Anatomy 2

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1 Regarding skeletal system function, A) bone often serves as a model for cartilage growth. B) tendons connect bone to bone. C) blood cells are produced in the marrow of many bones. D) cartilage serves as an important mineral storage area. E) all of these 2 Which of these connective tissue types has proteoglycans in its matrix? A) bone B) cartilage C) ligaments D) tendons E) both c and d 3 Cells that produce new cartilage matrix are called A) chondroblasts. B) chondrocytes. C) chondroclasts. D) osteoblasts. E) fibroblasts. 2 5 3 5

Transcript of Anatomy 2

Page 1: Anatomy 2

1Regarding skeletal system function,

A)bone often serves as a model for cartilage growth.

B)tendons connect bone to bone.

C)blood cells are produced in the marrow of many bones.

D)cartilage serves as an important mineral storage area.

E)all of these

2Which of these connective tissue types has proteoglycans in its matrix?

A)bone

B)cartilage

C)ligaments

D)tendons

E)both c and d

3Cells that produce new cartilage matrix are called

A)chondroblasts.

B)chondrocytes.

C)chondroclasts.

D)osteoblasts.

E)fibroblasts.

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4The perichondrium

A)surrounds each lacuna in the matrix.

B)contains mainly loose connective tissue.

C)contains blood vessels and nerves.

D)is important for the storage of fat.

E)covers the surface of articular cartilage.

5Cartilage

A)often occurs in thin plates or sheets.

B)receives nutrients and oxygen by diffusion.

C)is easily replaced if damaged.

D)has a good blood supply.

E)A and B

6Which of these correctly describes appositional growth of cartilage?

A)Chondrocytes in the center of the cartilage lay down new matrix.

B)Fibroblasts produce new chondroblasts.

C)Chondroblasts in the perichondrium lay down new matrix.

D)New osteons are formed from osteoblasts.

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E)Canaliculi connect between chondrocytes to allow transport of nutrients.

7Which of these bone types is NOT matched with the correct example?

A)long bone-humerus

B)short bone-clavicle

C)flat bone-scapula

D)irregular bone-vertebrae

8In a long bone, the epiphyseal plate is

A)located in the center of the diaphysis.

B)the outer membrane layer on the diaphysis.

C)the location where growth occurs.

D)produced when the epiphyseal line changes to bone.

E)the location for fat storage.

9The ends of long bones are called

A)diaphyses.

B)epiphyses.

C)lamellae.

D)trabeculae.

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10The surface of the medullary cavity of long bones is lined with a connective tissue membrane called

A)periosteum.

B)epiphyseal plates.

C)endosteum.

D)perichondrium.

E)lamellae.

11Which portion of a long bone stores yellow marrow in adults?

A)the epiphysis

B)the medullary cavity

C)periosteum

D)compact bone

E)the epiphyseal plate

12Which of these locations does NOT contain red marrow in an adult?

A)ribs

B)skull

C)proximal femur

D)sternum

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E)vertebrae

13The outer layer of bone, composed of dense, irregular, collagenous connective tissue that contains blood vessels and nerves is called

A)endosteum.

B)concentric lamellae.

C)periosteum.

D)the epiphyseal plate.

E)the diaphysis.

14Which of these statements is NOT true regarding bone?

A)Osteoblasts produce bone matrix.

B)Osteocytes are osteoblasts that have become surrounded by matrix.

C)Osteoclasts break down bone.

D)Osteocytes are connected to each other by Volkmann's canals.

E)Osteocytes are found in lacunae.

15Bundles of collagen fibers that penetrate the periosteum into the outer part of the bone are called

A)endosteums.

B)diaphyses.

C)epiphyses.

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D)perforating fibers.

E)trabeculae.

16Which of these substances is present in the largest quantity in bone?

A)collagen

B)hydroxyapatite

C)proteoglycan aggregates

D)lacunae cartilage

17Hydrogen ions are pumped across the ruffled border, producing an acid environment. This describes the activity of

A)osteoblasts.

B)osteocytes.

C)osteoclasts.

18__________ are stem cells that have the ability to become osteoblasts or chondroblasts.

A)Osteocytes

B)Osteoclasts

C)Osteoprogenitor cells

D)Osteons

E)Chondrocytes

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19Given these cells: 1. osteoblasts 2. osteocytes 3. osteoprogenitor cells Which of these sequences represents the order in which they are produced?

A)1,2,3

B)1,3,2

C)2,1,3

D)2,3,1

E)3,1,2

20Fetal bone tissue that has collagen fibers randomly oriented in many directions is

A)lamellar bone.

B)long bone.

C)short bone.

D)woven bone.

21Which of these structures is found in compact bone, but not in cancellous bone?

A)osteoclasts

B)canaliculi

C)lamellae

D)central (haversian) canals

E)osteocytes

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22Cancellous bone

A)has no osteocytes.

B)is located in the diaphyses of long bones.

C)is composed of delicate interconnecting rods or plates called trabeculae.

D)does not contain marrow.

E)forms the outer surface of most bones other than long bones.

23Which of these structures is found within an osteon?

A)concentric lamella

B)interstitial lamella

C)circumferential lamella

D)periosteum

E)all of these

24Given these passageways:

1. canaliculi2. central (haversian) canal3. blood vessels in periosteum4. perforating (Volkmann's) canal

Which of these represents the correct order as nutrients pass from outside the bone to the osteocytes?

A)1,2,3,4

2,4,1,3

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B)

C)3,4,2,1

D)3,1,4,2

E)4,3,2,1

25Which of these bones is produced at least partly by intramembranous ossification?

A)clavicle

B)frontal

C)mandible

D)parietal

E)all of these

26Intramembranous ossification is usually complete by __________ years of age, whereas endochondral ossification is usually complete by __________ years of age.

A)2, 25

B)5, 10

C)10,2

D)10, 25

E)25, 5

27Membrane-covered spaces between developing skull bones are called

centers of ossification.

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A)

B)central canals.

C)fontanels.

D)perforating canals.

E)endochondral openings.

28Endochondral ossification

A)occurs primarily in the bones of the skull.

B)involves calcification of the cartilage matrix.

C)produces bone in connective tissue membranes.

D)occurs when chondrocytes replace osteoblasts in the matrix.

29Secondary ossification centers

A)are located in the diaphysis of the bone.

B)are located in the epiphysis of the bone.

C)are located in the fontanels.

D)appear during early fetal development.

E)are locations for intramembranous ossification.

30In endochondral ossification, the perichondrium that surrounded the hyaline cartilage becomes

circumferential lamellae.

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A)

B)osteons.

C)lacunae.

D)perforating canals.

E)periosteum.

31Given these zones within the epiphyseal plate:1. zone of calcification2. zone of hypertrophy3. zone of proliferation4. zone of resting cartilageArrange them in the correct order, from the epiphysis to the diaphysis.

A)1,2,3,4

B)1,3,4,2

C)2,4,1,3

D)3,2,1,4

E)4,3,2,1

32Growth in the length of a long bone stops when

A)the articular cartilage becomes completely ossified.

B)the epiphyseal plate becomes completely ossified.

C)appositional growth at the periosteum stops.

D)intramembranous ossification is complete.

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33Which type of bone growth is responsible for an increase in the diameter of bones?

A)appositional growth

B)interstitial growth

C)endochondral growth

D)trabecular growth

E)intramembranous growth

34Which of these statements concerning bone growth are correct?

A)

Increased amounts of testosterone and estrogen cause a rapid increase in bone growth.

B)Testosterone and estrogen prevent ossification of the epiphyseal plate.

C)Too little growth hormone can cause a condition called acromegaly.

D)Too much growth hormone can cause dwarfism.

E)Achondroplastic dwarfism is caused by too much thyroid hormone.

35Osteomalacia can occur as a result of a

A)vitamin C deficiency.

B)vitamin D deficiency.

C)lack of thyroid hormone.

D)lack of growth hormone.

E)lack of sex hormones.

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36A deficiency of vitamin C in the diet can result in

A)decreased collagen synthesis.

B)scurvy.

C)poor wound healing.

D)growth retardation in children.

E)all of these

37Arrange the following events in the correct order of occurrence after a bone is broken.

1. osteoblasts produce ossification2. hematoma formation3. internal fibrocartilage callus and external bone-cartilage callus formation4. woven bone is remodeled to form compact bone

A)1,2,3,4

B)2,3,4,1

C)2,3,1,4

D)2,4,1,3

E)2,4,3,1

38PTH is secreted from the __________ , whereas calcitonin is secreted from the __________ .

A)thyroid gland, pancreas

B)thyroid gland, parathyroid gland

pancreas, pituitary

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C)

D)parathyroid gland, thyroid gland

E)adrenal gland, thyroid gland

39Parathyroid hormone causes

A)increased chondroblast activity.

B)increased bone breakdown.

C)decreased blood calcium levels.

D)increased calcium lost in the urine.

E)all of these

40Which of these disorders is caused by a bacterium?

A)acromegaly

B)osteogenesis imperfecta

C)osteomalacia

D)osteomyelitis

E)osteoporosis

1Which of these bones is part of the axial skeleton?

A)rib

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B)clavicle

C)scapula

D)coxa

E)femur

2A small, flattened articular surface is a

A)condyle.

B)crest.

C)facet.

D)ramus.

E)tubercle.

3The general term for a depression in a bone is

A)foramen.

B)canal or meatus.

C)fossa.

D)sinus.

E)fissure.

4The suture that separates the parietal bones from the occipital bone is the

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A)coronal suture.

B)lambdoid suture.

C)sagittal suture.

D)squamous suture.

5What small ridges extend laterally from the external occipital protuberance and serve as points of attachment for several neck muscles?

A)temporal lines

B)linea aspera

C)nuchal lines

D)mastoid processes

E)styloid processes

6The largest foramen in the skull is the

A)foramen magnum.

B)optic foramen.

C)nasolacrimal canal.

D)foramen ovale.

E)foramen rotundum.

7The mastoid process and mastoid air cells are part of the

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A)frontal bone.

B)occipital bone.

C)parietal bone.

D)sphenoid bone.

E)temporal bone.

8Which of these bones does NOT articulate with the sphenoid bone?

A)ethmoid bone

B)frontal bone

C)parietal bone

D)occipital bone

E)nasal bone

9Which part of the mandible articulates with the mandibular fossa of the temporal bone?

A)condylar process

B)coronoid process

C)angle

D)body

E)alveolar process

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10The zygomatic arch consists of processes from the

A)maxilla and mandible.

B)parietal and temporal bones.

C)temporal and zygomatic bones.

D)parietal and occipital bones.

E)zygomatic and frontal bones.

11Which of these bones does NOT form part of the orbit?

A)frontal

B)ethmoid

C)maxilla

D)sphenoid

E)temporal

12Three bony shelves that project inferiorly in the nasal cavity are called

A)nasal conchae.

B)the nasal bone.

C)paranasal sinuses.

D)the greater wing.

E)the crista galli.

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13The olfactory foramina are found in the

A)cribriform plate.

B)nasal septum.

C)hard palate.

D)sphenoid bone.

E)lacrimal bone.

14During life, the pituitary gland is located in the

A)cribriform plate.

B)foramen magnum.

C)carotid canal.

D)jugular foramen.

E)sella turcica.

15Sound waves enroute to the eardrum travel through the

A)carotid canal.

B)external auditory meatus.

C)internal auditory meatus.

D)jugular foramen.

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E)olfactory foramina.

16Which of these bones is NOT a part of the cranial vault?

A)frontal

B)occipital

C)parietal

D)temporal

E)zygomatic

17Which of these bones does NOT articulate with any other bone?

A)hyoid

B)maxilla

C)mandible

D)vertebra

E)inferior nasal concha

18Which vertebrae have long, thin spinous processes and possess articular facets on their lateral surfaces to articulate with ribs?

A)cervical

B)sacral

C)lumbar

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D)thoracic

E)coccyx

19Which of these statements concerning vertebral column curvatures is correct?

A)The cervical curve of the vertebral column is concave anteriorly.

B)The lumbar curve develops after birth.

C)The thoracic curve is a secondary curve.

D)The sacral region is concave anteriorly, whereas the coccygeal region is convex anteriorly.

E)all of these are correct

20Pregnancy is most likely to contribute to which of these conditions?

A)kyphosis

B)lordosis

C)scoliosis

21The openings between vertebrae through which spinal nerves exit from the spinal cord are

A)transverse foramina.

B)intervertebral foramina.

C)vertebral foramina.

D)spinal foramina.

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E)vertebral arches.

22The vertebral arch

A)consists of two laminae and two pedicles.

B)is anterior to the body of the vertebra.

C)is the passageway for the vertebral arteries.

D)is present only in the cervical vertebrae.

E)all of these

23The internal gelatinous portion of the intervertebral disk is called the

A)annulus fibrosus.

B)inferior articular process.

C)lamina.

D)nucleus pulposus.

E)pedicle.

24The region of the vertebral column that is most susceptible to herniated disks is the

A)cervical region.

B)coccygeal region.

C)lumbar region.

sacral region.

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D)

E)thoracic region.

25Normally, there are seven

A)cervical vertebrae.

B)vertebrae fused to form the coccyx.

C)lumbar vertebrae.

D)vertebrae fused to form the sacrum.

E)thoracic vertebrae.

26On the sacrum, the landmark that separates the abdominal cavity from the pelvic cavity is the

A)alae.

B)median sacral crest.

C)sacral hiatus.

D)sacral foramina.

E)sacral promontory.

27Of the 12 pairs of ribs, ____________ pair(s) is/are vertebrochondral.

A)7

B)5

3

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C)

D)2

E)1

28The articular facet for the transverse process of a vertebra is found on the __________ of a rib.

A)angle

B)body

C)head

D)neck

E)tubercle

29The part of the scapula that articulates with the humerus is the

A)acromion process.

B)glenoid fossa.

C)infraspinous fossa.

D)subscapular fossa.

E)supraspinous fossa.

30The clavicle articulates with what two bones?

A)scapula and vertebra

humerus and sternum

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B)

C)humerus and vertebra

D)scapula and sternum

E)vertebra and sternum

31Greater and lesser tubercles are found on the __________ , whereas the greater and lesser trochanters are found on the ___________ .

A)humerus, radius

B)radius, ulna

C)tibia, humerus

D)humerus, femur

E)femur, tibia

32The head of the radius is __________ ; the head of the ulna is __________ .

A)distal, distal

B)distal, proximal

C)proximal, distal

D)proximal, proximal

33The wrist consists of eight __________ bones, whereas the ankle consists of seven __________ bones.

A)tarsal, carpal

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B)carpal, tarsal

C)metacarpal, metatarsal

D)metatarsal, metacarpal

E)metacarpal, phalanges

34Two bones that have prominent epicondyles are the

A)radius and ulna.

B)tibia and fibula.

C)femur and humerus.

D)femur and scapula.

E)tibia and radius.

35The radial notch is found on the

A)carpals.

B)humerus.

C)metacarpals

D)radius.

E)ulna.

36The depression on the coxa where the head of the femur articulates is the

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A)acetabulum.

B)auricular surface.

C)iliac fossa.

D)ischial tuberosity.

E)obturator foramen.

37The bumps that a person sits on are their

A)acetabulums.

B)auricular surfaces.

C)iliac crests.

D)ischial tuberosities.

E)pubic symphyses.

38The medial and lateral condyles of the femur articulate with the __________ of the tibia.

A)trochlea and capitulum

B)medial and lateral condyles

C)medial and lateral epicondyles

D)trochlear notch and head

E)medial and lateral malleolus

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39This structure on the fibula forms part of what we commonly call our "ankle bone."

A)head

B)lateral malleolus

C)medial malleolus

D)lateral condyle

E)lateral epicondyle

40The ball of the foot is the junction between the

A)carpals and metacarpals.

B)metacarpals and phalanges.

C)tarsals and metatarsals.

D)metatarsals and phalanges.

E)tibia and tarsals.

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