the support of the West European nations because:
a) They were fighting against the Muslim Ottoman Empire
b) They had sympathies for ancient Greek culture
c) Greece was considered the cradle of European civilisation
d) All the above
a) Diplomatic alliance with enemies of Austria
b) War with Austrians and Bourbons
c) Diplomatic alliance with France in 1859 and strengthening Sardinia and Piedmont
d) Defeated the Bourbon kings
Answer –(c) Diplomatic alliance with France in 1859 and strengthening Sardinia and Piedmont
13. Who was Giuseppe Mazzini? When and where was he born?
a) Giuseppe Mazzini was an Italian revolutionary, born in Rome in 1810
b) Giuseppe Mazzini was an Italian, born in Genoa, in 1807
c) Giuseppe Mazzini was a Corsican, born in Genoa in 1807
d) Giuseppe Mazzini was a famous Italian painter, born in Genoa in 1810
Answer – (b) Giuseppe Mazzini was an Italian, born in Genoa, in 1807
14. The purpose behind the painting The Massacre at Chios by Eugene Delacroix, 1824, was:
a To appeal to the emotions of the spectators and create sympathy for the Greeks
b. To dramatize the incident in which 20,000 Greeks were killed
c. To focus on the suffering of women and children
d. All the above
15. The aim of Romanticism, a cultural movement, was:
a. To create a sense of shared collective heritage, a common cultural past, as the basis
of the nation
c. To focus on emotions, intuitions and mystical feeling
d. Both A and C
Answer – (d) Both A and C
16. German philosopher Johann Gottfried Herder claimed that true German culture was
discovered through
b) Common people — das volk
c) Vernacular language
Answer – (a) Folk songs, folk poetry, folk dances
17. A map celebrating the British Empire depicted British domination of the world as:
a) Britannia (symbol of British nation) sitting triumphantly over the globe.
b) Britannia surrounded by tigers, elephants, forests symbolizing the colonies.
c) Angels carrying banner of freedom.
d) Through pictures of primitive people.
Answer –(a) Britannia (symbol of British nation) sitting triumphantly over the globe.
18. The two reasons which made the Balkans an explosive region after 1871 were:
a) The spread of ideas of romantic nationalism and the disintegration of the
Ottoman Empire under whose control they were.
b) The declaration of independence by European subject nationalities from the
Ottomon Empire.
c) The support of history and nationalism to be independent.
d) All the above
Answer – a) The spread of ideas of romantic nationalism and the disintegration of the
Ottoman Empire under whose control they were.
19. The big power rivalry in the late 19th century was over:
a) Trade and colonies
c) Both A and B
d) Territories and naval might
Answer –(c) Both A and B
20. Study the picture and answer the question that follows. Which of the following aspects best signifies this
image of Otto Von Bismarck ?
a) Depicts his fear
b) Depicts his love
d) both (a) and (c)
Answer – (d) both (a) and (c)
POLITICAL
SCIENCE
Chapter: POWER SHARING
Q1 Which is the major social group of Sri Lankan population?
(a) Tamilians
(b) Sinhalese
Ans: (b) Sinhalese
Q2 Which state is located at a few kilometers distance from Sri Lanka?
(a) Kerala
(b) Karnataka
(a) 1945
(b) 1947
(c) 1948
(d) 1946
(a) Rule by the majority community
(b) Rule by the majority of population
(c) Rule by the major political party
(d) Rule by the dominant group of society
Ans: (a) Rule by the majority of community
Q5 What were the main reasons of civil war in Sri Lanka?
(a) Act was passed to recognize Sinhala as the official language.
(b) Constitution and government policies denied the equal political rights.
(c) Sri Lankan Tamils wanted a political autonomy.
(d) Distrust among the two communities
Options:
4 (d) and (b)
Ans: 1(a) and (b)
Q6 Power is shared among different organs of government; it allows different organs of government at the
same level to exercise different powers.
What does the above statement mean?
(a) None of the organs exercise unlimited powers.
(b) There is a check and balance of powers among all the organs.
(c) All organs are independent to each other and do not interfere in each other affairs.
(d) Parliament control all the organs of the government.
Option:
1 Statements (a), (c) and (d) are correct but (b) is wrong.
2 Statement (a), (b) and (c) are correct but (d) is wrong.
3 Statement (b), (c) and (d) are correct but (a) is wrong.
Ans: 2 Statement (a), (b) and (c) are correct but (d) is wrong
Q7.Which statement is correct about the ethnic composition of Belgium?
(a) 59% people live in the Flemish region and speak Dutch language. Another 40% people live in the
Wallonia region and speaks French. Remaining 1% of Belgians speak Germans.
(b) 40% people live in the Flemish region and speak Dutch language. Another 59% people live in
Wallonia region and speak French. Remaining 1% of Belgians speak Germans.
(c) 59% people live in the Wallonia and speak Dutch language. Another 40% people live in Flemish
region and speak French. Remaining 1% of Belgians speak Germans.
(d) 40% people live in the Wallonia region and speak Germans. Another 59% people live in the Flemish
region and speak Dutch. Remaining 1% of Belgians speak French.
Ans: Statement (a) 59% people live in the Flemish region and speak Dutch language. Another 40%
people live in the Wallonia region and speaks French. Remaining 1% of Belgians speak Germans.
Q8 What were the steps taken by the government of Belgium to accommodate different ethnic groups?
(a) Constitution prescribes that the number of Dutch and French speaking ministers should be equal in
the central government.
(b) The government followed preferential policies that followed French language and disregard the Dutch
language.
(c) Constitution and government policies denied the equal political rights and ignored the interest of each
other‘s.
(d) Constitution was amended four times to work out an arrangement that would enable everyone to live
together within the same country.
Choose the correct option.
Q9 Why power sharing is desirable?
Choose the wrong statement.
(a) It helps to reduce the possibility of conflict between the social groups.
(b) It leads to violence and political instability.
(c) Power sharing is the very spirit of democracy
(d) Power sharing involves those effected by its exercise and who must live with its effect.
Ans: (b) It leads to violence and political instability
Q10 Which type of power sharing is called Horizontal distribution of power?
(a) Power is shared among different levels of government.
(b) Power is shared among different social groups.
(c) Power is shared among different political parties and pressure groups.
(d) Power is shared among executive, judiciary and legislature.
Ans: (d) Power is shared among executive, judiciary and legislature.
Q11 Match the following
state
2. Power is divided among social
groups
organs of the government
political parties
Q12 Where is the headquarter of European Union located?
(a) Wallonia region
(b) Flemish region
Ans: (c) Brussels
(a) Sinhalese, Tamils, Buddhists, Christians.
(b) Sinhalese, Malays, Buddhists, Christians.
(c) Sinhalese, Tamils, Jains, Christians.
(d) Tamils, Muslims, Buddhists, Christians.
Ans: (a) Sinhalese, Tamils, Buddhists, Christians.
Q14 When did Act realized Sinhala as the official language of Sri Lanka?
a) 1955
b) 1956
c) 1957
d) 1958
Q15 What does this cartoon signify?
(a) The Germany‘s grand coalition government includes two major parties of the country.
(b) Belgium adopted the accommodation policy. French and Dutch given the equal status to run the
government.
(c) Sri Lanka adopted the majoritarianism and government run by the Sinhala speakers and alliances.
(d) India had coalition government run by two or more political parties.
Ans: (a) The Germany’s grand coalition government includes two major parties of the country.
Q16 Which one of the following statements about coalition Government is true?
(a) Power is shared among the different organs of the government
(b) Power is shared among governments at different levels
(c) Power is shared by different social groups
(d) Power is shared by two or more political parties
Ans (d) Power is shared by two or more political parties
Q17 Which part of Sri Lankan Tamils demanded to form an independent Tamil Eelam (state)?
(a) South-West of Sri Lanka
(b) South-East of Sri Lanka
(c) North-West of Sri Lanka
(d) North-East of Sri Lanka
Ans: (d) North-East of Sri Lanka
Q18 In democracy who all are the source of political power?
(a) People
(b) Government
(c) Institutions
(d) Political Parties
Ans: (a) People
Q19 Which of the following countries have federal division of powers?
(a) India
(b) Belgium
Ans: (d) Both (a) and (b)
Q20 Which of the following was not one of the initial demands of the Sri Lankan Tamils?
(a) Recognition of Tamil as an official language
(b) Regional autonomy
(d) Creation of an independent Tamil Eelam (state)
Ans (d) Creation of an independent Tamil Eelam (state)
ECONOMICS
Chapter- DEVELOPMENT
1. Which is the most common method of measuring economic development?
a. Profit loss
Ans (b) Income
2. What is considered to be one of the most important attributes when we compare countries at the
level of development?
a. Industrial development
c. Income
d. Import-export
Ans (c) Income
3. Countries with per capita income of US$per annum and above in 2017, are called rich countries?
a. 12,126
b. 11246
c. 12056
d. 10056
a. High-income countries
d. High middle-income countries
Ans(b) Low middle-income countries
5. Over the past decade or so, indicators have come to be widely used along with income as a measure of
development?
Ans (d) Human development
6. Reema and Rahul studied about calculation of BMI in their school. They are keen to know the
BMI of their domestic maid servant whose weight is 61 and height is 5 feet. Can you help them in
knowing that if she is:
a. Underweight
b. Overweight
c. Normal
Ans (b) Overweight
7. Reema and Rahul are studying about the percentage of children in the age group 14 -15 years
attending school. It means they are studying about
a. Net attendance ratio
b. Gross enrolment ratio
Ans (a) Net attendance ratio
8. Renewable resources are those resources which can be replenished by nature but these resources can be
replenished if of the resources is less than the rate of .
a. consumption, regeneration
b. usage, replenishment
d. none of the above.
Ans (c) any of above
9. Per capita income of is higher where as human development index of
is better.
10. While making comparative study of development amongst Indian states following criterion is used:
a. per capita income and literacy rate
b. Literacy rate, per capita income and net attendance ratio.
c. Literacy rate, Net attendance ratio and infant mortality rate
d. per capita income ,literacy rate , net attendance ratio and infant mortality rate.
Ans (d) per capita income, literacy rate, net attendance ratio and infant mortality rate.
11. Which is the most common method of measuring economic development?
a. Profit loss
Ans (b) Income
12. What is considered to be one of the most important attributes when we compare countries at the level
of development?
c. Income
d. Import-export
Ans (c) Income
13. Countries with per capita income of US$ per annum and above in 2017, are called rich countries?
a. 12,126
b. 11246
c. 12056
d. 10056
a. High-income countries
d. High middle-income countries
Ans(b) Low middle-income countries
15. Over the past decade or so, indicators have come to be widely used along with income as a measure of
development?
Ans (d) Human development
16. Reema and Rahul studied about calculation of BMI in their school. They are keen to know the BMI of
their domestic maid servant whose weight is 61 and height is 5 feet. Can you help them in knowing that
if she is:
Ans (b) Overweight
17. Reema and Rahul are studying about the percentage of children in the age group 14 -15 years
attending school. It means they are studying about
a. Net attendance ratio
b. Gross enrolment ratio
Ans (a) Net attendance ratio
18. Renewable resources are those resources which can be replenished by nature but these resources can be
replenished if of the resources is less than the rate of .
a. consumption, regeneration
b. usage, replenishment
d. none of the above.
Ans (a) any of above
19. Per capita income of is higher where as human development index of is better.
a. Maharashtra, Kerala
b. Kerala, Maharashtra
20. While making comparative study of development amongst Indian states following criterion is
used:
b. Literacy rate, per capita income and net attendance ratio.
c. Literacy rate, Net attendance ratio and infant mortality rate
d. per capita income, literacy rate , net attendance ratio and infant mortality rate.
Ans (d) per capita income, literacy rate , net attendance ratio and infant mortality rate.
ASSERTION AND REASONING
In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R).Read the
statements and choose the correct option:
1. Assertion (A): Kerala has low infant mortality rate.
Reason (R): It has adequate provisions of basic health and educational facilities.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true and R is the not correct explanation of A.
c) A is correct but R is wrong.
d) A is wrong but R is correct.
Ans (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
1. Assertion(A): High national income leads to better human Development Index
Reason(R): Good health and education facilities depends on amount of money spent by govt on
these facilities.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true and R is the not correct explanation of A.
c) A is correct but R is wrong.
d) A is wrong but R is correct.
Ans (d) A is wrong but R is correct.
2. Assertion (A): Money in our pocket cannot buy us all the things we need to live.
Reason (R): Money cannot buy us a pollution free environment, unadulterated medicines and
pollution free environment etc.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true and R is the not correct explanation of A.
c) A is correct but R is wrong.
d) A is wrong but R is correct.
Ans (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
3. Assertion(A): Per capita Income is not a useful criterion and should not be used as measure
of development.
Reason( R) :Kerala with lower per capita income has a better human development ranking
than Haryana.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true and R is the not correct explanation of A.
c) A is correct but R is wrong.
d) A is wrong but R is correct.
Ans (b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
4. Assertion(A): The process of development should not ignore environmental issues.
Reason(R) : Environment- we have not inherited from our forefathers but we have
borrowed it from our children.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true and R is the not correct explanation of A.
c) A is correct but R is wrong.
d) A is wrong but R is correct.
Ans (b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
CASE STUDY QUESTIONS
1. The picture given above explains quality of life not only depends on material things. It also depends
on:
2. The Picture given above explains
a. everyone wants money
c. development goals are conflicting
d. none of the above
Ans (b) different people have different development goals.
3. The picture above explains
a. we cannot take national income as indicator for development.
b. per capita income is better measure for development.
c. average income hide disparities.
d. none of the above
Ans (c) average income hide disparities.
4. The picture above explains overuse of ground water. In India groundwater is being overused in
a. agricultural prosperous regions
c. south India
d. all of the above
Ans (a) agricultural prosperous regions
5. The table above explains
a. lower literacy rates of males and females is in rural areas in Uttar Pradesh
b. lower status of females as compared to males
c. both (a) and (b)
d. none of the above
Ans (c) both (a) and (b)
Chapter: Sectors of Indian Economy
1. Which of the following is included in tertiary sector?
(a) ATM booths
(b) Call centres
(c) Internet café
Answer: (d) All of them
2. The goods that are used as raw material for further production are known by which name:
(a) Final goods
(b) Material goods
(c) Intermediate goods
(d) Consumer goods
Answer: (c) Intermediate goods
3. The sum total of production of goods and services in the three sectors in a given year is called______.
(a) Gross National Income
Answer: (d) Gross Domestic Product
4. The task of collecting data in all the three sectors of the economy is done by which organization:
(a) NSSO
(b) BPO
(c) KPO
(d) UNDP
Answer: (a) NSSO
5. A situation in which more persons are employed in a job than are optimally required is:
(a) Structural unemployment
(b) Disguised unemployment
(c) Cyclical unemployment
(d) Seasonal unemployment
Answer: (b) Disguised unemployment
6. Central government in India made a law, implementing the Right to Work in how many districts of India?
(a) 150 districts
(b) 200 districts
(c) 250 districts
(d) 625 districts
7. Choose the correct meaning of organised sector:
(a) It covers those enterprises where terms of employment are regular.
(b) It is outside the control of government.
(c) Jobs are not regular
(d) It provides less salaries
Answer: (a) It covers those enterprises where terms of employment are regular.
8. Government owns most of the assets and provides all the services:
(a) Private sector
(b) Public Sector
(c) Organised sector
(d) Tertiary sector
Answer: (b) Public sector
Q 9 to Q11 is based on the given table. Study the data and answer the following questions:
9. Which is the most important sector provides most jobs to the people?
(a) Primary sector
(b) Unorganised sector
(c) Organised sector
(d) Public sector
Answer: (b) Unorganised sector
10. What is the number of persons engaged in the unorganized sector?
(a) 28
(b) 76
(c) 242
(d) 370
(a) Private sector
Answer: (c) Tertiary sector
On the basis of the given table answer Q. No from 12 to 14.
12. What percentage change do you observe in the primary sector in the field of employment?
(a) Increase by 11%
(b) Increase by 61%
(c) Decrease by 11%
Answer: (c) Decrease by 11%
13. Mention the percentage share of primary sector in GDP in 1973.
(a) 22%
(b) 23%
(c) 45%
(d) 61%
Answer: (c) 45%
14. Why does primary sector continues to be the largest employer in India?
(a) Secondary and Tertiary sector are not able to generate comparatively enough employment opportunities
despite increase in their production level.
(b) It generates more employment opportunities.
(c) It exploits natural resources and provides raw material to secondary sector.
(d) None of the above
Answer: (a) Secondary and Tertiary sector are not able to generate comparatively enough
employment opportunities despite increase in their production level.
Q. No 15 to 18 are based on reasoning and assertion. Choose the correct option given below.
15. Assertion (A): The development of agriculture and industry leads to the development of tertiary sector.
Reason (R): As the agriculture and industrial sectors develop, the demand for storage, transport, banking,
insurance, etc, increases.
(a) Both A & R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A & R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) Both A & R are false.
Answer: (a) Both A & R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
16. Assertion (A): In India over the forty years between 1973-74 and 2013-14, while the production of all
the three sectors has increased but it has increased most in the tertiary sector.
Reason (R): Tertiary sector is the only organized sector in the economy where government spends a lot of
money to create jobs.
(a) Both A & R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A & R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) Both A & R are false.
Answer: (c) A is true but R is false.
17. Assertion (A): Mohan is a shopkeeper who pays his taxes on time. He has employed two workers Raghu
and Rakesh in his shop. He pays them well but none of the workers get paid leaves in a year.
Reason (R): Rakesh and Raghu are employed in an unorganized sector.
(a) Both A & R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A & R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) Both A & R are false.
Answer: (a) Both A & R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
18. Assertion (A): There are several goods and services that society needs however private sector doesn‘t
produce all of them.
Reason (R): Private sector is profit driven.
(a)