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♣ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. AIEEE/FST 1/PMC/Obj/Qns - 1
BRILLIANT’S
FULL SYLLABUS TEST 1 FOR STUDENTS OF
OUR ONE/TWO-YEAR POSTAL COURSES
TOWARDS
ALL INDIA ENGINEERING ENTRANCE EXAMINATION, 2012
Time: 3 hours Maximum marks: 360 IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS
Name of the Candidate (in Capital letters) :_____________________________________________
Roll Number: in figures
: in words ___________________________________________________________
Examination Centre Number:
Name of Examination Centre (in Capital letters): ________________________________________
Candidate’s Signature: ____________________ Invigilator’s Signature:___________________
PHYSICS – MATHEMATICS – CHEMISTRY
1. The Test Booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 360.
2. There are three parts in the questions paper A, B, C consisting of Physics, Mathematics and Chemistry having 30 questions in each part of equal weightage. Each question is allotted 4(four) marks for each correct response.
3. Candidates will be awarded marks as stated above in instruction No. 2 for correct response of each question. ¼ (one fourth) marks will be deducted for indicating incorrect response of each question. No deduction from the total score will be made if no response is indicated for an item in the answer sheet.
4. There is only one correct response for each question. Filling up more than one response in each question will be treated as wrong response and marks for wrong response will be deducted accordingly as per instruction 3 above.
5. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars / marking response on side-1 and side-2 of the Answer Sheet. Use of pencil is strictly prohibited.
6. No candidate is allowed to carry any textual material printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone, any electronic device etc; except the Admit Card inside the examination hall/room.
7. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only. This space is given at the bottom of each page and in 3 pages at the end of the booklet.
SEAL
SEAL
SEAL
SEAL
AIEEE / FST1
18.12.2011
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1. The volume of a body varies with time as
V = αt + β
2t where t is measured in
seconds and V is measured in cubic
metres. The S.I. units of the constants α
and β are
(1) ms, m2s2 (2) m2s–1, m2/s 2
(3) m3/s, m3s2 (4) m3s, m3/s–2
2. A particle starts rotating from rest,
according to the equation, θ = − +
3t t5,
50 2
where θ is in radian and t is in second. The angular velocity of the particle after
25 seconds is
(1) 37 rad s–1 (2) 35 rad s–1
(3) 33 rad s–1 (4) 31 rad s–1
3. A steel drill making 240 rev/min is used to drill a hole in a block of steel. The mass of
the steel block and the drill is 200 g. When the entire mechanical work is
utilized in producing heat and the rate of
rise in temperature of the block and the
drill is 1.2°C/s. The torque required to
drive the drill is (specific heat of steel =
0.1 and J = 4.2 J/cal)
(1) 2.5 N-m (2) 3.0 N-m
(3) 3.5 N-m (4) 4 N-m
4. A uniform disc of radius r is made to spin
about its axis at an angular velocity ω and carefully placed on a rough
horizontal surface of coefficient of
friction µ. The time taken by the disc to
come to rest on placing it with its plane
on the table is
(1) ω
⋅
µ
3 r
4 g (2)
ω⋅
µ
1 r
2 g
(3) ω
⋅
µ
2 23 r
4 g (4)
ω⋅
µ
2 21 r
2 g
5. The angular momentum about the axle
of a flywheel increases from 2.5 kg-m2/s
to 7.5 kg-m2/s. The moment of inertia of
the wheel about the axle is 0.25 kg-m2.
The work done on the flywheel is
(1) 60 J (2) 80 J
(3) 100 J (4) 120 J
6. This question has statement 1 and
statement 2. Of the four choices given
after the statements, choose the one that best describes the two statements.
Statement 1: When the units of force and distance are doubled, the
unit of work will be four times.
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Statement 2: The unit of work is independent of the unit of
force and distance.
(1) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is true, Statement 2 is the correct
explanation of statement 1.
(2) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is
true, Statement 2 is not the correct
explanation of statement 1.
(3) Statement 1 is false, Statement 2 is
true.
(4) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is
false.
7. Two trains A and B of length 500 m each are moving on two parallel tracks with a
uniform speed of 90 km/h in the same direction with A ahead of B. The driver of
B decides to overtake A and accelerates
by 2 ms–2. After 40 seconds, the guard of B just brushes past the driver of A. The
original distance between the trains A
and B is
(1) 650 m (2) 600 m
(3) 550 m (4) 500 m
8. A shot is fired from a gun on the top of a
cliff 80 m high with a velocity of 60 ms–1
at an elevation of 30°. The horizontal
distance between the vertical line through the gun and the point where the
shot strikes the ground is (g = 10 ms–2)
°30
80m
RA B
x′O
O
−160ms
(1) 240 3 m (2) 220 3 m
(3) 240 2 m (4) 220 2 m
9. From the surface of a rocky sphere of
density 3.0 g/cm3 a gold ball is thrown
with a velocity of 40 ms–1 so that the ball
do not return to the surface. The radius of the rocky sphere is
(1) 28.9 km (2) 30.9 km
(3) 31.6 km (4) 32.4 km
10. A spherical ball of radius 1.5 × 10–4 m and
density 104 kg/m3 falls under gravity
through a distance h before entering a water tank. Even after entering the
water, the velocity of the ball does not
change. Viscosity of water is 10–5 N-s/m2.
The value of h is (g = 10 ms–2)
(1) 95.48 m (2) 98.74 m
(3) 101.25 m (4) 104.25 m
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11. Three cylindrical rods P, Q and R of equal lengths and same diameters are joined in
series. Their thermal conductivities are 3 k,
2 k, 1.5 k respectively. In steady state, the free ends of the rods P and R are at
150°C and 30°C respectively. Assuming
negligible loss through curved surface, the temperature at the two junction
points are
P Q R
3 k PQT 2 k QRT 1.5 k
°30 C
°150 C
(1) 84.8°C (2) 83.9°C
(3) 83.3°C (4) 82.5°C
12. A 300 gm mass is pushed to the left so
that the spring of negligible mass gets compressed 0.25 m from its equilibrium
position. When the system is, the mass shoots to the right. Ignoring friction, the
speed with which the mass will shoot
away is
−=
1k 500 Nm
(1) 11.6 ms–1 (2) 11.3 ms–1
(3) 10.8 ms–1 (4) 10.2 ms–1
13. A vessel in the form a long cylinder of radius 0.15 m was being filled with water
flowing out at uniform rate from a tap. A
person observes resonance condition at intervals of 75 sec with a tuning fork of
484 Hz. The rate of supply of water in m3 per
second is. (Velocity of sound in air is
340 ms–1)
(1) 2.8 × 10–3 (2) 3.3 × 10–3
(3) 2.8 × 10–4 (4) 3.3 × 10–4
14. A transverse progressive wave is given by
the equation y = 2 cos [π (0.5x – 200t)]
where x and y are in cm and t in second. Which of the following statements is true
for this wave?
(1) Wavelength 4 cm and frequency
100 Hz
(2) Wavelength 2 cm and frequency 200 Hz
(3) Amplitude 2 cm and velocity 400 cm s–1
(4) Amplitude 2 cm and wavelength 2 cm
15. This question has statement 1 and statement 2. Of the four choices given
after the statements, choose the one that best describes the two statements.
Statement 1: The blood pressure in humans
is greater at the feet than
that at the brain.
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Statement 2: Pressure of liquid at any point is proportional to
height, density of liquid and
acceleration due to gravity.
P = hρg.
(1) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is true, Statement 2 is the correct explanation of Statement 1.
(2) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is true, Statement 2 is not the correct explanation of Statement 1.
(3) Statement 1 is false, Statement 2 is true.
(4) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is false.
16. In a parallel plate capacitor of capacitance C, a metal sheet is inserted
between the plates, parallel to them. The
thickness of the sheet is half of the separation between the plates. The
capacitance now becomes
(1) 2C (2) 3C
2 (3)
C
2 (4)
C
4
17. A ring is made of a wire having a
resistance R = 10 Ω. The points at which
current carrying conductors should be
connected so that the resistance R
between these points will be 1 Ω is
(1) 4.87 : 2 (2) 5.62 : 2
(3) 7.84 : 1 (4) 8.45 : 1
18. In the camera flash circuit shown in
Figure, a 2500 µF capacitor is charged by
3 V cell. When flash is required, the
energy stored in the capacitor is made
to discharge through a discharge tube in 0.1 ms giving a powerful flash. The power
of the flash is
µ2500 F3 V+
−
(1) 112.5 W (2) 11.25 W
(3) 112.5 kW (4) 11.25 kW
19. Two cells with the same e.m.f. E and different internal resistances r1 and r2 are
connected in series to an external resistance R. The value of R to be
selected such that the p.d. across the first
shell to become zero is
2r
E E
1r
I
R
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(1) 1
2
r
r (2) 2
1
r
r
(3) r1 + r2 (4) r1 – r2
20. The potential difference between points
A and B balances at 40 cm length of
potentiometer wire PQ. To balance the potential difference between the points
B and C distance from P, at which the jockey J to be pressed is
= Ωr 1
12 VDE
A
PΩ10
Ω10
C
Q
Ω4
B
J40
(1) 24 cm (2) 28 cm
(3) 32 cm (4) 36 cm
21. A current i flows along the network
MNOPQRM as shown. The resultant
magnetic induction at the point S is
2ON
Q P
SM R
2
(1) µ
π
0i
4 (2)
µ− ⋅
π
0i2
8
(3) µ
−
π
0i2 (4) µ
⋅
π
0i1
4 2
22. A coil of inductance 600 mH and
resistance 4 Ω is connected to a source
of voltage 2 V. The current reaches half of its steady state value in
(1) 0.4 s (2) 0.3 s
(3) 0.2 s (4) 0.1 s
23. A galvanometer of coil resistance 15 Ω
gives a full scale deflection for a current
of 2.5 mA. The magnitude of shunt
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resistance and series resistance to convert it into ammeter of range 0 – 7.5 A
and voltmeter are of range 0 – 10 V.
(1) 0.005 Ω, 3985 Ω
(2) 0.004 Ω, 3965 Ω
(3) 0.03 Ω, 3945 Ω
(4) 0.05 Ω, 3925 Ω
24. The change in the focal length of the lens, when a convex lens of focal length
24 cm and refractive index 1.54 is immersed
in water of refractive index 1.33 is
(1) 4.34 cm (2) 3.98 cm
(3) 3.53 cm (4) 3.32 cm
25. If a torch is used in the place of mono-
chromatic light In Young’s double slit experiment, the nature of fringes will be
(1) Fringes will occur as from mono-
chromatic source
(2) No fringes will be seen
(3) Fringes will appear for a moment
and then disappears
(4) Only bright fringes will appear
26. Two metal plates having a potential difference of 1600 V are 0.04 m apart
horizontally. A particle of mass 1.92 × 10–15 kg
is suspended in equilibrium between the plates. Taking e as elementary charge,
the charge on the particle is (g = 10 ms–2)
(1) 2e (2) 3e
(3) 5e (4) 7e
27. Density of hydrogen nucleus in S.I. units is
(R0 = 1.2 fermi) and mass of proton is
1.67 × 10–27 kg)
(1) 2.11 × 1017 kgm–3
(2) 2.11 × 1015 kgm–3
(3) 2.31 × 1017 kgm–3
(4) 2.31 × 1015 kgm–3
28. After two hours, one sixteenth of the initial
amount of a radioactive isotope left
undecayed. The half-life of the isotope is
(1) 1 min (2) 45 min
(3) 30 min (4) 15 min
29. The r.m.s. value of a carrier voltage is 110 V. After amplitude modulation by a sinusoidal
audio frequency voltage, the r.m.s value
becomes 120 V. The modulation index is
(1) 0.51 (2) 0.56
(3) 0.62 (4) 0.66
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30. This question has statement 1 and
statement 2. Of the four choices given
after the statements, choose the one
that best describes the two statements.
Statement 1: When GaAs p-n junction
diode is forward biased, it
emits light.
Statement 2: The recombination of elec-
tron hole pairs release
energy in the form of visible
radiation.
(1) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is true, Statement 2 is the correct explanation of Statement 1.
(2) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is true, Statement 2 is not the correct explanation of Statement 1.
(3) Statement 1 is false, Statement 2 is true.
(4) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is false.
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31. Let f : (– 1, 1) → R be a differentiable
function with f(0) = – 1 and f′(0) = 1.
g(x) = [f(2f(x) + 2)]2, then g′(0) =
(1) 4 (2) – 4 (3) 0 (4) – 2
32. If (a, a2) falls inside the angle made by
the lines y = x
4, x > 0 and y = 5x, x > 0,
then ‘a’ belongs to
(1)
1, 5
4 (2)
− −
13,
2
(3)
10,2 (4) (5, ∞)
33. The maximum value of |z| when z
satisfies the condition + =2
z 2z
is
(1) −3 1 (2) 2 3
(3) +3 1 (4) +2 3
34. If the coefficient of x7 in
+
112 1
axbx
equals the coefficient of x4 in
−
112 1
axbx
,
then a and b satisfy the relation
(1) a – b = 1 (2) a + b = 1
(3) =a
1b
(4) ab = 1
35. If sin2 A = x, then sin A sin 2A sin 3A sin 4A
is a polynomial in x, the sum of whose
coefficients is
(1) 0 (2) 40 (3) 168 (4) 336
36. If n positive integers are taken at random and multiplied together, the probability
that the last digit of the product is 2, 4, 6
or 8 is
(1) −
n n
n
5 3
5 (2)
+n n
n
4 2
5
(3) −
n n
n
3 2
5 (4)
−n n
n
3 2
4
37. The number of real solutions of the
equation cos5 x + sin3 x = 1 in the interval
[0, 2π ] is
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) infinite
38. In a ∆ABC, cot A = (x3 + x2 + x)1/2,
cot B = (x + x–1 + 1)1/2 and
cot C = (x–3 + x–2 + x–1)–1/2, then the
triangle is
(1) isosceles (2) obtuse angled
(3) right angled (4) None of these
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39. A pole of height h stands at one corner of a park in the shape of an equilateral
triangle. If α is the angle which the pole
subtends at the midpoint of the opposite side, the length of each side of the park
is
(1)
α
3h cot
2 (2)
α
2h cot
3
(3)
α
3h tan
2 (4)
α
2h tan
3
40. If a circle passes through the point (a, b)
and cuts the circle x2 + y2 = 4
orthogonally, then the locus of its centre is
(1) 2ax + 2by + (a2 + b2 + 4) = 0
(2) 2ax – 2by – (a2 + b2 + 4) = 0
(3) 2ax – 2by + (a2 + b2 + 4) = 0
(4) 2ax + 2by – (a2 + b2 + 4) = 0
41. The value of ‘a’ for which the quadratic
equation 3x2 + 2(a2 + 1)x + (a2 – 3a + 2) = 0 possesses roots of opposite sign, lies in
(1) (– ∞, 1) (2) (– ∞ , 0)
(3) (1, 2) (4)
3, 2
2
42. Suppose for each n∈N,
(12 – a1) + (22 – a2) + … + (n2 – an) =
1
3
n(n 2 – an), then an equals
(1) n (2) n – 1
(3) n + 1 (4) 2n
43. If p + q + r = a + b + c = 0, then the
determinant ∆ =
pa qb rc
qc ra pb
rb pc qa
equals
(1) 0 (2) 1
(3) pa + qb + rc (4) None of these
44. A person is known to speak the truth 4
times out of 5. He throws a die and
reports that it is a six. The probability that it is actually a six is
(1) 1
3 (2)
2
9 (3)
4
9 (4)
5
9
45. One of the points of contact of a
common tangent to the parabola y2 = 8x
and the ellipse + =
2 2x y1
4 15 on the ellipse is
(1)
1 15,
2 4 (2)
−
1 15,
2 4
(3)
−
1 15,
2 4 (4) None of these
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46. If the vectors = − +
AB 3 i 4 k and
= − +
AC 5 i 2 j 4 k are the sides of a
∆ABC. The length of the median through
A is
(1) 14 (2) 18
(3) 29 (4) None of these
47. The value of ∫1.5
2
0
x[x ]dx is
(1) 2.25 (2) 0.25
(3) 1.5 (4) 0.75
48. The degree of the differential equation
− −3/2 1/22 1y y 4 = 0 is
(1) 6 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 4
49. If −
=
+
2
2
x 1f(x)
x 1 for every real number x,
then the minimum value of f
(1) is – 1
(2) is 0
(3) is 1
(4) does not exist
50. Let B and C be two square matrices such
that BC = CB and C2 = 0. If A = B + C,
then A3 – B3 – 3B2C =
(1) 0 (2) 1 (3) – 1 (4) 2I
51. The ratio in which zx-plane divides the line segment AB joining the points A(4, 2, 3)
and B(– 2, 4, 5) is equal to
(1) 1 : 2 internally (2) 1 : 2 externally
(3) – 2 : 1 (4) None of these
52. The sum of terms in the nth bracket of the series (1) + (2 + 3 + 4) + (5 + 6 + 7 + 8 + 9)
+ …. is
(1) n3 – (n – 1)3 (2) + +
2n 3n 2
6
(3) n3 + (n – 1)3 (4) + +
3 3n (n 1)
9
53. (p ∧ q) ∧ (~ q) is
(1) a tautology
(2) a contradiction
(3) a statement whose truth value depends on p
(4) a statement whose truth value depends on q
54. The normal to the curve x = a(cos θ + θ sin θ),
y = a (sin θ – θ cos θ) at any point θ is such
that
(1) It passes through the origin
(2) It makes angle π
+ θ
2 with the x-axis
(3) It passes through π
− a , a2
(4) It is at a constant distance from the origin
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55. Area of the greatest rectangle that can
be inscribed in the ellipse + =
2 2
2 2
x y1
a b is
(1) 2ab (2) ab
(3) ab (4) a
b
Questions 56 to 60 are Assertion – Reason type questions. Mark your responses from the following options:
(1) Both statement 1 and statement 2
are true but statement 2 is not the
correct reason for statement 1
(2) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is
false
(3) Statement 1 is false, Statement 2 is true
(4) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are true and Statement 2 is the
correct reason for Statement 1
56. Statement 1: If 3 + ix 2 y and x 2 + y + 4i are conjugate complex numbers,
then x 2 + y 2 = 5.
Statement 2: If the sum and product of two complex numbers are
real, then they are conj-ugate complex numbers.
57. Statement 1: The inverse point of (2, – 3) w.r.t. the circle
x2 + y2 + 6x – 4y – 12 = 0 is
+ −
1 1,
2 2
Statement 2: For the circle S = 0 with centre C and radius r, two
points P, Q are said to be
inverse points with respect to S = 0 if C, P, Q are
collinear.
58. Statement 1: The curve y = x1/3 has a point of inflection at x = 0.
Statement 2: A point where y″ fails to
exist can be a point of inflection.
59. Statement 1: Lines →
= − + λ + −1r i j ( i j k ) ,
→
= − + µ + −2r 2 i j ( i j k ) do
not intersect.
Statement 2: Skew lines never intersect.
60. Statement 1: The equation sin x = x2 + x + 1
has only one solution.
Statement 2: sin x takes value ‘a’ exactly
two times when we take
one complete rotation covering all the quadrants
starting from x = 0.
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61. Alum is used in purifying water by
(1) Forming silicon complex with clay particles
(2) Sulphate part combines with dirt and
removes it
(3) Coagulating the colloidal mud
particles
(4) Making mud water soluble
62. Which electron in a hydrogen atom
requires the largest amount of energy
during the following transition?
(1) From n = 1 to n = 2
(2) From n = 2 to n = 3
(3) From n = ∞ to n = 1
(4) From n = 3 to n = 5
63. What is the equivalent mass of KIO3 in the
given reaction?
KIO3 + 2KI + 6HCl → 3ICl + 3KCl + 3H2O
(1) 214 (2) 428 (3) 107 (4) 53.5
64. If 340 g of a mixture of N2(g) and H2(g) in
the correct 1 : 3 ratio give a 20% yield of
NH3. The mass of NH3. produced would
be:
(1) 16 g (2) 17 g (3) 20 g (4) 68 g
65. The pH of a solution is obtained by mixing 100 ml of 0.2 M HCl and 100 ml of 0.3 M
NaOH will be
(1) 12.7 (2) 3 (3) 1 (4) 2
66.
OH
2 2 5CO C H
H
H
2 2 5CO C H
3CH
I
3CH
2 2 5CO C H
2EtCO
3H C
H
H
II
I and II are
(1) Enantiomers
(2) Diastereomers
(3) Structural isomers
(4) Two are of same compound
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67. The correct order of stability of alkenes
for the following alkenes
=C C
R
RR
R
=C C
R
HR
R
I II
=C C
R
H R
R
=C C
R
H
R
H
is
III IV
(1) IV > III > II > I
(2) III > II > IV > I
(3) II > III > I > IV
(4) I > II > III > IV
68. Heat of neutralization of oxalic acid is
– 53.35 kJ mol– 1 using NaOH. Hence ∆H
of ionization of oxalic acid is
θ ++
22 2 2 4H C OH C O 2H is
(1) 5.88 kJ (2) – 5.88 kJ
(3) – 13.7 kcal (4) 3.95 kJ
69. True statement regarding carbocation is
(1) It has trigonal planar structure and
C+ is sp3 hybridized.
(2) It has pyramidal structure and C+ is
sp2 hybridized.
(3) It has trigonal planar structure and
C+ is sp2 hybridized.
(4) It has pyramidal structure and C+ is
sp3 hybridized.
70. The electronegativity of caesium is 0.7
and that of chlorine is 3.5. The bond
formed between the two is
(1) covalent (2) electrovalent
(3) coordinate (4) metallic
71. What is the hydrogen ion concentration
in a solution whose pH = 4.3?
(1) 5.012 × 10–5 (2) 8.113 × 10–5
(3) 6.714 × 10–5 (4) 3.012 × 10–4
72. For which of the following equations, will
∆H be equal to ∆E?
(1) + →2(g) 2(g) 2 ( )
1H O H O
2
(2) H2(g) + I2(g) → 2HI(g)
(3) 2NO2(g) → N2O4(g)
(4) 4NO2(g) + O2(g) → 2N2O5(g)
73. The ionic product of water will increase if
(1) pressure is decreased
(2) H+ are added
(3) OH are added
(4) temperature is increased
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74. Non-stoichiometric metal deficiency is shown in the salts of
(1) all metals
(2) alkali metals only
(3) alkaline earth metals
(4) transition metals only
75. In piperidine NH , the hybrid
state of nitrogen as
(1) sp (2) sp2 (3) sp3 (4) dsp2
76. 0.01 M of H2A has pH equal to 4. If 1ak for
the acid is 4.45 × 10–7 , the concentration
of HA– ion in solution would be
(1) 0.01 M (2) 4.45 × 10–5
(3) 8.0 × 10–5 (4) unpredictable
77. C(Diamond) → C(Graphite) ∆H = – ve. This
shows that
(1) Graphite has more energy than dia-
mond
(2) Both are equally stable
(3) Graphite is more stable than diamond
(4) Stability cannot be predicted
78. The solubility of A2 X3 in water is mol dm–3.
Its solubility product is
(1) 6y4 (2) 64y4
(3) 36y5 (4) 108y5
79. The critical temperature of O2 is less than
H2O because the H2O molecules have:
(1) Fewer electron than O2
(2) Two covalent bonds
(3) V-shape structure
(4) Dipole moment
80. Which of the following statement is
wrong?
(1) The stability of hydrides increase from
NH3 to BiH3 in group 15 of the
periodic table.
(2) Nitrogen cannot form dπ -pπ bond.
(3) Single N-N bond is weaker than the single p-p bond.
(4) N2O4 has 2 resonance structures.
81. Ethylene glycol is used as an antifreeze in
radiators in cold countries. Mass of ethylene
glycol which should be added to 4 kg of
H2O to prevent it form freezing at – 6°C
will be : (Kf for water = 1.86 K kg mol–1
and molar mass of ethylene glycol = 62 g
mol–1).
(1) 804.32 g (2) 204.30 g
(3) 400.00 g (4) 304.60 g
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82. The value of enthalpy change (∆H) for
the reaction
C2H5OH() + 3O2(g) → 2 CO2(g) + 3H2O()
at 27°C is – 1366.5 kJ mol–1. The value of
∆U (internal energy change) for the
above reaction at this temperature will
be
(1) – 1369.0 kJ (2) – 1364.0 kJ
(3) – 1361.5 kJ (4) – 1371.5 kJ
83. The products obtained on heating solid
LiNO3 will be
(1) Li2O + NO2 + O2 (2) Li3N + O2
(3) Li2O + NO + O2 (4) LiNO3 + O2
84. The non-aromatic compound among the
following is
(1) S
(2)
(3)
(4)
85. Which one of the following complex can
exhibit (t′) geometrical isomerism?
(1) [Ni(NH3)5Br]+
(2) [Co(NH3)2(en)2]3+
(3) [Cr(NH3)4(en)]3+
(4) [Co(en)3]3+
[en-ethylenediamine]
86. Which gas is adsorbed in maximum amount
by activated charcoal at identical con-ditions?
(1) N2 (2) CO2
(3) Cl2 (4) O2
87. Among the following, paramagnetic
compound is
(1) Na2O2 (2) O3
(3) N2O (4) KO2
88. Consider the following E° values + +3 20Fe /FeE
= + 0.77 V, +
°= −2Sn /Sn
E 0.14 V . The °
cellE for
the reaction.
+ + ++ → +
3 2 2(s) (aq) (aq)Sn 2Fe 2Fe Sn is
(1) 0.63 V (2) 1.40 V
(3) 0.91 V (4) 1.68 V
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89. For 1 M solution of HA having α > 0.05, the dissociation constant Ka in terms of van’t
Hoff factor (i) can be written as
(1) −
2(i 1)
i (2)
+2(i 1)
i
(3) −
2
i
(i 1) (4)
−
−
2(i 1)
2 i
90. Which set of molecule is polar?
(1) p-dimethoxy benzene and p-dinitro
benzene
(2) BF3 and ICl3
(3) SF4 and SiF4
(4) p-dimethoxy benzene and trans 1-chloro propene
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READ THE FOLLOWING INSTRUCTIONS CAREFULLY
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