ALXPROVISIONALANSWERKEY

NAMEOFTHEPOST Geologist, General State Service, Class I

AdvertisementNo. 15/2017-18

PreliminaryTestheldon 25-06-2017QueNo. 101 – 300PublishDate 05‐07‐2017LastDatetosendsuggestion(s) 13‐07‐2017

Note:‐

(1) AllSuggestionsaretobesentwithreferencetowebsitepublishedQuestionpaperwithProvisionalAnswerKeyOnly.

(2) AllSuggestionsaretobesentinthegivenformatonly.(3) Candidatemustensuretheabovecompliance.

(1) ઉમેદવાર વાધંા- ચૂનો ર ૂ કરવા વેબસાઇટ પર િસ ધ થયેલ િનયત ન નૂાનો ઉપયોગ કરવો. (2) ઉમેદવારોએ પોતાને પર ામા ંમળેલ સીર ઝની ુ તકામા ંછપાયેલ માકં જુબ વાધંા-

ચૂનો ર ૂ ન કરતા તમામ વાધંા- ચૂનો વેબસાઇટ પર િસ ધ થયેલ ોિવઝનલ આ સર ક ના માકં જુબ અને તે સદંભમા ંર ૂ કરવા

(3) ઉમેદવારોએ ઉ ત ચૂના ુ ંઅ કૂ પાલન કર ુ ંઅ યથા વાધંા- ચૂનો ગે કરલ ર ૂઆતો યાને લેવાશે નહ . 

ALX - A ] 17 P.T.O.

101. The giant oil-field of ‘Ankleshwar’ was discovered by the ONGC in:

(A) 1958 (B) 1960

(C) 1963 (D) 1956

102. The Anandpur - Bhukia block in Banswara district of Rajasthan is associated with recent

discovery of:

(A) Gold (B) Clay deposits

(C) Coal bed Methane (D) Diamond pipes

103. The diamond deposits of Wajrakarur in the Anantpur Distt of Andhar Pradesh are the example

of:

(A) Early magmatic segregation (B) Early magmatic dissemination

(C) Early magmatic injection (D) Residual liquid segregation

104. In a complex pegmatite, the zone that is richest in economic minerals is:

(A) Intermediate zone (B) Border zone

(C) Wall zone (D) Core zone

105. A rich streak of ore specially of gold & silver is termed as:

(A) Vug (B) Ore-shoot

(C) Protore (D) Bonanza

106. Tactite is a type of:

(A) Complex carbonate rock (B) Stony meteorite

(C) Complex silicate rock (D) Iron meteorite

107. The ‘Pyrosomatic deposits’ are formed by:

(A) Metamorphic processes (B) Contact metasomatism

(C) Pneumatolytic alteration (D) Residual alteration

108. The xenothermal deposits are formed under the condition of:

(A) LP-HT (B) HP-HT

(C) HP-LT (D) LP-LT

109. The Clinton type of iron stones are:

(A) Limonite - Chamosite - Siderite rocks

(B) Magnetite - Chamosite - Siderite rocks

(C) Banded magnetite - haematite quartizites

(D) Haematite - Chamosite - Siderite rocks

110. The deposits formed at the end of magmatic differentiation are termed :

(A) Orthomagmatic (B) Metasomatic

(C) Hydrothermal (D) Orthotectic

ALX - A ] 18 [Contd.

111. Bleaching clays are:

(A) Fire clays (B) Fuller’s earth

(C) Bentonites (D) China Clays

112. Burial metamorphism is a term coined by ................. .

(A) Newton (B) Coombs

(C) Thompson (D) Miyashiro

113. The term ocean-floor metamorphism was coined by ................. .

(A) Miyashiro et al. (1971) (B) Coombs

(C) Smith (D) Newton

114. During shock metamorphism very high pressure polymorphs of quartz such as ................. are

formed.

(A) Coesite (B) Tridymite

(C) Quartz (D) Labradorite

115. During prograde metamorphism, fluids ................. are driven off.

(A) H2O (B) CO2

(C) H2O & CO2 (D) None of the above

116. Whatever change in a rock during metamorphism is responsible with respect to P & T. This

P & T environment is referred to as ................. .

(A) Metamorphic fades (B) Zone

(C) Subfacies (D) None of the above

117. Complete the reaction: Gedrite + quartz = .......... + cordierite + H2O

(A) Hypersthene (B) Almandine

(C) Andalusite (D) Diopside

118. Complete the reaction: Muscovite + Quartz = K-feldspar + .......... + H2O

(A) Sillimanite (B) Almandine

(C) Andalusite (D) Mg-anthophyllite

119. Complete the reaction: Orthopyroxene + Plagioclase = .......... + Garnet + Quartz

(A) Clinopyroxene (B) Hornblende

(C) Anthophyllite (D) Kyanite

120. Khetri copper belt, Rajasthan India is an example of low pressure metamorphism up to grade of

................. ?

(A) Green schist facies (B) Amphibolite facies

(C) Hornblende-hornfels facies (D) Zeolite facies

121. Mineral composition of Eclogite is ................. .

(A) Garnet & Omphacite (B) Clinopyroxene & Orthopyroxene

(C) Garnet & Quartz (D) Plagioclase & Orthoclase

ALX - A ] 19 P.T.O.

122. The facies albite-epidote-hornfels was first introduced by ................. (1958).

(A) Winter (B) Thomas

(C) Fyfe, Turner and Verhoogon (D) Choudhary

123. What is the temperature range of amphibolite facies?

(A) 500/550 to 700/750°C (B) 400/450 to 500/550°C

(C) 700/750 to 900/950°C (D) 300/350 to 400/450°C

124. Complete the reaction: Albite →→→→→ .......... + Quartz

(A) Jadeite (B) Magnetite

(C) Plagioclase (D) Almandine

125. Which mineral is commonly present in amphibolite facies?

(A) Hornblende (B) Anthophyllite

(C) Tremolite (D) All of the above

126. What will be the parent rocks for two pyroxene granulite?

(A) Basic igneous rock (B) Felsic igneous rock

(C) (A) and (B) both (D) None of the above

127. What is the composition of Charnockite?

(A) Hypersthen + K-feldspar + Quartz (B) Hornblende + K-feldspar + Quartz

(C) Sillimanite + K-feldspar + Quartz (D) Epidote + Plagolcase + Quartz

128. The rocks of the granulite facies found in high grade Archaean terrains are described as:

(A) Supracrustal rocks (B) Infracrustal rocks

(C) Intracrustal rocks (D) None of the above

129. The Arabian Sea is divided in two parts by:

(A) The Carlsberg ridge (B) The St. Paul ridge

(C) The Socotra-Chagos ridge (D) None of the above

130. Exfolation is most characteristically found in

(A) Granite (B) Arkose

(C) Basalt (D) Orthoquartzite

131. The Knob and Kettle topography (sag and swell topography) is encountered in the regions of:

(A) Glacial environment (B) Fluvial environment

(C) Deltaic environment (D) Arid environment

132. Granitic terranes are characterized by the presence of

(A) Black cotton soils (B) Lateritic soils

(C) Red loamy soils (D) None of the above

133. The simplest of all the silicate structures is that of:

(A) Orthosilicates (B) Sorosilicates

(C) Phyllosilicates (D) Inosilicates

ALX - A ] 20 [Contd.

134. The rarest of all the garnets is:

(A) Pyrope (B) Almandine

(C) Uvarovite (D) Grossularite

135. Spinel is :

(A) Mg - AI silicate (B) Mg - Al oxide

(C) Mg, Fe, Al - silicate (D) Mg, Fe, Al oxide

136. Which of the following pairs is incompatible with free silica?

(A) Forsterite - Fayalite (B) Fayalite - Olivine

(C) Forsterite - Olivine (D) All of the above

137. Which mineral is orthopyroxene?

(A) (Fe, Mg)Si2O6 (B) (Ca, Mg)Si2O6

(C) (Fe, Mg)SiO4 (D) None of the above

138. Which of the following forms the lower Vindhyans?

(A) Semri Group (B) Nallamalai Group

(C) Rewa Group (D) Kurnool Group

139. Which of the follwing volcanic rock contains the lowest percentage of silica?

(A) Komatiite (B) Basalt

(C) Andesites (D) Trachytes

140. In which unit colliform organism in water are reported?

(A) Mg/I (B) epm

(C) MPN (D) None of these

141. If temperature increase 1°C, the EC will increase:

(A) 1% (B) 2%

(C) 3% (D) 5%

142. Pollution from a industry is an example of:

(A) Point source pollution (B) Non point source of pollution

(C) Linear source of pollution (D) None of these

143. Who has given the point count system of evaluation of pollution potential?

(A) Darcy (B) Thornbury

(C) Le Grand (D) Lohman

144. Permissible limit of Arsenic in water is:

(A) 0.001 mg/l (B) 0.1 mg/l

(C) 0.01 mg/l (D) 1.0 mg/l

145. The element which is environmentally important:

(A) Li (B) Br

(C) Ar (D) Pb

ALX - A ] 21 P.T.O.

146. Fluorine content will be maximum in:

(A) Basalt (B) Granite

(C) Organic rich soil (D) Limestone

147. Crustal average for Uranium (in ppm) is:

(A) 5 (B) 0.5

(C) 10 (D) 2

148. Mineral which will be most hazardous to humans as particular matter in the air:

(A) Opal (B) Kaolinite

(C) Talc (D) Asbestos

149. The permissible limit of BOD in water is:

(A) 2 mg/l (B) 10 mg/l

(C) 5 mg/l (D) 15 mg/l

150. Energy flow in an ecosystem is:

(A) Unidirectional (B) Bidirectional

(C) Multidirectional (D) None of these

151. The depletion of ozone layer is due to mainly:

(A) CFC (B) NO2

(C) CO2 (D) SO2

152. Pollution of groundwater from septic tank is an example of:

(A) Point source pollution (B) Non point source pollution

(C) Linear pollution (D) None of these

153. Aeroplane which take aerial photographs generally files in:

(A) Troposphere (B) Stratosphere

(C) Ionosphere (D) Exosphere

154. Which is the oldest river:

(A) Ganga (B) Indus

(C) Jhelum (D) Yamuna

155. The width of gravity dam at its base is how many time to that of its height?

(A) 0.2 to 0.4 (B) 0.6 to 0.8

(C) 0.4 to 0.6 (D) 0.8 to 1.0

156. What is the average salt content (salinity) of the ocean?

(A) 35% (B) 3.5%

(C) 0.35% (D) 0.035%

157. An effluent stream is one which:

(A) Flows into a parent stream (B) Flow parallel to consequent stream

(C) Discharge the ground water in it (D) None of these

ALX - A ] 22 [Contd.

158. The porosity of rocks depends upon:

(A) Shape of the grain (B) Size of the grain

(C) Packing of the grain (D) All of these

159. Hydraulic Conductivity can be determined by:

(A) Tracer Test (B) Pumping Test

(C) Auger hole Test (D) All of these

160. The most suitable and common method of groundwater exploration is:

(A) Electrical method (B) Gravity method

(C) Magnetic method (D) Seismic method

161. The equation for calculating aquifer parameter under equilibrium condition is given by:

(A) Thiem (B) Theis

(C) Cooper Jacob (D) Chow

162. SAR value for excellent water class for irrigation is:

(A) Less than 10 (B) 10 - 26

(C) 12 - 15 (D) None of these

163. The half life period of C14 is:

(A) 5200 years (B) 5730 years

(C) 12.3 years (D) 250 years

164. Clay is an example of

(A) Aquiclude (B) Aquifer

(C) Aquifuge (D) Aquitard

165. The selection of the well screen material depends on:

(A) Water quality (B) Strength of the material

(C) Corrosion resistance (D) All of the above

166. What is the major dissolved anion in ground water:

(A) Nitrate (B) Chloride

(C) Sulphide (D) Bicarbonate

167. On the basis of discharge, Meinzer has classified the spring into:

(A) Five classes (B) Seven classes

(C) Eight classes (D) Ten classes

168. In air-borne radiometric survey, the detector element which pickup r-rays in scintillation counter

will be:

(A) Silver activted ZnS crystal (B) Thallium activated Nal crystal

(C) Anthracene (D) Silver activated Nal crystal

ALX - A ] 23 P.T.O.

169. ‘Polycarpea spyrostylis’ is the indicative plant for:

(A) Zinc (B) Lead

(C) Copper (D) Tungestan

170. Which one of the following physical properties is not an electrical properties:

(A) Potential difference (B) Conductivity or Resistivity

(C) Dietectric constant (D) Electro-chemical activity

171. Which one of the following is not a rotary type drill:

(A) Clayx (B) Auger

(C) Jack-hammer (D) Diamond drill

172. Isochore plan method of reserve estimation is applied in:

(A) Iron ore (B) Sulphide ores

(C) Alluvial deposits (D) Coal

173. ‘Overburden to ore/mineral Ratio’ is calculated in term of:

(A) Volume (B) Tonnage

(C) Specific gravity (D) Tonnage factor

174. Gossans are formed by:

(A) Denudation (B) Transportation & Deposition

(C) Magmatic process (D) In-situ process

175. Which of the following is related to the genetical guides to ore deposits?

(A) Gossans (B) Elevation & Depression

(C) Metallogenic epoch (D) Wall-rock alteration

176. The ‘Brazillian test’ is used to determine

(A) Tensile strength (B) Compressive strength

(C) Shear strength (D) Modulus of elasticity

177. Which of the following has the higest compressive strength?

(A) Granite (B) Marble

(C) Rhyolite (D) Quartzite

178. ‘Grouting may be described as:

(A) The injection of suitable material into the earth’s crust to seal any open fissures

(B) A process of determining the coefficient of water saturation of a materials

(C) A process of lining of tunnels to support the pressure exerted by the material in which

the tunnel is excavated

(D) None of the above

179. When the river section is wide and foundation is unsound suggest the type of dam preferred:

(A) Gravity dam (B) Arch dam

(C) Multiple arch dam (D) Earthen dam

ALX - A ] 24 [Contd.

180. Ilmenite is separated from chromite by

(A) Gravity separation (B) Magnetic separation

(C) Electostatic separation (D) Froth floation process

181. The gravity methods can be applied for structural studies in

(A) Sedimentary basins only

(B) Metamorphic terrains only

(C) Igneous and metamorphic terrains only

(D) All of the above

182. In a complex pegmatite, the zone that is richest in economic minerals is

(A) Intermediate zone (B) Wall zone

(C) Border zone (D) Core

183. Kudremukh in Karnataka is famous for

(A) Copper deposits (B) Hematite deposits

(C) Magnetite deposits (D) llmenite deposits

184. Which of the following is an ore of tungsten?

(A) Wolframite (B) Hubnerite

(C) Scheelite (D) All of the above

185. Graphite of workable quantities can be extracted from

(A) Khondalites (B) Chamockites

(C) Leptinites (D) Basic granulites

186. The age of Neyveli Lignite deposits is

(A) Cretaceous (B) Eocene

(C) Miocene (D) Oligocene

187. The mineralogy of which of the following contact metamorphic fades is similar to that of the

high grade amphibolite fades?

(A) Hornblende - hornfels fades (B) Albite - epidote - hornfels fades

(C) Pyroxene - hornfels fades (D) Sanidinite fades

188. When shales are subjected to thermal metamorphism the product formed is?

(A) Hornfels (B) Phyllite

(C) Schist (D) Amphibolite

189. The conversion: Eclogites →→→→→ Amphibolites is an example of:

(A) Progressive regional metamorphism

(B) Retrogressive meatmorphism

(C) Autometamorphism

(D) Load metamorphism

ALX - A ] 25 P.T.O.

190. The mineral assemblage Larnite - Spurrite - Merwinite is typical of

(A) Sanidinite facies (B) Zeolite facies

(C) Blue schist facies (D) Granulite facies

191. The growth of glaciers would lead to ................. .

(A) Drop in sea level, (B) Rise in sea level

(C) No change in sea level (D) None of these.

192. Palaeosols are indicative of which of these conditions?

(A) Erosion (B) Non-deposition

(C) Both (A) & (B) (D) None of the above

193. The smallest megascopic layer in a sedimentary sequence is a:

(A) Bed (B) Stratum

(C) Lamina (D) All of the above

194. Alternate deposition of fine and coarse grained sediments gives rise to:

(A) Cross bedding (B) Torrential bedding

(C) Graded bedding (D) Festoon bedding

195. According to Bowen Reaction Series, the common reaction sequence for ferromagnesian mineral

is:

(A) Olivine - orthopyroxene - clinopyroxene - amphibolite - biotite

(B) Olivine - clinopyroxene - orthopyroxene - amphibolite - biotite

(C) Olivine - orthopyroxene - clinopyroxene - biotite - amphibolite

(D) Olivine - orthopyroxene - amphibolite - clinopyroxene - biotite

196. Which one is not a heavy mineral?

(A) llmenite (B) Garnet

(C) Gypsum (D) Zircon

197. Quartzite and Greywacke are example of:

(A) Redaceous rocks (B) Ferruginous rocks

(C) Arenaceous rocks (D) Argillaceous rocks

198. The rock types, which are most desirable at dam sites for their very strong and durable dense

character and interlocking texture are:

(A) Plutonic igneous rocks (B) Limestones

(C) Gneisses (D) Shales

199. An intergrowth texture in which plagioclase contains inclusions of potash feldspar is known as:

(A) Antiperthite (B) Perthite

(C) Graphic texture (D) Ophitic

ALX - A ] 26 [Contd.

200. Norite is a gabbroic rock in which

(A) Opx > Cpx (B) Opx < Cpx

(C) Opx = Cpx (D) Opx is absent

201. The Most outstanding book in geological Science entitled “De Re Metallica” published in 1556

for scientific studies of minerals was written by:

(A) Aristotle (B) Georgius Agricola

(C) Aammurabi (D) Theoraphtus

202. Permanent Settlement (Regulation 1 of 1793), accordingly the mineral rights were vested in the

“Zamindars” throughout the provinces of:

(A) Presidency of Madras (B) Bihar

(C) Odissa (D) All of these

203. Out of the follwing minerals which one is not covered under the critical category in India:

(A) Petroleum (B) Tungestan ore

(C) Graphite (D) Lead ore

204. Columnar Joint is commonly found in:

(A) Basalt (B) Granite

(C) Gabbro (D) Peridotite

205. “The study of human behaviour as a relationship between ends & scarce means which have

alternate use” who coined the definition for mineral economics / economics?

(A) Robbins (B) Adam Smith

(C) Marshall (D) Lee & Yao

206. The vitality of minerals according to George Mekelvey is described through an equation;

L = (R ××××× E ××××× I)/P. What does I denotes for?

(A) Indudgence (B) Integrety

(C) Information (D) Ingenuity

207. Who amongst the following is regarded as the first economic geologist around 2000 BC, who

discovered large deposit of turguoise in Sinai, Egypt.

(A) Theophrastus (B) Haraeris

(C) Aristotle (D) Plato

208. Ivigtut, Greenland, the only place on this planet had an important mineral deposit which totally

got depleted in 1970’s. Which is that mineral?

(A) Smithsonite (B) Pantlandite

(C) Zaratite (D) Cryolite

209. Exfoliation is a form of

(A) Physical weathering (B) Chemical weathering

(C) Biochemical weathering (D) None of the above

ALX - A ] 27 P.T.O.

210. The hardest of all artifical abrasives will be:

(A) Carborundum (B) Alundum

(C) Tungestan carbide (D) Boron carbide

211. According to the Industrial Policy Resolution, 1956 to discourage Pvt. Monopolies & Capitalism

and domination of public sector in mineral development, India adopts

(A) Socialistic pattern of society

(B) Privatisation in major minerals

(C) Non collaborative approach

(D) Foreign participation in atomic & Fuel mineral development

212. India adopts which policy in mineral development?

(A) Mixed Policy (B) Open-door policy

(C) Closed-door policy (D) Restricted Policy

213. In mine production certain nominal tax is leveid on the owner for the welfare of mine workers.

This tax is termed as:

(A) Dead rent (B) Cess

(C) Surface rent (D) Royalty

214. Name the metal used in munition, guns, high-speed tools, imparting great piercing power for

bullets:

(A) Tungestan (B) Vanadium

(C) Polybdenum (D) Titanium

215. An Act, under which the mineral properties become a provincial Subject is known as:

(A) Mines Act, 1952 (B) Mines and Minerals (R&D) Act, 1948

(C) Govt of India Act, 1935 (D) Atomic Energy Act, 1962

216. Implementation of mineral Policy in India is vested in:

(A) DGMS (B) IBM

(C) GSI (D) AMD

217. Enforcement of Mines Act in India is the responsibility vested in:

(A) Directorate of Mines Safety & Labour welfare

(B) Atomic Energy Commission

(C) Indian Bureau of Mines

(D) Coal India Limited

218. The most vital & basic mineral commodity required for infrastructure, transport and industrial

development of any country is ................. .

(A) Bauxite (B) Base metallic ores

(C) Atomic minerals (D) Iron ore

ALX - A ] 28 [Contd.

219. Which of the following show a 6 membered ring structure?

(A) Hypersthene (B) Beryl

(C) Epidote (D) garnet

220. The Directorate of Mines Safety & Labour Welfare is situated at:

(A) Dhanbad (B) Nagpur

(C) Hyderabad (D) Bangalore

221. A Country for its industrial grwoth & economic development requires following indigenous

resources except one. Which is the one which is not mandatory?

(A) Iron-ore (B) Fuel minerals

(C) Base metallic deposits (D) Atomic minerals

222. In cement manufacture which one of the following raw material is out of place:

(A) Aluminous clay (B) Dolomite

(C) Gypsum (D) Laterite

223. According to the Specific Mineral, listed in the first Schedule of MMDR Act, Which mineral is

not included in the category A

(A) Rare Earth minerals (B) Lignite

(C) Petroleum (D) Coking coal

224. Maximum limit of period granting licence & mining lease or renewal is govorned by which act?

(A) Atomic Energy Act, 1962 (B) Mines Act, 1952

(C) Industrial Policy Resolution, 1956 (D) Mines & Minerals (D & R) Act, 1999

225. Minimum wages and safety plus welfare of the mine workers, this responsibility is vested in

which department?

(A) GSI (B) UCIL

(C) State DGM (D) DGMS

226. Well rounded quartz grains in an arenite indicates:

(A) Long transportation (B) Not always long transportation

(C) High maturity (D) None of these.

227. An occurrence of chert along with dolomite may indicate:

(A) Change in pH (B) Change in bathymetry

(C) Both of them (D) None of these

228. Indo-gangetic plain with active fluvial sedimentation is:

(A) Overfilled and oversupplied (B) Underfilled and oversupplied

(C) Underfilled and undersupplied (D) Overfilled and undersupplied

229. The boundary between adjacent parasequences may be called as:

(A) Marine flooding surface (B) Maximum flooding surface

(C) Both of them (D) None of these

ALX - A ] 29 P.T.O.

230. Primary current lineation can give:

(A) Sense of flow (B) Direction of flow

(C) Both can be derived (D) No indications

231. The word sand gives information about:

(A) Composition (B) Size

(C) Both of them (D) None of these.

232. Which of the following shows greatest bathymetry?

(A) Zoophycos (B) Skolithos

(C) Planolites (D) Nereites

233. Downward shift of coastal onlap indicates:

(A) Transgression (B) Sequence boundary

(C) Both of these (D) None of these

234. Which of the following is shown by ZTR index?

(A) Maturity of sediments (B) Texture

(C) Both of these (D) None of these

235. Creation is more important than creator is more suitable for which of the following?

(A) Body fossils (B) Trace fossils

(C) Both of these (D) None of these

236. Plane laminated fine grained sandstone belongs to which of the following?

(A) Transitional regime (B) Lower flow regime

(C) Upper flow regime (D) None of these

237. Which of the following is mud dominated in nature?

(A) Flaser bedding (B) Wavy bedding

(C) Both (A) & (B) (D) Lenticular bedding

238. Which of the following leads to the formation of incised valley?

(A) Type 1 unconformity (B) Type 2 unconformity

(C) Both (A) & (B) (D) None of these

239. Sea level fall above inflection point gives rise to

(A) Lowstand Systems Tract (B) Transgressive Systems Tract

(C) Shelf Margin Systems Tract (D) Lenticular Bedding

240. Which of the following does not indicates palaeocurrent?

(A) Flute cast (B) Current crescent structure

(C) Asymmetric ripple (D) Gutter cast

241. Amount of matrix and extent of compaction of sandstone are:

(A) Directly related (B) Inversely related

(C) Not related (D) None of these

ALX - A ] 30 [Contd.

242. The hydrodynamic zone between lower water line and fair-weather wave base is called as:

(A) Foreshore (B) Transition zone

(C) Shoreface (D) None of these

243. Walther’s law can be applied to which of the following situations:

(A) Environments with sharp boundaries

(B) Environments with gradational boundaries

(C) Environments with erosional boundaries

(D) None of these

244. Standard deviation would be lowest for

(A) Well mature sediments (B) Immature sediments

(C) Moderately mature sediments (D) None of these

245. Which of the following is most deformed in Cuddapah Basin?

(A) Kurnool group (B) Chitravati group

(C) Nallamalai group (D) None of these

246. Rhacopteris is found in which of the following Formation?

(A) Lipak Formation (B) Po Formation

(C) Gechang Formation (D) None of these

247. Spiti shales belongs to which of the following age?

(A) Jurassic (B) Permian

(C) Carboniferous (D) None of these

248. Olduvai event is recorded in which of the following group of rocks?

(A) Bijawar Group (B) Siwalik Group

(C) Kuling Group (D) None of these

249. Which of the following can be correlated to Grenvillian orogeny?

(A) Eastern ghat mobile belt (B) Pandyan mobile belt

(C) Central Indian Tectonic Zone (D) None of these

250. Komatiites are found in which of the following group of rocks?

(A) Chitradurga group (B) Bababudan group

(C) Sargur group (D) None of these

251. When a metamorphic rock undergoes significant changes in the chemical composition during

recrystallization, the process of change is referred to as ................. .

(A) Metasomatism (B) Metamorphic differentiation

(C) Leucosome (D) (B) & (C) both

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252. In metasomatic processes, the principal chemically active fluids or volatiles constituents

are ................. .

(A) H2O and CO2 (B) H2O

(C) O2 (D) None of the above

253. During Concretion Principle

(A) The growth of large porphyroblasts and crystalline aggregates

(B) Ddevelopment of Paleosome

(C) Development of Neosome

(D) Development of Leucosome

254. The parent rock, whether meta pelitic schists / gneiss or meta graywacke, designated as ........... .

(A) Paleosome (B) Neosome

(C) Leucosome (D) None of the above

255. On melting the paleosome changes its composition which is now observed as restite (unmelted

component) and is designated as ................. .

(A) Melanosome (B) Neosome

(C) Leucosome (D) Paleosome

256. The purpose of study of Environmental geology is to under stand ................. .

(A) Origin of earth

(B) Origin of solar system

(C) The biosphere, lithosphere, and hydrosphere

(D) None of them

257. Geologists are responsible for ................. .

(A) Exploring for minerals

(B) Finding ground water supplies

(C) Building foundations for engineering projects

(D) All of the above

258. Metamorphism is mainly due to the operation of ................. .

(A) Pressure only (B) Temperature only

(C) Fluids only (D) P, T & fluids

259. What is the composition of hypersthene?

(A) FeMgSi2O6 (B) Mg2Si2O6

(C) CaMgSi2O6 (D) CaFeSi2O6

260. Sorosilicates, Si:O ratio is ................. .

(A) 1:4 (B) 2:7

(C) 2:4 (D) 3:1

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261. Olivine and silica react and change in to ................. .

(A) Hypersthene (B) Diopside

(C) Epidote (D) None of the above

262. The crust - mantle boundary is referred to as the ................. .

(A) Mohorovicic discontinuity (B) Lehman Seismic Discontinuity

(C) Gutenberg Seismic Discontinuity (D) 670 km Seismic Discontinuity

263. Continental crust ................. .

(A) is less dense than oceanic crust

(B) is of the same density as oceanic crust

(C) is more dense than oceanic crust

(D) can be denser or lighter than oceanic crust

264. Graphic intergrowth in the intergrowth between the minerals ................. .

(A) Quartz and orthoclase (B) Albite and anorthite

(C) Albite and orthoclase (D) Quartz and hornblende

265. What is the composition of Troctolite?

(A) Clinopyroxene + plagioclase (B) Orthopyroxene + plagioclase

(C) Olivine + clinopyroxene (D) Olivine + plagioclase

266. Harzburgite is ultramafic igneous rocks have composition.

(A) Olivine + orthopyroxene (B) Orthopyroxene + clinopyroxene

(C) Only olivine (D) Only pyroxenes

267. What is the characteristic mineralogical difference between norite and gabbro

(A) Difference in ortho and clino pyroxene

(B) Plagioclase occurrence in only one

(C) Both a and b are correct

(D) Shape and grain size of crystals are different

268. Which mineral crystallized first as per Bowen reaction Series?

(A) Pyroxene (B) Biotite

(C) Albite (D) Amphibole

269. What is the degree of freedom at eutectic point?

(A) 0 (B) 2

(C) 1 (D) 3

270. Dolerite exhibit ................. texture.

(A) Equigranular (B) Trachytic

(C) Graphic (D) Ophitic

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271. Diorite containing smaller amount of quartz is called ................. .

(A) Quartz diorite (B) Granodiorite

(C) Granite (D) Perthite

272. The process of transportation involves ................. .

(A) Chemical processes

(B) Carried to other places by the wind, running water, and gravity

(C) Cement formation

(D) None of these

273. The Digboi Oil Field is associated with the Tippam Sandstone which are of:

(A) Eocene age (B) Pliocene age

(C) Miocene age (D) Oligocene age

274. The reservoir rocks at the Bombay High are predominantly:

(A) Bioparites (B) Biomicrites

(C) Oosparites (D) Oomicrites

275. Which of the following is Not matched correctly?

(A) KG Basin - KaiKalur (B) Bombay High - Hirapur & Panna

(C) Cambay Basin - Razole (D) Cauvery Basin - Norimanam

276. In the zawar region the principal ore minerals of lead are:

(A) Galena & Sphalerite (B) Pyrrhotite & Sphalerite

(C) Galena & Arsenopyrite (D) Pyrrhotite & Galena

277. The principal mineral constituent of drilling mud is

(A) Corundum (B) Barytes

(C) Bauxite (D) Beryl

278. One of the mineral deposit is not related to the early magmatic process:

(A) Sphalerite (B) Chromite

(C) Magnetite (D) Diamond

279. Hydrothermal deposits that result from high temperature fluids but at low pressure conditions

is denoted as:

(A) Telethermal (B) Xenothermal

(C) Mesothermal (D) Epithermal

280. Mangonese nodules occur at:

(A) Continental Slope (B) Sea-beach

(C) Continental Shelf (D) Deep Sea floor

281. Sudbury in Canada is world famous for which ore?

(A) Pb-Zn ore (B) Tungestan ore

(C) Nickel ore (D) Copper ore

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282. Chalybite is a variety of one of the following minerals:

(A) Siderite (B) Scheelite

(C) Gypsum (D) Goethite

283. The process of extracting / mining of Sulphur through super heated steam injection is known as:

(A) Haber process (B) Charle’s

(C) Frasch’s process (D) Faradey’s process

284. Which of the following is an industrial mineral?

(A) Bauxite (B) Mica

(C) Monazite (D) Manganese ore

285. Chalcopyrite is a:

(A) Simple ore (B) Metallic compound

(C) Complex ore (D) Ferrous ore

286. Cat - Coal is term used for:

(A) Coal with pyrite (B) Coal with Chalcedony

(C) Coal with diamond (D) Coal with sulphur

287. Palana lignite deposit is of:

(A) Miocene age (B) Eocene age

(C) Carboniferous age (D) Pliocene age

288. Graphite deposits form large by :

(A) Sedimentation (B) Magmatic concentration

(C) Metamorphism (D) Residual concentration

289. A neutral refractory is prepared from one of the followings:

(A) Kyanite (B) Graphite

(C) Magesite (D) Silica

290. A fine grained, compact, snow-white, massive variety of gypsum

(A) Alabaster (B) Gibbsite

(C) Plaster of Paris (D) Gypsum anhydrate

291. On the basis of genesis which of the followingis an odd member?

(A) llmenite (B) Magnetite

(C) Chromite (D) Sphalerite

292. Sn - W - Mo are invariably associated with

(A) Ultrabasic rocks (B) Basic rocks

(C) Acid intrusives (D) Ultramafic rocks

293. Tertiary marine ftwsiliferous sedimentary basins are the suitable sites for which deposit?

(A) Coal (B) Asbestos

(C) Atomic minerals (D) Petroleum

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294. Tolerance limits of all constituents in an ore / minerals termed as:

(A) Tenor (B) Specification

(C) Grade (D) Advalorem

295. Which sulplude mineral do not float in alkaline pulp using potassium ethyl xanthate?

(A) Pyrrhotite (B) Chalcocite

(C) Bornite (D) Pyrite

296. Bacterial leaching in hydrometallurgy is applied for leaching:

(A) Chromium (B) Copper

(C) Uranium (D) Thorium

297. Climax mine in Colorado, USA is famous for:

(A) Copper (B) Tin

(C) Pb-Zn (D) Molybdenum

298. India’s one of the largest SMS grade limestone, a captive mines of Bokaro Steel Plant is situated

at:

(A) Nagod (B) Nandini

(C) Chittorgarh (D) Khuteshwar

299. A placer deposit formed at the site of the destruction of primary source rock is called:

(A) Elluvial placer (B) Aeolian placer

(C) Colluvial placer (D) Alluvial placer

300. Sideronitic texture is typically associated with:

(A) Contact metasomatic deposits (B) Early magmatic deposits

(C) Late magmatic deposits (D) Hydrothermal deposits