American Government Final Exam

Challenge Examination

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GED 132 - United States Government

Multiple Choice Questions (Enter your answers on the enclosed answer sheet)

1) Opponents of ratification of the Constitution and of a strong central government were called

a. Antifederalists. b. Federalists. c. Confederates. d. Compromisers. e. Nationalists.

2) Unalienable rights, as referred to in the Declaration of Independence, include the rights to life, liberty, and property.

a. True b. False

3) The Federalist Papers were written by Madison, Hamilton, and Jefferson.

a. True b. False

4) The word democracy comes from two Greek words: demos (the people) and kratos (authority or power).

a. True b. False

5) Which of the below characteristics are features of a constitutional democracy?

a. Protecting the opinions of others b. Attention to protecting rights of individuals c. Government by an elite group of citizens d. All of the above e. A and B only

6) In Cuba there is an emphasis on governmental authority (including control of the economy) over the rights of individuals. This is an example of

a. popular consent. b. statism. c. fascism. d. corporatism. e. equality.


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7) The first form of government that was planned for the newly independent United States was a

a. monarchy. b. federal system. c. unitary system. d. confederation system. e. libertarian system.

8) The ________ opposed the ratification of the Constitution.

a. Federalists b. Republicans c. Whigs d. Antifederalists e. Democrats

9) All of the following can be considered components of the political process that are necessary to make democratic values a reality EXCEPT: a. majority rule b. the right to assemble and protest c. a rigid class structure d. freedom of expression e. free and fair elections

10) The Antifederalists opposed ratification of the proposed Constitution because

a. they opposed direct election of members of the House of Representatives. b. they were concerned that it did not do enough to ensure rotation of elected officials. c. they believed that state governments should be abolished. d. they felt the national government was not given enough power. e. it included a bill of rights.

11) Which of the following is an explanation of natural law?

a. Law that is proposed by the executive b. Law that defines right from wrong c. Law that is found only in constitutions d. Law that is enacted by a legislature e. Law that is overturned by the judiciary


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12) Who argued that “If men were angels, no government would be necessary”?

a. William Paterson b. Thomas Jefferson c. Abraham Lincoln d. Patrick Henry e. James Madison

13) Which of the following is a way in which the Supreme Court can check other branches?

a. Removing the president from office b. Calling for a special session of Congress c. Refusing to fund programs established by Congress d. Declaring acts of Congress unconstitutional e. Changing the inauguration date of presidents

14) An election in which voters choose party nominees is known as a. the electoral college. b. a direct primary. c. a retention election. d. a recall election. e. a contested election.

15) The first African American to serve on the Supreme Court was

a. Thurgood Marshall. b. Potter Stewart. c. Clarence Thomas. d. John Marshall. e. Barack Obama.

16) Presidential impoundment of funds is given as an example of

a. building the power and influence of the office. b. judicial review. c. political party power. d. congressional consolidation of authority. e. checks and balances.


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17) The only method used thus far to propose amendments to the Constitution is

a. state conventions. b. a two-thirds vote of both houses of Congress. c. introduction by the president. d. state legislatures. e. popular mandate.

18) In addition to each branch of government having some authority over the other branches, each branch of government is also politically independent of the other branches.

a. True b. False

19) A law that defines right from wrong, which is higher than human law is called

a. superior law. b. Constitutional law. c. divine law. d. natural law. e. ordained law.

20) Powers reserved to the states include all of the following EXCEPT the power to

a. conduct elections. b. oversee primary and secondary education. c. create post offices. d. take land for public use. e. charter local governments.

21) An example of this kind of control is the Equal Employment Opportunity Act of 1972, barring job discrimination by state and local governments on the basis of race, color, religion, sex, and national origin. a. Total and partial preemption b. Cross-cutting requirements c. Crossover sanctions d. An unfunded mandate e. Direct orders


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22) These are powers given explicitly to the national government and listed in the Constitution:

a. delegated b. necessary c. implied d. reserved e. none of the above

23) When it comes to federal grants, Democrats have consistently favored a. delegation of spending discretion to the states, more federally supervised spending. b. more strings, less federal supervision, federally supervised spending. c. more detailed, federally supervised spending. d. fewer strings, less federal supervision, delegation of spending discretion to the states. e. None of these.

24) In 1787, federalism was a compromise between centrists, who supported a strong national government, and those who a. favored decentralization. b. favored creating a unitary system. c. preferred a constitutional monarchy. d. wanted the confederation to continue as it was. e. wanted power concentrated in Washington, D.C.

25) “Preemption” refers to the right of a federal law to preclude enforcement of a state law. a. True b. False

26) Today, the national government is not necessarily more favorable to the claims of minorities than state or local governments are.

a. True b. False


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27) Many scholars believe that federalism is ideally suited to meet the needs of societies with specific attributes. Of the national attributes listed below, which are compatible with federalism? a. People who desire unity but not uniformity b. Heterogeneous people spread over a large territory c. People suspicious of concentrated power d. All of the above e. A and C only

28) Which of the following is NOT an express power?

a. Regulate trade and interstate commerce b. Declare war c. Create post offices d. Take land for public use e. Coin money

29) Political scientist Robert A. Dahl described the implications of the high degree of inequality in the distribution of wealth brought about by the new economic order which replaced the previously agrarian society. It was swept onto the U.S. scene by a. liberalism. b. conservatism. c. robber barons. d. capitalism. e. political ideology.

30) More men than women describe themselves as a. moderate. b. conservative. c. liberal. d. unsure of their leanings. e. democrats.

31) Social conservatives believe that the government should a impose social controls upon U.S. citizens. b. continue the constitutional separation of church and state. c. allow any adult to marry as s/he pleases. d. support affirmative action initiatives to redress discrimination. e. allow wide freedom of action by U.S. citizens.


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32) Conservatives have indicated their opposition to civil rights by a. opposing 1960s social legislation. b. failing to acknowledge the extent of racism and sexism in the United States. c. limiting the activity of the courts to enforce laws. d. limiting the activity of the executive branch to enforce regulations. e. All of these.

33) The New Right represents a group with a(n) ________ base.

a. rural b. religious c. economic d. mystical e. liberal

34) This party has been on the ballot in all 50 states in recent presidential elections without gaining more than 1 percent of the vote:

a. Democrats b. Republicans c. Socialists d. Libertarians e. None of the above

35) The idea that the ultimate power resides in the people is called

a. totalitarianism. b. popular sovereignty. c. human rights. d. oligarchy e. democracy.

36) In its current U.S. usage, liberalism refers to a belief in the positive uses of government to bring about justice and equality of opportunity.

a. True b. False

37) Which of these ideologies represent the major schools of political ideology that per- meate American politics?

a. Liberalism b. Conservatism c. Socialism d. All of the above e. A and B only


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38) The highest poverty rates occur within this group:

a. Native Americans, Inuits, and Aleuts b. Hispanic Americans c. Non-Hispanic White Americans d. Asian Americans and Pacific Islanders e. African Americans

39) The largest wave of new immigrants came to the United States in the years between a. 1864 and 1896. b. 1989 and 2004. c. 1900 and 1924. d. 1840 and 1860. e. 1950 and 1984.

40) Today, immigrants represent what percentage of the U.S. population? a. 10% b. 19% c. 14% d. 5% e. 8%

41) Emily’s List provides early campaign funds for a. Republican female pro-choice candidates. b. Republican female candidates. c. Democratic female pro-life candidates. d. Republican female pro-life candidates. e. Democratic female pro-choice candidates

42) The demographic change that has increased the proportion of the population over age 65 is called a. life cycle effects. b. the graying of America. c. the American gray lobby. d. the generational effect. e. the baby boomers.


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43) This is the notion held by nineteenth-century Americans that the United States was destined to rule the continent:

a. manifest destiny b. Pacific destiny c. continental destiny d. all of the above e. none of the above

44) For the first 50 years after gaining the right to vote, American women voted at a lower rate than in other Western democracies. a. True b. False

45) A company with a labor agreement under which union membership cannot be required as a condition of employment is called

a. a 527 group. b. a free rider. c. an independent group. d. an open shop. e. a half rider.

46) Jack Abramoff’s plea bargain required the once-powerful lobbyist to a. write a statement for the press regarding his crimes. b. provide evidence about members of Congress. c. apologize to the citizens of the United States for rigging elections. d. All of these. e. None of these.

47) Independent expenditures, money spent on behalf of a political party or a candidate that is truly independent of the party or candidate, by an unrelated group are a. limited by the Bipartisan Campaign Reform Act. b. unlimited only during election years. c. limited by PAC rules. d. unlimited in any way and must be disclosed to the Federal Elections Commission. e. donated by political parties.

.


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48) Republicans for Clean Air consisted entirely of a. elements of the AFL-CIO PAC. b. two Texas businessmen. c. 500 disaffected Republicans planning to vote for McCain. d. grassroots environmental Republicans. e. coal industry leaders.

49) In the 1870s members of Congress promoted the Crédit Mobilier construction company in exchange for

a. trips aboard the Queen Elizabeth luxury liner. b. stacks of cash hung from the capitol rotunda. c. lavish entertainment during the long summer break. d. the right to make huge profits by buying its stock below market value. e. enormous campaign contributions.

50) In 1921, President Warren G. Harding’s administration allowed private companies to secretly lease public land in order to extract oil that had been reserved for the navy. This was called the a. Petticoat Affair. b. Keating Five Scandal. c. October Surprise. d. Teapot Dome scandal. e. Tippy Canoe and Tyler Too.

51) The Seventeenth Amendment to the Constitution, ratified in 1913, marked the first time that U.S. Senators were a. selected by the house of representatives. b. elected by the electoral college. c. popularly elected. d. not allowed to hold two offices at the same time. e. appointed by the various state’s legislatures.

52) The restriction of soft money led to a surge of what kind of contributions?

a. illegal b. individual c. federal d. union e. corporate


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53) These types of activists would rather lose the election than compromise: a. issue activists b candidate activists c. party regulars d. A and B only e. all of the above

54) While party activists are often highly ideological, party platforms tend to be moderate.

a. True b. False

55) The institutional characteristics of political parties include

a. state and local party participation. b. party platforms. c. national party leadership. d. all of the above. e. A and B only.

56) Local and judicial elections in most states are ________ elections.

a. partisan b. closed c. nonpartisan d. open e. primary

57) In 2002, Congress passed the ________ to modernize voting procedures and mandat- ing that states maintain accurate statewide voter registration lists. a. Bipartisan Campaign Reform Act b. Motor Voter Act c. Help America Vote Act d. Voting Fairness Act e. National Election Modernization Act

58) In order to achieve a margin of error of plus or minus 3%, a sample should be at least ________ individuals. a. 100,000 b. 1,000 c. 1 million d. 100 e. 250


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59) When a large portion of opposing sides feels intensely about an issue (such as the Vietnam War), opinion is said to be

a. uninformed. b. undemocratic. c. distinct. d. consensual. e. polarized.

60) A widely shared and held view is referred to as a. salience. b. manifest opinion. c. public opinion. d. intense opinion. e. none of the above.

61) Table 8—1 in your book demonstrates that

a. most people oppose abortion under all circumstances. b. the margin of error is not affected by the size of samples. c. the wording of questions and responses is important when measuring public opinion. d. obtaining random samples is relatively unimportant for measuring public opinion. e. all of the above.

62) The two most important political teachers are ________ and schools.

a. foreign leaders b. celebrities c. families d. politicians e. None of the above

63) Which of the following is true about proportional representation systems?

a. they have been ruled unconstitutional by the Supreme Court b. they tend to be associated with the existence of only two major parties competing in elections c. they encourage participation of third and minor parties in elections d. they are not currently used by any countries in the world e. they are used by twenty states to choose members for their state legislatures take- all


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64) When no candidate wins a majority in the electoral college, the House of Representa- tives chooses a president from

a. among its own members. b. one of the governors of the states. c. the Supreme Court. d. among the top three electoral recipients of electoral votes. e. the Senate.

65) More voters turn out in the primary elections than they do in the general elections.

a. True b. False

66) Winner-takes-all elections are a characteristic of the U.S. electoral system.

a. True b. False

67) Critics of the primary system have recommended that rather than having state presidential primaries there should be a single nationwide election, or a “national presidential primary” a. True b. False

68) For over forty years, Americans have been getting their news primarily from

a. radio. b. the Internet. c. newspapers. d. print media. e. television.

69) According to Table 10—1 in your book, journalists tend to identify with which party? a. Democrats b. Republicans c. Independents d. They are bipartisan e. They are nonpartisan


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70) Small groups of people who are asked questions about candidates and issues in a discussion setting are known as

a. issue groups. b. task oriented groups. c. focus groups. d. buzz groups. e. discussion groups.

71) The government has ________ the broadcast media in some form since its inception. a. funded b. ignored c. advocated for partisan interests of d. regulated e. none of the above

72) The most important factor in political socialization for the American public is

a. a combination of radio and television. b. the family. c. television. d. radio. e. none of the above.

73) Members of Congress generally pay close attention to their constituents because

a. the Supreme Court has ruled that they may not vote against constituent prefer- ences on important legislation. b. the popularity of the president depends on it. c. the media forces them to do so. d. they care about being reelected. e. all of these.

74) A friend of yours tells you that the district in which she lives has 85% of its residents registered as Republicans and that Republicans always win the House election from her district. This is an example of a

a. reapportionment. b. candidate’s dream. c. party district. d. sure bet. e. safe seat.


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75) The presiding officer in the House of Representatives is called the

a. majority leader. b. president of the House. c. Speaker. d. leader pro tempore. e. caucus chair.

76) The Speaker of the House is formally chosen by

a. the entire House. b. the Senate. c. the Supreme Court. d. the majority party in the House. e. the president.

77) ________ is a procedure for terminating debate in the Senate.

a. Filibuster b. Cloture c. Hold d. Termination e. None of the above

78) Table 12—1 in your book shows that people think the president has the most influence over

a. health care costs. b. the way other countries view the U.S. c. gas prices. d. inflation. e. housing prices.

79) Following the vice president in the line of presidential succession is the

a. Speaker of the House of Representatives. b. Chief Justice of the Supreme Court. c. chairman of the Federal Reserve Board. d. president pro tempore of the Senate. e. Secretary of Defense.


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80) Teddy Roosevelt is often credited with the creation of the “modern presidency,” a presidency freed from many of the restraints his predecessors served under.

a. True b. False

81) The Executive Office of the President (EOP) was created in 1939 to

a. act as a “watchdog” over presidential powers. b. oversee the communications between the media and the president. c. provide the liaison relationship needed between the president and Congress. d. give the president more help running the federal departments and agencies. e. none of the above.

82) A rise in public approval of the president that follows a crisis is called a(n)

a. mandate. b. anomaly. c. popularity bump. d. rally point. e. approval spike.

83)The Merit Systems Protection Board is a. federal employees who work for government through a competitive, not political selection. b. an agency that administers civil service laws, rules, and regulations. c. a system of public employment in which selection and promotion depend on dem- onstrated performance rather than political patronage. d. a system of public employment based on rewarding party loyalists and friends. e. an independent agency that oversees and protects merit in the federal government personnel system.

84) This agency administers civil service laws, rules, and regulations: a. White House Presidential Personnel Office b. Department of the Interior c. Office of Personnel Management d. Merit Systems Protection Board e. None of the above


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85) Most federal agencies implement the law through the creation of regulations or the spending of government resources. a. True b. False

86) Under the system of checks and balances, the party that wins the presidency has complete control of the national government.

a. True b. False

87) Both the president and Congress have tools for holding federal departments and agencies accountable.

a. True b. False

88) Key people or organizations in the selection of judges include

a. the Justice Department. b. party leaders in Congress. c. interest groups. d. the president. e. All of these.

89) Who is the third-ranking official in the Department of Justice who is responsible for representing the United States in Cases before the U.S Supreme Court?

a. Attorney General b. Solicitor General c. Public Defender d. Commissioner e. None of the above

90) Literally, a “friend of the court” brief, filed by an individual or organization to present arguments in addition to those presented by the immediate parties to a case.

a. In forma pauperis b. Stare decisis c. Amicus curiae brief d. Writ of certiorari e. Writ of habeas corpus


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91) Judges in the United States

a. can personally enforce their decisions. b. are the most free of all government officials to take action. c. can only rule on the actual cases before them. d. prevent politicians from making foolish legal mistakes. e. All of the above

92) Judicial selection processes are a primary reason that American courts are political institutions despite their efforts to appear “nonpolitical.”

a. True b. False

93) Congress enacted the Religious Freedom Restoration Act of 1993 (RFRA) in response to what 1990 Supreme Court case?

a. Lemon v. Kurtzman b. Gitlow v. New York c. Oklahoma Tax Commission v. Citizen Band Potawatomi Tribe d. Employment Division of Oregon v. Smith e. Miller v. California

94) A general definition of “obscenity” includes all of the following EXCEPT that it

a. lacks political or scientific value. b. lacks serious literary or artistic value. c. appeals to prurient interests. d. offends women. e. none of these.

95) An “impartial jury” must

a. consist of persons who represent a fair cross-section of the community. b. be experts to consider testimony. c. be appointed by the prosecution. d. consist of people that have a high school education. e. none of the above.


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96) Supreme Court guidelines for constitutionally protected free expression includes the absolute right to say whatever one wants to whomever, whenever.

a. True b. False

97) Prisoners have a right to have their detainment reviewed, and the Court’s decision in what case reinforced this right?

a. Boumediene v. Bush b. Romer v. Evans c. Gitlow v. New York d. Griswold v. Connecticut e. Miller v. California

98) Women won the right to vote with the ratification of what Amendment?

a. Fourteenth b. Sixteenth c. Thirteenth d. Nineteenth e. Fifteenth

99) A massive social, economic, and political movement focused on eliminating discrimination began on December 1, 1955 when ________ refused to give up her seat to a white man on a bus as the law required her to do.

a. Margaret Banks b. Rosa Parks c. Connie Simmons d. Jane Sullivan e. None of the above

100) Affirmative action is designed to discourage help to people who have been disadvan- taged because they belong to a certain group.

a. True b. False

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