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ALL ASSAM APSC CCE (PRELIMS) 2020

FREE MOCK TEST (13-12-2020)

GENERAL STUDIES-1

Time Allowed: 2 (Two) Hours Maximum Marks: 200

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INSTRUCTIONS

1. Immediately after the commencement of the examination, you should check that this test booklet does not have any unprinted or torn or missing pages or items, etc. If so, get it replaced by a complete test booklet. 2. This test booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed in English only. Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item. 3. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. 4. All items carry equal marks. 5. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in the registration form attached along with the question paper/answer (OMR) sheet and submit to the invigilator. Failing to do so, your answer sheet may not be evaluated. 6. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet. 7. Penalty for wrong answers: THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.

(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-fourth (0.25) of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty. (ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question. (iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that. Note: Please keep your mobile phones in switched off mode.

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1. Who was the first recipient of the Sahitya Academi Award for English Literature? (A) Nayantara Sehgal (B) R. K. Narayan (C) Raja Rao (D) Mulk Raj Anand 2. Which language was used by Sankardeva for composing Ankia Nat? (A) Pali (B) Brajavali (C) Prakrit (D) Apabhrangsha 3. Who is known as the father of Assamese prose? (A) Ratnakar Kandali (B) Bhattadeva (C) Sarbavauma Bhattacharyya (D) Gopal Aata 4. Who among the following was the first recipient of the Assam Valley Literary Award? (A) Homan Borgohain (B) Nabakanta Barua (C) Bhabendra Nath Saikia (D) Nilamoni Phukan 5. The popular uprising in Assam Known as Patharughat Battle took place in the year (A) 1861 (B) 1862 (C) 1893 (D) 1894

6. Who was the President of the 'Swaraj party' formed in Assam during the freedom Movement? (A) Maniram Dewan (B) Bishnuram Medhi (C) Gopinath Bordoloi (D) Tarun Ram Phukan 7. Female literacy in India as per the Census Data, 2011 stands at (A) 65.50% (B) 70.30% (C) 62.55% (D) 68.25% 8. The terra-cotta industry in Assam has developed in (A) Goalpara District (B) Barak District (C) Dhubri District (D) Tinsukia District 9. Who wrote the famous book called 'Long Walk to Freedom’? (a) Jawaharlal Nehru (b) Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan (c) Nelson Mandela (d) Dr. Rajendra Prasad 10. Who is the founder of the South-East Asia Ramayana Research Centre? (a) Late Dr. Bhupen Hazarika (b) Late Dr. Mamoni Raisom Goswami (c) Dr. Dhrubajyoti Bora (d) Dr. Malini 11. Which of the following Panchayat act

incorporated the Panchayati Raj in

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Assam under the 73d Amendment Act,

1992 of the Constitution?

a. Assam Panchayat Act, 1992 b. Assam Panchayat Act, 1994 C. Assam Panchayat Act, 1996 d. Assam Panchayat Act, 1988 12. Who was the first martyr of 1942 Revolution in Assam? a, Kanaklata Barua b. Kamala Miri c. Kushal Konwar d. Maniram Dewan 13. The Guwahati Tea Auction was establishment in the year a. 1998 b. 1970 C. 1959 d. 1988 14. Who was the Ahom king constructed the Basistha Temple? a. Sunepha b. Rajeswar Singha c. Suhungmung d. None of the above 15. Special women commando force raised by Assam government is a. Virangana b. Nirbhaya c. Sribal d. Naribal

16. Treaty of Asurar Ali between Ahoms and Mughals was signed in a. 1639 b. 1641 c. 1690

d. 1643 17. Which of the following state of India does not share border with Assam? a. Nagaland b. Meghalaya c. Sikkim d. West Bengal 18. Which city of Assam has the largest dry fish market of Asia? a. Tangla b. Dhubri c. Tinsukia d. Jagiroad

19. The rule of Varman dynasty came to end with the death of a. Bhutivarman b. Mahendravarman c. Banamalavarman d. Bhaskarvarman 20. Who was the first king of Pala dynasty? a. Gopala b. Brahmapala c. Harshapala d. Indrapala

21. The European merchant who had extensive salt trade in the Ahom kingdom was a. Daniel Raush b. Robert Clive c. Captain Welsh d. Sudmerson

22. Sarbananda Singha was the king of a. The Koches

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b. The Kacharies c. The Morans d. The Matak 23. Who was the first Vice-Chancellor of the Guwahati University? a. Surya Kr. Bhuyan b. Banikanta Kakati c. Kaliram Medhi d. Krishna Kanta Handique 24. Who was the earliest king of Pragjyotisha? a. Mahiranga Danava b. Narakasura c. Bhaskar-Varman d. None of these

25. Which of the following supervised when King Naranarayan reconstructing the temple of Kamakhya? a. Chilarai b. Gohain Kamal c. Megha Makdum d. Kalapahar 26. Name of the last king of Chutia Kingdom. a. Indrapal b. Nitipal c. Birpal d. Jashpal 27. Ahom marriage is known as a. Homa b. Chaklang c. Sayambar d. Gandharva

28. The name of the composer of the Hasti Vidyarnava. a. Sukumar Barkaith b. Bhaskar Barman c. Hari Dev d. Madhav Dev 29. Who was the leader of the 1857 revolt in Assam? a. Lachit Barphukan b. Pioli Baruah c. Maniram Dewan d. Kanaklata 30. Who married Kuranganayani? a. Jayadhwaj Singha b. Rajeswar Singha c. Pratap Singha d. Siva Singha 31. Who was the first Principal of Cotton College? a. Miles Branson b. Nathan Brown c. William Cotton d. Frederic William Sudmerson 32. Rang-Ghar was built during the reign of Swargadeo a. Rudra Singha b. Siva Singha c. Rajeshwar Singha d. Pramatta Singha

33. The Gohain Kamal Ali built during the reign of Naranarayan runs from a. Dhekiajuli to Dhubri b. Koch Behar to Narayanpur c. Guwahati to Goalpara d. Kaliabor to Goalpara

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34. Which Ahom king was popularly known as Bamuni Konwar? a. Suhungmung b. Subinpha c. Sujungpha d. Sudangphaa 35. Thapita-sanchita the term used by Ahoms to the a. Nagas b. Moran king c. Kachari king d. Chutia king 36. Piyali Phukan was hanged in the year a. June 25, 1830 b. July 26, 1830 C. August 26, 1830 d. August 25, 1830 37. Who was the first Assamese to fight against British? a Kushal Knowar b. Piyali Phukan c. Moniram dewan d. Gomdhar Konwar 38. Sukladhowaj was popularly known as a. Chilarai b. Pratapballabh c. Dharmaraj d. Sangramjit 39. After the fall of the Salasthambha dynasty, which one of the following dynasty was coming to Kamrupa? a. The Varmans b. The Palas c. The Kacharis d. The Chutias

40. Who among the following was the first leader from Assam elected to the Congress Working Committee? a. Md. Tayebulla b. Tarun Ram Phukan c. Kuladhar Chaliha d. Bhola Nath Barua 41. With reference to the food and related habits of the Harappan culture, consider the following statements. 1. They consumed both millets and whole grain cereals. 2. There is no evidence of consumption of marine products by the Harappans. 3. Cattle, sheep and pig were domesticated. Select the correct answer using the codes below. a) 1, 2 and 3 b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 only d) 1 and 3 only 42. Which of these sutras is NOT related to Buddhism? a) Lotus Sutra b) Heart Sutra c) Diamond Sutra d) Wheel Sutra 43. Who was the first woman to seek ordination for women in the Buddhist tradition? a) Yashodhara b) Mahapajapati Gotami c) Sujata d) Dhammananda

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44. What is common between the places: Rummindei, Sanchi, Sarnath and Sahasram? a) They are located at the same latitude. b) They were the capitals of the Mahajanpadas. c) They are some of the earliest cities, even before the Indus valley civilization was discovered. d) They contain Ashokan pillar inscriptions.

45. Yavanas are mentioned in detail in Sangam literature refer to a) Some Greek kingdoms b) Elaborate religious arrangements made by Kings c) Horse chariots that were used for Ashvamedha sacrifices d) Foreign conquests that lead to local cultural assimilation 46. Histories of the Gupta rulers have sometimes been reconstructed from Prashastis, which are a) Compositions of praise of kings in particular b) Religious textual traditions of the Gupta empire c) Administrative records of the empire d) Rock inscriptions maintained by the kings 47. With reference to Ancient India, which of the following dramas were written by Harsha (the monarch mentioned in Harshacharita)? 1. Ratnavali 2. Nagananda 3. Priyardarsika Select the correct answer using the codes below. a) 1 and 2 only b) 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3 48. The Ahom kings followed a peculiar practice where people were obliged to render military service in exchange for land. The practice was popular in the present day state of a) Meghalaya

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b) Nagaland c) Sikkim d) Assam 49. Shiqdar officials in Mughal India were mainly responsible for a) Regulating water storage and availability in the provinces b) Maintaining law and order c) Implementing fatwas issued by the emperor d) supervising work of people welfare departments 50. In the context of Modern History of India, the Azamgarh Proclamation is generally associated with a) Sepoy Mutiny 1857 b) Swadeshi Movement c) Rowlatt Satyagraha d) Champaran Movement 51. Queen Victoria’s Proclamation of 1858 1. Assured the Indian people equal and impartial protection of law and freedom of religion and social practices. 2. Announced the end of East India Company’s rule in India and the Queen’s assumption of the Government of India Which of the above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) None 52. The Lucknow Pact, 1916, between Congress and Muslim League brought them together. It happened at a time when the Muslim League was gradually turning anti-imperialist. What could have

been the possible factors behind such an attitude of the Muslim League? 1. Britain's refusal to help Turkey in its wars in the Balkans (1912-13) and with Italy (during 1911) had infuriated the Muslims 2. Annulment of the partition of Bengal in 1911 was not well received by all sections of the Muslims leaders Which of the above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) None 53. The Nehru Report of 1928 1. Was a memorandum outlining a proposed new dominion status constitution for India 2. Was prepared by a committee of the Indian National Congress (INC) 3. Contained a Bill of Rights unlike the Government of India Act, 1935 that was passed later Select the correct answer using the codes below. a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 1 only 54. The Indian National Army (INA) was created by Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose near the a) Swadeshi Movement b) First World War c) Second World War d) Civil Disobedience Movement 55. Under the Mahalwari settlement a) Most villages were made to pay equal

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land revenue irrespective of village population b) Revenue was to be fixed on a permanent basis c) The charge of collecting the revenue and paying it to the Company was given to the village headman d) Peasants became directly accountable to the Zamindar for payment of land revenue 56. Federal Court of India was established by a) Councils Act, 1891 b) Government of India Act, 1919 c) Government of India Act, 1935 d) Government of India Act, 1947 57. The Government of India Act of 1935 provided for the establishment of an All India Federation consisting of provinces and princely states as units. However, the federation never came into being because a) The reversal of the principle of communal representation by the GoI 1935 Act, providing general electorates for all classes of citizens, was protested by some provinces b) Princely states never joined the federation as proposed by the Act. c) It introduced diarchy in the provinces and bicameralism at the Centre which obviated the need for provinces to join the federation d) In the opinion of several provincial governments, the Act divided the powers between the Centre and provinces unfairly

58. The system of ‘dyarchy’ introduced by the Government of India Act of 1919 meant that a) Both Centre and provincial legislatures had the power of legislate in their own spheres. b) Both the British Parliament and the Central Legislature had the right to make laws for India c) Certain subjects were devolved to the Indian members of the Viceroy’s executive council and certain others to the British members of the executive council d) None of the above 59. In the Constituent Assembly, which of the following provisions were passed without any or little debate? a) Secularism b) Universal Suffrage c) Federalism d) Emergency provisions 60. The “Sovereignty” of India means 1. No external power can dictate the Government of India 2. Citizens cannot be discriminated against on any grounds 3. There is absolute freedom of speech and expression for Indian citizens. 4. All citizens have equal economic rights Select the correct answer using the codes below. a) 1, 2 and 3 only b) 1 only c) 3 and 4 only d) 2 and 4 only 61. Consider the following statements.

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1. Preamble was enacted after the rest of the Constitution was already enacted. 2. The Supreme Court holds that the Preamble is a part of the Constitution. Which of the above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) None 62. With reference to the Union of India, consider the following statements. 1. Indian Union is not the result of an agreement by the states. 2. No state has the right to secede from the Indian Union. Which of the above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) None 63. The process and qualifications required for gaining Indian citizenship can be altered by a) An executive resolution b) A Parliamentary legislation c) A special constitutional amendment d) A special constitutional amendment with consent from majority of states 64. In India, citizenship can be acquired by 1. Birth 2. Descent 3. Registration 4. Naturalisation 5. Inclusion of territory Select the correct answer using the codes below. a) 1 and 2 only

b) 1, 2 and 4 only c) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 d) 3 and 5 only 65. The Fundamental Rights promote the idea of political democracy as 1. They limit the authority of the Central government. 2. They secure vital political rights to the citizens of India. Which of the above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) None 66. Consider the following provision: “Nothing in this article shall prevent the State from making any provision for the reservation of appointments or posts in favour of any backward class of citizens which, in the opinion of the State, is not adequately represented in the services under the State.” This is found in a) Special Constitutional Rights outside Part IV b) Fundamental Rights c) National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC) Act, 1993 d) Directive Principles of State Policy 67. Right to freedom granted under Articles 19 to 22 cover which of these rights? 1. Right to freedom of speech, movement and expression 2. Protection against arrest and detention in certain cases 3. Prohibition of traffic in human beings 4. Right to freedom against bonded labour

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Select the correct answer using the codes below. a) 1 and 2 only b) 1, 2 and 4 only c) 2, 3 and 4 only d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 68. Which of these constitutional provision(s) aim at protecting the linguistic interests of minorities in the states? 1. President can direct the government to provide compulsory financial grants and reservation in public jobs to such minorities. 2. President can direct the official recognition of a minority language in the state. Which of the above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) None 69. When a lower court has considered a case going beyond its jurisdiction, which of the following writs can be issued against the lower court? 1. Mandamus 2. Certiorari 3. Prohibition Select the correct answer using the codes below. a) 1, 2 and 3 b) 2 and 3 only c) 3 only d) 1 and 3 only 70. Mandamus can be issued when 1. The Government denies to itself a jurisdiction which it undoubtedly has

under the law 2. Government is under a moral obligation to act on a particular matter, even if it has no duty under the law Which of the above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) None 71. Which of these values can be found both in Directive Principles and Fundamental Duties? 1. Environmental conservation 2. Upholding noble ideals that inspired the national struggle for freedom 3. Promoting harmony and the spirit of fraternity Select the correct answer using the codes below. a) 1 only b) 1 and 2 only c) 2 and 3 only d) None of the above

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72. The Basic Structure doctrine of the Constitution implies that 1. All constitutional amendments that seek to change the basic structure must be initiated and approved by the Judiciary. 2. An amendment can violate the basic structure of the Constitution only when it seeks to give effect to Article 14 or Article 19 of the Constitution. Which of the above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2 d) None 73. The major features of parliamentary government in India is/are? 1. Collective responsibility of the executive to the legislature 2. Leadership of the prime minister 3. Complete separation of the legislature and the executive organs Select the correct answer using the codes below. a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3 74. Who establishes the Inter-State Council to investigate and discuss subject of common interest between the Centre and the states? a) The President b) Parliament c) Governors of states concerned d) State Legislative Assemblies concerned 75. Which of these is/are major points of differences between National emergency and President’s rule? 1. State governments are automatically dismissed on application of President’s Rule, which may not be the case in a National Emergency. 2. There is no maximum period prescribed for the operations of President’s rule, unlike National emergency which ceases after an year. 3. A Parliamentary resolution approving National Emergency needs to be passed by a simple majority, whereas a special

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majority in case of President’s rule. Select the correct answer using the codes below. a) 1 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 2 only 76. Which of these are the members of the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA)? 1. Minister of Home Affairs 2. Minister of External Affairs 3. Minister of Corporate Affairs 4. Minister of Defence Select the correct answer using the codes below. a) 1, 2 and 3 only b) 1 and 3 only c) 2 and 4 only d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 77. A Speaker Pro Tem is a) Elected by the Lok Sabha from amongst the members of the house. b) Appointed by the President c) Nominated by the former Speaker d) None of the above is correct. 78. Which one of the following Constitutional Amendments has enormously strengthened the powers of the Speaker/Chairman of the Houses of the Parliament/State Legislatures? a) 61st Amendment which reduced the voting age from 21 to 18 years b) Anti-defection provisions of 52nd Amendment c) Repealing of many of the provisions of 42nd Amendment by 44th Amendment d) 73rd Amendment that conferred

extensive powers on Panchayat Bodies 79. Joint sitting is called by the President in which of the following situations? 1. If a bill passed on one house is rejected by the other House 2. If more than six months have elapsed from the date of the receipt of the bill by the other House Which of the above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) None 80. Consider the following with reference to Parliamentary control over the Budget. 1. Departmental Standing committees have the responsibility to draft and create the annual budget. 2. Estimates Committee can impose cuts on the budget if the government cannot justify expenditure on a particular head. 3. No money from the Consolidated Fund of India can be withdrawn without the consent of the Parliament. Select the correct answer using the codes below. a) 3 only b) 1 and 2 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 2 only 81. How is the seniority of judges in the Supreme Court, conventionally, decided? a) Based on date of induction in the Supreme Court b) Based on age c) Based on length of career span d) Based on professional qualifications

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82. Which of these constitutional bodies are functionally autonomous from the government? 1. Election Commission of India 2. Comptroller and Auditor-General of India 3. State Public Service Commissions Select the correct answer using the codes below. a) 1 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3 83. What was unusual about the economic growth trajectory of India, especially post-1991? a) Sudden spurt in the growth rate of construction sector b) Services sector grew faster than other sector and occupies a share much larger than manufacturing c) Agricultural sector did not shrink with time d) Mining sector showed negative growth rate consistently for a decade 84. The term “Second generation Reforms” is often heard in India in the context of a) Economic Restructuring b) Defence reorganization c) Border demarcation d) Decriminalization of politics 85. Which of the following ideas do NOT coincide with the greater ideology of liberalism? a) Principle of Competition b) Equality of Opportunity

c) Rule of Law d) Command Economy

86. If ‘Nation A’ grants ‘Nation B’ the status of “Most favoured Nation (MFN)”, then 1. Both nations will be bound to allow free movement of labour and capital between them. 2. Nation A will be bound to reduce all tariffs to zero on goods imported from Nation B. Which of the above is/are correct?

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a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) None 87. In WTO terminology, subsidies in general are identified by “boxes” which are given the colours of traffic lights. Consider the following about it. 1. Most domestic support measures considered to distort production and trade fall into the amber box. 2. Green box subsidies are allowed even if they distort trade. 3. At present there are no limits on spending on blue box subsidies. Select the correct answer using the codes below. a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3 88. Who represents India as the ‘Alternate Governor’ in the Board of Governors of the International Monetary Fund (IMF)? a) Chairman, Financial Stability Board (FSB) b) Union Finance Secretary c) Union Finance Minister d) RBI Governor 89. How does the Generalized System of Preferences (GSP) of the USA, recently seen in news, concern India? a) Acquisition of defense technologies from the USA b) Duty-free entry of Indian goods in USA c) Joint military operations d) Foreign investment in the educational

sector of India 90. India is a net exporter of 1. Crude Oil 2. Electricity 3. Coking coal Select the correct answer using the codes below. a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 2 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3 91. Which of these are NOT Fold Mountains? 1. Aravali Mountains 2. Himalayas 3. Satpura Range 4. Vindhyan Mountains Select the correct answer using the codes below. a) 3 and 4 only b) 1 and 2 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 3 and 4 only 92. What is often referred to as the ‘Third Pole’? a) The Hindu Kush-Himalayan region b) Polynesia c) Alps mountain ranges d) Southern hill ranges, India 93. Which of these is the southernmost tributary of the Indus river meeting it in Pakistan? a) Ravi b) Beas c) Chenab d) Satluj

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94. Consider the following statements. 1. Godavari river rises from the slopes of Western Ghats. 2. The drainage basin of Mahanadi is shared by Maharashtra, Telangana, Odisha and Madhya Pradesh. 3. Tungabhadra, Koyana and Musi are the tributaries of Krishna river. Select the correct answer using the codes below. a) 1 and 3 only b) 1 only c) 2 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3 95. Among the following West Flowing small rivers, which has the largest catchment area? a) Kalinadi b) Mahi c) Dhandhar d) Sabarmati 96. Which of the following rivers passes through the most number of states in India? a) Brahmaputra b) Ganges c) Mahanadi d) Cauvery 97. The Narmada River flows to the west, while most other large peninsular rivers flow to the east. Why? 1. It occupies a linear rift valley. 2. It flows between the Vindhyas and the Satpuras. 3. The land slopes to the west from Central India. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

a) 1 only b) 1 and 3 c) 2 and 3 d) None 98. Whose pen-name is Shilabhadra? a. Surendra Nath Medhi b. Kishori Mohan Pathak c. Rebati Mohan Dutta Choudhury d. Birinchi Kr. Baruah 99. Of the cyclones hitting the coastal regions of the country, on average four out of five hit the eastern shores of peninsular India. Why is the eastern coast and Bay of Bengal more prone to tropical cyclones than the Western Coast and Arabian Sea? a) Breakaway typhoons over the Northwest Pacific move across the South China Sea into the Bay of Bengal intensifying the cyclones. b) Arabian Sea is colder than the Bay of Bengal c) Both (a) and (b) d) None of the above 100. India’s only live volcano can be found in a) Lakshadweep b) Sundarbans c) Andaman and Nicobar Islands d) Gulf of Kutch

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