A- Ceiling and visibility at ETA, 800 feet and 2 miles respectively.
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Transcript of A- Ceiling and visibility at ETA, 800 feet and 2 miles respectively.
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#4085. What standard minimums are required to list an airport as an
alternate on an IFR flight plan if the airport has VOR approach
only?A- Ceiling and visibility at ETA, 800 feet and 2 miles respectively.B- Ceiling and visibility from 2 hours before until 2 hours after ETA, 800 feet and 2 miles respectively.C- Ceiling and visibility at ETA, 600 feet and 2 miles, respectively
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#4475. Uncontrolled airspace is that airspace
whereA- ATC does not control air traffic.
B- ATC controls only IFR flights which originate in controlled airspace and terminate in controlled airspace.
C- the minimum visibility for flight is 1 mile.
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#4060. When filing a composite flight plan where the first portion of the flight is IFR, which fix(es) should be indicated on the flight
plan form?A- All points of transition from one airway to another, fixes defining direct route segments, and the clearance limit fix.B- Only the fix where you plan to terminate the
IFR portion of the flight.C- Only those compulsory reporting points on the
IFR route segment.
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#4280. At which altitude and location on V573 would you
expect the navigational signal of the HOT VOR/DME to be unreliable? See fig.34.A- 2,600 feet at MARKI intersection.
B- 4,000 feet at ELMMO intersection.
C- 3,000 feet at APINE intersection.
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#4080. What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMS?
A- To provide the latest information on the status of navigation facilities to all
FSS facilities for scheduled broadcasts.B- To issue notices for all airports and navigation facilities in the shortest possible time.C- To advise of changes in flight data which affect instrument approach procedures, aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior to normal publication.
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#4460. What action should you take if your No. 1 VOR receiver malfunctions while operating in controlled airspace under IFR? Your aircraft is equipped
with two VOR receivers: the No. 1 receiver has Omni/Localizer/Glide Slope capability, and the No. 2 has only Omni.
A- Report the malfunction immediately to ATC.
B- Continue the flight as cleared; no report required.
C- Continue the approach and request a VOR or NDB approach.
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#4515. What is the function of the Great Falls RCO? Yellow Stone
vicinity, see fig 91.
A- Long range communications outlet for Great Falls Center.
B- Remote communications outlet for Great Falls FSS.
C- Satellite FSS controlled by Great Falls FSS with limited service.
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#4392. What is the significance of an ATC clearance which
reads “…CRUISE SIX THOUSAND…”?
A- The pilot must maintain 6,000 feet until reaching the IAF serving the destination airport, then execute the published approach procedure.
B- Climbs may be made to, or descents made from, 6,000 feet at the pilot’s discretion.
C- The pilot may utilize any altitude from the MEA/MOCA to 6,000 feet, but each change in altitude must be reported to ATC.
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#4605. During the en route phase of an IFR flight, the pilot is advised “Radar service terminated.” What
action is appropriate?
A- Set transponder to code 1200.
B- Resume normal position reporting.
C- Activate the IDENT feature of the transponder to re-establish radar contact.
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#4456. Which report should be made to ATC without a
specific request when not in radar contact?
A- Entering instrument meteorological conditions.
B- When leaving final approach fix inbound on final approach.
C- Correcting an E.T.A. any time a previous E.T.A. is in error in excess of 2 minutes.
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#4071. For which speed variation should you notify
ATC?
A- When the groundspeed changes more than 5 knots.
B- When the average true airspeed changes 5 percent or 10 knots, whichever is greater.
C- Any time the groundspeed changes 10 MPH.
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#4711. Where may you use a surveillance approach?
A- At any airport that has an approach control.
B- At any airport which has radar service.
C- At airports for which civil radar instrument approach minimums have been published.
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#4758. If during a VFR practice instrument approach, Radar
Approach Control assigns an altitude or heading that will cause you to
enter the clouds, what action should be taken?
A- Enter the clouds, since ATC authorization for practice approaches is considered an IFR clearance.
B- Avoid the clouds and inform ATC that altitude/heading will not permit VFR.
C- Abandon the approach.
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#4297. What is the difference in elevation (in feet MSL) between
the airport elevation and the TDZE for RWY 36L?See fig 42a
A- 15 feet.
B- 18 feet.
C- 22 feet.
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#4357. Which runway and landing environment lighting is available for approach and landing on RWY 6 at Bradley International? See fig 73,
Legend 19.A- HIRL, REIL, and VASI.
B- HIRL and VASI.
C- ALSF2 and HIRL.
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#4796. The primary purpose of runway end identifier lights, installed at many airfields, is to provide
A- rapid identification of the approach end of the runway during reduced visibility.
B- a warning of the final 3,000 feet of runway remaining as viewed from the takeoff or approach position.
C- rapid identification of the primary runway during reduced visibility.
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#4792. What is the distance (B) from the beginning of the
runway to the touchdown zone marker? See fig 137.
A- 250 feet. B- 500 feet. C- 750 feet.
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#4415. If a control tower and an FSS are located on the same
airport, which tower function is assumed by the FSS during those periods when the tower is closed?
A- Automatic closing of the IFR flight plan.
B- Approach control clearance.
C- Airport Advisory Service.
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#4709. What effect would a light crosswind of
approximately 7 knots have on vortex behavior?
A- The light crosswind would rapidly dissipate vortex strength.
B- The upwind vortex would tend to remain over the runway.
C- The downwind vortex would tend to remain over the runway.
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#4706. A pilot is making an ILS approach and is past the OM to a
runway which has a VASI. What action should the pilot take if an electronic
glide slope malfunction occurs and the pilot has the VASI in sight?
A- The pilot should inform ATC of the malfunction and then descend immediately to the localizer DH and make a localizer approach.
B- The pilot may continue the approach and use the VASI glide slope in place of the electronic glide slope.
C- The pilot must request an LOC approach, and may descend below the VASI at the pilot’s discretion.
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#4785. Which illustration would a pilot observe if the aircraft is below
both glidepaths?See fig 135.A- 4. B- 5. C- 6.
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#4781. Which approach and landing objective is assured
when the pilot remains on the proper glidepath of the VASI?
A- Continuation of course guidance after transition to VFR.
B- Safe obstruction clearance in the approach area.
C- Course guidance from the visual descent point to touchdown.
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#4789. Which illustration would a pilot observe if the aircraft is “slightly high”
(3.2 degrees) on the glidepath?
A- 11. B-10. C-9.
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#4777. Tricolor Visual Approach indicators normally
consist ofA- a single unit, projecting a three color
visual approach path.
B- three separate light units, each projecting a different color approach path.
C- three separate light projecting units of very high candle power with a daytime range of approximately 5 miles.
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#4705. What are the main differences between the SDF (simplified directional
facility) and the localizer of an ILS?
A- The usable off-course indications are limited to 35 degrees for the localizer and up to 90 degrees for the SDF.
B- The SDF course may not be aligned with the runway and the course may be wider.
C- The course width for the localizer will always be 5 degrees while the SDF course will be between 6 and 12 degrees.
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#4703. What is the difference between an LDA (localizer
type directional aid) and the ILS localizer?
A- The LDA is not aligned with the runway.
B- The LDA uses a course width of 6 or 12 degrees, while an ILS uses only 5 degrees.
C- The LDA signal is generated from a VOR type facility and has no glide slope.
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#4771. Assume this clearance is received: “CLEARED FOR ILS RUNWAY 07 LEFT APPROACH, SIDE-STEP TO RUNWAY 07 RIGHT.” When would the pilot be expected to commence the side-step maneuver?
A- As soon as possible after the runway environment is in sight.
B- Anytime after becoming aligned with the final approach course of Runway 07 left, and after passing the final approach fix.
C- After reaching the circling minimums for Runway 07 right.
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#4805. Abrupt head movement during a prolonged constant rate
turn in IMC or simulated instrument conditions can cause
A- pilot disorientation.
B- false horizon.
C- elevator illusion.
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#4817. Which use of cockpit lighting is correct for night
flight?A- Reducing the lighting intensity to a
minimum level will eliminate blind spots.
B- The use of regular white light, such as a flashlight, will impair night adaptation.
C- Coloration shown on maps is least affected by the use of direct red lighting.
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#4804. What visual illusion creates the same effect as the narrower-than-usual
runway?
A- An up sloping runway.
B- A wider-than-usual runway.
C- A down sloping runway.
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