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Sample Paper Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam 2014
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1. The distance(S)-time(t) graph of an object of mass2 kg moving along a straight line is as shown below.The net work done on the object in the first fourseconds is
8 m
4 s
S
t
(1) 16 J (2) Zero
(3) 32 J (4) 8 J
2. A man crosses a 90 m long straight track with auniform acceleration in 6 s. If his initial velocity is3 m/s, then he leaves the track with velocity
(1) 30 m/s (2) 27 m/s
(3) 18 m/s (4) 9 m/s
3. Which of the following is not a unit of power?
(1) VA (2) Js–1
(3) kW (4) Wh
4. A passenger, sitting inside a train, is facing in thedirection of motion of the train. He tosses a coin thatfalls ahead of him. It means that the train is
(1) In uniform motion (2) Slowing down
(3) Speeding up (4) Taking a turn
Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam-2014
Time : 2 Hours MM : 360SECTION-A : SCIENCE
5. If the current flowing through the electric circuit shownbelow is 1.6 A, then the reading of the voltmeter is
V2
9.6 V
(1) 3.2 V (2) 4.8 V
(3) 8 V (4) 6.4 V
6. If a light ray passes through a rectangular glass slabas shown below, then
75°
i
60°
(1)sin75sin
3i
(2) sin 3 (sin75 )i
(3)sin30sin
3i
(4) sin 3 sin30i
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Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam 2014 Sample Paper
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7. In the circuit shown below, if the battery does
3240 J of work in 5 s, then the value of resistance R is
6
R
36 V
(1) 4 (2) 10 (3) 3 (4) 2
8. Locate the position of image formed by a concave
mirror for an object placed between its principal
focus and centre of curvature.
(1) At centre of curvature
(2) Between infinity and centre of curvature
(3) Between pole and focus
(4) Behind the mirror
9. Velocity(v)-time(t) graph of an object undergoing
uniform motion is
(1)
v
t
(2)
v
t
(3)
v
t
(4)
v
t
10. In the given figure, value of I2
will be
I2
42
4
8V
I
(1) 1 A (2) 3 A
(3) 4 A (4) 2 A
11. Which of the following reactions involves both
neutralisation and precipitation?
(1) Ca(OH)2
+ CO2
CaCO3
+ H2
O
(2) NaOH + HCl NaCl + H2
O
(3) BaCl2
+ Na2
SO4
BaSO4
+ 2NaCl
(4) Pb(NO3
)2
+ 2KI PbI2
+ 2KNO3
12. Baking powder is
(1) A compound of sodium hydrogencarbonate and
lime
(2) A mixture of baking soda and quick lime
(3) A compound of baking soda and mild edible acid
(4) A mixture of sodium bicarbonate and mild edible
acid
13. Which of the following substances cannot be used
to neutralise an acid extract?
(1) Suspension of milk of magnesia
(2) Baking powder solution
(3) Dock leaf extract
(4) Nettle leaf extract
14. Average atomic mass of chlorine is 35.5. It occurs
in atmosphere in two isotopic forms 17
Cl35 and
17
Cl37. The percentage abundances of these
isotopes are respectively
(1) 80% and 20% (2) 75% and 25%
(3) 70% and 30% (4) 60% and 40%
15. An element ‘E’ contains 19 protons and 20 neutrons.
The ion formed by E, during the formation a stable
compound, is
(1) E2+ (2) E+
(3) E– (4) E2–
16. A mixture contains 0.2 g of oxygen gas and 0.4 g of
carbon dioxide gas. The ratio of oxygen atoms present
in oxygen gas to that in carbon dioxide gas is
(1) 3 : 16 (2) 11 : 8
(3) 3 : 4 (4) 11 : 16
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Sample Paper Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam 2014
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17. The total number of oxygen atoms present in one
molecule of sodium sulphate is
(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 4.81 1022
(4) 1.20 1022
18. On heating the crystals of ferrous sulphate strongly
two gases X and Y are evolved. The nature of X and
Y is
(1) Acidic (2) Basic
(3) Neutral (4) Amphoteric
19. Read the following statements carefully :
Statement-1: The main component of bio-gas has
six single bonds in its one molecule.
Statement-2: Boiling point of propane is higher than
that of ethane.
Now, mark the correct option.
(1) Both the statements are correct
(2) Both the statements are incorrect
(3) Only statement-1 is correct
(4) Only statement-2 is correct
20. Match the following :
Functional Group Formula
i. Alcohol (a) C = OHO
ii Aldehyde (b) C = O
iii. Ketone (c) C = OH
iv. Carboxylic acid (d) –OH
(1) i-(b), ii-(a), iii-(c), iv-(d)
(2) i-(c), ii-(a), iii-(b), iv-(d)
(3) i-(d), ii-(b), iii-(c), iv-(a)
(4) i-(d), ii-(c), iii-(b), iv-(a)
21.2
A B6 12 6 in presence of O
(3-carbon compound)
C H O Pyruvate
6CO2
+ 6H2
O + 36 or 38 ATP.
The reaction A and B occur in
(1) A - Cytoplasm and B - Chloroplast
(2) A - Cytoplasm and B - Mitochondria
(3) A - Mitochondria and B - Chloroplast
(4) A - Ribosome and B - Cytoplasm
22. Select the incorrect statement.
(1) Urine is produced in kidneys
(2) Nephron is the basic filtration unit of kidneys
(3) Kidneys are located in the pelvic region
(4) Urinary bladder is under the nervous control
23. The part of the brain which maintains balance of the
body is
(1) Cerebrum
(2) Cerebellum
(3) Medulla
(4) Pons
24. Bile juice responsible for emulsification of fats is
stored in
(1) Gall bladder
(2) Small intestine
(3) Liver
(4) Stomach
25. Radhika removed her hand abruptly after touching a
hot object. The message to remove her hand was
given by the
(1) Vertebral column
(2) Spinal cord
(3) Brain
(4) Cranium
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Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam 2014 Sample Paper
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26. A pigment essential for photosynthesis is present in
the
(1) Vacuole
(2) Leucoplast
(3) Mitochondria
(4) Chloroplast
27. In humans, growth hormone is secreted by
(1) Pituitary gland
(2) Adrenal gland
(3) Thyroid gland
(4) Pancreas
28. In an experiment related to photosynthesis a student
added iodine to the leaf in order to test the presence of
(1) Sucrose
(2) Glucose
(3) Starch
(4) Fructose
29. In the given diagram, which of the following parts
labelled as A, B, C and D is responsible for carrying
messages towards the cell body?
A
B C
D
(1) A (2) B
(3) C (4) D
30. Statement 1 : Carbon dioxide in humans is
transported in dissolved form.
Statement 2 : In humans, haemoglobin is present
in blood plasma.
(1) Both the statements are true
(2) Both the statements are false
(3) Statement 1 is true and statement 2 is false
(4) Statement 1 is false and statement 2 is true
SECTION-B : MATHEMATICS
31. If x – 2 is a factor of the polynomial 2x3 – 2x + k,
then the value of k is
(1) 12 (2) 2
(3) –12 (4) 8
32. The expression (2x + 3y)3 – 18xy(2x + 3y) is equal to
(1) 2x + 3y (2) 4x2 + 9y2
(3) 8x3 + 27y3 (4) 0
33. If , and are the zeroes of the polynomial
2x3 + 3x2 – 4x + 2, then the value of 2 + 2+ 2 is
(1)3
2(2) 4
(3) 2 (4) 1
34. In the given figure, if ABC PQR , then the
measure of ATP is
A P
T
B Q C R
130° 140°
(1) 50°
(2) 40°
(3) 90°
(4) 145°
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Sample Paper Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam 2014
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35. In the given figure, O is the centre of the circle. If
AP = a units, then the length of PB is
A
P
BO
45°
(1)2
a
units (2)4
a
units
(3)2
3
a
units (4) a units
36. If 3x + 3x – 1 = 36, then the value of x is
(1) 3 (2) 2
(3) 1 (4) 4
37. If 1
p qp q
, where p and q are positive
rational numbers, then 2q p−
is
(1) Equal to 1 (2) Not real
(3) Equal to –1 (4) Equal to 0
38. The dimensions of the base of a cuboid are
40 cm × 20 cm. If its volume is 4,000 cm3, then its
height is
(1) 8 cm (2) 7 cm
(3) 5 cm (4) 6 cm
39. ABC is an equilateral triangle. If P and Q are the
midpoints of AB and AC respectively and
PQ = 3 cm, then the value of PA + AQ is
(1) 3 cm (2) 6 cm
(3) 9 cm (4) 12 cm
40. Which of the following equations has two distinct
real roots?
(1) x2 + 5x + 7 = 0 (2) 3x2 – 2x + 4 = 0
(3) 2x2 + 6x – 5 = 0 (4) x2 + 4x + 5 = 0
41. In the given figure, O is the centre of the circle.
AOC + 2ABC is
O
A
B
C
(1) 360° (2) 180°
(3) 90° (4) 270°
42. The value of k for which the quadratic equation
kx2 + 6x + 1 = 0 has equal roots is
(1) 6 (2) 8
(3) 9 (4) 4
43. If f(x) = a0
+ a1
x + a2
x2 + a3
x3 + ... + a10
x10, where
a0
, a1
, .... a10
are constants, then the sum of
coefficients of terms having even powers of x can be
expressed as
(1)(2) ( 2)
2
f f (2)
(2) ( 2)
2
f f
(3)(1) ( 1)
2
f f (4)
(1) ( 1)
2
f f
44. A train takes 2 hours less for a journey of 600 km,
if its speed is increased by 10 km/hr from its
original speed. The original speed of the train is
(1) 65 km/hr (2) 60 km/hr
(3) 55 km/hr (4) 50 km/hr
45. A rectangular piece of paper of dimensions
88 cm × 28 cm is folded without overlapping to
make a cylinder of height 28 cm. The volume of the
cylinder is
(1) 1456 cm3 (2) 4277 cm3
(3) 1746 cm3 (4) 5488 cm3
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46. If (7 4 3) (7 4 3) 14x x , where x < 0, then
5
5
1x
x
is equal to
(1)1
2 (2) –2
(3)1
2(4) 2
47. If an angle of a parallelogram is three-seventh of its
adjacent angle, then the measures of angles of the
parallelogram are
(1) 126°, 54°, 126°, 54°
(2) 48°, 132°, 48°, 132°
(3) 62°, 118°, 62°, 118°
(4) 58°, 122°, 58°, 122°
48. If 452
0. 56990
P , where P is any integer between
0 and 9, then the value of PP is
(1) 16 (2) 64
(3) 27 (4) 256
49. Two cubes of edge 4 cm each are joined end to
end. The surface area of the resulting figure is
(1) 160 cm2 (2) 96 cm2
(3) 140 cm2 (4) 192 cm2
50. In ABC, I is the incentre. If BIC : CIA : AIB
= 5 : 6 : 7, then the value of A : B : C is
(1) 3 : 1 : 5 (2) 1 : 3 : 5
(3) 5 : 3 : 1 (4) 1 : 5 : 3
51. If 7x + 5y = 12 = 5x + 7y, then x2y + xy2 is equal to
(1) 12 (2) 24
(3) 2 (4) 0
52. If PQRS is a quadrilateral and PR is one of its
diagonals, then which of the following is always true?
(1) PQ + QR + RS + SP > 3PR
(2) PQ + QR + RS + SP < 2PR
(3) PQ + QR + RS + SP > 2PR
(4) PQ + QR + RS + SP = 2PR
53. The number of solutions of the equation 2x + 3y = 5
is
(1) One (2) Two
(3) Zero (4) Infinitely many
54. If the base and height of a triangle are increased by
1 unit each, then the area of the triangle is increased
by 9 sq. units. Also, if base of the triangle is
reduced by 2 units and the height remains the
same, then the area of the triangle is reduced by 12
sq. units. The base of the triangle is of length
(1) 5 units (2) 6 units
(3) 12 units (4) 8 units
55. A field is 1700 cm long and 11 m broad. A
rectangular pit of dimensions 6 m × 3.5 m × 1 m is
dug anywhere in this field and dug out soil is spread
evenly over the remaining part of the field. The
approximate rise in the level of the rest of the field
is
(1) 11.23 cm (2) 12.65 cm
(3) 9.57 cm (4) 10.1 cm
56. The non-negative real root of the quadratic equation
2x2 – x – 21 = 0 is
(1)3
2(2)
7
2
(3)5
2(4) 3
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Sample Paper Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam 2014
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57. In the given figure, OBC is equilateral. If AB is the
longest chord of the circle and D is the mid-point of
AC, then the ratio of side OA to AD is
O
A
D
C
B
(1) 1 : 3 (2) 2 : 3
(3) 3 : 3 (4) 4 : 3
58. If P is any point inside a ABC and s is the semi-
perimeter of ABC, then which of the following is
always true?
(1) PA + PB + PC < s (2) PA + PB + PC > 2s
(3) PA + PB + PC < 2s (4) PA + PB + PC > s
59. In the given figure, the value of p is
A
B
CD
135°
76° 65°
2 +
60°
p
(1) 14° (2) 12°
(3) 16° (4) 18°
60. The figure formed by joining the mid-points of sides
of a rhombus, taken in order, must be a
(1) Rectangle (2) Kite
(3) Rhombus (4) Square
SECTION-C : MENTAL ABILITY
Directions for Q.61 & Q.62 : If '24 – 4' means 6,
'18 ÷ 2' means 20, '16 × 12' means 4, '2 + 4' means 8,
then find the solution of the following questions.
61. 9 18 – 2 × 4 + 3
(1) 6 (2) 5
(3) 7 (4) 13
62. 2000 – 200 20 × 2 + 15
(1) 203 (2) 78
(3) 1 (4) 0
63. What are the maximum number of ways or paths in
which you can go from place 'A' to place 'B', provided
you can cross any junction only once in each
journey? [C, D, E, F, G, H are junction points]
Place
A
Place B
ED
C
HG
F
(1) Four (2) Eight
(3) Twelve (4) Six
64. If 'R' weighs half as much as 'S', 'S' weighs one
fourth of 'J' and 'R' weighs thrice as much as 'M', then
which of the following weighs the least?
(1) M (2) R
(3) S (4) J
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Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam 2014 Sample Paper
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Directions for Q.65 & Q.66 : The first and second pair
of figures bear a certain relationship among them. Find
the missing one.
65.?
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
66.?
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Directions for Q.67 & Q.68 : In each of the following
questions, choose the figure which will represent the best
relationship among the three classes.
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
67. School, Classroom, Blackboard
68. Tea, Coffee, Beverages
69. Complete the figure pattern given below.
?
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Directions for Q.70 & Q.71 : At first, I interchanged the
1st and 7th letter in the word "NONSENSIBILITY" from the
beginning and then removed 2nd, 4th and the last letter to
form a new word, which might not be meaningful.
70. Find the seventh letter from the last in the new word.
(1) N (2) E
(3) I (4) S
71. Which letter is fourth to the right of tenth letter from
the right end in the new word?
(1) E (2) N
(3) B (4) I
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Sample Paper Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam 2014
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72. Out of all the given numbers as shown below choose
the odd one out.
576
1
64
441
16
100
169144
36200
81
25
(1) 441 (2) 25
(3) 200 (4) 576
73. In this question, select an option figure that can be
formed by involving all the figures (with any
orientation) given in the box marked (A).
(A)
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
74. 3 : 4 : : 24 : 32 : : 10 : ?
(1) 14.5 (2) 12.5
(3)1
133
(4)2
133
75. Choose the correct alternative which is different from
the others.
(1) Sofa (2) Table
(3) Furniture (4) Chair
76. Pointing to a girl in the photograph, Deepinder said,
“Her mother's brother is the only son of my mother's
father, who has only two children”. The girl's mother
is Deepinder's
(1) Mother (2) Sister
(3) Aunt (4) Grandmother
77. Which of the following alternatives will come next in
the series?
ZQA, XMC, VIE, TEG, ?
(1) RAI (2) SAG
(3) RAG (4) RAJ
78. Choose the correct alternative that completes the
given pattern.
?
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
79. A shopkeeper uses a code OLISPAH = ` 28/-,
where O = ` 1/-, L = ` 2/-, I = ` 3/- and so on.
Bearing this code scheme in mind, what price does
the code SOAP denote?
(1) ` 120 (2) ` 18
(3) ` 16 (4) ` 61
80. How many triangles are there in the following figure?
(1) 12
(2) 11
(3) 10
(4) 9
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Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam 2014 Sample Paper
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Directions for Q.81 to Q.83 : Study the information given
below carefully and answer the questions that follow:
P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W and X are nine houses. R is
2 km east of Q. P is 1 km north of Q and W is 2 km south
of P. V is 1 km west of W while S is 3 km east of V and U is
2 km north of V. X is situated just in middle of Q and R
while T is just in middle of W and S.
81. Distance between T and V is
(1) 1 km (2) 1.5 km
(3) 2 km (4) 5 km
82. Distance between T and X is
(1) 1 km (2) 2 km
(3) 3 km (4) 4 km
83. Distance between P and U is
(1) 1 km (2) 1.41 km
(3) 2 km (4) 3 km
84. Find the missing number in the given matrix :
6 2 3
5945
110 10 ?
(1) 16 (2) 11
(3) 21 (4) 19
Directions for Q.No. 85 to 88 : Marks obtained by seven
students in respective subjects are given below:
Student Subjects
Maths Science SST English Hindi
Ramesh 68 100 88 100 60
Suresh 75 92 35 120 60
Monica 92 78 56 82 52
Adarsh 120 82 42 130 72
Tara 90 78 90 80 50
Amrit 100 72 85 100 75
Shikha 135 90 90 120 50
Maximum marks that can be obtained in 'Maths' and
'English' are 150. Maximum marks in subjects- Science,
SST and Hindi are 120, 100 and 80 respectively.
85. In how many subjects did Monica obtain 60% or
above marks?
(1) One (2) Two
(3) Three (4) Four
86. What is the percentage of marks obtained by Tara
overall?
(1) 66.8 (2) 72
(3) 64.6 (4) 70
87. How many students obtained more than 60% marks
both in Maths as well as Science?
(1) Two (2) Three
(3) One (4) Four
88. What was the aggregate of marks obtained by
Shikha in all the subjects?
(1) 470 (2) 558
(3) 485 (4) None of these
89. Find the odd one out from the given alternatives.
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
90. Lion : Pride :: Ship : ?
(1) Dock (2) Troop
(3) Fleet (4) School
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