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IBPS RRB Scale I Officer Mock Test 1 1 All ixamBee Mock Tests are FREE. Please visit www.ixamBee.com Contact us at 92055 24028 (SMS/WhatsApp/call) or [email protected] The answers along with explanations are given at the end of the question paper Section: Reasoning Directions (1-5): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below. P,Q,R,S,T,U,V and W sitting around circular table facing the centre. Among them there are three Artists, two Athletes, two Teachers and one Manager. Each person has only one occupation. There are three married couples in the family and no unmarried female. Three generations are there in the family. (i)S has two children. V and W are children of T and R respectively. (ii)U is wife of S and mother of Q and P. R is a female but not wife of P. (iii) V, a grandson of S, sits exactly between R and P and only T sits exactly between Q and U. Only one person sits between R and Q but he is not W. Q is not the immediate neighbour of V, and is not opposite to S. Q does not sit opposite a female. (iv) One of the sons of S is on the immediate left of S. (v)The person who is on the immediate left of V and the person who is on immediate right of Q are not Artists. (vi) The immediate neighbours of T are neither an Athletes nor an Artist. W is a Manager. Question No. 1 Who among the following is P’s wife? Options : 1. U 2. T 3. W 4. R 5. None of these Question No. 2 Who among the following sits between W and Q? Options : 1. P and R 2. U and T 3. V and R 4. S and R 5. None of these

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The answers along with explanations are given at the end of the question paper

Section: Reasoning

Directions (1-5):

Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

P,Q,R,S,T,U,V and W sitting around circular table facing the centre. Among them there are three Artists, two Athletes, two Teachers and one Manager. Each person has only one occupation. There are three married couples in the family and no unmarried female. Three generations are there in the family.

(i)S has two children. V and W are children of T and R respectively.

(ii)U is wife of S and mother of Q and P. R is a female but not wife of P.

(iii) V, a grandson of S, sits exactly between R and P and only T sits exactly between Q and U. Only one person sits between R and Q but he is not W. Q is not the immediate neighbour of V, and is not opposite to S. Q does not sit opposite a female.

(iv) One of the sons of S is on the immediate left of S.

(v)The person who is on the immediate left of V and the person who is on immediate right of Q are not Artists.

(vi) The immediate neighbours of T are neither an Athletes nor an Artist. W is a Manager.

Question No. 1 Who among the following is P’s wife? Options :

1. U

2. T

3. W

4. R

5. None of these Question No. 2 Who among the following sits between W and Q? Options :

1. P and R

2. U and T

3. V and R

4. S and R

5. None of these

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Question No. 3 Which of the following is not true about V? Options :

1. V sits to the immediate right of the person who is an Athlete.

2. V is an Artist.

3. V sits opposite to T.

4. V is wife of Q.

5. None of these Question No. 4 What is the position of R with respect to W? Options :

1. Fifth to the left.

2. Second to the right.

3. Third to the right.

4. Fifth to the right.

5. None of these Question No. 5 How many people are sitting between S and T when counted anticlockwise direction from T? Options :

1. One

2. Three

3. Five

4. Four

5. None of these

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Directions (6-10): In the following questions, the symbols *, +, #, $ and @ are used with the following meaning as illustrated below:

A*B means ‘A is not greater than B’.

A + B means ‘A is neither greater than nor equal to B’

A # B means ‘A is not smaller than B’

A $ B means ‘A is neither smaller not greater than B’

A @ B means ‘A is neither smaller than nor equal to B’

Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find out which of the conclusions I, II given below them is/ are definitely true and mark your answer accordingly.

Question No. 6 Statement :

Q # T, T @ S, Q * O

Conclusion :

I. $ S II. Q @ S

Options :

1. If only conclusion I is true.

2. If only conclusion II is true.

3. If either conclusion I or II is true.

4. If neither conclusion I nor II is true.

5. If both conclusions I and II are true. Question No. 7 Statement : Q $ T, T @ S, S # R, R # U

Conclusion : I. Q @ S

II. S # U

Options :

1. If only conclusion I is true.

2. If only conclusion II is true.

3. If either conclusion I or II is true.

4. If neither conclusion I nor II is true.

5. If both conclusions I and II are true.

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Question No. 8 Statement : Q + T, T # O, O @ S, Q + R

Conclusion : I. R @ T

II. T @ S

Options :

1. If only conclusion I is true.

2. If only conclusion II is true.

3. If either conclusion I or II is true.

4. If neither conclusion I nor II is true.

5. If both conclusions I and II are true. Question No. 9 Statement : D $ E, E @ F, D # Q, Q @ O

Conclusion : I. E # Q

II. D + O

Options :

1. If only conclusion I is true.

2. If only conclusion II is true.

3. If either conclusion I or II is true.

4. If neither conclusion I nor II is true.

5. If both conclusions I and II are true. Question No. 10 Statement : A $ S, S * R, R # Q, Q + L

Conclusion : I. A # R

II. Q + A

Options :

1. If only conclusion I is true.

2. If only conclusion II is true.

3. If either conclusion I or II is true.

4. If neither conclusion I nor II is true.

5. If both conclusions I and II are true.

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Directions(11-15): In each question below are given three statements followed by three conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the three given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.

Question No. 11 Statement :

Some biscuits are cakes.

All cakes are flours.

All flours are muffins.

Conclusion :

I. All muffins being biscuits is a possibility.

II. At least some flours are biscuits.

III. Some cakes are not muffins.

Options :

1. None follows

2. I, II and III follow

3. II and III follow

4. I and II follow

5. None of these Question No. 12 Statement :

No ocean is a land.

Some lands are boundaries.

All boundaries are banks.

Conclusion :

I. No ocean is a boundaries.

II. All banks are lands.

III. Some oceans are boundaries.

Options :

1. All follows

2. I and III follow

3. Either I or III follow

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4. None follows

5. None of these Question No. 13 Statement :

All fruits are vegetables

Some vegetables are potatoes

No potato is a tomato

Conclusion :

I. Some fruits being potatoes is a possibility

II. At least some vegetables are not tomatoes

III. Some tomatoes are not potatoes

Options :

1. All follows

2. I and III follow

3. II and III follows

4. None follows

5. None of these Question No. 14 Statement :

No mobiles is a charger.

Some chargers are not phones.

No phone is a bell.

Conclusion :

I. No mobile is a bell.

II. Some mobiles are not phones.

III. Some chargers are mobiles.

Options :

1. All follows

2. I and III follow

3. II and III follow

4. None follows

5. None of these

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Question No. 15 Statement :

No pen is a cover.

No cover is a page.

All pages are stickers.

Conclusion :

I. At least some pages are covers .

II. No cover is a pen.

III. Some stickers are not covers.

Options :

1. None follows

2. I, II and III follow

3. II and III follow

4. I and III follow

5. None of these Directions(16-20): Each of the questions given below has one question and two statements marked I and II. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer :

Question No. 16 How is P related to B?

I. Z is father of A and brother of B

II. P is daughter of D, who is mother of A

Options :

1. If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

2. If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in

statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

3. If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.

4. If the data even in both the statement I and II together are not sufficient to answer the

question

5. If the data in both statement I and II together are needed to answer the question.

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Question No. 17 Which among the six boxes viz. A, B, C, D , E and F is the smallest?

I. B is bigger than E and F and equal to D.

II. D is smaller than or equal to C, which is not bigger than A.

Options :

1. If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

2. If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in

statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

3. If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.

4. If the data even in both the statement I and II together are not sufficient to answer the

question

5. If the data in both statement I and II together are needed to answer the question. Question No. 18 What is the age of Suhani ?

I. Suhani is twice as old as Riya

II. Riya is twice as old as Rani

Options :

1. If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

2. If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in

statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

3. If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.

4. If the data even in both the statement I and II together are not sufficient to answer the

question

5. If the data in both statement I and II together are needed to answer the question. Question No. 19 How is ‘oral’ written in a code language?

I. ‘ oral and written’ is written as ‘ ho jo ko’ in that code language.

II. ‘oral end all’ is written as ‘mo lo jo’

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Options :

1. If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

2. If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in

statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

3. If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.

4. If the data even in both the statement I and II together are not sufficient to answer the

question

5. If the data in both statement I and II together are needed to answer the question. Question No. 20 Point Q is towards which direction with respect to N?

I. Point N is to the west of point U, Which is to the south of point S

II. Point T is to the south of U, which is to the west of Q.

Options :

1. If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

2. If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in

statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

3. If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.

4. If the data even in both the statement I and II together are not sufficient to answer the

question

5. If the data in both statement I and II together are needed to answer the question. Directions (21-25): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

ICC Champions Trophy is being organised by England. Different teams are participating in the ICC Champions Trophy. There are some new teams which are also participating in this ICC Champions Trophy for the first time. Seven new teams which are participating for the first time are - Australia, New Zealand, India, England, Pakistan, Sri Lanka and South Africa. They will be playing there practice matches at different places, namely Edgbaston, Kennington, Sophia Gardens, Trent Bridge, Manchester, Headingley and Leicester, but not necessarily in the same order, on different days of the week, starting from Monday.

I. Australia will be playing at Kennington, but neither on Friday nor on Monday. II. The host country will be playing on Thursday at Manchester.

III. There is a gap of one day between Australia and England match. IV. Sri Lanka will be playing the match before South Africa but after Pakistan at Sophia Gardens

on Wednesday. V. South Africa will be playing on the last day of the week. VI. New Zealand will be playing at Leicester.

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VII. No match will be played at Edgbaston on Monday. VIII. The match at Headingley will be played on the last day of the week. IX. The match at Trent Bridge will be played on Tuesday. X. No match will be played at Leicester on Tuesday and Friday.

Question No. 21 New Zealand will be playing the match on which day of the week? Options :

1. Friday

2. Tuesday

3. Saturday

4. Monday

5. None of these Question No. 22 Which team will be playing the match between Saturday and Thursday? Options :

1. South Africa

2. India

3. England

4. Pakistan

5. None of these Question No. 23 Which of the following combinations is true? Options :

1. England - Thursday - Manchester

2. Pakistan - Wednesday - Edgbaston

3. South Africa - Saturday - Headingley

4. India - Monday – Kennington

5. None of these

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Question No. 24 Which team will be playing in Trent Bridge? Options :

1. New Zealand

2. England

3. Pakistan

4. Sri Lanka

5. None of these Question No. 25 Which of the following combinations is false? Options :

1. New Zealand - Monday

2. Sri Lanka - Wednesday

3. Pakistan - Tuesday

4. Australia – Sunday

5. None of these

Directions (26-30):

Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below .

In a certain language.

‘Every time woman tribe’, is written as ‘g#v15 a#g24 p#y24 g#v24’

‘Converse with younger members’, is written as ‘ g&e63 j@y15 t&a48 u#o48 ‘

‘Different leaders five point’, is written as ‘u&n48 v&f80 v#r24 g#h15

‘Mother tongue would sound’, is written as ‘g&v35 f#y24 f#u24 t#o35

Question No. 26 What is the code for ‘leaders’? Options :

1. v&f80

2. g#h15

3. v#r24’

4. u&n48

5. None of these

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Question No. 27 What does ‘high court ordered’ represents? Options :

1. g@j13 t#f20 d&r458

2. j@j15 v#e24 f&q48

3. h#j18 q&o23 t&o42

4. k@l10 s@u20 b&u41

5. None of these Question No. 28 What does t&u48 stands for? Options :

1. Soldier

2. Supper

3. Relief

4. Agreed

5. None of these Question No. 29 What is the code for ‘mother ’? Options :

1. g&v35

2. f#u24

3. f#y24

4. t#o35

5. None of these

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Question No. 30 What does ‘i&f80’ stands for? Options :

1. Caused

2. Demand

3. Defending

4. Condition

5. None of these Directions (31-35): Study the following information carefully and answer the following question.

Eight friends Harish, Manav, Neel, Gautam , Bunty, Pulkit, Dheeraj and Ishaan are sitting in a row facing north. All of them have different roll numbers in the class, viz. 28, 32, 35, 43, 45, 56, 59 and 60.

I. There is only one person between Neel and the one having roll no. 59. II. Dheeraj is neither an immediate neighbour of Neel nor his roll no. is 43.

III. Harish sits fourth to the left of the one having roll no. 59 but his roll no. is not 32. IV. The person having roll no. 56 is third to the right of the one having roll no. 43 and sits on the

immediate right of Harish. V. The one having roll no. 43 sits at one of the extreme end of the row. Manav’s roll no. is not

43. VI. Pulkit is an immediate neighbour of both Dheeraj and Neel. VII. Ishaan sits at one of the extreme end of the row but his roll no. is not 43. VIII. The one having roll no. 60 sits second to the right of the one having roll no. 35. IX. The one having roll no. 56 and 32 are immediate neighbours. X. Bunty sits third to the left of Neel and his roll no. is 45. XI. There is only person between the persons having roll no. 45 and 56.

Question No. 31 Which if the following statement is true about Gautam? Options :

1. He is sitting at the right end of the row.

2. His roll no. is 60

3. He is sitting fourth to the left of Neel.

4. He is sitting on the immediate right of the one having roll no. 28.

5. None of these

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Question No. 32 How many people are sitting between Bunty and the one having roll no. 59? Options :

1. Two

2. Four

3. Three

4. Five

5. None of these Question No. 33 Whose roll number is 56? Options :

1. Bunty

2. Harish

3. Manav

4. Pulkit

5. None of these Question No. 34 What is the roll number of Dheeraj? Options :

1. 43

2. 59

3. 32

4. 28

5. None of these Question No. 35 What is the position of Ishaan with respect to Harish? Options :

1. Fourth to the left

2. Second to the right

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3. Third to the left

4. Fifth to the right

5. None of these

Question No. 36 Two Bikes start from the opposite places of a highway 250km apart. First Bike runs for 45km and takes a right turn and then runs 25km. It then turns left and then runs for another 35 km and then takes a left turn and stopped after reaching the highway. In the mean time, due to minor clutch down the other bike could run only 55 km along the highway and stopped after that. What would be the distance between two bikes at the point where both have stopped? Options :

1. 125 km

2. 115 km

3. 85 km

4. 105 km

5. None of these

Directions (37-38):

Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below it:

‘A @ B’ mean ‘A is sister of B’.

‘A # B’ means ‘A is brother of B’.

‘A $ B’ means ‘A is mother of B’.

‘A % B’ means ‘A is father of B’.

‘A ! B’ means ‘A is husband of B’.

Question No. 37 Which of the following shows that D is the granddaughter of V ? Options :

1. V % D % C@ T # M

2. V % M % C @ R # T

3. V % T # M % D @ C

4. T # M % D @ C% V

5. None of these

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Question No. 38 Which of the followings is definitely true about

“L @ O % R @ W $ X”?

Options :

1. L is uncle of W

2. is father of X

3. R is aunt of X

4. X is daughter of W

5. None of these Directions (39-40): In each question below a statement is given followed by two courses of action numbered I and II. A course of action is a practicable and feasible step or administrative decision to be taken for follow – up, improvement, or further action in regard to the problem, policy, etc. On the basis of the information given in the statement, you have to assume everything in the statement to be true, and decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follows(s) pursuing.

Question No. 39 Statement: As per data provided by the education department, as many as 8,604 posts of Hindi teachers in primary schools and 1,500 in high schools are vacant

Courses of actions:

I. The education department should issue a directive that schools may fill Hindi teachers' post by appointing guest faculties.

II. The other subject teachers in schools should double up as Hindi teachers or retired teachers should be pursued to work as part-time teachers.

Options :

1. if only I follows.

2. if only II follows.

3. if either I or II follows.

4. if neither I nor II follows.

5. if both I and II follows.

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Question No. 40 Statement: Malnutrition isn’t just about acute starvation and often, healthy-looking people are malnourished too, because their diet does not include the right micronutrients.

Courses of actions:

I . To tackle the issue, the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) should release a set of standards and focus on awareness and consensus building.

II. The consumers should be made aware that deficiencies can have serious effects like, iron deficiency leads to critical problems during pregnancy, and not enough Vitamin A can lead to poor vision, infections, and skin problems.

Options :

1. if only I follows.

2. if only II follows.

3. if either I or II follows

4. if neither I nor II follows.

5. if both I and II follows.

Section: Numerical Aptitude

Directions (41-45) What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following number series?

Question No. 41 480 288 ? 103.68 62.208 37.3248 Options :

1. 162.6

2. 172.8

3. 182.8

4. 168.6

5. None of these Question No. 42 16 9 ? 114.25 750.625 6396.3125 Options :

1. 28.25

2. 20.50

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3. 22.25

4. 24.50

5. None of these Question No. 43 6 7 20 ? 3248 81075 Options :

1. (107)

2. (180)

3. (207)

4. (157)

5. None of these Question No. 44 33 ? 66 82.5 99 115.5 Options :

1. 49.50

2. 54.50

3. 47.25

4. 35.25

5. None of these Question No. 45 17 9 ? 13.5 25 65 Options :

1. 8

2. 11

3. 13

4. 9

5. None of these

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Direction (46-50): In the following questions, two equations numbered I and II are given.

You have to solve both the equations and give answer.

(1) If x > y

(2) If x < y

(3) If x ≥ y

(4) If x ≤ y

(5) If x = y or Relationship between x & y cannot be established

Question No. 46 I. x2 + 5x + 4 = 0

II. 5y2 + 6y + 1 = 0

Options :

1. (1)

2. (2)

3. (3)

4. (4)

5. (5) Question No. 47 I. 2x2 - 5x + 3 = 0

II. y2 - 2y - 8 = 0

Options :

1. (1)_

2. (2)

3. (3)

4. (4)

5. (5)

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Question No. 48 I. 5x2 + 2x - 3 = 0

II. 2y2 - 5y - 7 = 0

Options :

1. (1)

2. (2)

3. (3)

4. (4)

5. (5) Question No. 49 I. 5x2 + 7x + 2 = 0

II. 3y2 - 7y + 4 = 0

Options :

1. (1)

2. (2)

3. (3)

4. (4)

5. (5) Question No. 50 I. x2 - 5x + 6 = 0

II. 8y2 - 2y - 1 = 0

Options :

1. (1)

2. (2)

3. (3)

4. (4)

5. (5)

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Directions (51-55): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions:

There are 3 departments Content, Sales and IT in company X. Total number of employees in all the given departments is 17500. The ratio of total employees in 3 departments Content, Sales and IT is 14 : 12 : 9. Some of the employees from these departments are managers. The female employee is always greater than male employee including managers also.

In Content department, the difference between the male to that of female employees is 1000. Out of the total employees in this department, 12 % are managers. Total male managers are 385.

In Sales department, the total number of female employees is 500 more than the total male employees in Content department. Out of the total employees, the percentage of total number of managers in Sales and IT department is 15 % and 33(1/3)% respectively. The difference between the male managers to that of female managers is 280.

In IT department, the total female employees is same as total male employees in Sales department. Total female managers in IT department is twice of total female managers in Content department.

Question No. 51 What is the ratio between the total male employees in Content and IT department together to that of total female managers in Sales and IT department together? Options :

1. 3 : 5

2. 1 : 3

3. 5 : 4

4. 10 : 3

5. None of these Question No. 52 What is the difference between the total male managers in Content department to that of total female managers in IT department? Options :

1. 525

2. 445

3. 665

4. 715

5. None of these

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Question No. 53 What is the average number of managers in all the given departments together? Options :

1. 1080

2. 1380

3. 1150

4. 1204

5. None of these Question No. 54 Total number of male managers in Content and Sales department together is what percentage of total male employees in IT department ? Options :

1. 24.35 %

2. 14.50 %

3. 34.75 %

4. 42.25 %

5. None of these Question No. 55 The total number of female employees in Content department is what percentage of total number of male employees in Sales department? Options :

1. 120%

2. 140%

3. 160%

4. 180%

5. None of these

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Direction (56-60): Each question given below contains a statement followed by quantity I and quantity II. Find both to find the relationship among them. Mark your answer according Question No. 56 Quantity I: The price of rice is decreased by 50%, by how much % the consumption is increased so that the expenditure will decreased by 10%?

Quantity II: A man spends Rs. 9,000 out of his income 13,000. If his income and expenditure are increased by 12% and 12%. Find the percentage change in his savings.

Options :

1. Quantity I > Quantity II

2. Quantity I ≥ Quantity II

3. Quantity I < Quantity II

4. Quantity I ≤ Quantity II

5. Quantity I = Quantity II or No relation can be established Question No. 57 Quantity I: A motor car travels a distance of 100 km at the speed of 50 kmph. If it covers the next 120 km of its journey at the speed of 60 kmph and last 60 km of its journey at the speed of 20 kmph. What is the average speed of the car? Quantity II: The average speed of a bus is 4/9 of the average speed of a car which covers 3600 km in 40 hrs. What is the average speed of the bus? Options :

1. Quantity I > Quantity II

2. Quantity I ≥ Quantity II

3. Quantity I < Quantity II

4. Quantity I ≤ Quantity II

5. Quantity I = Quantity II or No relation can be established Question No. 58 Quantity I: 7x2 + 26x + 24 = 0 Quantity II: 5y2 - 27y + 36 = 0 Options :

1. Quantity I > Quantity II

2. Quantity I ≥ Quantity II

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3. Quantity I < Quantity II

4. Quantity I ≤ Quantity II

5. Quantity I = Quantity II or No relation can be established

Question No. 59 Quantity I: A bag contains 10 red books, 7 yellow books and 7 green books. 3 books are drawn randomly. What is the probability that the books drawn is not a green book? Quantity II: If the letters of the word CAZIQUE be arranged at random, what is the probability that there are exactly five letters between E and C? Options :

1. Quantity I > Quantity II

2. Quantity I ≥ Quantity II

3. Quantity I < Quantity II

4. Quantity I ≤ Quantity II

5. Quantity I = Quantity II or No relation can be established Question No. 60 Quantity I: Two pipes A and B can fill a tank in 4 hours and 6 hours respectively & a waste pipe C can empty in 18 hours. If pipes A , B & C are opened at 6am , 7am & 8 am respectively, then at what time tank will be completely filled? Quantity II: 8:15 am Options :

1. Quantity I > Quantity II

2. Quantity I ≥ Quantity II

3. Quantity I < Quantity II

4. Quantity I ≤ Quantity II

5. Quantity I = Quantity II or No relation can be established

Directions (61-65):

Study the table and answer the following questions.

Distribution of medicines in different states and among different category of profile of India under Pradhan Mantri Jan medicine Yojana (PMJAY) scheme.

Total medicines (Aushadi) distributed = 50 lakh.

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Question No. 61 What is the difference between the distribution of medicine in High income people of Punjab, Assam and Haryana together to the distribution of medicine in Middle income people of Uttarakhand, Bihar and U.P? Options :

1. 6.893

2. 2.958

3. 3.652

4. 5.671

5. None of these Question No. 62 What is the ratio of distribution of medicine in low income people of Bihar and middle income people Haryana? Options :

1. 107 : 52

2. 116 : 43

3. 121: 77

4. 134: 81

5. None of these

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Question No. 63 In Uttarakhand state, the ratio of percent distribution of medicine in high income people to the low income people in 3:5, then the distribution of medicine is high income people in the same state is how much less than that of in middle income people? Options :

1. 2,10,800

2. 1,55,620

3. 3,15,200

4. 5,63900

5. None of these Question No. 64 Total distribution of medicine in Maharashtra is approximately what percent more or less than that of total distribution of medicine in Punjab and U.P together? Options :

1. 33%

2. 17%

3. 21%

4. 48%

5. None of these Question No. 65 Total distribution of medicine in low income people of all the state together excluding Uttarakhand is approximately what percent of the total distribution of medicine in all the state together? Options :

1. 43%

2. 11%

3. 27%

4. 34%

5. None of these

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Directions (66-70):

Study the following graph and answer the questions given below:

No. of students (in thousands) who opted for three subjects in five different years.

Question No. 66 Which of the following statement is correct?

I. Difference between the number of students opted for Geography and Chemistry in 2013 and the number of students opted for Biology in 2015 is 25.

II. Ratio between the number of students opted all the three subject in 2012 and 2013 to the number of students opted for Chemistry in all the years together is 13 : 11.

III. In 2014, the number of students opted for all the three subjects is maximum.

Options :

1. Only I

2. Only I and II

3. Only II and III

4. Only II

5. None of these

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Question No. 67 The total number of students who opted for Geography in the years 2012 and 2015 together are approximately what percent of the total number of students who opted for all three subjects in the same years? Options :

1. (48)

2. (38)

3. (42)

4. (40)

5. None of these Question No. 68 Out of the total number of students who opted for the given three subjects, in the year 2016, 40% were girls. How many boys opted for Geography in the same year? Options :

1. 1022

2. 1132

3. 1212

4. Cannot be determined

5. None of these Question No. 69 What is the respective ratio between the number of students who opted for Biology in the years 2013 and 2015 together and the number of students who opted for Chemistry in the year 2012 and 2016 together? Options :

1. 11 : 18

2. 12 : 17

3. 21 : 37

4. 23 : 45

5. None of these

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Question No. 70 If the total number of students in the University in the year 2014 was 22500, then, the total number of students who opted for the given three subjects was what percent of the total students? Options :

1. 100

2. 200

3. 400

4. 300

5. None of these Question No. 71 A committee of 5 members is to be formed out of 6 men and 4 women. In how many ways can a committee consisting of atleast 1 woman be formed? Options :

1. 216

2. 238

3. 246

4. 242

5. None of these Question No. 72 Roger Federer play 3 sets of a tennis match. The probability of his winning the three sets are 1/9,1/4,3/4 respectively. What is the probability that he will win at least 1 set of the game? Options :

1. 4/7

2. 5/6

3. 1/6

4. 3/8

5. None of these

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Question No. 73 A tank is filled by 3 pipes, second pipe take 5 hours more than first pipe and 5 hours less than third pipe to fill the tank alone. If second and third pipe together take 1 hour more than first pipe to fill the tank then find out how much time second pipe will take to fill the tank alone? Options :

1. 10 hrs

2. 8 hrs

3. 12 hrs

4. 15 hrs

5. None of these Question No. 74 Rs. 5000 is spent on the maintenance of a rectangular ground. The cost per square metre is 75 paisa. The width of the ground is 150m. If the length of the ground is increased by 40m, then find the new cost of the maintenance? Options :

1. Rs. 9500

2. Rs. 8750

3. Rs. 11400

4. Rs. 8500

5. None of these Question No. 75 A man buys a laptop at Rs. 18,000. He pays Rs.6,000 at once and the rest after 18 months on which he is charging a simple interest at the rate of 15% per annum. The total amount he pays for the laptop is Options :

1. Rs.18,800

2. Rs.21,300

3. Rs.20,700

4. Rs.21,640 5. None of these

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Question No. 76 Gagan and Magan have their monthly incomes in the ratio of 9:7 while their monthly expenditures are in the ratio of 6:5, if they have saved Rs. 23,400 and 16,700 monthly respectively, then the difference in their monthly income is Options :

1. Rs. 12,000

2. Rs. 11,200

3. Rs. 14,000

4. Rs. 14,800 Question No. 77 The ratio of number of balls in bags A & B is 3:4. Seven Balls are taken from bag B and are dropped in bag A, number of balls are equal in each bag now. Number of balls in each bag now is Options :

1. (56)

2. (81)

3. (64)

4. (25)

5. None of these Question No. 78 The average age of 10 men is increased by 2 years when two of them whose age are 24 and 26 years replaced by two new men. The average age of the two new men is. Options :

1. 70 years

2. 72 years

3. 36 years

4. 48 years

5. None of these

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Question No. 79 4 men and 6 women together or 8 men can complete a piece of work in 20 days. 6 men and 6 women will complete the same work in Options :

1. 16 days

2. 14 days

3. 18 days

4. 12 days

5. None of these Question No. 80 If the perimeter of a square is 88 cm and the circumference of a circle 88cm, then which figure has larger area and by how much? Options :

1. Square, 132cm²

2. Circle, 132cm²

3. Both have equal area

4. Square, 64cm²

5. None of these

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Answers and Explanations Question.1. Answer : Option 2 Explanation: From (i),

From (ii) and (iii) and since no unmarried females, W and V are males.

Fix V’s position at 8.

This means, according to (iii), R and P can occupy positions 7 and 1.

And Also according to (iii), T sits exactly between Q and U.

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Also, Only one person sits between R and Q but he is not W.

So, two cases arise. Since in both the cases, Q will sit opposite P, P has to be a male as according to (iii), Q does not sit opposite a female.

Family tree is

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As according to (iv), on the immediate left of S has to be a son of S (P or Q), case II will be discarded.

According to (iii), W does not sit between Q and R, thus, W will be at 6 and S will be at 2.

Now, there have to be

3 – Artists

2 – Athletes

2 – Teachers

1 – Manager

Since from (vi), Q and U are not Athletes or Astists, they are definitelt Teachers and also we come to know that W is a Manager.

We got 2 teachers, 1 manager and also from (v), it is clear that R and S cannot be artists, thus they are athletes.

Now, remaining three, T , V and P are Artists.

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Final Solution:

Question.2. Answer : Option 2 Explanation: From (i),

From (ii) and (iii) and since no unmarried females, W and V are males.

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Fix V’s position at 8.

This means, according to (iii), R and P can occupy positions 7 and 1.

And Also according to (iii), T sits exactly between Q and U.

Also, Only one person sits between R and Q but he is not W.

So, two cases arise. Since in both the cases, Q will sit opposite P, P has to be a male as according to (iii), Q does not sit opposite a female.

Family tree is

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As according to (iv), on the immediate left of S has to be a son of S (P or Q), case II will be discarded.

According to (iii), W does not sit between Q and R, thus, W will be at 6 and S will be at 2.

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Now, there have to be

3 – Artists

2 – Athletes

2 – Teachers

1 – Manager

Since from (vi), Q and U are not Athletes or Astists, they are definitelt Teachers and also we come to know that W is a Manager.

We got 2 teachers, 1 manager and also from (v), it is clear that R and S cannot be artists, thus they are athletes.

Now, remaining three, T , V and P are Artists.

Final Solution:

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Question.3. Answer : Option 4 Explanation: From (i),

From (ii) and (iii) and since no unmarried females, W and V are males.

Fix V’s position at 8.

This means, according to (iii), R and P can occupy positions 7 and 1.

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And Also according to (iii), T sits exactly between Q and U.

Also, Only one person sits between R and Q but he is not W.

So, two cases arise. Since in both the cases, Q will sit opposite P, P has to be a male as according to (iii), Q does not sit opposite a female.

Family tree is

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As according to (iv), on the immediate left of S has to be a son of S (P or Q), case II will be discarded.

According to (iii), W does not sit between Q and R, thus, W will be at 6 and S will be at 2.

Now, there have to be

3 – Artists

2 – Athletes

2 – Teachers

1 – Manager

Since from (vi), Q and U are not Athletes or Astists, they are definitelt Teachers and also we come to know that W is a Manager.

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We got 2 teachers, 1 manager and also from (v), it is clear that R and S cannot be artists, thus they are athletes.

Now, remaining three, T , V and P are Artists.

Final Solution:

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Question.4. Answer : Option 4 Explanation: From (i),

From (ii) and (iii) and since no unmarried females, W and V are males.

Fix V’s position at 8.

This means, according to (iii), R and P can occupy positions 7 and 1.

And Also according to (iii), T sits exactly between Q and U.

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Also, Only one person sits between R and Q but he is not W.

So, two cases arise. Since in both the cases, Q will sit opposite P, P has to be a male as according to (iii), Q does not sit opposite a female.

Family tree is

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As according to (iv), on the immediate left of S has to be a son of S (P or Q), case II will be discarded.

According to (iii), W does not sit between Q and R, thus, W will be at 6 and S will be at 2.

Now, there have to be

3 – Artists

2 – Athletes

2 – Teachers

1 – Manager

Since from (vi), Q and U are not Athletes or Astists, they are definitelt Teachers and also we come to know that W is a Manager.

We got 2 teachers, 1 manager and also from (v), it is clear that R and S cannot be artists, thus they are athletes.

Now, remaining three, T , V and P are Artists.

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Final Solution:

Question.5. Answer : Option 1 Explanation: From (i),

From (ii) and (iii) and since no unmarried females, W and V are males.

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Fix V’s position at 8.

This means, according to (iii), R and P can occupy positions 7 and 1.

And Also according to (iii), T sits exactly between Q and U.

Also, Only one person sits between R and Q but he is not W.

So, two cases arise. Since in both the cases, Q will sit opposite P, P has to be a male as according to (iii), Q does not sit opposite a female.

Family tree is

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As according to (iv), on the immediate left of S has to be a son of S (P or Q), case II will be discarded.

According to (iii), W does not sit between Q and R, thus, W will be at 6 and S will be at 2.

Now, there have to be

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3 – Artists

2 – Athletes

2 – Teachers

1 – Manager

Since from (vi), Q and U are not Athletes or Astists, they are definitelt Teachers and also we come to know that W is a Manager.

We got 2 teachers, 1 manager and also from (v), it is clear that R and S cannot be artists, thus they are athletes.

Now, remaining three, T , V and P are Artists.

Final Solution:

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Question.6. Answer : Option 2 Explanation: Decoded Statement : Q ≥ T, T > S, Q ≤ O

Combined Inequality : O ≥ Q ≥ T > S

Conclusion: I. O = S

II. Q > S

O ≥ Q ≥ T > S ∴ O > S. Hence, Conclusion I does not follow.

O ≥ Q ≥ T > S ∴ Q > S. Hence, Conclusion II follows.

Question.7. Answer : Option 5 Explanation: Decoded statement: Q = T, T > S, S ≥ R, R ≥ U

Combined Inequality: Q = T> S ≥ R ≥ U

Conclusion: I. Q > S

II. S ≥ U

Q = T> S ≥ R ≥ U ∴ Q > S, Hence, Conclusion I follows.

Q = T> S ≥ R ≥ U ∴ S ≥ U, Hence, Conclusion II follows.

Question.8. Answer : Option 2 Explanation: Decoded Statement: Q < T, T ≥ O, O > S, Q < R

Combined Inequality: R > Q < T ≥ O > S

Conclusion: I. R > T

II. T > S

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R > Q < T ≥ O > S,No relationship cannot be established between R and T. Hence, conclusion I does not follow.

R > Q < T ≥ O > S,∴ T > S. Hence, conclusion II follows.

Question.9. Answer : Option 1 Explanation: Decoded statement: D = E, E > F, D ≥ Q, Q > O

Combined inequality: O < Q ≤ D = E > F

Conclusion:I. E ≥ Q

II. D < O

O < Q ≤ D = E > F,∴ E ≥ Q, Hence, conclusion I follows.

O < Q ≤ D = E > F,∴ D > O. Hence, Conclusion II does not follow.

Question.10. Answer : Option 4 Explanation: Decoded statement: A = S, S ≤ R, R ≥ Q, Q < L

Combined inequality: A = S ≤ R ≥ Q < L

conclusion: I. A ≥ R

II. Q < A

A = S ≤ R ≥ Q < L,∴ R ≥ A, Hence conclusion I does not follow.

A = S ≤ R ≥ Q < L,No relationship cannot be established between Q and A. Hence, conclusion II does not follow.

Question.11. Answer : Option 4 Explanation: Some biscuits are cakes (I) + All cakes are flours (A) ⇒ Some biscuits are flours (I) + All flours are muffins (A) ⇒ Some biscuits are muffins (I) ⇒ Conversion ⇒ Some muffins are biscuits (I) ⇒ Probable

Conclusion ⇒ All muffins being biscuits is a possibility(A). Hence conclusion I and II follows.

All Cakes are flours (A) + All flours are muffins (A) ⇒ All Cakes are muffins (A). Hence conclusion III will not follow.

Question.12. Answer : Option 3 Explanation: No ocean is a land (E) + some lands are boundaries (I) ⇒ some boundaries are not oceans (O*). Hence conclusion I will not follow but Conclusion I and III will make a complementary pair.

Some lands are boundaries (I) + All boundaries are banks (A) ⇒ Some lands are banks (I) ⇒ Conversion

⇒ Some banks are lands (I). Hence Conclusion II will not follow.

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Question.13. Answer : Option 1 Explanation: All fruits are vegetables (A) + Some vegetables are potatoes (I) ⇒ Probable conclusion ⇒ Some fruits may be potatoes(I). Hence Conclusion I will follow.

Some vegetables are potatoes(I) + No potato is a tomato(E) ⇒ Some vegetables are not tomatoes(O). Hence Conclusion II follows.

No potato is a tomato(E) ⇒ Conversion ⇒ Some tomatoes are not potatoes(O). Hence Conclusion III follows.

Question.14. Answer : Option 4 Explanation: No mobiles is a charger(E) + Some chargers are not phones(O) ⇒ No conclusion. Hence Conclusion I and II will not follow.

No mobiles is a charger(E) ⇒ Conversion ⇒ Some chargers are not mobiles(O). Hence Conclusion III will not follow.

Question.15. Answer : Option 3 Explanation: No cover is a page (E) ⇒ Conversion ⇒ some pages are not covers (O). Hence Conclusion I will not follow

No pen is a cover (E) ⇒ Conversion ⇒ No cover is a pen (E) ⇒ Hence Conclusion II follows

No cover is a page (E) + All pages are stickers (A) ⇒ Some stickers are not covers (O). Hence conclusion III will follow.

Question.16. Answer : Option 5 Explanation:

P is niece of B. Hence, both statement I and II together are needed to answer the question.

Question.17. Answer : Option 4 Explanation: I. B = D > E/F

II. A > C ≥ D

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By combining both the statement, we get

A > C ≥ D = B > E/F

Question.18. Answer : Option 4 Explanation: There is no information about the age of Riya and Rani. Hence both the statement are not sufficient to answer. Question.19. Answer : Option 5 Explanation: Oral and written ------ ho jo ko ......................(i)

Oral end all ----------- mo lo jo .......................(ii)

Thus from (i) and (ii), we get ‘oral’ – jo

Question.20. Answer : Option 5 Explanation:

Point Q is to the east of point N.

Question.21. Answer : Option 4 Explanation: From(i), (ii), (iv), (v), (vi) & (vii), we get the basic information as follows:

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From(iii), it is clear that there is a gap of one day between Australia and England match. Australia cannot play the match on Tuesday as in statement (ix), it is said that on Tuesday the match will be held at Trent Bridge. So, only day left for Australia is Saturday. It is also clear that for New Zealand, the day only left is Monday.

From(iv), it is said that the match played by Pakistan will be held before the match played by Sri Lanka. So, the only day left is Tuesday before Wednesday. So, Pakistan will play at Trent Bridge on Tuesday.

Only place and day left for India is Edgbaston and Friday respectively.

Question.22. Answer : Option 2 Explanation: From(i), (ii), (iv), (v), (vi) & (vii), we get the basic information as follows:

From(iii), it is clear that there is a gap of one day between Australia and England match. Australia cannot play the match on Tuesday as in statement (ix), it is said that on Tuesday the match will be held at Trent

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Bridge. So, only day left for Australia is Saturday. It is also clear that for New Zealand, the day only left is Monday.

From(iv), it is said that the match played by Pakistan will be held before the match played by Sri Lanka. So, the only day left is Tuesday before Wednesday. So, Pakistan will play at Trent Bridge on Tuesday.

Only place and day left for India is Edgbaston and Friday respectively.

Question.23. Answer : Option 1 Explanation: From(i), (ii), (iv), (v), (vi) & (vii), we get the basic information as follows:

From(iii), it is clear that there is a gap of one day between Australia and England match. Australia cannot play the match on Tuesday as in statement (ix), it is said that on Tuesday the match will be held at Trent Bridge. So, only day left for Australia is Saturday. It is also clear that for New Zealand, the day only left is Monday.

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From(iv), it is said that the match played by Pakistan will be held before the match played by Sri Lanka. So, the only day left is Tuesday before Wednesday. So, Pakistan will play at Trent Bridge on Tuesday.

Only place and day left for India is Edgbaston and Friday respectively.

Question.24. Answer : Option 3 Explanation: From(i), (ii), (iv), (v), (vi) & (vii), we get the basic information as follows:

From(iii), it is clear that there is a gap of one day between Australia and England match. Australia cannot play the match on Tuesday as in statement (ix), it is said that on Tuesday the match will be held at Trent Bridge. So, only day left for Australia is Saturday. It is also clear that for New Zealand, the day only left is Monday.

From(iv), it is said that the match played by Pakistan will be held before the match played by Sri Lanka. So, the only day left is Tuesday before Wednesday. So, Pakistan will play at Trent Bridge on Tuesday.

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Only place and day left for India is Edgbaston and Friday respectively.

Question.25. Answer : Option 4 Explanation: From(i), (ii), (iv), (v), (vi) & (vii), we get the basic information as follows:

From(iii), it is clear that there is a gap of one day between Australia and England match. Australia cannot play the match on Tuesday as in statement (ix), it is said that on Tuesday the match will be held at Trent Bridge. So, only day left for Australia is Saturday. It is also clear that for New Zealand, the day only left is Monday.

From(iv), it is said that the match played by Pakistan will be held before the match played by Sri Lanka. So, the only day left is Tuesday before Wednesday. So, Pakistan will play at Trent Bridge on Tuesday.

Only place and day left for India is Edgbaston and Friday respectively.

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Question.26. Answer : Option 4 Explanation: Here the code contains 2 letters, one symbol and a number.

First letter represents the last letter of the word + 2.

Then symbol represents no. of vowels (if no. of vowels is 1, then code @, if it is 2, then code #, if it is 3, then code & and if it is 4, then code $).

Next letter represents a first letter of the word + 2.

Last number represents a square of no. of letters in the word – 1.

In the word leaders,

First letter → s + 2 = u

No. of vowels → 3 → &

Third letter→ first letter + 2 → l + 2 = n

No. of letters in the word → 7² - 1 = 48

Question.27. Answer : Option2 Explanation: Here the code contains 2 letters, one symbol and a number.

First letter represents the last letter of the word + 2.

Then symbol represents no. of vowels (if no. of vowels is 1, then code @, if it is 2, then code #, if it is 3, then code & and if it is 4, then code $).

Next letter represents a first letter of the word + 2.

Last number represents a square of no. of letters in the word – 1.

In the word high,

First letter → h + 2 = j

No. of vowels → 1 → @

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Third letter→ first letter + 2 → h + 2 = j

No. of letters in the word → 4² - 1 = 15

Code for ‘high’ is j@j15

In the word court,

First letter → t + 2 = v

No. of vowels → 2 → #

Third letter→ first letter + 2 → c + 2 = e

No. of letters in the word → 5² - 1 = 24

Code for ‘court’ is v#e24

In the word ordered,

First letter → d + 2 = f

No. of vowels → 3 → &

Third letter→ first letter + 2 → o + 2 = q

No. of letters in the word → 7² - 1 = 48

Code for ‘ordered’ is f&q48.

Question.28. Answer : Option 1 Explanation: In the word Soldier,

First letter → r + 2 = t

No. of vowels → 3 → &

Third letter→ s + 2 → u

No. of letters in the word → 7² - 1 = 48

Code for ‘Soldier’ is t&u48.

Question.29. Answer : Option 4 Explanation: Here the code contains 2 letters, one symbol and a number.

First letter represents the last letter of the word + 2.

Then symbol represents no. of vowels (if no. of vowels is 1, then code @, if it is 2, then code #, if it is 3, then code & and if it is 4, then code $).

Next letter represents a first letter of the word + 2.

Last number represents a square of no. of letters in the word – 1.

In the word mother,

First letter → r + 2 = t

No. of vowels → 2 → #

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Third letter→ first letter + 2 → m + 2 = o

No. of letters in the word → 6² - 1 = 35

Question.30. Answer : Option 3 Explanation: In the word Defending,

First letter → g + 2 = i

No. of vowels → 3 → &

Third letter→ d + 2 → f

No. of letters in the word → 9² - 1 = 80

Question.31. Answer : Option 3 Explanation:

Question.32. Answer : Option 2 Explanation:

Question.33. Answer : Option 3

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Question.34. Answer : Option 2 Explanation:

Question.35. Answer : Option 4 Explanation:

Question.36. Answer : Option 2 Explanation:

Required distance = 250 – (45 + 35 + 55) = 250 – 135 = 115 km.

Question.37. Answer : Option 3 Explanation:

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Question.38. Answer : Option 3 Explanation:

Question.39. Answer : Option 1 Question.40. Answer : Option 2 Question.41. Answer : Option2 Explanation: 480 × 3/5 = 288

288 × 3/5 = 172.8

172.8× 3/5 = 103.68

103.68× 3/5 = 62.208

62.208 × 3/5 = 37.3248

Question.42. Answer : Option 4 Explanation: 16 ×0.5 + 1 = 9

9× 2.5 + 2 = 24.5

24.5× 4.5 + 4 =114.25

114.25 × 6.5 + 8 =750.625

750.625 × 8.5 + 16 = 6396.3125

Question.43. Answer : Option 3 Explanation: 6 × 1² + 1³ = 7

7 × 2² - 2³ = 20

20 × 3² + 3³ = 207

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207 × 4² - 4³ =3248

3248 × 5² + 5³ = 81075

Question.44. Answer : Option 1 Explanation: 33 ÷ 2 × 3 = 49.50

49.50 ÷ 3 × 4 = 66

66 ÷ 4 × 5 = 82.50

82.50 ÷ 5 × 6 = 99

99 ÷ 6 × 7 = 115.50

Question.45. Answer : Option 1 Explanation: 17 × 0.5 + 0.5 = 9

9 × 1 - 1 = 8

8 × 1.5 + 1.5 =13.5

13.5 × 2 – 2 =25

25 × 2.5 + 2.5 = 65

Question.46. Answer : Option 4 Explanation: I. x2 + 5x + 4= 0

Pairs are 1, 4 Values after changing sign = - 1, - 4 and after dividing by 1,

Final values of x = - 1 , - 4

II. 5y2 + 6y + 1= 0

Pairs are 1, 5

Values after changing sign = - 1, - 5 and after dividing by 5,

Final values of y = - 1, - 0.2

Hence x ≤ y

Question.47. Answer : Option 5 Explanation: I. 2x2 - 5x + 3= 0

Pairs are - 2, - 3 Values after changing sign = 2, 3 and after dividing by 2,

Final values of x = 1, 1.5

II. y2 - 2y - 8= 0

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Pairs are 2, - 4

Values after changing sign = - 2, 4 and after dividing by 1,

Final values of y = - 2, 4

Hence, Relationship between x & y cannot be established

Question.48. Answer : Option 5 Explanation: I. 5x2 + 2x - 3= 0

Pairs are -3, 5

Values after changing sign = 3, - 5 and after dividing by 5,

Final values of x = 0.6, - 1

II. 2y2 - 5y - 7= 0

Pairs are = 2, - 7

Values after changing sign = - 2, 7 and after dividing by 2

Final values of y = - 1, 3.5

Hence relationship between x & y cannot be established

Alternate Method:

Remember whenever roots of x & y are + & - both, there is no need to find the exact value of roots. In this case, there will be always no relation between x & y.

Hence relationship between x & y cannot be established.

Question.49. Answer : Option 2 Explanation: I. 5x2 + 7x + 2 = 0

Pairs are 2, 5

Values after changing sign = -2, -5 and after dividing by 5,

Final values of x = - 0.4, - 1

II. 3y2 - 7y + 4 = 0

Pairs are -3,- 4

Values after changing sign = 3, 4 and after dividing by 3,

Final values of y = 1, 1.33

Hence, x < y

Alternate Method:

The sign of both roots of x are negative and the sign of both roots of y are positive so no need to find the exact value of roots as negative is always lesser than positive value

Hence x < y.

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Question.50. Answer : Option 1 Explanation: I. x2 - 5x + 6= 0

Pairs are - 2, - 3 Values after changing sign = 2, 3 and after dividing by 1,

Final values of x = 2, 3

II. 8y2 - 2y - 1= 0

Pairs are 2, - 4

Values after changing sign = - 2, 4 and after dividing by 8,

Final values of y = - 0.25, 0.5

Hence, x > y

Question.51. Answer : Option 4 Explanation:

The total male employees in Content and IT department together = 3000 + 2000 = 5000

The total female managers in Sales and IT department together = 590 + 910 = 1500

Required ratio = 5000 : 1500

= 10 : 3

Question.52. Answer : Option 1 Explanation:

The total male managers in Content department = 385

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The total female managers in IT department = 910

Required difference = 910 – 385 = 525

Question.53. Answer : Option 1 Explanation:

The average number of managers in all the given departments together = (840 + 900 + 1500)/3

= 3240/3

= 1080

Question.54. Answer : Option 3 Explanation:

Total male managers in Content and Sales department together = 385 + 310 = 695

Total male employees in IT department = 2000

Required % = (695/2000) x 100

= 34.75 %

Question.55. Answer : Option 3 Explanation:

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Total female employees in Content department = 4000

Total male employees in Sales department = 2500

Required % = (4000/2500) x 100

= 160 %

Question.56. Answer : Option 1 Explanation: Quantity I: Let price of rice =100 & consumption = 100 & so total expense = 100×100 = Rs.10000 Now new price of rice = 50 & total expense = 10000×90% = Rs.9000

So new consumption =

So ratio of old & new consumption = 100: = 5000: 9000 = 5 : 9

Hence % increase in consumption = ×100 = ×100 = 80% Quantity II: Ratio of expense & income = 9000 : 13000 = 9 : 13 So let Income = 1300 , Expense = 900 so saving = 1300-900 = Rs. 400 Now new income = 1300×112% = 1456 & new expense = 900×112% = 1008 So new saving = 1456 -1008 = Rs. 448

Hence increase in saving % = ×100 = 12% Hence, Quantity I > Quantity II Question.57. Answer : Option 5 Explanation: Quantity I: D 1= 100 Km, S1= 50 Km/hr, D2= 120 Km, S2 = 60 Km/hr, D3= 60 Km, S3= 20 km/hr.

T 1 = Distance/Speed = 100/50 = 2hr

T2 = Distance/Speed = 120/60 = 2hr

T3 = Distance/Speed = 60/20 = 3hr

Average speed = Total distance/Total time = 280/7

= 40 km/hr

Quantity II: Distance covered by car = 3600 km, Time = 40 hrs.

Speed of a car = Distance/time = 3600/40 = 90 km/hr

Average speed of a bus = (4/9) of 90 = 40 km/hr

Quantity I = Quantity II

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Question.58. Answer : Option 3 Explanation: Quantity I: 7x2 + 26x + 24 = 0

Pairs are 12, 14

Values after changing sign = -12, - 14 and after dividing by 7,

Final values of x = - 1.71, - 2

Quantity II: 5y2 - 27y + 36 = 0

Pairs are -12, - 15

Values after changing sign = 12, 15 and after dividing by 5,

Final values of y = 2.4, 3

Quantity I < Quantity II

Question.59. Answer : Option 1 Explanation: Quantity I: Total number of books = 10 + 7 + 7 = 24

Let S be the sample space. Then,

n(S) = number of ways of drawing 3 books out of 24 = 24C3

= = 3036

Let E= event of drawing no green books

n(E) = 17C3 = = 680

P(E) = = =

Quantity II:

S = 7! = = 5040

Let E = event of getting exactly letters between E and C

n(E) = 5! = 120

P(E) = = =

Quantity I > Quantity II

Question.60. Answer : Option 1 Explanation: Quantity I: A can Fill a tank in 4 hours and B can do the same in 6 hours & C can empty tank in 18 hrs.

Let Total Work = LCM (4, 6 & 18) = 36 units

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Work done in 1st hr by A= 9 units

Work done in 2nd hr by A & B = 9+6 = 15 units;

Total work done in 2 hrs = 15 + 9 = 24 units,

Now pending work = 36 – 24 = 12 units

Work done in 3rd hr = 9 + 6 – 2 = 13 units

So it will take 12/13 hr to do this 12 unit work or we can say that it will take 55 min (approx) to do this work.

Hence work will be completed at = 8am + 55 min = 8.55 am.

Quantity II:

8.15 am

Quantity I > Quantity II

Question.61. Answer : Option 2 Explanation: Distribution of medicine in High income people of Punjab, Assam and Haryana = 7.5 × 30/100 + 3.2 × 18/100 + 4.5× 10/100

= 2.25 + 0.576 + 0.45

= 3.276

Distribution of medicine in middle income people of Uttarakhand, Bihar and U.P = 6.2 × 52/100 + 6.7 × 25/100 + 8.9 × 15/100

= 3.224 + 1.675 + 1.335

= 6.234

∴ Required difference = 6.234 – 3.276 = 2.958

Question.62. Answer : Option 4 Explanation: Low income people of Bihar = 6.7 × 40/100 = 2.68

Middle income people of Haryana = 4.5 × 36/100 = 1.62

∴ Required Ratio = 2.68 : 1.62 = 134: 81

Question.63. Answer : Option 1 Explanation: In Uttarakhand = 100 – 52 = 48%

High : Low = 3:5

So, high income people = 48 × 3/8 = 18%

∴ Required Difference = 6.2 × (52 - 18)/100 = 6.2 × 34/100 = 2.108 lakh or 2,10,800

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Question.64. Answer : Option 3 Explanation: Distribution of medicine in Maharashtra = 50 – (7.5 + 3.2 + 4.5 + 6.2 + 8.9 + 6.7) = 50 – 37 = 13

Distribution of medicine in Punjab and U.P = 7.5 + 8.9 = 16.4

∴ Required Percent = (16.4-13)/16.4× 100 = 20.7% or 21%

Question.65. Answer : Option 4 Explanation: Total distribution of medicine in low income people = 7.5 × 50/100 + 3.2 × 40/100 + 4.5 × 54/100 + 13 × 20/100 + 8.9 × 48/100 + 6.7 × 40/100

= 3.75 + 1.28 + 2.43 + 2.6 + 4.272 + 2.68

= 17.012

Required percent = 17.012/50× 100 = 34.024% or 34%

Question.66. Answer : Option 4 Explanation: I. Number of students opted for Geography and Chemistry in 2013 = 15 + 35 = 50

Number of students opted for Biology in 2015 = 35

∴ Required difference = 50 – 35 = 15

Hence, statement I is incorrect.

II. Number of students opted for all the three subject in in 2012 and 2013 = 45 + 25 + 55 + 15 + 20 + 35 = 195

Number of students opted for Chemistry in all the years together = 45 + 15 + 25 + 35 + 45 = 165

∴ Required ratio =195 – 165 = 13 : 11

Hence, statement II is correct.

III. 2012 = 45 + 25 + 55 = 125

2013 = 15 + 20 + 35 = 70

2014 = 25 + 30 + 35 = 90

2015 = 35 + 35 + 40 = 110

2016 = 45 + 25 + 35 = 105

Hence, statement III is incorrect.

Question.67. Answer : Option 4 Explanation: Number of students who opted for Geography in the years 2012 and 2015 = 55 + 40 = 95

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Total number of students who opted for all three subjects in 2012 and 2015 = 45 + 25 + 55 + 35 + 35 + 40 = 235

∴ Required percent = 95/235 × 100 = 40.42%

Question.68. Answer : Option 4 Explanation: We don’t know the number of girls and boys opted for the particular subject. Question.69. Answer : Option 1 Explanation: Number of students who opted for Biology in the years 2013 and 2015 = 20 + 35 = 55

Number of students who opted for Chemistry in the year 2012 and 2016 = 45 + 45 = 90

∴ Required ratio = 55 : 90 = 11 : 18

Question.70. Answer : Option 3 Explanation: Total number of students in the University in the year 2014 = 22500

Total number of students who opted for the three subjects in 2104 = 25000 + 30000 + 35000 = 90000

∴ Required percent = 90000/22500 × 100 = 400%

Question.71. Answer : Option 3 Explanation: ⁶C₄ × ⁴C₁ + ⁶C₃ × ⁴C₂ + ⁶C₂ × ⁴C₃ + ⁶C₁ × ⁴C₄

= 15 × 4 + 20 × 6 + 15 × 4 + 6 × 1 = 60 + 120 + 60 + 6 = 246

ixamBee approach:

¹⁰C₅ - ⁶C₅

= (10 ×9 ×8 ×7 ×6 )/(5 ×4 × 3 × 2) - ⁶C₅

= 252 - ⁶C₅

= 252 – 6

= 246

Question.72. Answer : Option 2 Explanation: Probability of Not winning all the three sets = (1 - 1/9) × (1 - 1/4) × (1 - 3/4)

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= 8/9 × 3/4 × 1/4 = 1/6

Probability of winning at least one set is 1 - 1/6 = 5/6

Question.73. Answer : Option 1 Explanation: Let the second pipe can fill tank in x hours

So, first pipe fill tank in (x-5) hours and

Third pipe fill tank in (x + 5) hours

According to the question,

Second pipe and third pipe together take 1 hour more time to fill the tank from first pipe.

So time taken by second pipe third pipe together = (x – 5 + 1) hours = (x – 4) hours

1/x + 1/(x+5) = 1/(x-4)

(x +5+x )/(x^2+ 5x) = 1/(x-4)

(x – 4) (2x + 5) = x^2+ 5x

2x^2+ 5x - 8x – 20 = x^2+ 5x

x^2- 8x – 20 = 0

x^2- 10x + 2x – 20 = 0

x (x – 10) + 2(x – 10) = 0

(x – 10) (x + 2) = 0

x = - 2, 10

So second pipe can fill the tank in 10 hours alone.

Question.74. Answer : Option 1 Explanation:

Area of Increasing field = 150 × 40 = 6000m²

Cost = 6000 × 0.75 = Rs. 4500

Total Cost = 5000 + 4500 = 9500

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Question.75. Answer : Option 3 Explanation: Total Price of the Laptop = Rs.18,000

Initial Payment = Rs.6,000

Remaining Amount = Rs.12,000

Simple Interest in 18 months for Rs. 12,000

Simple Interest = (12000 ×15 ×18)/(100 ×12) = Rs. 2,700

With S.I, the total amount to be paid for Principal Amount, 12000 = 12000 + 2700 = Rs.14,700

Therefore, total amount he pays for the Laptop is = 14700 + 6000 = Rs.20,700

Question.76. Answer : Option 2 Explanation: Let the monthly income of Gagan and Magan be 9x and 7x respectively

According to the question,

(9x-23400)/(7x-16700) = 6/5

45x-117000=42x-100200

3x=16800

x=5600

Difference in Monthly Income = (9x-7x) = 2×5600 = Rs. 11,200

Question.77. Answer : Option 5 Explanation: A B

Number of balls 3 : 4

Let bag A have 3x balls and bag B have 4x balls

Now 7 balls are taken out of bag ‘B’ and put in bag ‘A’

(3x+7)/(4x-7) = 1/1

3x+7=4x-7

x = 14

Bag A = 3 × 14 + 7 = 49

Bag B = 4 × 14 – 7 = 49

Question.78. Answer : Option 5 Let the sum of age of 10 men = 10x

And the age of two new men = y years

According to the question

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10x - 24 -26 + y = 10(x+2)

10x - 50 + y = 10x + 20

y = 70

Average age of New men = y/2 = 70/2 = 35 years

Question.79. Answer : Option 1 Explanation: (4m + 6w) = 8m

6w = 4m

3w = 2m

Now, 6m + 6w = 6m + 4m = 10m

8 men can do a work in 20 days

1 man can do a work in 20 × 8 days

10 men can do a work in (20 ×8)/10 = 16 days

Question.80. Answer : Option 2 Explanation: Perimeter of Square = 88cm

4 × side = 88

Side = 22cm

Area of Square = (side)² = (22)² = 484 cm²

Now, Circumference of the circle = 88cm

2πr = 88

2 × 22/7 × r = 88

r = 14cm

Area of Circle = πr²

= 22/7 × 14 × 14 = 616cm²

Required Difference = 616 – 484 = 132cm²