Duration: 3Hrs Max. Marks: 720

AGRICULTURE, SCIENCE & PARA MEDICAL 1) Identify A, B, C and D in the given diagram.

1) A-ori, B-ampR, C-tetR, D-Hind III 2) A-Hind III, B-tetR, C-ampR, D-ori

3) A-ampR, B-tetR, C-Hind III, D-ori 4) A-tetR, B-Hind III, C-ori, D-ampR

2) Select the correct statements related to racemose inforescence.

A) Peduncle shows indefinite growth

B) Flowers are borne laterally in an acropetal manner

C) Peduncle shows definite growth

D) Flowers are in basipetal manner

1) A and B only 2) B, C and D 3) A and D 4)A only

3) A cross between two pea plants, produced some plants with round and some with

wrinkled seeded plants. What will be the genotype of parents?

1) RR & RR 2) RR & rr 3) Rr & Rr 4) RR & Rr

4) Leathery epicarp, many volatile oil glands with papery mesocarp, endocarp with

juicy hairs are the fruit characteristic features of

1) Berry 2) Hesperidium 3) Pepo 4) Pome

5) How many ATPs, NADPH, FADH2 are produced in Krebs Cycle per one glucose

molecule

1) 2 ATP; 6 NADPH; 1 FADH2 2) 2 ATP; 8 NADPH; 2 FADH2

3) 2 ATP; 6 NADPH; 6 FADH2 4) 2 ATP; 6 NADPH; 2 FADH2

6) Match the following:

List- I List- II

(I) Replication fork 1) Primer

(II) Leading strand 2) The opening of DNA helix

(III) Lagging strand 3) 5’→3’

(IV) Okazaki fragments 4) 3’→5’

5) Discontinuously synthesized pieces

1) I-2, II-3, III-4, IV-5 2) I-5, II-3, III-4, IV-2

3) I-2, II-4, III-3, IV-1 4) I-5, II-4, III-3, IV-1

pBR322

D

B

A

C

7) The first isolated restriction endonuclease is

1) Hind II 2) EcoRI 3) Hind III 4) Pvu I

8) Match the following:

List- I List- I

(I) Tomato (Flavrsavr) 1) Vit-A

(II) Golden rice 2) Resistance to biotic stress

(III) Basmati 3) Long shelf life

(IV) Brassica napus 4) To reduce hybridization procedure

1) I-3, II-1, III-2, IV-4

2) I-3, II-1, III-4, IV-2

3) I-2, II-1, III-3, IV-4

4) I-4, II-1, III-2, IV-3

9) A xerophytic plant, in which roots are fleshy

1) Aloe 2) Bryophyllum 3) Asparagus 4) Casuarina

10) The proper ascending order of the following substances based on their carbon number

is

i) Glycerol ii) Arachidonic acid

iii) Glycine iv) Palmitic acid

1) iii, ii, iv, i 2) iv, ii, i, iii 3) ii, iii, i, ii 4) iii, i, iv, ii

11) Basic unit of classification is

1) Species 2) Kingdom 3) Order 4) Family

12) Match the items given in Column-I with those of Column-II and select the correct

option given below:

Column-I Column-II

a) Golgi apparatus i) Converts lipids to carbohydrates

b) ER ii) Cell plate formation

c) Peroxisome iii) Synthesis of steroidal hormones

d) Glyoxysome iv) Metabolism of phospholipids

1) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii

2) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i

3) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i

4) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii

13) Mineral elements required for photolysis of water are

1) Mg, Ca, Cl 2) Mn, S, Cl 3) Mn, Ca, Cl 4) Mn, Ca, K

14) The plant in which gametophytic generation does not have independent free living

1) Adiantum 2) Ginkgo 3) Salvinia 4) Marchantia

15) The proper conditions for sterilizing the tissue culture mediums are

1) Autoclaved for 10 minutes at 0121 C at 15 pounds pressure

2) Autoclaved for 20 minutes at 0100 C at 10 pounds pressure

3) Autoclaved for 15 minutes at 0121 C at 15 pounds pressure

4) Autoclaved for 15 minutes at 0110 C at 20 pounds pressure

16) Match the following tables:

Table – I Table – II

A) Cladophora I) Monocarpic

B) Chara II) Oogonium

C) Marchantia III) Polycarpic

D) Century plant IV) Homogametes

V) Dioecious

The correct match is

1) A-IV, B-V, C-II, D-III

2) A-V, B-IV, C-II, D-III

3) A-IV, B-II, C-V, D-I

4) A-IV, B-V, C-III, D-II

17) A single anticodon can recognize more than one codon of m-RNA. This phenomenon

is termed as

1) Richmond and Lang effect 2) Gene flow hypothesis

3) Wobble hypothesis 4) Template hypothesis

18) Statement-I: Angiosperms are heterosporous

Statement -II: All spores produced in anthers are homosporous.

1) Both Statement-I & Statement-II are correct

2) Both Statement-I & Statement-II are incorrect

3) Statement-I is correct & Statement-II is incorrect

4) Statement-I is incorrect & Statement-II is correct

19) Pumps are sensitive to inhibitors. This is because they are

1) Highly specific towards their substance

2) Rotate during their action

3) Proteins by nature

4) Located within the cell membrane

20) Stirred - tank bioreactors have been designed for

1) Ensuring availability of oxygen throughout the process

2) Addition availability of oxygen throughout the process

3) Addition of substrate at regular intervals

4) Ensuring anaerobic conditions in the culture vessel

21) In the PCR technology the DNA segment is replicated over a billion times.

Which enzyme catelyses the cycle of repeated replication?

1) Topoisomerase 2) Taq polymerase

3) DNA dependent RNA polymerase 4) Primase

22) The climax community in ecological succession is

1) Xeric 2) Mesic 3) Hydric 4) Either 1 or 3

23) cryI Ac and cryII Ab encode the protein which controls

1) Corn borers 2) Cotton bollworms

3) Tobacco budworms 4) Armyworms

24) Choose the correct sequence of tissues from the outside to the inside in a

dicotyledonous stem.

1) Phellem → Pericycle → Endodermis → Phloem

2) Phellem → Phloem → Endodermis → Pericycle

3) Epidermis → Endodermis → Pericycle → Phloem

4) Pericycle → Phellem → Endodermis → Phloem

25) Identify A, B, C and D in the given table and select the correct option

Crop Variety Resistance to disease A Himgiri Leaf and stripe rust Brassica B White rust C Pusa komal Bacterial blight Cauliflower Pusa shubhra D

1) A→Wheat; B→Pusa swarnim; C→Cowpea; D→Black rot

2) A→Chilli; B→Pusa sadabahar; C→Cowpea; D→TMV

3) A→Wheat; B→Pusa sadabahar; C→Chilli; D→Hill bunt

4) A→Cowpea; B→Pusa swarnim; C→Chilli; D→Leaf curl

26) Higher plants cannot escape in space under stressful condition. But, they can avoid the stress by

1) hibernation 2) seed dormancy

3) producing gemmules 4) developing spines

27) Which of the sequences is correct for embryogenesis in dicots?

1) Zygote → Globular stage → Proembryo → Heart shaped stage → Matured embryo

2) Zygote → Heart shaped stage → Globular stage → Matured embryo

3) Zygote → Proembryo → Heart shaped stage → Globular stage → Matured embryo

4) Zygote → Proembryo → Globular stage → Heart shaped stage → Matured embryo

28) The main purpose of electron transport chain is to -

1) Recycle NADH + H+ back to NAD+

2) Use the intermediates from TCA cycle

3) breakdown pyruvate

4) All

29) How many molecules of 2H O would be consumed to support one Calvin Cycle?

1) 1 2) 2 3) 4 4) 6

30) Most of the 2CO is released during -

1) Glycolysis 2) The Kreb's Cycle

3) Lactate fermentation 4) Oxidative phosphorylation

31) Which of the four couples claiming the baby with O+ blood type is possible as the

biological parents of it ?

1) AB– and A+ 2) A+ and O– 3) O+ and AB+ 4) B– and O–

32) In Mendel’s dihybrid cross, the proportion of plants which are homozygous for only

one character in F2 progeny

1) 7/16 2) 8/16 3) 6/16 4) 5/16

33) A mixture containing DNA fragments A, B, C and D with molecular weights, A + B =

C, A > B and D > C, was subjected to agarose gel electrophoresis. The position of

these fragments from anode to cathode sides of gel should be :

1) B, A, C, D 2) A, B, C, D 3) C, D, A, D 4) B, A, D, C

34) Match the terms in Column-I with their description in Column-II and choose the

correct option:

Column-I Column-II

a) Dominance (i) Many genes govern a single character

b) Codominance (ii) In a heterozygous organism only one allele expresses itself

c) Pleiotropy (iii) In a heterozygous organism both alleles express themselves fully

d) Polygenic inheritance (iv) A single gene influences many characters

1) a-(ii); b-(i); c-(iv); d-(iii)

2) a-ii; b-(iii); c-(iv); d-(i)

3) a-iv; b-(i); c-(ii); d-(iii)

4) a-iv; b-(iii); c-(i); d-(ii)

35) Which of the following is translated completely?

I) AUG UGA UUA AAG AAA

II) AUG AUA UUG CCC UGA

III) AGU UAA AGA CUC UAC

IV) AUG UAC AGU AAC UAG

1) I and II 2) II and IV 3) I and IV 4) II and III

36) In the given list how many plants have unisexual flowers on the same pant.

Cucurbits, Papaya, Castor, Coconut, Date palm, Maize.

1) One 2) Four 3) Three 4) Two

37) Water absorption is not important for these roots

1) Prop roots 2) Stilt roots 3) Balancing roots 4) All

38) DNA ligase forms the following bonds during the joining of Okazaki fragments.

1) Phospho diester bonds in 3' - 5' direction

2) Glycosidic bonds

3) N - Glycosidic bonds

4) Phosphoester bonds in 5' - 3' direction

39) Select the mismatch

1) Chalaza - Basal part of the Ovule 2) Polar nuclei - Central cell

3) Exposed stamens - Autogamy 4) Emasculation - Bagging

40) Find out incorrect statement

1) Xylem vessels are multicellular

2) Bast fibres are made up of sclerenchymatous cells

3) A cambial ring is formed between the xylem and phloem of dicot root during

secondary growth

4) Phellogen is a redifferentiated issue

41) Phototropic curvatures in plants are due to the influence of this hormone

1) Cystokinin 2) Gibberellin

3) Auxin 4) Ethylene

42) The stage between completion of DNA replication and initiation of prophase is

1) M - phase 2) S - phase 3) 2G 4) 1G

43) Find out mismatch

1) Alexander Fleming - Penicillium

2) Frederick Griffith - Streptococcus

3) Selman Waksman - Staphylococcus

4) Louis Pasteur - Diplococcus

44) Two common characters of Gymnosperms and Angiosperms.

1) Presence of Endosperm, Naked ovules

2) Albuminous cells, Companion cells

3) Nucellus, Fruits

4) Siphonogamous oogamy, Collateral vascular bundles

45) Refer the given figure. What does it represent?

1) Simple diffusion 2) Facilitated diffusion

3) Osmosis 4) Active transport

46) Match the following and select the correct answer.

Column-I Column-II

A) Chanocytes 1) Platy helminthes

B) Cnidoblasts 2) Ctenophora

C) Flame cells 3) Porifera

D) Nephridia 4) Coelenterate

E) Comb plates 5) Annelida

1) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-5, E-3 2) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-5, E-3

3) A-5, B-1, C-3, D-2, E-4 4) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-5, E-2

47) Select the correct pair

1) Radial symmetry - Coelenterates

2) Coelomates - Aschelminthes

3) Metamerism - Molluscs

4) Triploblastic - Sponges

48) Which of the following have porous body and are diploblasic

1) Aurelia and obelia 2) Adamsia & Euplactella

3) Leucosolenia & Spongilla 4) Sycon & Hydra

49) Besides Annelida and Arthropoda, the metamerism is exhibited by _________

1) Mollusca 2) Cestoda

3) Acanthocephala 4) Chordata

50) Nissl's granules are absent in

1) Axon 2) Cyton 3) Dendron 4) both 1 and 2

51) The non keratinised stratified squamous epithelium is present in _______

1) Epidermis of skin of land vertebrates

2) Vagina & Cervix

3) Oral cavity

4) Both 2 and 3

52) Which structure is absent in male cockroach?

1) Seminal vesicle 2) Phallomeres 3) Spermatheca 4) None of these

53) Study the following about cockroach

A) Male can be recognized by the anal styles

B) Both male and female have 3 pairs of gonapophysis

C) Anal cerci are jointed filamentous structures

D) 7th sternum in males in boat shaped

1) A & B are correct 2) B & D are correct

3) A & C are correct 4) B & C are correct

54) Chloragogan cells of earthworm are similar (analogous) to the organ of vertebrates

1) Liver 2) Kidneys 3) Lungs 4) Spleen

55) The contraction of the heart of frog commences from

1) Sinus venosus 2) right auricle

3) left auricle 4) inter auricular septum

56) Which of the following are absorbed into the blood from the mucosa cells of intestine

with the help of carrier proteins?

1) Amino acids 2) fatty acids 3) glycerol 4) Electrolytes

57) Creatine, a protein is synthesied by

1) Liver 2) Muscles 3) Bone 4) Blood

58) Anxiety and spicy eating in an otherwise normal human may lead to _________

1) indigestion 2) Jaundice 3) diarrhoea 4) vomiting

59) Amount of oxygen delivered to tissues by 100ml of oxygenated blood under normal

conditions

1) 4ml 2) 5ml 3) 7ml 4) 10ml

60) PO2 and PCO2 values in the blood of systemic arteries are equal to that of ______

1) pulmonary veins 2) systemic veins

3) pulmonary arteries 4) tissues

61) Human serum does not contain

1) Antibodies 2) albumin 3) electrolytes 4) fibrinogen

62) Match the following:

Column-I Column-II

A) Eosinopghils 1) Coagulation

B) Erythrocytes 2) Universal recipient

C) AB group 3) Resist infection

D) Platelets 4) Cellular barriers

E) Neutrophils 5) O2 transport

1) A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4, E-5 2) A-1, B-3, C-2, D-5, E-4

3) A-3, B-5, C-2, D-1, E-4 4) A-5, B-3, C-2, D-1, E-4

63) In mammals which blood vessel normally carry large amount of Urea

1) Renal vein 2) Dorsal aorta

3) Hepatic vein 4) Hapatic portal vein

64) The high osmolarity of the renal medulla is maintained by all of the following except

1) Diffusion of salt from the thin segment of the ascending limb of the loop of Henle

2) Active transport of salt from thick segment of the ascending limb

3) The spatial arrangement of juxtamedullary nephron

4) Diffusion of large amount of salts from the descending limb of the Vasa recta

65) ‘H’ Zone of a sarcomere contains

1) Myosin protein only 2) Myosin and Actin proteins

3) Actin, Troponin and Tropomyosin 4) Actin protein only

66) The joint between humerus and pectoral girdle is:

1) Hinge joint 2) Pivot joint 3) Ball & Socket Joint 4) Gliding Joint

67) The hormone which stimulates reabsorption of Ca+2 by the renal tubules and increases

Ca+2 absorption from digested food is:

1) Aldosterone 2) Anti Biuretic hormone

3) Parathormone 4) Thyrocalcitonin

68) Match the following and choose the correct option.

Column I Column II

A) Cornea a) Controls the amount of light that enters eye

B) Iris b) has more cones

C) Lens c) has more rods

D) Fovea d) acts as outermost lens

e) helps to focus light on retina

1) A-d, B-a, C-e, D-b

2) A-e, B-d, C-e, D-c

3) A-d, B-c, C-a, D-b

4) A-e, B-a, C-d, D-c

69) Match the following and choose the correct option.

Column-I Column-II

A) Osteoporosis a) Auto immune disease

B) Gout b) Progressive degeneration of skeletal muscles

C) Muscular dystophy c) Accumulation of uric acid in joints

D) Myasthenia gravis d) Rapid spasms

e) decreased levels of estrogen

1) A-e, B-c, C-b, D-a

2) A-e, B-d, C-b, D-a

3) A-e, B-c, C-a, D-b

4) A-c, B-e, C-a, D-b

70) The medulla in a brain does not have the control centre for

1) Respiration 2) Body temperature

3) Gastric secretions 4) Cardiovascular reflexes

71) Activation of B-lymphocytes is done by

1) IgA 2) IgG 3) IgE 4) IgD

72) An organelle in the cell that helps in the penetration of spermatozoon in to egg

1) Mitochondria 2) Lysosomes 3) Centrioles 4) Golgi complex

73) Match the following:

Function Hormone

A) Development of ovarian follicle 1) Oxytocin

B) Ovulation 2) MSH

C) Easy /Normal child birth 3) LTH

D) Lactation 4) FSH

5) LH

1) A-5, B-4, C-1, D-3

2) A-4, B- 5, C-1, D-3

3) A-5, B- 4, C-2, D-3

4) A-3, B-1, C-5, D-4

74) Diaphragms are contraceptive devices used by the females. Choose the correct option

from the statements given below:

a) They are introduced into the uterus

b) They are placed to cover the cervical region

c) They act as physical barrier for sperm entry

d) They mainly function as spermicidal agents

1) a & b 2) b & c 3) a & c 4) c & d

75) In which of the following disorder gynaecomastia symptom is seen in individuals

1) Down's syndrome 2) Turner's syndrome

3) Klinefelter's syndrome 4) Phenylketonuria

76) Find an incorrect statement with respect to findings of HGP :-

1) Dystrophin protein gene is largest gene of human genome

2) Chromosome-Y has minimum 231 genes

3) SNP's were identified at about 2.4 million locations.

4) The functions are unknown for over 50% of the discovered genes

77) Most common prevalent Mendelian disorders are

1) Haemophilia, cystic fibrosis and Down's syndrome

2) Sickle cell anaemia, colour blindness and Turner 's syndrome

3) Colour blindness, phenylketonuria and Thalassemia

4) Phenylketonuria, Thalassemia and klinefelter's syndrome

78) Observe the pedigree chart given below

What is the genotype of II (3):-

1) AA 2) aa 3) x+y 4) Aa

79) Which one of the following is a zoonotic disease

1) Meningitis 2) Rabies 3) Amoebiasis 4) Fluorosis

80) Which particular disease is not reversable

1) Filariasis 2) Asthma 3) Tuberculosis 4) Silicosis

81) Increased number of RBC production and the development of new cells in a tumour,

are the examples of

1) Neoplasia and aplasia 2) Hyperplasia and neoplasia

3) Polycythemia and benign tumour 4) Hypoplasia and Neoplasia

82) In a population of H.W equilibrium the recessive individuals are 36%, find out the

percentage of heterozygous individuals in that population?

1) 60% 2) 40% 3) 64% 4) 48%

83) 'Hisardale' is developed by a cross between

1) Bikaneri ewes and Marino rams

2) Sahiwal and Nageri

3) Male donkey and female horse

4) Jaffrabadi and Murrah

84) Two different species cannot live for long duration in the same niche or habitat. This

law is

1) Allen's law

2) Bargman's law

3) Competitive exclusion principal

4) Weiseman's theory

85) The gases associated with green house effect:-

1) CO2, N2O and CFC

2) CO, NO and Freon

3) Argon, Crypton and Neon

4) O3, O2 and CO

1 2 3 4 5 6

I

II

III

86) Match the following:

A) Montreal Protocol I) 1981 B) Chipko movement II) 1987 C) Air (prevention and control of pollution) Act III) 1974 D) Environment (protection) Act IV) 1986 1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

2) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

3) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

4) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

87) The immediate adverse effects of drugs and alcohol abuse are manifested in the form of

1) Anxiety, shakiness, nausea, sweating

2) Reckless behavior, vandalism, violence

3) Death

4) Fever

88) Identify the biome ABCD from the given graph and choose the correct option with

respect to their vegetation

1) A→ Mosses, B→ Acacia, C→ Oak, D→ Prosopis

2) A→ Oak, B→ Sal Teak, C→ Pine, D→ Mosses

3) A→ Sal, Teak, B→ Pine, C→ Lichen, D→ Acacia

4) A→ Hopea, B→ Oak, C→ Pine, D→ Mosses

89) Identify the organism (a), (b) and (c) in the life cycle of honey bee shown below

1) a = Queen, b = Drone, c = worker 2) a = Drone, b = worker, c = Queen

3) a = worker, b = Drone, c = Queen 4) a = Queen, b = worker, c = Drone

90) Dual-energy X- ray absorptiometry (DEXA) is used to measure

1) Spread of solid tumour 2) Bone density

3) Congestion in the lungs 4) Extent of brain haemorrhage

91) The error in the measurement of the length of the simple pendulum is 0.1% and the

error in time period is 2%. Then the possible percentage of error in determination of

2l

T is equal to

1) 5.1% 2) 4.1% 3) 3.1% 4) 2.1%

92) If a vector is multiplied by a constant ‘k’, then the value of its direction cosines _____

1) Increases by k times 2) Decreases by k times

3) Remains the same 4) Increases by k2 times

93) Two samples ‘A’ and ‘B’ of a gas initially of the same temperature and pressure are

compressed from a volume ‘v’ to volume '2v

' such that ‘A’ is compressed

isothermally and ‘B’ adiabatically. Then the final pressure of _______

1) A is greater than that of B 2) A is equal to that of B

3) A is less than that of B 4) A is twice to that pressure of B

94) A dielectric is inserted between the plates in an isolated charge capacitor, then which

of the following quantity will remain the same

1) Electric field in the capacitor

2) The charge on the capacitor

3) The potential difference between the plates

4) The stored energy in the capacitor

95) An uniform electric field and an uniform magnetic field are acting along the same

direction in a certain region. If an electron is projected along the direction of the fields

with a certain velocity, then

1) Its velocity will increase

2) Its velocity will decrease

3) It will turn towards left of direction of motion

4) It will turn towards right of direction of motion

96) In the reaction 2 3 4 11 1 2 0

H H He n . If the average binding energies of

2 3,

1 1H H and

41

He are respectively a, b and c (in MeV), energy released in this

reaction is

1) 2a + 3b + 4c 2) 4c (2a + 3b) 3) c a b 4) c a + b

97) A jet of water of area of cross-section 220cm strikes normally on a metallic plate of

mass 600g held horizontally in air with a speed 'V' and rebound with a speed V/2.

Then V is 210g ms

1) 12ms 2) 12ms 3) 14ms 4) 112

ms

98) A solid cylinder of mass 20kg rotates about its axis with angular speed 1100 rad s .

The radius of the cylinder is 0.25m. The kinetic energy associated with the rotation of

the cylinder is

1) 3125J 2) 6250J 3) 1565J 4) 1125J

99) A plane is in level flight at constant speed and each of its two wings has an area of 225m . If the speed of the air is 1180km h over the lower wing and 1234km h over the

upper wing, the mass of the plane is

(density of air = 31 kg m and 29.8g ms )

1) 6200 kg 2) 3400 kg 3) 4400 kg 4) 2500 kg

100) Two sitar strings A and B playing the note 'Sa' are slightly out of time and produce

beats of frequency 6Hz. The tension in the string A is slightly reduced and the beat

frequency is found to reduce to 3Hz. If the original frequency of A is 324Hz, the

original frequency of B is

1) 636Hz 2) 954Hz 3) 318Hz 4) 384Hz

101) A power transmission line feeds input power at 2300V to a step down transformer

with its primary windings 4500 turns. For getting the output power at 230V, the

number of turns in the secondary should be equal to

1) 200 2) 900 3) 450 4) 600

102) For an amplitude modulated wave, the maximum amplitude is found to be 10V while

the minimum amplitude is found to be 2V. The modulation index is

1) 2 3% 2) 2 5% 3) 3 2 % 4) 5 2 %

103) The rectangular components of a vector lying in xy plane are (n+1) and 1.

If coordinate system is turned by 060 they are 2 & 3n respectively. The value of

' 'n is

1) 1 2) 3 3) 65

4) 56

104) If 'g' is the acceleration due to gravity at the surface of the earth, then the energy

required to launch a satellite of mass "m" from the surface of the earth into a circular

orbit at an altitude of "2R", R being the radius of the earth is ___________.

1) 6

mgR 2) 3

mgR 3) 23

mgR 4) 56

mgR

105) A cubical block is floating in a liquid with half of its volume immersed in the liquid.

When the whole system accelerates up with acceleration 3g , fraction of the volume

immersed in the liquid will be

1) 12

2) 38

3) 23

4) 34

106) Two charged particles of masses m and 2m have charges +2Q and +Q respectively.

They are kept in a uniform electric field and allowed to move for the same time. Ratio

of their kinetic energies is _________ (Initially they are at rest)

1) 8:1 2) 2:1 3) 4:1 4) 16:3

107) n identical cells are joined in series in which two cells A and B have reverse

polarities. If each cell has internal resistance ' r ', potential difference across A and B

is ____________ ( 4n ). Each cell has emf " e "

1) 2en

2) 12 1en

3) 4e dn

4) 22 1en

108) A 10H inductor carries a current of 20A. How much ice at 00C could be melted by the

energy stored in the magnetic field of that inductor.

1) 3gm 2) 8gm 3) 12gm 4) 6gm

109) Angle of a prism is 'A' and one if its refracting faces is silvered. A light ray falling on

the refracting face at angle 2A goes through the prism and retraces its path after

striking the silvered face. Refractive index of the material of the prism is

1) 2cos A 2) 2sin A 3) cos2A

4) sin2

A

110) Work function of a substance is 4eV. Longest wavelength of light that can cause

photo electron emission from that substance is approximately.

1) 310nm 2) 400nm 3) 420nm 4) 220nm

111) Half life of a radioactive substance is 100 s . Time taken for that sample to decay to

116

th of the initial value is ____________

1) 400 s 2) 6.3 s 3) 40 s 4) 300 s

112) Angular momentum of an electron in hydrogen atom is 32

h

. Kinetic energy of that

electron is

1) 3.4eV 2) 1.51eV 3) 6.8eV 4) 4.35eV

113) Which of the following set of physical quantities have negative dimension of mass.

1) Universal gravitational constant, compressibility

2) Force, Force constant

3) Torque, Work

4) Planck's constant, Angular momentum

114) A body projected into air at an angle 60 with horizontal with initial velocity 8m/sec.

The radius of curvature of projectile at maximum height is ( 210 / secg m )

1) 2m 2) 1.6m 3) 1.2m 4) 1.4m

115) A block of mass 100kg is set into motion on a frictionless horizontal surface with the

help of friction less pulley and a rope system as shown in the fig. The horizontal force

'F' should be applied to produce in the block an acceleration of 210 / seccm is

1) 6N 2) 12N 3) 5N 4) 14N

116) A truck moving at 72 kmph carries a steel girder which rest on its wooden floor. What

is the minimum time in which the truck can come to stop without the girder moving

forward 0.5 .

1) 3.6 sec 2) 4.08 sec 3) 5.68 sec 4) 7.2 sec

117) The escape velocity of a projectile on the surface of the earth is 11.2 km/sec. A body

is projected out with twice this speed. What is the speed of the body far away from the

earth.

1) 11.2 km/sec 2) 5.6 km/sec 3) 20 km/sec 4) 19.4 km/sec

118) A constant volume gas thermometer using helium records a pressure of 20 kpa at the

triple-point of water and pressure of 14.3 kpa at the temp of dry ice. The temperature

of dry ice is

1) 195.3 K 2) 175.4 K 3) 165.6 K 4) 210.5 K

F

100kg block

119) 20 gm ice at 10 C is mixed with 20gm of steam at 100 C . Find quantity of water at

resultant temp.

1) 26.85 gm 2) 36.5 gm 3) 32.5 gm 4) 21.3 gm

120) One mole of an ideal gas undergoes a cycle change ABCD where the (P, V)

coordinates are A(5,1), B(5,3), C(2,3) and D (2,1). P is in atmosphere and V is in

litres. The work done along 'CD' is

1) 404 J 2) 404 J 3) 1010 J 4) 1010 J

121) The virtual current in A.C Circuit is shown in figure. The virtual voltage across

inductor coil is

1) 156V 2) 144V 3) 120V 4) 160V

122) Among two interfering sources, let A be ahead in phase by 54 relative to B. If the

observation be taken from point P, such that 1.5PB PA , the phase difference

between the waves from A and B on reaching 'P' is (in radians)

1) 3.3 2) 4 3) 2.1 4) 5

123) Two amplifiers are cascaded in series. The first amplifier has a voltage gain of 10 and

the second has a voltage gain of 40. If input signal is 0.05V , calculate the output

voltage.

1) 4.2 Volt 2) 20 Volt 3) 10 Volt 4) 5.6 Volt

124) A small block is freely sliding down from the top of a rough inclined plane whose

angle of inclination is 450. The block reaches the bottom and then it completes a

smooth vertical circle. If the co-efficient of friction is 0.5, the ratio of minimum

vertical height of inclined plane to the radius of vertical circle is (g = 10ms-2)

1) 3:1 2) 5:1 3) 5:2 4) 5 2 :1 125) A circular disc of radius R is removed from a bigger circular disk of radius 2R such

that the circumferences of the discs coincide. The centre of mass of the new disc is / R from the centre of the bigger disc. The value of is

1) 1/3 2) 1/2 3) 1/6 4) 1/4

P

V 1 2 3 1

2

3

4 5

D C

A B

E F

~

120V

126) A uniform rod AB of mass m and length L is at rest on a smooth horizontal surface.

An impulse P is applied to the end B. The time taken by the rod to turn through a right

angle is

1) 2 mL

P

2) 6mLP

3)

12mLP

4)

3mLP

127) Two wires are made of the same material and have the same volume. However wire 1

has cross sectional area A and a wire 2 has cross-sectional area 3A. If the length of

wire 1 increases by x on applying of force F, the force needed to stretch the wire 2

by the same amount is

1) 4F 2) 6F 3) 9F 4) F

128) Assume that an electric field 2ˆ30E x i

exists in space. Then the potential difference

0AV V , where 0V is the potential at the origin and AV the potential at 2x m is:

1) 80V 2) 120V 3) 120V 4) 80V

129) When a 12 resistor is connected with a moving coil galvanometer then its

deflection reduces from 50 divisions to 10 divisions. The resistance of the

galvanometer is.

1) 24 2) 36 3) 48 4) 60

130) A double convex thin lens made of glass (refractive index 1.5) has both radii of

curvature of magnitude 20cm. Incident light rays parallel to the axis of the lens will

converge at distance L such that

1) L = 20cm 2) L = 10cm 3) L = 40cm 4) L = 20/3

131) Which logic gate is represented by the following combination of logic gates?

1) OR 2) NAND 3) AND 4) NOR

132) If a million tiny droplets of water of the same radius coalesce into one larger drop the

ratio of the surface energy of the large drop to the total surface energy of all the

droplets will be

1) 1:10 2) 21:10 3) 41:10 4) 61:10

133) A mass suspended from a spring B observed to oscillate at a frequency of 12Hz. Now

the spring B cut in half and the two pieces are placed side by side. The mass is now

suspended from the composite spring congesting of the two smaller springs arranged

in parallel. At what frequency will the mass oscillate.

1) 24 Hz 2) 48 Hz 3) 12 2 Hz 4) 6Hz

A

B

Y

134) The sunlight reaching the earth has maximum electric field of 810 v/m. What is the

maximum magnetic field in this light?

1) 3.3 µT 2) 6.6 µT 3) 2.7 µT 4) 1.9 µT

135) A magnet is suspended in such a way that it oscillates in the horizontal plane. It

makes 20 oscillations per minute at a place where dip angle is 30o and 15 oscillations

per minute at a place where dip angle is 60o. The ratio of total earth's magnetic field at

the two places is

1) 8:33 2) 39:16 3) 9:4 4) 9:32 136) The correct statements from the following are

a) In Hydrogen atom 3 3 3s p d

b) The number of exchange sets possible for 4 23 4d s electronic configuration are 10.

c) The total number of electrons with 1l and 1/ 2S in 5th shell are 3

d) Number of orbitals present in an orbit is equal to 22n

1) a & b 2) b & c 3) c & d 4) b & d

137) If the radius of 1st orbit of Hydrogen is 0a , then de-Broglies wavelength of an

electron in 3rd orbit of Hydrogen is ___________.

1) 06 a 2) 03 a 3) 09 a 4) 02 a

138) The most acidic oxide of the first short period of long form of periodic table is ____

1) 2 5N O 2) 2 7Cl O 3) 3SO 4) 2CO

139) Amongst LiCl, RbCl, 2BeCl and 2MgCl the compounds with the greatest and the least ionic character, respectively are:

1) 2 2MgCl and BeCl 2) LiCl and RbCl

3) 2RbCl and MgCl 4) 2RbCl and BeCl

140) 4 2AB E type of molecule among the following is (A is central atom, B stands for

number of Bond pairs, E stands for number of lone pairs)

1) 4XeF 2) 3ClF 3) 6PF 4) 4SF

141) Among the following the pair having same number of atoms is ________

1) 11.2 liters of 2CO at STP and 36.5gms of HCl

2) 4gms of He and 28gms of 2N

3) 10gms of 3CaCO and 9.8gms of 2 4H SO

4) 28gms of CO and 32gms of 2O

142) A mole of N2H4 loses 10 moles of electrons and forms a new compound x. Assuming

that all the nitrogen appears in the new compound, what is the oxidation state of

nitrogen in the new compound ‘x’ (There is no change in oxidation state of Hydrogen)

1) +2 2) 3 3) +3 4) +5

143) Electron precise covalent Hydride among the following is ___________

1) 2 6B H 2) RbH 3) 3NH 4) 4CH

144) The strongest and weakest reducing agent of Alkali metals are ________ and _______

respectively in aqueous solution.

1) ,Li Cs 2) ,Li Na 3) ,Cs Na 4) ,Li K

145) Sodium reacts violently with water according to the equation below.

2 22 2 1 2Na s H O NaOH aq H g

The resulting solution has a higher temperature than the water prior to the addition of

sodium. What are the signs of ∆H° and ∆S° for this reaction?

1) ∆H° is negative and ∆S° is negative 2) ∆H° is positive and ∆S° is negative

3) ∆H° is negative and ∆S° is positive 4) ∆H° is positive and ∆S° is positive

146) Which of the following is most reactive cation in azocoupling reaction with phenol in

basic medium?

1)

==CH3O N N

2)

==H3C N N

3)

==Cl N N

4)

==NO2 N N

147) The partial pressure of dioxygen in a mixture containing 70.6g of dioxygen and

167.5g of Neon at a total pressure of 25 bar is _________

1) 9.75 bar 2) 5.20 bar 3) 12.25 bar 4) 7.25 bar

148) Compressibility factor 'Z' for a gas is taken as PVnRT

. Select the incorrect statement/s

from the following 1) Z = 1 for ideal gases

2) At normal temperature 1Z for 2H gas

3) For He gas 1Z at all pressures

4) 1Z for real gas at very high pressure

149) The IUPAC name of the following compound is

Br

1) 6- Bromo-4, 5-dimethy-oct-5-ene-1-yne

2) 3- Bromo-5, 6-dimethy-oct-3-ene-7-yne

3) 3- Bromo-5, 6-dimethy-oct-5-ene-1-yne

4) 6- Bromo-4, 5-dimethy-oct-5-ene-2-yne

150) Which of the following is most stable carbanion

1) 3C H

2) 2Cl C H

3) 2 2O N C H

4) 2F C H

151) The formula of the Prussian blue coloured precipitate obtained in detection of

Nitrogen by lassaigne's test is __________

1) 4 6 2Fe Fe CN 2) 3 4 2

Fe Fe CN

3) 4 6 3Fe Fe CN 4) 3 6 4

Fe Fe CN

152)

H3C CH = CH2

HCl

AlCl3

HCl(C6H5CO)2O

x major

y major

Correct statement among the following

1) Formation of 'x' is electrophilic substitution and 'y' is free radical substitution

2) Formation of 'x' is electrophilic addition and 'y' is free radical addition

3) 'x' is n-propyl chloride while 'y' is iso-propyl chloride.

4) Formation of both 'x' and 'y' is electrophilic addition reaction.

153) 2 22 63 ' ' /g g gA B A B X KJ mole Then the conditions favourable to shift the equilibrium in the backward direction are

_________ 1) Low temperature and high pressure

2) Low temperature and low pressure

3) High temperature and low pressure

4) High temperature and high pressure

154) What is the pH of the resulting solution obtained when 100 ml of 0.15 M H2SO4 is

mixed with 100 ml of 0.1M NaOH?

1) 1.0 2) 1.5 3) 2.0 4) 3.0

155) The correct statement among the following

1) 4CCl is inert and does not undergo hydrolysis

2) Diamond is thermodynamically more stable than graphite

3) The stability of 4 4 4 4Pb Sn Ge Si

4) In buckminster fullerene there are 20 Five membered rings and 12 seven membered

rings

156) The number of equivalents of sodium carbonate present in 100 ml of 0. 05 N solution

are __________

1) 0.005 2) 0.5 3) 5.0 4) 0.05

157) Which of the following pairs of solutions exhibit the same colligative properties

1) 0.1M glucose and 0.05M NaCl

2) 0.1M sucrose and 0.2M glucose

3) 0.1M NaCl and 0.05M 2BaCl

4) 0.1M NaCl and 0.05M sucrose

158) First three nearest neighbour distances for body centered cubic lattice respectively are

__________

1) 2 , , 3a a a 2) , , 32

a a a

3) 3 , , 22

a a a 4) 3 , , 32

a a a

159) During the kinetic study of the reaction 2A B C D following results were

obtained.

S.No /A mole lt /B mole lt Rate of formation of /D mole lt

1) 0.1 0.1 42 10

2) 0.2 0.2 416 10

3) 0.2 0.4 432 10

Based on the above data, the correct rate expression is __________

1) Rate = 1 2K A B 2) Rate = 2 1K A B

3) Rate = 3 0K A B 4) Rate = 2 2K A B

160) Temperature coefficient of a reaction is 2. If the temperature is raised from 015 to 075 then the rate of the reaction increases by _________ times.

1) 128 times 2) 32 times 3) 64 times 4) 16 times

161) Resistance of a conductivity cell filled with a solution of an electrolyte of

concentration 0.1M is 100 ohm. The conductivity of this solutions is 1.29S.m-1.

Resistance of the same cell when filled with 0.02M of the same solution is 520 ohm.

The molar conductivity of 0.02M solution of the electrolyte will be:

1) 4 2 1124 10 .S m mol 2) 6 2 1124 10 .S m mol

3) 4 2 11.2 10 .S m mol 4) 4 2 112.4 10 .S m mol

162) Which among the following is incorrect regarding dry cell?

1) Reaction at anode: 2 2Zn s Zn aq e

2) 2MnO acts as cathodic depolariser

3) Electrolyte: 4 2NH Cl C MnO

4) Reaction at cathode: 2 3 3 22ZnCl NH Zn NH Cl

163) Blue baby syndrome is caused by

1) Sulphates 2) Pesticides 3) Nitrates 4) Fluoride

164) The correct order of oxidizing power among the following ions is

1) 24 2 7 2MnO Cr O VO 2) 2

2 7 4 2Cr O MnO VO

3) 22 7 2 4Cr O VO MnO 4) 2

2 2 7 4VO Cr O MnO

165) The isomerism that arises due to interchange of ligands between cationic and anionic

entities of metal ions in a complex is

1) Solvate isomerism 2) Ionisation isomerism

3) Coordination isomerism 4) Linkage isomerism

166) The correct matching for the colloids is

1) Gold Number P) Scattering of light

2) Electrophoresis Q) Unilayer formation

3) Hardy Schulze rule R) Coagulation

4) Tyndal effect S) Protection

5) Chemisorption T) Migration of charged species under the influence of electric field.

1) 1-R,2-T,3-S,4-P,5-Q 2) 1-S,2-T,3-R,4-P,5-Q

3) 1-R,2-S,3-P,4-T,5-Q 4) 1-R,2-T,3-S,4-Q5-P

167) Aspartame (Methyl L-α-aspartyl-L-phenylalaninate) is

1) an histamin drug 2) an anti-fertiligy drug

3) an artificial sweeter 4) an anti-septic agent

168) Which of the following alkaline earth metals produces characteristic apple green

colour in Bunsen flame test?

1) Calcium 2) Strontium 3) Barium 4) Radium

169) In which of the following arrangements, the sequence is not strictly according to the

property written against it?

1) CO2 < SiO2 < SnO2 < PbO2 : Increasing basic nature

2) HF < HCl < HBr < HI : Increasing acid strength

3) NH3 < PH3 < AsH3 < SbH3 : Increasing basic strength

4) 2 2 2 2H Te H Se H S H O : Bond angle

170) Arrange in the order of increasing acidic strengths.

NH3

COOH

NH3Z

X

Y

1) X Z Y 2) Z X Y 3) X Y Z 4) Z X Y

171) Identify the option which represents the correct products of the following reaction,

1) I, II only 2) I, II, III only 3) III, IV only 4) I, III only

172) Which one of the following ores is concentrated by froth floatation method?

1) malachite 2) magnetite 3) siderite 4) galena

173) Which of the following reaction of Xenon compounds is not feasible?

1) 3 6 26 3XeO HF XeF H O

2) 4 2 3 23 6 2 12 1.5XeF H O Xe XeO HF O

3) 2 2 22 2 2 4XeF H O Xe HF O

4) 6 7XeF RbF Rb XeF

174) Rate of reaction with Aqueous ethanol follows the order:

(P) (Q) (R) (S)

1) P Q S R 2) Q P R S 3) P R Q S 4) R P S Q

175) 4.2 2 2 ( ) ( )alc KCN LiAlHCH CHCH CH Br A B , (B) in reaction is

1) 2 2 2 2CH CHCH CH NH 2) 2 2CH CHCH COOH

3) 3 2 2 2 2 2CH CH CH CH CH NH 4) 2 2 2 2 2CH CHCH CH CH NH

76)

X would be

1)

CH2 COONa

2)

CH2 CH2OH

3)

C

O

O Na

4)

CH2 C CH3

O

177) (I) (II)

(III) (IV)

The correct relationship between above structures.

1) I and II are anomers; III and IV are epimers

2) I and III are epimers; II and IV are anomers

3) I and II are epimers; III and IV are anomers

4) I and III are anomers; I and II are epimers

178) The acid which can form three series of salts is

1) H3PO4 2) H3PO3 3) H4P2O7 4) H3PO2

179) Of the given isomeric hexanes, the isomer which can give two monochlorinated

compounds is

1) n-hexane 2) 2, 3-dimethylbutane

3) 2, 2-dimethylbutane 4) 2-methylpentane

180) Which of the following statements is not correct?

1) AgBr shows both Schottky and Frenkel defects

2) Ferrous oxide can be prepared in its stoichiometric composition

3) Cationic holes in an ionic crystal impart electrical conductivity to the crystal

4) Zinc oxide gives a yellow coloured non –stoichiometric compound on heating