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Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2014
Path to Success
CAREER INSTITUTEKOTA (RAJASTHAN)
T M
FORM NUMBER
CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME(ACADEMIC SESSION 2013-2014)
PAPER CODE
Hindi
AIPMT (11TH Syllabus)
0 1 C M 2 1 3 0 7 7
Corporate Office
CAREER INSTITUTE
“SANKALP”, CP-6, Indra Vihar, Kota (Rajasthan)-324005Trin : +91 - 744 - 2436001 Fax : +91-744-2435003
E-Mail: [email protected] Website: www.allen.ac.in
Kota | Chandigarh | Ahmedabad
DATE : 19 - 01 - 2014
MAJOR TEST # 02
ENTHUSIAST COURSETARGET : PRE-MEDICAL 2014
INSTRUCTIONS ()
1. A seat marked with Reg. No. will be allotted to each student. The student should ensure that he/she occupies the correct seat only.If any student is found to have occupied the seat of another student, both the students shall be removed from the examination andshall have to accept any other penalty imposed upon them.
2. Duration of Test is 3 Hours and Questions Paper Contains 180 Questions. The Max. Marks are 720.
31807203. Student can not use log tables and calculators or any other material in the examination hall.
4. Student must abide by the instructions issued during the examination, by the invigilators or the centre incharge.
5. Before attempting the question paper ensure that it contains all the pages and that no question is missing.
6. Each correct answer carries 4 marks, while 1 mark will be deducted for every wrong answer. Guessing of answer is harmful.
17. A candidate has to write his / her answers in the OMR sheet by darkening the appropriate bubble with the help of Blue / Black Ball
Point Pen only as the correct answer(s) of the question attempted.
OMR
8. Use of Pencil is strictly prohibited.
Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so /
Note : In case of any Correction in the test paper, please mail to [email protected] within 2 days along with Your FormNo. & Complete Test Details.
Correction Form No. Test Details [email protected] mail
19–01–2014PRE-MEDICAL : ENTHUSIAST COURSE
H - 1/32Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 201401CM213077
MAJOR TEST
BEWARE OF NEGATIVE MARKING
HAVE CONTROL HAVE PATIENCE HAVE CONFIDENCE 100% SUCCESS
1. ˆ ˆ ˆA 3i 2 j k
. If A B
is a unit vector along
X-axis, then B
is :-
(1) i (2) ˆ ˆ ˆ2i 2 j k
(3) ˆ ˆ ˆ2i 2 j k (4) ˆ ˆ ˆ3i j k
2. A cup of tea cools from 80°C to 60°C in 40 sec.
The ambient temperature is 30°C. In cooling from
60°C to 50°C. It will takes :-
(Use Newton's law of cooling)
(1) 35 sec (2) 30 sec
(3) 32 sec (4) 48 sec
3. A golf ball of mass 0.05 kg placed on a tee, is struck
by a golf stick. The speed of the golf ball as it leaves
the tee is 100 m/s, the time of contact between them
is 0.02 s. If the force decreases to zero linearly with
time, then the force at the beginning of the contact
is :-
(1) 500 N (2) 250 N
(3) 200 N (4) 100 N
4. A metal ball falls from a height of 32 m on a steel
plate. If the coefficient of restitution is 0.5, to what
height will the ball rise after second bounce ?
(1) 2m (2) 4m
(3) 8m (4) 16m
5. A solid sphere falls with a terminal velocity of
20 m/s in air. If it is allowed to fall in vacuum :-
(1) terminal velocity will be 20 m/s
(2) terminal velocity will be less than 20 m/s
(3) terminal velocity will be greater than 20 m/s
(4) no terminal velocity will be attained
6. Which of the following have same dimensions :-
(i) Work (ii) Energy
(iii) Power (iv) Torque
(1) Only (i) and (ii)
(2) (i), (ii) & (iii)
(3) (i), (ii) & (iv)
(4) (ii), (iii) & (iv)
1. ˆ ˆ ˆA 3i 2 j k
. A B
, X-
B
(1) i (2) ˆ ˆ ˆ2i 2 j k
(3) ˆ ˆ ˆ2i 2 j k (4) ˆ ˆ ˆ3i j k
2. 80°C 60°C 40 sec 30°C 60°C 50°C (1) 35 sec (2) 30 sec
(3) 32 sec (4) 48 sec
3. 0.05 kg 100 m/s 0.02 (1) 500 N (2) 250 N
(3) 200 N (4) 100 N
4. 32 m 0.5 ?(1) 2m (2) 4m
(3) 8m (4) 16m
5. (terminal
velocity) 20 m/s :-(1) 20 m/s (2) 20 m/s (3) 20 m/s (4)
6. (i) (ii)
(iii) (iv)
(1) (i) (ii)(2) (i), (ii) (iii)(3) (i), (ii) (iv)
(4) (ii), (iii) (iv)
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MAJOR TEST
7. The velocity (v) of a body moving along the
positive x-direction varies with displacement (x)
from the origin as v k x , where k is a constant.
Which of the graphs shown in figure correctly
represents the displacement-time (x-t) graphs of
the motion ?
(1)
x
tO
(2)
x
tO
(3)
x
tO
(4)
x
tO
8. The radius of gyration of a uniform disc about
a line perpendicular to its plane is equal to its
radius (r). Then the distance of that line from
centre of disc is :-
(1) r
2(2)
r
2(3)
r
3(4)
r
3
9. Six identical rods are joined end to end, to form
a hexagon mass of each rod is m and length
is . Then moment of inertia of system w.r.t. an
axis passing through centre and perpendicular to
plane is :-
(1) 6m2 (2) 5m2
(3) 10m2 (4) None
10. Which of the following expressions does not
represent SHM :-
(1) A cos t (2) A sin 2t
(3) A sin t + B cost (4) A sin2 t
11. A bread gives 5 kcals of heat to a person. How much
height he can jump against gravity by using this
energy if his efficiency is 30% and mass is 60 kg
(1) 15.5 m (2) 10.5 m
(3) 2.5 m (4) 5 m
12. A police van moving on a highway with a speed of
36 km h–1 fires a bullet at a thief's car speeding away
in the same direction with a speed of 108 km h–1.
If the muzzle speed of the bullet is 140 ms–1, with
what speed will the bullet hit the theif's car?
(1) 120 ms–1 (2) 130 ms–1
(3) 140 ms–1 (4) 150 ms–1
7. x-(v),
(x) v k x
k
(x-t)
(1)
x
tO
(2)
x
tO
(3)
x
tO
(4)
x
tO
8. (r)
:-
(1) r
2(2)
r
2(3)
r
3(4)
r
3
9. m
:-
(1) 6m2 (2) 5m2
(3) 10m2 (4)
10. :-(1) A cos t (2) A sin 2t
(3) A sin t + B cost (4) A sin2 t
11. 5 kcals
30% 60 kg
(1) 15.5 m (2) 10.5 m
(3) 2.5 m (4) 5 m
12. 36 km h–1 108 km h–1 140 ms–1 (1) 120 ms–1 (2) 130 ms–1
(3) 140 ms–1 (4) 150 ms–1
19–01–2014PRE-MEDICAL : ENTHUSIAST COURSE
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MAJOR TEST
13. A toy gun uses a spring of force constant k. When
charged before being triggered in the upward
direction, the spring is compressed by a
distance x. If mass of the shot is m, on being
triggered it will go upto a height of :-
(1)
2kx
mg(2)
2x
kmg(3)
2kx
2mg(4)
2 2k x
mg
14. The least coefficient of friction for an inclined
plane inclined at an angle of 30° with horizontal,
in order that a solid cylinder will roll down without
slipping is :-
(1) 1
3(2)
1
3(3)
1
3 3(4) 3
15. Two springs of constants k1 and k2 have equal
highest velocities, when executing SHM. Then,
the ratio of their amplitudes (given their masses
are equal) will be :-
(1) k1/k2 (2) (k1/k2)1/2
(3) k2/k1 (4) (k2/k1)1/2
16. One gm of ice at 0°C is added to 5 g of water
at 10°C. If the latent heat is 80 cal/g, final
temperature of the mixture is :-
(1) 5°C (2) 0°C
(3) –5°C (4) None of these
17. A mass 'm' rests on a horizontal surface. The
coefficient of friction between the mass and
surface is s. The mass is pulled by a force 'F' as
shown. Find limiting friction between the mass
and the surface :-
(1) s mg
(2) s[mg – ( 3 /2)F]
m
30°
F
(3) s[mg – F/2]
(4) s(mg + F/2)
18. If the system is in equilibrium in both the cases
then value of m is :-
16kg m
21
4kgm
21
(1) 4 kg (2) 8 kg
(3) 16 kg (4) 32 kg
13. k x m :-
(1)
2kx
mg(2)
2x
kmg(3)
2kx
2mg(4)
2 2k x
mg
14. 30°
:-
(1) 1
3(2)
1
3(3)
1
3 3(4) 3
15. k1 k2
():-
(1) k1/k2 (2) (k1/k2)1/2
(3) k2/k1 (4) (k2/k1)1/2
16. 0°C 1 5 10°C 80 cal/g
(1) 5°C (2) 0°C
(3) –5°C (4)
17. m
s
F
:-(1)
s mg
(2) s[mg – ( 3 /2)F] m
30°
F
(3) s[mg – F/2]
(4) s(mg + F/2)
18. m :-
16kg m
21
4kgm
21
(1) 4 kg (2) 8 kg
(3) 16 kg (4) 32 kg
Key Filling
19–01–2014TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL 2014
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MAJOR TEST
19. Two bodies of masses m and 4m are placed at a
distance r. The gravitational potential at a point
on the line joining them where the gravitational
field is zero, is :-
(1) –6Gm
r(2) –
9Gm
r(3) zero (4) –
4Gm
r
20. Two simple harmonic motions of angular
frequency 100 rad/s and 1000 rad/s have the same
displacement amplitude. The ratio of their
maximum acceleration is :-
(1) 1 : 103 (2) 1 : 104
(3) 1 : 10 (4) 1 : 102
21. In the following figure, a P–V curve is drawn for
a gas the work done in the process will be–
(1) 1 Joule (2) 2 Joule
(3) 4 Joule (4) –2 Joule
22. Mass of a particle is 0.50 kg. It is moving initially
with the speed of 80 m/s towards East. At t = 0,
when particle is at x = 0, a force of 20 N directed
towards west is being applied on it for 4 sec. Its
position after 5 sec is -
(1) 80 m (2) 0 (3) –40 m (4) –80 m
23. A particle of mass m moving towards east with
speed v collides with another particle of same
mass and moving towards the north with same
speed v. If the two particles stick to each other
the new particle of mass 2 m will have a speed
of :-
(1) v (2) v/2
(3) v / 2 (4) v 2
24. Suppose the gravitational force varies inversely
as the nth power of distance. Then the time period
of a planet in circular orbit of radius R around
the sun will be proportional to-
(1) n+1
2R
(2)
n -12R
(3) Rn (4) n-22R
19. m 4m r
(1) –6Gm
r(2) –
9Gm
r(3) (4) –
4Gm
r
20. 100 rad/s 1000 rad/s
:-
(1) 1 : 103 (2) 1 : 104
(3) 1 : 10 (4) 1 : 102
21. P–V
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 4 (4) –2
22. 0.50 kg 80 m/s t = 0 x = 0 20 N
4 sec 5 sec -(1) 80 m (2) 0 (3) –40 m (4) –80 m
23. v m
(v) 2 m
:-
(1) v (2) v/2
(3) v / 2 (4) v 2
24. n
R
-
(1) n+1
2R
(2)
n -12R
(3) Rn (4) n-22R
19–01–2014PRE-MEDICAL : ENTHUSIAST COURSE
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MAJOR TEST
25. A body oscillates with an amplitude of 10 cm on
a horizontal platform. The maximum angular
frequency with which the platform can vibrate
vertically such that the body of mass 10 kg will
not leave contact, is :-
(1) 1 rad/sec (2) 10 rad/sec
(3) 20 rad/sec (4) None of these
26. 140 calories of heat is required to raise the
temperature of 2 moles of a gas at constant pressure
from 0°C to 10°C. How much heat will be required
to heat it from 0°C to 10°C at constant volume :-
(1) 60 cal (2) 100 cal
(3) 140 cal (4) 180 cal
27. Two billiards ball P and Q, each of mass 20g and
moving in opposite directions with speed of
5m/s each, collide and rebound with the same
speed. If the collision lasts for 10–3 sec, which of
the following statement are true ?
(1) The impulse imparted to each ball is
0.8 N-s
(2) The impulse imparted to each ball is
0.4 N-s and the force exerted on each ball is
400 N
(3) The impulse imparted to each ball is
0.4 kg m/s and the force exerted on each ball
is 4 × 10–5 N
(4) The impulse and the force on each ball are
equal in magnitude and opposite in direction
28. A block of mass m moving at a velocity collides
with another block of mass 2m at rest. The lighter
block comes to rest after collision. Then the
coefficient of restitution is :-
(1) 1
2(2) 1
(3) 1
3(4)
1
4
29. The height at which the acceleration due to gravity
becomes g
9 (where g = the acceleration due to
gravity on the surface of the earth) in terms of R,
the radius of the earth, is :-
(1) R
2(2) 2R (3) 2R (4)
R
2
25. 10 cm
10 kg :-(1) 1 rad/sec (2) 10 rad/sec
(3) 20 rad/sec (4)
26. 2 0°C 10°C.
140 0°C 10°C :-
(1) 60 cal (2) 100 cal
(3) 140 cal (4) 180 cal
27. 20g P Q,
5 m/s
10–3 sec,
(1) 0.8 N-s
(2) 0.4 N-s
400 N
(3) 0.4 kg m/s
4 × 10–5 N
(4)
28. m 2m :-
(1) 1
2(2) 1
(3) 1
3(4)
1
4
29. R
g
9 (g = )
:-
(1) R
2(2) 2R (3) 2R (4)
R
2
19–01–2014TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL 2014
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MAJOR TEST
30. The equation for the displacement of a stretched
string is given by, y = 4 sin 2t x
0.02 100
.
Where, y and x are in cm and t in sec. The
(i) frequency (ii) velocity of the wave
(iii) maximum particle velocity are :-
(1) 50 Hz, 50 m/s, 20 m/s
(2) 50 Hz, 20 m/s, 50 m/s
(3) 50 Hz, 50 m/s, 2 m/s
(4) 50 Hz, 50 m/s, 4 m/s
31. If Em refers to the maximum intensity of
radiations and m is the wavelength corresponding
to the maximum intensity of radiations, the Wein's
displacement law tells that:-
(1) Increase in Em when temperature is increasing
(2) Decreasee in Em when temperature is
increasing
(3) Increase in m when temperature is increasing
(4) Decrease in m when temperature is increasing
32. For which of the following graphs, the average
velocity of a particle moving along a straight line
for time interval 0 to t must be negative :-
(1)
timet0
x
Position
(2)
timet0
v
Velocity
(3)
Velocity
0 t/3 t
time (4)
Position
0t
x
33. A car of mass 1000 kg accelerates uniformly from
rest to a velocity of 54 km/hr in 5 sec. The average
power of the engine during this period in watt
is :- (neglect friction)
(1) 2000 (2) 22500
(3) 5000 (4) 2250
30.
y = 4 sin 2t x
0.02 100
y x t (i)
(ii) (iii) :-(1) 50 Hz, 50 m/s, 20 m/s
(2) 50 Hz, 20 m/s, 50 m/s
(3) 50 Hz, 50 m/s, 2 m/s
(4) 50 Hz, 50 m/s, 4 m/s
31. Em m
:-
(1) Em
(2) Em
(3) m
(4) m
32.
0 t
(1)
timet0
x
Position
(2)
timet0
v
Velocity
(3)
Velocity
0 t/3 t
time (4)
Position
0t
x
33. 1000 5 54 :- ( )(1) 2000 (2) 22500
(3) 5000 (4) 2250
Use stop, look and go method in reading the question
19–01–2014PRE-MEDICAL : ENTHUSIAST COURSE
H - 7/32Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 201401CM213077
MAJOR TEST
34. A small ball of density is immersed in a liquid
of density (>) to a depth h and released. The
height above the surface of water up to which the
ball will jump is :-
(1) – 1 h
(2) –1 h
(3) 1 h
(4) 1 h
35. A transverse wave is described by the equation
y = y0sin 2x
ft
. The maximum particle
velocity is equal to four times the wave velocity if
(1) = 0y
4
(2) =
0y
2
(3) = y0 (4) = 2y0
36. The temperature of an ideal gas is –68°C. To what
temperature should it be heated so that the average
translational kinetic energy of the molecules be
doubled :-
(1) 547°C (2) 137°C
(3) –272°C (4) 820°C
37. Position vector of a particle is given as
2 2ˆ ˆr (t 4t 6)i (t ) j
. The time after which,
the velocity vector and acceleration vector
becomes perpendicular to each other is equal to :-
(1) 1 sec (2) 2 sec
(3) 1.5 sec (4) 10 sec
38. A particle moves on a rough horizontal ground
with initial velocity v0. If (3/4)th of its kinetic
energy is lost due to friction in time t0, then
coefficient of friction between the particle and the
ground is :-
(1) 0
0
v
2gt (2) 0
0
v
4gt (3) 0
3v
4gt (4) 0
0
v
gt
39. The density of water at the surface of ocean is .
If the bulk modulus of water is B, then the density
of ocean water at depth, when the pressure is p0
and p0 is the atmospheric pressure, is :-
(1) 0
pB
B – –1 p (2) 0
pB
B –1 p
(3) 0
pB
B – p (4) 0
pB
B p
34.
(>) h
:-
(1) – 1 h
(2) –1 h
(3) 1 h
(4) 1 h
35.
y = y0sin 2x
ft
:-
(1) = 0y
4
(2) =
0y
2
(3) = y0 (4) = 2y0
36. –68°C :-
(1) 547°C (2) 137°C
(3) –272°C (4) 820°C
37. 2 2ˆ ˆr (t 4t 6)i (t ) j
(1) 1 sec (2) 2 sec
(3) 1.5 sec (4) 10 sec
38. v0
t0 (3/4)th
:-
(1) 0
0
v
2gt (2) 0
0
v
4gt (3) 0
3v
4gt (4) 0
0
v
gt
39. B p0 (p0 )
(1) 0
pB
B – –1 p (2) 0
pB
B –1 p
(3) 0
pB
B – p (4) 0
pB
B p
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MAJOR TEST
40. It takes 2.0 seconds for a sound wave to travel
between two fixed points when the day
temperature is 10°C. If the temperature rises to
30°C the sound wave travels between the same
fixed points in :-
(1) 1.9 sec (2) 2.0 sec
(3) 2.1 sec (4) 2.2 sec
41. The degree of freedom f for a gas is given by :-
(1) V2C
R(2)
V
P V
2C
C C
(3) 2
1 (4) All the the above
42. Two bodies A and B of masses 15 kg and
10 kg in contact with each other rest on a table
against a rigid wall as shown in the figure.
Coefficient of friction between the bodies and the
table is 0.2. If a force 300 N is applied horizontally
to A, then force exerted by B on A is :-
15 kg 10 kg
A B
300 N
(1) Zero (2) 150 N
(3) 250 N (4) 300 N
43. Four rods AB, BC, CD and DA have mass m,
2m, 3m and 4m respectively. The centre of mass
of all the four rods :-
A B
CD
1 2
3 40
(1) Lie in region 1 (2) Lie in region 2
(3) Lie in region 3 (4) Lie at 0
44. Two wires of the same material and same mass
are stretched by the same force. Their lengths are
in the ratio 2 : 3. Their elongations are in the ratio:-
(1) 3 : 2 (2) 2 : 3 (3) 4 : 9 (4) 9 : 4
45. The frequency of a tuning fork is 256 Hz. The
velocity of sound in air is 344 ms–1. The distance
travelled (in meters) by the sound during the time
in which the tuning fork completes 32 vibrations
is :-
(1) 21 (2) 43 (3) 86 (4) 129
40. 10°C 2
30°C
:-
(1) 1.9 sec (2) 2.0 sec
(3) 2.1 sec (4) 2.2 sec
41. f :-
(1) V2C
R(2)
V
P V
2C
C C
(3) 2
1 (4)
42. 15 kg
10 kg A B 0.2. A 300 N B A
15 kg 10 kg
A B
300 N
(1) (2) 150 N
(3) 250 N (4) 300 N
43. m, 2m, 3m 4m AB, BC, CD
DA :-
A B
CD
1 2
3 40
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 0
44. 2 : 3 :-(1) 3 : 2 (2) 2 : 3 (3) 4 : 9 (4) 9 : 4
45. 256 Hz 344 ms–1 32 :-
(1) 21 (2) 43 (3) 86 (4) 129
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MAJOR TEST
46. What is the total number of electrons present
in 18 ml of water :-
(1) 10 (2) 10 × 6.023 × 1023
(3) 23
10
6.023 10 (4) 6.02 × 1023
47. H2O2 can oxidise :-
(1) Mn2+ in alkaline medium
(2) MnO4– in acidic medium
(3) F– in acidic medium
(4) All
48. Which of the following is correct :-
(1) If under some conditions, CCl4 & SiCl
4
hydrolyse then Kc for CCl4 hydrolysis will
be larger (Kc = equilibrium constant)
(2) If under some conditions, CCl4 & SiCl4
hydrolyse then Kc for SiCl4 hydrolysis will
be larger
(3) Kc for CCl
4 hydrolysis = K
c for SiCl
4
hydrolysis
(4) None
49. Consider the following two reactions :
(i) Propene + H2 Propane, H
1
(ii) Cyclopropane + H2 Propane, H
2
Then, H2
– H1 will be :
(1) 0 (2) 2BEC – C
– BEC = C
(3) BEC = C
(4) 2BEC = C
– BEC – C
50. O–C
O
2NO Product is :-
(1) O–C
O NO2
(2) O–C
O
NO2
(3) O–C
O
O N2
(4) O–C
ONO2
46. 18 ml :-
(1) 10 (2) 10 × 6.023 × 1023
(3) 23
10
6.023 10 (4) 6.02 × 1023
47. H2O2 :-(1) Mn2+ (2) MnO
4–
(3) F– (4)
48. :-(1) CCl4 SiCl4
CCl
4 Kc
(Kc = equilibrium constant)
(2) CCl4 SiCl
4 SiCl
4K
c
(Kc = equilibrium constant)
(3) CCl4 Kc = SiCl4
Kc
(4) 49.
(i) Propene + H2 Propane, H
1
(ii) Cyclopropane + H2 Propane, H
2
H2 – H
1
(1) 0 (2) 2BEC – C
– BEC = C
(3) BEC = C
(4) 2BEC = C
– BEC – C
50. O–C
O
2NO :-
(1) O–C
O NO2
(2) O–C
O
NO2
(3) O–C
O
O N2
(4) O–C
ONO2
Take it Easy and Make it Easy
19–01–2014TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL 2014
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MAJOR TEST
51. 6 × 1020 molecules of CO2
are removed from
220 milligram of CO2. What are the remaining
moles of CO2 :-
(1) 4 × 10-3moles (2) 5 × 10-3 moles
(3) 2 × 10-3 moles (4) 6 × 10-3 moles
52. No. of pair of F atoms which subtents 90° angle
on S in SF6 will be :-
(1) 6 (2) 8
(3) 12 (4) 16
53. Symmetrical H bonding will occur in :-
(1) HF------HF
(2)H H H
O--------H–O
H
+
(3) F --------H–F
(4) All
54. For the reaction PCl5(g) PCl
3(g) + Cl
2(g),
the forward reaction at constant temperature is
favoured by :-
(i) Introducing inert gas at constant volume
(ii) Introducing Cl2 gas at constant volume
(iii) Introducing an inert gas at constant pressure
(iv) Increasing the pressure of the container
(v) Introducing PCl5
(1) (iii), (iv) & (v) (2) (iii) & (v)
(3) (i), (ii) & (v) (4) Only (iii)
55. The correct increasing order of reactivity for
following molecules towards electrophilic
aromatic substitution.
OH
NO2
OH
OMe
OH OH
Cl
(I) (II) (III) (IV)
(1) I < IV < II < III
(2) I < IV < III < II
(3) I < III < II < IV
(4) I < III < IV < II
56. What is the empirical formula of the compound
containing H, C, O and N in the mass ratio of
1 : 3 : 4 : 7 respectively :-
(1) HC3O4N7 (2) H4CON2
(3) HC4O
2N
2(4) None
51. 220 CO2 6 × 1020
CO2 :-
(1) 4 × 10-3 (2) 5 × 10-3
(3) 2 × 10-3 (4) 6 × 10-3
52. F S 90° :-(1) 6 (2) 8
(3) 12 (4) 16
53. Symmetrical H bonding :-(1) HF------HF
(2)H H H
O--------H–O
H
+
(3) F --------H–F
(4) 54. PCl
5(g) PCl
3(g) + Cl
2(g)
:-
(i)
(ii) Cl2
(iii)
(iv)
(v) PCl5
(1) (iii), (iv) & (v) (2) (iii) & (v)
(3) (i), (ii) & (v) (4) Only (iii)
55.
OH
NO2
OH
OMe
OH OH
Cl
(I) (II) (III) (IV)
(1) I < IV < II < III
(2) I < IV < III < II
(3) I < III < II < IV
(4) I < III < IV < II
56. H, C, O N 1 : 3 : 4 : 7 :-(1) HC3
O4N
7(2) H
4CON
2
(3) HC4O2N2 (4)
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57. Which is correctly matched :-
Compound No. of No. of
pp dp
(1) SO3 3 0
(2) SO2 1 0
(3) XeO3
2 1
(4) POCl3 0 1
58. 200 mL gas A at 300 torr and 300 mL gas B
at 200 torr are taken in a container of 2L. Then
find out partial pressure of gas A in mixture.
(1) 20 torr (2) 30 torr
(3) 50 torr (4) 100 torr
59. If degree of ionisation of 0.001 M CH3COOH
is 2 × 10–2 %. Then find out the ionisation
constant of acetate ion :-
(1) 2 × 10–11 (2) 4 × 10–11
(3) 2.5 × 10–4 (4) 2.5 × 10–3
60. Which of the following compounds is most
basic ?
(1) –NH2 (2) –NH2O N–2
(3) –CH NH2 2
• •
(4) –N–COCH3
• •
H61. The energy of the electron in the first orbit of
He+ is –871.6 × 10–20 J. The energy of the
electron in the first orbit of hydrogen would be:-
(1) –871.6 × 10–20 J (2) –435.8 × 10–20 J
(3) –217.9 × 10–20 J (4) –108.9 × 10–20 J
62. Which correctly matched :-
Facts Reason
(1) Aq. solution of Ka of H3BO3 < 10–7
Borax is alkaline
(2) In recovery of NH3 4N H
generate NH3
from NH4Cl in solvay in acidic medium
process, acidic due to acid base
medium is required reaction
(3) SnCl4 can be reduced Due to inert pair
by Cr2(SO4)3 effect, SnCl2 is
more stable than
SnCl4
(4) AlCl3 can form non In dimer form of
planar dimer AlCl3, hybridisation
of Al = sp2
57. :-
Compound No. of No. of
pp dp
(1) SO3 3 0
(2) SO2 1 0
(3) XeO3
2 1
(4) POCl3 0 1
58. 2 L 300 torr 200 mL A 200 torr
300 mL B A (1) 20 torr (2) 30 torr
(3) 50 torr (4) 100 torr
59. 0.001 M CH3COOH
2 × 10–2 % :-(1) 2 × 10–11 (2) 4 × 10–11
(3) 2.5 × 10–4 (4) 2.5 × 10–3
60. ?
(1) –NH2 (2) –NH2O N–2
(3) –CH NH2 2
• •
(4) –N–COCH3
• •
H
61. He+ –871.6 × 10–20 J
:-
(1) –871.6 × 10–20 J (2) –435.8 × 10–20 J
(3) –217.9 × 10–20 J (4) –108.9 × 10–20 J
62. :-
(1) Borax H3BO
3Ka < 10–7
(2) solvay NH4Cl 4NH
NH3 NH3
(3) SnCl4 Cr2(SO4)3 SnCl2, SnCl4
(4) AlCl3 AlCl3 Al
= sp2
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63. Rate of diffusion of NH3 is double of X
2 gas.
Then find out molecular weight of X2 gas.
(1) 68 (2) 17
(3) 34 (4) 136
64. A buffer solution with pH = 9 is to be prepared
by mixing NH4Cl and NH
4OH. Calculate the
number of moles of NH4Cl that should be added
to one litre of 1.0 M NH4OH [K
b = 1.8 × 10–5]
(1) 3.4 (2) 2.6
(3) 1.5 (4) 1.8
65. Among the following four compounds :-
(a) phenol (b) methyl phenol
(c) metanitrophenol (d) paranitrophenol,
The acidity order is :
(1) c > d > a > b (2) c > d > c > b
(3) b > a > c > d (4) d > c > a > b
66. The first emission line in the atomic spectrum
of hydrogen in the Balmer series appears at :-
(1) 15R
cm36
(2)
13Rcm
4
(3) 17R
cm144
(4)
19Rcm
400
67. Which is correct order :-
(1) Cl2 < F2 < Br2 < I2 (Bond length)
(2) F2 > Cl2 > I2 > Br2 (Oxidising power)
(3) F > Cl > Br > I (Electron affinity)
(4) HF < HCl < HBr < HI (acidic order)
68. A compound of Xe and F is found to have
53.5% Xe. What is the oxidation number of Xe
in this compound ? [Atomic weight of
Xe = 132]
(1) –4 (2) 0 (3) +4 (4) +6
69. Which of the following are tertiary radicals :–
(a)
CH3
CH3
CCH3 (b) CH3 CH
CH3
(c)
CH3
CCH3 C H2 5(d)
CH3
CCH3 CH2
CH3
(1) a and b (2) b and c
(3) a and c (4) b and d
63. NH3 X
2
X2
(1) 68 (2) 17
(3) 34 (4) 136
64. pH = 9 NH4Cl NH
4OH
1.0 M NH4OH
NH4Cl
[Kb = 1.8 × 10–5]
(1) 3.4 (2) 2.6
(3) 1.5 (4) 1.8
65. :-(a) (b) (c) (d) ,
:(1) c > d > a > b (2) a > d > c > b
(3) b > a > c > d (4) d > c > a > b
66. :-
(1) 15R
cm36
(2)
13Rcm
4
(3) 17R
cm144
(4)
19Rcm
400
67. :-(1) Cl2 < F2 < Br2 < I2 ()(2) F2 > Cl2 > I2 > Br2 ()(3) F > Cl > Br > I ()(4) HF < HCl < HBr < HI ()
68. Xe F 53.5% Xe Xe
[X
e = 132]
(1) –4 (2) 0
(3) +4 (4) +6
69. (3°)
(a)
CH3
CH3
CCH3 (b) CH3 CH
CH3
(c)
CH3
CCH3 C H2 5(d)
CH3
CCH3 CH2
CH3
(1) a b (2) b c(3) a c (4) b d
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70. Hydration of C CH
in presence of
H2SO
4 / HgSO
4 gives
(1) COCH3
(2) CH CH OH2 2
(3) CH CH2 3
(4) CH CHO2
71. Out of first four ordits of H-atom. The radius
ratio of two orbits is 1: 4. The difference of
energy of these orbits will be :-
(1) 12.09 eV or 3.4 eV
(2) 13.6 eV or 3.4 eV
(3) 2.55 eV or 10.2 eV
(4) 3.4 eV or 0.85 eV
72. Which statement is correct :-
(1) Na + Liq NH3 can act as reducing agent
(2) KO2 can oxidise CO2 into O2
(3) Both Li3N & Mg3N2 can exist
(4) All
73. Which of the following oxides cannot work as
a reducing agent?
(1) CO2
(2) NO2
(3) SO2
(4) ClO2
74. The IUPAC name for
H
C=O
OH
is :-
(1) 2–Hydroxy cyclopentanal
(2) 2–Formyl–1–hydroxy cyclopentane
(3) 2–Hydroxy cyclopentane carbaldehyde
(4) Cyclopentane–2–ol–1–al
75. The major product obtained on treatment of
CH3CH
2CH(F)CH
3 with CH
3O–/CH
3OH is
(1) CH3CH
2CH(OCH
3)CH
3
(2) CH3CH CHCH
3
(3) CH3CH
2CH CH
2
(4) CH3CH
2CH
2CH
2OCH
3
76. The no. of C-C links in fullerine is x. Then total
C in fullerine is :-
(1) 2x
3(2)
5x
6
(3) 6
x5
(4) x
3
70.C CH
H2SO
4 / HgSO
4
(1) COCH3
(2) CH CH OH2 2
(3) CH CH2 3
(4) CH CHO2
71. H-1 : 4 :-
(1) 12.09 eV 3.4 eV
(2) 13.6 eV 3.4 eV
(3) 2.55 eV 10.2 eV
(4) 3.4 eV 0.85 eV
72. :-(1) Na + Liq NH3
(2) KO
2, CO
2, O2
(3) Li3N Mg
3N
2
(4) 73.
(1) CO
2(2) NO
2(3) SO
2(4) ClO
2
74.
H
C=O
OH
IUPAC
(1) 2–(2) 2––1–(3) 2–(4) –2––1–
75. CH3CH
2CH(F)CH
3 CH
3O–/CH
3OH
(1) CH
3CH
2CH(OCH
3)CH
3
(2) CH3CH CHCH
3
(3) CH3CH
2CH CH
2
(4) CH3CH
2CH
2CH
2OCH
3
76. fullerine C-C links x fullerine
C :-
(1) 2x
3(2)
5x
6
(3) 6
x5
(4) x
3
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77. Which of the following compounds can not exist?
(a) K2[CuI4] (b) TlI3 (c) PbI2 (d) SCl6
Correct code is :-
(1) c, d (2) a, b (3) a, d (4) a, c, d
78. For the process H2O() (1 bar, 373 K) H
2O(g)
(1 bar, 373 K), the correct set of
thermodynamic parameters is :
(1) G = 0, S = +ve (2) G = 0, S = –ve
(3) G = +ve, S = 0 (4) G = –ve, S = +ve
79. The IUPAC name of the given compound is :-
Br Cl CHO
(1) (2R, 4Z)-4-bromo-2-chloro-2-methyl-4-hexenal
(2) (2R, 4E)-4-bromo-2-chloro-2-methyl-4-hexenal
(3) (2Z, 5R)-3-bromo-5-chloro-5-formyl-2-hexene
(4) (2S, 4E)-4-bromo-2-chloro-2-methyl-4-hexenal
80. If water pollution continues at its present rate,
it will eventually :-
(1) Stop water cycle
(2) Prevent precipitation
(3) Make oxygen molecules unavailable to
water plants
(4) Make nitrate molecules unavailable to water
plants
81. Which statement is correct :-
(1) IP of Cl > EA of Cl [IP = Ionisation potential
EA = electron affinitiy]
(2) Conduction of H+ < Conduction of Li+
(3) IP of F– > IP of Cl–
(4) All
82. H2 can't be prepared using :-
(1)electrolysis
Ba(OH) solution+
Ni electrode
2
–
H O2
(2) Zn 2 4dil.H SO
(3) Zn 3Conc.HNO
(4) NaCl aq. solution electrolysis
Hg Cathode
83. The species which by definition has zero standard
molar enthalpy of formation at 298 K is
(1) Br2(g) (2) Cl
2(g)
(3) H2O (g) (4) CH
4 (g)
84. The minimum number of carbon atoms in
ketone to show metamerism :–
(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 5 (4) 6
77. ?(a) K2[CuI4] (b) TlI3 (c) PbI2 (d) SCl6
:-(1) c, d (2) a, b (3) a, d (4) a, c, d
78. H
2O() (1 bar, 373 K) H
2O(g) (1 bar, 373 K),
(1) G = 0, S = +ve (2) G = 0, S = –ve
(3) G = +ve, S = 0 (4) G = –ve, S = +ve
79. IUPAC :-
Br Cl CHO
(1) (2R, 4Z)-4--2--2--4-(2) (2R, 4E)-4--2--2--4-(3) (2Z, 5R)-3--5--5--2-(4) (2S, 4E)-4--2--2--4-
80. :-
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
81. :-(1) IP of Cl > EA of Cl [IP =
EA = ](2) H+ < Li+ (3) IP of F– > IP of Cl–
(4) 82. H
2 :-
(1)
Ba(OH) solution+
Ni electrode
2
–
H O2
(2) Zn 2 4dil.H SO
(3) Zn 3Conc.HNO
(4) NaCl aq. solution electrolysis
Hg Cathode
83. (1) Br
2(g) (2) Cl
2(g)
(3) H2O (g) (4) CH
4 (g)
84. :–(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 5 (4) 6
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85. An increase in CO2 concentration in the
atmosphere will result in :-
(1) Adverse effect of natural vegetation
(2) Global warming
(3) Temperature decrease in global atmosphere
(4) Genetic disorders in plants and animals
86. If A is tetravalent atom & form AB4, then
compound will have zero dipole moment if :-
1 2
4
5
6 7
8
3
Body centre
Cube
A
(a) All B are placed at 1, 2, 3, 4
(b) B are placed at 2, 4, 6, 8
(c) B are placed at 1, 3, 6, 8
(d) B are placed at 1, 3, 7, 5
Correct Code is :-
(1) a, b, c, d (2) b, c, d
(3) b, d (4) a, c
87. Which of the following can perform redox
reaction with water :-
(1) Li Metal (2) Na metal
(3) F2(4) All
88. Standard enthalpies of formation of O3,
CO2, NH
3 and Hl are 142.2, –393.2, –46.2 and
25.9 kJ mol–1 respectively. The order of their
increasing stabilities will be :
(1) O3, CO
2, NH
3, HI (2) CO
2, NH
3, HI, O
3
(3) O3, HI, NH
3, CO
2(4) NH
3, HI, CO
2, O
3
89. Which of the following is optically active :-
(1)
OH
OH
(2)
OH
CH3
(3)
OH
(4)
CH3
90. Acid rain occure due to atmospheric pollution
of
(1) SO2
(2) NH3
(3) CO2
(4) N2O
85. CO2
:-(1) (2) (3) (4)
86. 'A' AB4 , zero
dipole moment :-
1 2
4
5
6 7
8
3
Body centre
Cube
A
(a) All B are placed at 1, 2, 3, 4
(b) B are placed at 2, 4, 6, 8
(c) B are placed at 1, 3, 6, 8
(d) B are placed at 1, 3, 7, 5
:-(1) a, b, c, d (2) b, c, d
(3) b, d (4) a, c
87. Redox :-(1) Li Metal (2) Na metal
(3) F2(4)
88. O3, CO
2, NH
3 Hl
142.2, –393.2, –46.2 25.9 kJ mol–1
(1) O3, CO
2, NH
3, HI (2) CO
2, NH
3, HI, O
3
(3) O3, HI, NH
3, CO
2(4) NH
3, HI, CO
2, O
3
89. :-
(1)
OH
OH
(2)
OH
CH3
(3)
OH
(4)
CH3
90. (1) SO
2(2) NH
3(3) CO
2(4) N
2O
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91. Read the following statements :-
(A) They are immotile, they float on the surface
of water, with the help of low molecular
weight stored fats.
(B) They enter in to host cells and capture its
all metabolic activities.
(A) and (B) statement are related with which
option respectively ?
(1) Dinoflagellates, Virus
(2) Diatoms, Bacteria
(3) Virus, Diatoms
(4) Diatoms, Virus
92. Sexual reproduction oogamous type and
accompaned by complex post fertilization
development can be observed in-
(1) Chorophyceae
(2) Phaeophyceae
(3) Xanthophyceae
(4) Rhodophyceae
93. The digestive tract of Doliolum & Salpa can be
represented as :-
(1) Incomplete type
(2) Tube within a tube
(3) Blind sac
(4) Pseudocoel type
94. Identify true statements :
(A) Cnidarians have blind-sac body plan
(B) Digestion in Ctenophora is both intra as well
as extracellular
(C) Agnathans are endoparasite in fishes.
(D) Ichthyophis belongs to tetrapoda group
(1) A, C and D (2) A, B and D
(3) B and D (4) A and D
95. Which of the following family belongs to subclass
gamopetalae ?
(1) Brassicaceae (2) Malvaceae
(3) Solanaceae (4) Leguminosae
91.
(A)
(B)
(A) (B)
(1) ,
(2) ,
(3) ,
(4) ,
92.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
93. :-
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
94.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(1) A, C D (2) A, B D
(3) B D (4) A D
95. ?
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
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96. The four sketches (A, B, C and D ) given below,
represent four different types of cells. Which one
of these is correctly identified in the option given,
along with its correct shape and character :-
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
Cell Shape Character
1. (C) Nerve cellBranchedand long
Chloroplastpresent
2. (A) Red blood cellRound andBiconcave
Cell membraneabsent
3. (D) Sieve tube cell ElongatedChromoplastpresent
4. (B)White bloodcells
AmoeboidRibosomepresent
97. The both strands of DNA run in opposite
direction, and they are called :-
(1) Parallel (2) Semi conservative
(3) Conservative (4) Anti parallel
98. In biological nitrogen fixation, the ammonia
synthesis by nitrogenase enzyme requires a very
high input of energy and that is :-
(1) 16 ATP for each NH3 produced
(2) 32 ATP for each NH3 produced
(3) 8 ATP for each NH3 produced
(4) 4 ATP for each NH3 produced
99. Which of the following are correctly matched ?
(A) Ethylene – Thinning of cotton, cherry and
walnut
(B) ABA – Antagonist to Gibberellic acids
(C) Cytokinin – Speed up the malting process in
brewing industry
(D) Auxins – Prevent fruit and leaf drop at early
stages
Choose the correct option :
(1) (A), (B) and (D) (2) (A) and (B)
(3) (B), (C) and (D) (4) (C) and (D)
96. (A, B, C D ) :-
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
1. (C)
2. (A)
3. (D)
4. (B)
97. DNA :-(1) (2) (3) (4)
98. :-(1) NH
3 16 ATP
(2) NH3 32 ATP
(3) NH3 8 ATP
(4) NH3 4 ATP
99. ?
(A) – (B) – (C) –
(D)–
:
(1) (A), (B) (D) (2) (A) (B)
(3) (B), (C) (D) (4) (C) (D)
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100. In human being, the second cervical vertebral
helps in rotatory movements of head through
knob-like process called :-
(1) Metapophysis
(2) Prezygapophysis
(3) Postzygapophysis
(4) Odontoid process
101. Agar-Agar, which is used in culture media due
to its high capacity of water imbibition is obtained
from :-
(1) Laminaria (2) Porphyra
(3) Chondrus (4) Gelidium
102. In which of the following group there is no
independent free living existance of gametophyte?
(1) Thallophyta (2) Pteridophyta
(3) Bryophyta (4) Gymnosperm
103. Given diagram below is the body organisation of
animal, select the correct animal
(1) Lancelet (2) Neophron
(3) Taenia (4) Physalia
104. In dicot root cork cambium develops in
the
(1) Pith region (2) Cortical region
(3) Epidermal region (4) Stelar region
105. Carpophore is found in :-
(1) Castor (2) Coriander
(3) Gram (4) Pea
106. Read the following statements :-
(i) Presence of DNA
(ii) Presence of cristae
(iii) Ribosome
(iv) Enzyme for carbohydrate synthesis
(v) Site for oxidative phosphorylation
How many of the above statements are similar in
mitochondria and chloroplast ?
(1) Two (2) Five (3) Four (4) Three
100. ?(1) (2) (3) (4)
101. ?
(1) (2) (3) (4)
102. (1) (2) (3) (4)
103. :-
(1) (2) (3) (4)
104. () (1) () (2) (3) (4)
105. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)
106. :-(i) DNA(ii) (iii) (iv) (v) (1) (2) (3) (4)
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107. In the structure of DNA molecule at each step of
ascent, the strand turns :-
(1) 36º (2) 20º (3) 40º (4) 75º
108. In flowering plants, photosynthesis is essentially a light
dependent reaction in which hydrogen from a suitable
oxidisable compound reduces carbon dioxide to
carbohydrates, this oxidisable compound is -
(1) H2O (2) H
2S
(3) H2O or H2S (4) C6H12O6
109. What is the characteristic of metanephric kidney :-
(1) Hypotonic urine production
(2) Excess secretion of uric acid
(3) Loop of Henle
(4) Hormone production
110. Which statement is wrong ?
(1)Postzygapophysis is present in ATLAS
(2)Coronoid fossa is found in humerus
(3)Centrum is absent in ATLAS
(4)Prezygapophysis is absent in 2nd cervical
vertebrae
111. Which structure is formed in the life cycle of moss
between spore and main plant ?
(1) Prothallus (2) Spore mother cell
(3) Protonema (4) Embryo
112. Choose the incorrect statement about
Phycomycetes-
(1) Some members are found in aquatic habitats.
(2) Spores are endogenously produced in
sporangium.
(3) A zygospores is formed by reduction
division.
(4) They show all type of syngamy.
113. During the embryonic development, coelom is
formed by splitting of mesodermal plate. This type
of coelom is found in
(1) Pila (2) Antedon
(3) Hookworm (4) All of the above
114. The cells of phelloderm (secondary cortex) are
(1) Collenchymatous
(2) Sclerenchymatous
(3) Parenchymatous
(4) Meristematic
107. DNA :-(1) 36º (2) 20º (3) 40º (4) 75º
108. -
(1) H2O (2) H
2S
(3) H2O H2
S (4) C6H
12O
6
109. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)
110. ?(1) (2) (3) (4)
111.
?
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
112.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
113. :-
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
114. ()
(1) ()
(2) ()
(3) ()
(4)
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115. Which set's member have same edible part ?
(1) Pear & Apple (2) Grape & Coconut
(3) Litchi & Apple (4) Coconut & Apple
116. Which events is not related with meiosis I :-
(1)Segregation of homologous chromosomes
(2)Crossing over between non sister chromatids
(3)Seperation of sister chromatids
(4) Condensation of chromatin
117. In full turn of B-DNA , How many steps are
present -
(1) 10 (2) 20 (3) 30 (4) 5
118. Radioisotopic technique was used to establish
some facts regarding :
(1) light reaction of photosynthesis
(2) biosynthetic phase of photosynthesis
(3) both (1) and (2)
(4) neither light reaction nor biosynthetic phase
of photosynthesis
119. Which one of following correctly explains the
function of a specific part of a human nephorn :-
(1) Afferent arteriole : Carries the blood away
from the glomerulus toward renal vein
(2) Podocytes : Create minute spaces (slit pores)
for the filtration blood into the Bowman's
capsule
(3) Henle's loop : Most reabsorption of the major
substance from the glomerular filtrate
(4) Distal convoluted tubule : Reabsorption of K+
ions into the surrounding blood capillaries
120. Consider the following statements and select the
option which includes all the correct ones:-
(a) Partial pressures of O2 and CO
2 in Alveolar
air are 104 mmHg and 40 mm Hg
(b) Partial pressures of O2 and CO
2 in
deoxygenated blood are 40 mmHg and 45 mmHg respectively
(c) Partial pressures of O2 and CO
2 in
deoxygenated blood are 95 mmHg and40 mm Hg
(d) Partial pressures of O2 and CO
2 in Atmospheric
air are 40 mmHg and 46 mm Hg
Options :
(1) Statements a,b and c are correct
(2) Statements a,b,c and d are correct
(3) Statements a, b are correct
(4) Staements c and d are correct
115. ?(1) (2)
(3) (4) 116. -I :-
(1) (2) (3) (4)
117. B-DNA -(1) 10 (2) 20 (3) 30 (4) 5
118. :
(1) (2) (3) (1) (2) (4)
119. :-(1) :
(2) : ()
(3) :
(4) : K+
120. :-
(a) O2 CO
2
104 mmHg 40 mm Hg
(b) O2 CO
2
40 mmHg 45 mmHg
(c) O2 CO
2
95 mmHg 40 mm Hg
(d) O2 CO
2
40 mm Hg 46 mmHg
:
(1) a,b c
(2) a,b,c d
(3) a b
(4) c d
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121. Choose the correct match :-
(1) Gonyaulax - Water bloom
(2) Algin - obtained by red algae
(3) Carrageen - obtained by green algae
(4) Dinoflagellates - Chief producers in oceans
122. Mad cow disease (Bovine spongiform
encephalopathy), potato spindle tuber disease,
Aster yellow disease of sun flower and tungro
disease of rice are respectively, caused by :-
(1) Prions, Virus, Mycoplasma, Viroids
(2) Viroids, Prions, Mycoplasma, Virus
(3) Virus, Viroids, Mycoplasma, Prions
(4) Prions, Viroids, Mycoplasma, Virus
123. In the above given diagram match the coelomic
condition with respective animals :-
(A) (B)
(C)
(1) (A) Pteropus
(B) Planaria
(C) Hookworm
(2) (A) Liver Fluke
(B) Macaca
(C) Wuchereria
(3) (A) Ascaris
(B) Fasciola
(C) Corvus
(4) (A) Hyla
(B) Ancylostomata
(C) Taenia
124. Lenticels are formed by the activity of
(1) Vascular cambium
(2) Cork cambium
(3) Both vascular & cork cambium
(4) None of these
121. :-
(1) -
(2) -
(3) -
(4) -
122. (), , :-
(1) , , ,
(2) , ,
(3) , , ,
(4) , , , 123.
:-
(A) (B)
(C)
(1) (A) (B) (C)
(2) (A) (B) (C)
(3) (A) (B) (C)
(4) (A) (B) (C)
124. (1) () (2) () (3)
(4)
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125. Which pair is not incorrect ?
(1) Leaf tendril – Opuntia
(2) Leaf bladder – Nepenthes
(3) Leaf pitcher – Nepenthes
(4) Leaf spine – Sweet pea
126. During gamet formation, the enzyme recombinase
participates during :-
(1)Prophase II (2) Anaphase I
(3)Anaphase II (4) Prophase I
127. In full turn of B-DNA, How many N2-bases are
present -
(1) 10 (2) 20 (3) 30 (4) 5
128. Except for plants in shade or in dense forests, light
is rarely a limiting factor in nature. This statement
is supported by which of the following facts ?
(1) Light causes the excitation of chlorophyll
(2) Light causes the splitting of water
(3) Light saturation occurs at 10 percent of the full
sunlight
(4) Light causes the breakdown of chlorophyll at
low light intensity
129. Which one of the following pairs of the kind of
cells and their secretion of correctly matched
(1) Oxyntic cells - A secretion with pH
between 2.0 and 3.0
(2) Alpha cells of islets - Secretion that
of Langerhans decreases blood sugar
level
(3) Kupffer cells - A digestive enzyme
that hydrolyses
nucleic acids
(4) Sebaceous glands - A secretion that
evaporates for cooling
130. Read the following statements :-
(A) Relaxation of diaphragm and inter costal
muscles.
(B) Increase in the volume of thoracic chamber
(C) Lifts up the ribs and the sternum
(D) Intra pulmonary pressure is higher than
atmospheric pressure.
(E) Increase the pulmonary volume.
How many statements are correct about
expiration :-
(1) Two (2) Three
(3) Four (4) One
125. ?
(1) –
(2) –
(3) –
(4) – 126.
:-(1) II (2) I(3) II (4) I
127. B-DNAN2
-(1) 10 (2) 20 (3) 30 (4) 5
128. ?
(1) (2) (3) 10
(4)
129.
(1) - 2.0 3.0 pH
(2) -
(3) -
(4) -
130.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(E) (Expiration) (1) (2) (3) (4)
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131. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)
132.
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
133. :-(1) (2) (3)
(4) 134. ()
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
135.
(A) ()
(B) (prostomium)
(C)
(D) 4th, 5th 6th
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
131. Which bacteria is responsible for wine turn sour :-
(1) Clostridium butylicum
(2) E.coli
(3) Bacillus thuringiensis
(4) Acetobacter aceti
132. Cross section of animal body is given below.
Which one of the following creature will satisfy
the above cross section :-
(1) Planaria (2) Pleurobrachia
(3) Ancylostoma (4) Nereis
133. Creatures with single opening serving both as
mouth and anus is found in :-
(1) Coelenterates & Aschelminthes
(2) Platyhelminthes & Ctenophora
(3) Coelenterate & Porifera
(4) All of the above
134. Vascular cambium of dicot root originates from
(1) Tissue located just below the phloem bundles
& a portion of pericycle tissue.
(2) Tissue located just below the xylem bundles
& a portion of pericycle tissue.
(3) Tissue located just below the xylem bundles
& a portion of endodermis tissue.
(4) Tissue located just below the phloem bundles
& a portion of endodermis tissue.
135. How many of the given statements are correct for
earth worm
(A) The dorsal surface of the body is marked by
a dark median mid dorsal line (dorsal blood
vessel)
(B) The first body segment is called prostomium
(C) Calciferous glands, present in the stomach
neutralise the humic acid present in humus
(D) Blood glands are present on the 4th, 5th and 6th
(1) Four (2) Three
(3) Two (4) One
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136. Which one of the following does not have nuclear
membrane :-
(1)Chlamydomonas (2) Azolla
(3)Rhizobium (4) Amoeba
137. Which of the following statements is not correct
regarding diffusion ?
(1) It is the only means for gaseous movement
within the plant body
(2) It is a slow process and is not dependent on
a living system
(3) In diffusion, molecules move in a random
fashion with the help of energy expenditure
(4) In diffusion, substances moving from regions
of higher concentration to regions of lower
concentration
138. If the energy released by respiratory substrate is
to be useful to the cell, it should be able to utilise
it to synthesise other molecules that the cell
requires. Which of the following strategies will
be helpful to achieve this goal ?
(1) Oxidise the respiratory substrate only in the
absence of O2
(2) Oxidise respiratory substrate not in one step
but in several small steps
(3) Utilise only glucose as a respiratory substrate
(4) Oxidise the respiratory substrate only in the
cytoplasm
139. Amount of saliva secreted daily in humans is :-
(1) 250 ml (2) 500 ml
(3) 100 ml (4) 1000 ml–1200 ml
140. Which of the following structure receives and
integrates visual, tactile and auditory inputs :-
(1) Cerebellum (2) Pons
(3) Mid brain (4) Medulla
141. Read the following statement carefully
(A) Gymnosperms are exclusively heterosporous.
(B) All Pteridophyte's sporophytes are may be
monoecious or dioecious.
(C) Double fert ilization is character of
spermatophytes.
(D) Spermatophytes are completely successful
land plant.
Which of the above statements are incorrect ?
(1) A, B, C (2) A, D
(3) B, C (4) B, C, D
136. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)
137.
?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
138. ?
(1) O2
(2)
(3) (4)
139. :-(1) 250 ml (2) 500 ml
(3) 100 ml (4) 1000 ml–1200 ml
140. :-
(1) (2) (3) (4)
141.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(1) A, B, C (2) A, D
(3) B, C (4) B, C, D
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142. :-
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
143. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)
144. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)
145. ______ ______ (1) 2–20, 4 (2) 9–10, 14–16
(3) 1–10, 2 (4) 14–16, 9–10
146. :-
(1)
(2) N-
(3) (4)
147. :
(1) (2) (3) (4)
148. CoA :-(1) NAD+
(2) NAD+
(3) NAD+
(4) NAD+
149.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
142. Animals possess various type of symmetry, select
the incorrectly matched :-
(1) Echinodermates possess radial symmetry
(2) Arthropods possess bilateral symmetry
(3) Sponges are mostly symmetrical
(4) All of these
143. Closed blood vascular system found in :-
(1) Bombyx (2) Sepia
(3) Balanoglossus (4) Ascidia
144. The cells of the tunica layer divide in :-
(1) Periclinal plane
(2) Anticlinal plane
(3) All planes
(4) None of the above
145. On an average, female cockroach produce ______
oothecae, each ootheca containing______eggs.
(1) 2–20, 4 (2) 9–10, 14–16
(3) 1–10, 2 (4) 14–16, 9–10
146. The monomer units of chitin or fungal cellulose
is
(1) Mannitol
(2) N-Acetyl glucosamine
(3) Ascorbic acid
(4) Glucuronic acid
147. The inner wall of each guard cell, towards the pore
or stomatal aperture, is :
(1) thick and nonelastic
(2) thick and elastic
(3) thin and elastic
(4) thin and nonelastic
148. In aerobic respiration when pyruvic acid is
converted into acetyl CoA :-
(1) both pyruvic acid and NAD+ get oxidised
(2) both pyruvic acid and NAD+ get reduced
(3) pyruvic acid get reduced and NAD+ get
oxidised
(4) pyruvic acid get oxidised and NAD+ get
reduced
149. Kupffer cells are same in function to
(1) Dust cells
(2) Deiter cells
(3) Quartz cells
(4) Hensen's cells
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150. Read the following statements :- (A-D)
(A) The medulla contains centres, which control
respiration, cardiovascular reflexes and gastric
secretions.
(B) The organ of corti is a structure which contains
hair cells that act as auditory receptors and is
located on the basilar membrane.
(C) Inner ear also contains a complex system
located above the cochlea called vestibular
apparatus.
(D) The cerebellum integrates information
received from the semicircular canals of the
ear and the auditory system.
How many of the above statements are true :-
(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 1 (4) 2
151. In the five kingdom classification, which kingdom
occupies intermediate position from phylogenetic
point of view ?
(1) Monera (2) Mycota
(3) Plantae (4) Protista
152. The phyla showing radial symmetry :-
(1) Echinodermata, Coelenterata and Ctenophora
(2) Porifera, Coelenterata an Echinodermata
(3) Protozoa and Coelenterata, Ctenophora
(4) Coelenterata, Ctenophora and Annelida
153. The members of phylum Aschelminthes are called
round worms, having numerous distinguishiable
character, but which of the following can not be
considered as their character?
(1) These are pseudocoelomate animals
(2) They are bilaterally symmetrical
(3) Organ system level of body organisation
(4) Round worms are monoecious.
154. The meristematic tissue present near the nodes
is
(1) Apical meristem
(2) Primary meristem
(3) Lateral meristem
(4) Secondary meristem
150. :- (A-D)
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
:-(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 1 (4) 2
151.
?
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
152. :-
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
153.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
154.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Time Management is Life Management
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155. A few statements are made about thecharacteristics of prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.Mark the correct statement :-
(1) All porokaryotes lack nuclear envelope but
nuclear envelope is present in mitochondria
of eukaryotes.
(2) All eukaryotes have a cell wall surrounding
the cell membrane but cell wall is absent in
mycoplasma.
(3) All eukaryotic cells are identical but all
prokaryotic cells are not identical.
(4) Most of eukaryotic chromosomes are
associated with histone protein but the
genome of chloroplast lack histones
156. Arachidonic acid is :-
(1) Non–essential fatty acid (NEFA)
(2) Polyunsaturated fatty acid (PUFA)
(3) Essential fatty acid
(4) (2) & (3) both
157. Which of the following is/are pre-requisite (s) for
imbibition ?
(a) Presence of mucilage in the adsorbent
(b) Affinity between the adsorbent and the liquid
(c) Water potential gradient between the
adsorbent and the liquid
(d) Presence of cuticle on the surface of the
adsorbent
Choose the correct option :
(1) (b) and (c) (2) only (b)
(3) (a), (b) and (c) (4) (a) and (d)
158. Which of the following ratio is correct regarding
dehydrogenation : decarboxylation : substrate
level phosphorylation in TCA cycle ?
(1) 1 : 1 : 2 (2) 3 : 2 : 1
(3) 4 : 3 : 1 (4) 4 : 2 : 1
159. The course of blood from heart to the lungs and
back to the heart is called :-
(1) Systemic circulation
(2) Pulmonary Circulation
(3) Blood circulation
(4) Single circuit circulation
160. Which of the following pair is not matched
correctly :-
(1) Sex pheromone – civetone
(2) Aggregation pheromone – muskone
(3) Alarm pheromone – formic acid
(4) First aid hormone – kinins
155. :-(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
156. :-
(1) (NEFA)
(2) (PUFA)
(3) (4) (2) (3)
157. ?
(a) (b) (c) (d)
:
(1) (b) (c) (2) (b)
(3) (a), (b) (c) (4) (a) (d)
158. : :
?
(1) 1 : 1 : 2 (2) 3 : 2 : 1
(3) 4 : 3 : 1 (4) 4 : 2 : 1
159. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)
160. :-
(1) –
(2) –
(3) –
(4) –
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161. Read the following statement
(A) Inclusion bodies which are found in
prokaryotic cells are not bounded by any
membrane system.
(B) Ribosomes are the site of protein synthesis.
(C) Pili are surface structure of the bacteria
which may be play role in motility.
(D) Cell membrane of prokaryotes is
structurally similar to the eukaryotes.
Choose the option of correct statements :-
(1) A, B, C and D (2) B, C and D
(3) A, B and D (4) A, C and D
162. Consider the following statements:
Aurelia typically has
A. A radially symmetrical body
B. A gastovascular body
C. Both a polyp and medusoid form.
(1) A, B and C are correct
(2) B and C are correct
(3) A and B are correct
(4) A and C are correct
163. Which of the following statements is wrong ?
(1) Intercellular material of cartilage is solid
(2) The bone cells are present in the lacunae
(3) Communication junctions are present in
cardiac muscles
(4) Bone has pliable ground substance
164. Pulvinate leaf base & root nodules are found in:-
(1) Solanaceae
(2) Liliaceae
(3) Fabaceae
(4) Brassicaceae
165. In a given diagram of cell membrane, which letterrepresents a molecule of integral protein,cholesterol, and sugar respectively :-
R QP
SP
(1)P,Q,R (2) R,P,S
(3)Q,R,P (4) S,P,R
161. (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(1) A, B, C D (2) B, C D(3) A, B D (4) A, C D
162.
A.
B.
C.
(1) A, B C
(2) B C
(3) A B(4) A C
163.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) 164. :-
(1) (2) (3) (4)
165. :-
R QP
SP
(1)P,Q,R (2) R,P,S
(3)Q,R,P (4) S,P,R
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166. How many types of pyrimidine N2 bases may
present in a nucleic acid :-
(1) 3 (2) 2 (3) 4 (4) 1
167. Which of the following is wrong statement ?
(1) Potassium is involved in the maintenance of
the turgidity of cells
(2) Nitrogen accumulates in older leaves and is
one of the major constituents of proteins and
nucleic acids
(3) Chlorine is essential for the water splitting
reaction in photosynthesis
(4) Copper is involved in redox reactions and is
reversibly oxidised from Cu+ to Cu+2
168. Which of the following plant growth regulators, is
derivative of accessory photosynthetic pigments ?
(1) Abscisic acid
(2) Gibbesellic acid
(3) Indole-3-acetic acid
(4) Ethylene
169. The main difference in the structure of arteries and
veins is :-
(1) Tunica interna - made up of simple squamous
epithelium
(2) Tunica media is less developed in veins
(3) Tunica externa is less developed in veins
(4) Tunica externa is well develope in arteries
170. In which of the following defect of eye, a watery
liquid oozes out from eyes in excess amount so
eyes become red due to irritation –
(1) Astigmatism (2) Cataract
(3) Trachoma (4) Night blindness
171. Which statement is correct about Pteridophyte ?
(1) Gametophyte is autotrophic, while sporophyte
is parasite.
(2) Sporophyte is semiparasite and gametophyte is
autotrophic
(3) Both gametophyte and sporophyte are usually
autotrophic.
(4) Only sporophyte is autotrophic, while
gametophyte is parasitic.
166. N2
(1) 3 (2) 2 (3) 4 (4) 1
167. ?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) Cu+ Cu+2
168. ?
(1)
(2)
(3) -3-
(4)
169. :-
(1) -
(2) -
(3) -
(4) -
170.
–
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
171.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
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172. In the evolutionary history of the animal kingdom,
which of the following features have evolved for
the first time in phylum Aschelminthes ?
A. Metameric segmentation
B. organ level of organisation
C. Closed circulatory system
D. Tube within a tube plan
E. Bilateral symmetry
Select the correct answer -
(1) B and D
(2) A, B, C
(3) Only E
(4) Only D
173. Which one of the statements is incorrect ?
(1) Factors for blood clotting present in blood
plasma found in an inactive form
(2) Plasma without clotting factor is called serum
(3) Basophils are involved in inflammatory
reactions
(4) Neutrophil are the most and eosinophils are
the least among leucocytes
174. Swollen placenta & oblique septum is found in
family :-
(1) Asteraceae (2) Liliaceae
(3) Fabaceae (4) Solanaceae
175. Which of the following is not correctly matched :-
(A) Formation of cell – Golgi body
plate
(B) Catalase enzyme – SER
(C) Connect cytoplasm – Plasmodesmata
of adjacent animal
cells
(D) Cytochrome p450– SER
(E) Anthocyanine – Chromoplast
pigment
(F) Protein factory of – Nucleolus
cell
(1) B, D, E, F (2) C, D, E, A
(3) E, C, B, A (4) F, E, C, B
176. Position of nitrogen in purine N2 bases are :-
(1) 1, 3, 5, 7 (2) 1, 5, 7, 9
(3) 1, 3, 6, 7 (4) 1, 3, 7, 9
172.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
(1) B D
(2) A, B, C
(3) E
(4) D173.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
174. :-
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
175. :-(A) –
(B) – SER
(C) –
(D) p450 – SER
(E) –
(F) –
(1) B, D, E, F (2) C, D, E, A
(3)E, C, B, A (4) F, E, C, B
176. N2
(1) 1, 3, 5, 7 (2) 1, 5, 7, 9
(3) 1, 3, 6, 7 (4) 1, 3, 7, 9
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177. Which of the following symptoms is/are caused
by the deficiency of potassium ?
(1) Chlorosis (loss of chlorophyll)
(2) Necrosis (death of tissue)
(3) Inhibition of cell division
(4) All of the above
178. Which of the following events in plants is/are
affected by interaction of more than one PGR ?
(1) Apical dominance
(2) Abscission and senescence
(3) Dormancy in seeds/buds
(4) All of the above
179. Our heart consists of :-
i. Epithelial tissue ii. Connective tissue
iii. Muscular tissue iv. Neural tissue
(1) Only iii (2) i & ii only
(3) ii, iii & iv only (4) All of these
180. Which of the following is not the function of
parasympathetic nervous system :-
(1) Constricts pupils
(2) Inhibits secretion of lachrymal glands
(3) Stimulates contraction of arrector pilli muscles
(4) Erection of penis
177. ?
(1) ()
(2) ()(3) (4)
178. ?(1) (2) (3) (4)
179. :-i. ii. iii. iv. (1) iii (2) i ii(3) ii, iii iv (4)
180. :-
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Your moral duty
is to prove that is
19–01–2014TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL 2014
H - 32/32 Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2014 01CM213077
MAJOR TEST
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK /