9th Grade Mini-Lesson Writing Unit

Kelly Sassi, Laura Schiller, Kara Shuell, and Andrea Zellner Fall 2008

ELA/MME Unit of Study: WRITING Grade 9

A Writing Test Genre Study for

English Language Arts/Michigan Merit Exam

www.writingondemand.org

ELA/MME Unit of Study: Writing, Grade 9 Kelly Sassi, Laura Schiller, Kara Shuell, and Andrea Zellner Fall 2008 Oakland Schools Oakland Writing Project National Writing Projects of Michigan www.writingondemand.org 2

WRITING GENRE STUDY: TEACHER BACKGROUND Test Preparation Genre Study This unit provides suggestions to better prepare your students for the ELA/MME Writing Test. Like the ten-day unit of study written by Linda Denstadt, Laura Schiller, and Judy Kelly for grades 3-8, this seven-day writing unit of study was designed as a test genre study. We emphasize that timed writing tests are just one genre of writing. Students should focus on becoming well-rounded writers, not just test-takers. The lessons are intended to remind students of what they already know as well as how to apply this knowledge to test preparation. Each day students are encouraged to make connections between the lesson and their own writing practice by writing a reflection in their journals. We included suggestions for homework and grading in each unit. Optimum Timing We recommend that this unit be taught at the beginning of the 2nd semester. Key Strategies The unit focuses on key strategies for students which create the biggest bump in performance and test-taking skills. However, the most important strategy is quality writing instruction that engages students in a wide range of craft, genre, and process study over an extended period of time. We value a writing life in which students apply this wide range of study to authentic writing experiences throughout the year. We are assuming good writing practices are modeled by teachers and utilized by students on a daily basis, not solely as the focus of test preparation. Within this unit, each lesson builds on the previous days lesson, so it is important to teach the lessons in sequence.

Varied Tasks and Varied Products The unit positions students as knowledgeable and independent users of the following writing skills and strategies:

1. Using editing skills to answer objective questions about grammar and rhetorical skills

2. Analyzing prompts 3. Reading and understanding sample paragraphs 4. Writing strong arguments 5. Dealing with time constraints

The Role of Metacognition Using metacognition to enhance learning will increase independent performance. Thinking aloud and reflection are useful tools for both instruction and assessment. Try to utilize all of these approaches throughout the year: Teacher modeling an internal exploratory process as she/he writes

or re-reads. Students noticing and naming the strategies used in a freewrite to

discuss how they impact writing. Students pairing up to think aloud through their internal processes

of writing and thinking. Students reflecting in their journals on their own thinking processes

immediately after practicing a new skill. Acknowledgements We wish to thank the staff at Oakland Schools for support throughout this project. We also thank Patricia Farrant at ACT for permission to use sample test questions and materials. Kelly Sassi, Kara Shuell, and Andrea Zellner


ORGANIZATION OF DAILY LESSONS In each lesson you will find common features, described below. We have written notes in standard font and possible directions for students in italics, though the exact wording you use should fit your teaching style and your particular group of students.

FOCUS The Focus of each days lesson is stated here. We recommend that you write the Focus on the board and tell students that you are going to explore it in that days activities.

CONNECTION This section explains how the days lesson is connected to the previous days lesson. It makes teaching more transparent to students and helps prepare them for the work to come.

SCAFFOLDING Recognizing that students are not all in the same place when it comes to preparing to write on a high-stakes exam, we provide suggestions for scaffolding instruction.

TEACHING POINTS Here youll find information for both you and your students on what we consider to be the most important points of the days Focus.

ACTIVE ENGAGEMENT Teaching points are usually followed by active engagement, or opportunities for students to practice what they just learned.

CHARTS This icon signals that you and the students will create a chart.

OVERHEADS Most lessons include pages to be displayed on an overhead; they are designated by the presenter icon shown above. The Overheads are designed so that you can model for students how to use the strategies. A number of pages are designed to be used as both Handouts and Overheads; they will have both the Overhead and Handout icons.

HANDOUTS Each days lesson plan is followed by the Handouts needed for that day. Within each days lesson plan, you will see this icon, which signals when to pass out a Handout. Handouts are titled by day and number, both in the text and at the top of the Handout, e.g.: Day 3/Document 2.

REFLECTION This icon appears when students need to write in their journals. WRAP-UP The wrap-up is an opportunity for teachers to revisit the lesson Focus and the days activities, answer any final questions, and preview the next days lesson Focus. GRADEBOOK Each lesson ends with a suggestion for how teachers might use lesson activities for grading purposes.


ELA/MME Unit of Study: Writing, Grade 9 Overview: Daily Focus DAY Writing Genre Study

45-60 minutes DAY Writing Genre Study

45-60 minutes

1 Dealing with Objective Test Questions on the PLAN Test Students will use knowledge of grammar and standardized tests to edit under timed conditions. Grammar Focus: Commas Test Tips

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Writing on Demand: Writing Strong Arguments Students will learn about the general characteristics of a strong argument, specifically making rebuttals to counter-arguments for the ELA/MME Writing Test

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Dealing with English Rhetorical Skills Questions on the PLAN Test Students will continue to practice test-taking skills. Students will learn about Rhetorical Skills Questions, with a focus on writer's strategy. Rhetorical Skills Focus: Two-part Questions More Test Tips: Half Right is All Wrong

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Writing on Demand: Dealing with Time Constraints Students will: Learn how to allocate their time during a timed essay

exam Write a practice essay using a sample ACT prompt Use a writing process for on-demand writing:

prewriting/generating ideas, drafting, and editing/proofreading

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Writing on Demand: Effective Prompt Analysis and Generating Ideas Students will: Learn to consider three key features of any

prompt: topic, purpose, and audience Use prompt analysis to set up an essay in a

detailed graphic organizer

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Writing on Demand: Putting it All Together Students will: Evaluate the essays they wrote on Day 6 Reflect on what they have learned about the genre of

Writing on Demand Create their own strategies for tackling the test Return to the grammar lesson of Day 1 to edit their own

essays

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Writing on Demand: Understanding Rubrics and Writing Solid Body Paragraphs Students will: Analyze rubrics to improve their focus in a timed

writing test Work with an example of a paragraph that makes a

claim, provides evidence, and warrants the claim

NOTE TO TEACHER: To address test preparation for the English Test, please note that certain skills are addressed in the ELA/MME Unit of Study: Reading Grades 9-11, available on the Oakland Schools website: http://www.oakland.K12.mi.us/elamme ELA/MME Writing Units, Grades 9-11 can also be found at this website

ELA/MME Unit of Study: Writing, Grade 9 Kelly Sassi, Laura Schiller, Kara Shuell, and Andrea Zellner Fall 2008 Oakland Schools Oakland Writing Project National Writing Projects of Michigan www.writingondemand.org

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DAY 1 FOCUS: Dealing with Objective Test Questions on the PLAN Test MATERIALS: Students should keep all materials for this unit in the ELA/MME Units of Study: Student Materials Folder since they will need to use some of them again on subsequent days. Overhead transparencies of student handouts are recommended. This unit uses PLAN, Sample Test Booklet and Answer Sheet26D (English Test, Passage I and Questions 46-75). (This retired test is available from the ACT by ordering from the attached form or calling 319/337-1429)

Day 1/Document 1 (Overhead): PLAN English Test: Structure (p. 8) Day 1/Document 2 (Overhead/Handout): PLAN English

Strategies: D.W. Griffith (p. 9 10) Day 1/Document 3: Teacher Model: PLAN English Strategies (p. 11) Day 1/Document 4 (Overhead/Handout): D.W. Griffith Passage:

Answer Key with Explanations (p. 12) Day 1/Document 5 (Handout): 26D: Passage II: The Howl of the

Wolf (p. 13 14) Day 1/Document 6 (Overhead/Handout): 26D: Passage II:

Answers and Labels (p. 15) Day 1/Document 7 (Overhead/Handout): Grammar Cheat Sheet:

The Seven Comma Rules (p. 16)

SCAFFOLDING: Students may benefit by a review of standard comma usage.

CONNECTION: Today we will focus on strategies for the PLAN English Test. Some of the strategies from the Reading Test, such as Process of Elimination (POE), can be used on the ACT English Test as well.

HANDOUT: Day 1/Document 1: PLAN English Test Structure

TEACHING POINT 1: In order to maximize the strategies I am going to talk about, we must first understand the structure of the test. The PLAN English Test has 50 questions, and you will have 30 minutes to complete it. That means you will have 36 seconds per question. The test contains four passages. You will read each passage and answer approximately 10-12 questions pertaining to that passage. On the PLAN English there are two types of questions: Grammar and Usage Questions and Rhetorical Skills Questions. Knowing the test structure will help you anticipate the types of questions and what the questions are asking. This is a skill good test-takers use.

TEACHING POINT 2: Before we get into specific testing strategies on the PLAN English Test, remember that Process of Elimination (POE) is a useful strategy on any multiple-choice test. We are going to answer this question together. Write POE model on board. Remember, when I use POE, I look for one or two obviously wrong answers and eliminate them BEFORE choosing the correct answer. In this question, I am going to first focus on answer choices I know are wrong, so that I can narrow it down to the correct answer. If I come to a choice I am not sure about, Ill leave it alone for now and come back to it later. Be sure to avoid eliminating an answer you are not sure about: it may turn out to be the correct answer. Model POE for students by going through each answer choice. Be sure to cross off the entire answer choice to physically show that the answer choice is off limits. Students will see that even if they didnt know the exact date of Columbus sailing off-hand, they still can arrive at the correct answer by eliminating the choices they know are incorrect.

REMEMBER POE: Process of Elimination

Practice POE on the following question: 1. In what year was did Christopher Columbus sail for

America? A. 1492 B. 1776 C. 1863 D. 1987

Of course, Answer Choice A is correct!


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HANDOUT: Day 1/Document 2: PLAN English Strategies: D.W. Griffith

TEACHING POINT 3: The PLAN English Test has a format that is unique to this test. Lets look at a couple sample PLAN English questions from the PLAN website. Use Day 1/Document 2 (PLAN English Strategies). Notice how the test items are wordedmost are not traditional questions. Instead, they make statements that you must correctly complete. Notice that the passage contains underlined words and phrases. These underlined words and phrases are numbered in the passage, and they are the focus of the test items following the passage. Good test takers understand what the question is asking before answering it. On the PLAN English Test, you figure out what the question is asking by first looking at the answer choices.

Please see Day 1/Document 3: Teacher Model: PLAN English Strategies

NOTE: Tomorrows focus is entirely on how to handle Rhetorical Skills Questions. Students should focus on one type at a time. This ensures that students will learn and effectively employ the strategies for each question type.

TEACHING POINT 4: You have identified what the questions look like, determined what each question is asking, and reviewed the POE strategy. Now, you are going to take a practice test section.

HANDOUT: Day 1/Document 5: 26D: Passage II: The Howl of the Wolf

ACTIVE ENGAGEMENT: Students, you will read a passage. The underlined portion of the passage is in question. From the choices provided, determine how the underlined portion should be changed. Remember to think about what the question is asking and to always use POE. You will have 7 minutes to complete this section of 13 questions.

When time is up, give students a few minutes to identify the types of questions they have just answered: Grammar and Usage Questions (e.g., comma, punctuation, adverb usage, adjective usage) and Rhetorical Skills Questions (e.g., organization, transitions, redundancy, authors purpose, effective argument). Use terms with which your students are familiar.

HANDOUTS: Day 1/Document 6: 26D Passage II: Answers and Labels

Go over answers and labels with the students.

HANDOUTS: Day 1/Document 7: Grammar Cheat Sheet: The Seven Comma Rules

TEACHING POINT 5: One test strategy we have discussed is POE, where you eliminate obviously wrong answer choices by discovering what is wrong with that particular answer.

On one or two questions, model for students how to determine the wrong answer. Day 1/Document 4 (D.W. Griffith Passage: Answer Key with Explanations) gives one possible model for this process. Question 3 is an example of a Grammar and Usage Question with a comma usage focus. Refer to the Grammar Cheat Sheet when discussing standard comma usage.

ACTIVE ENGAGEMENT: Now, using your Grammar Cheat Sheet, you are going to write an explanation for why each incorrect answer choice is wrong on item number 14. First, explain why the correct answer (H) is correct; then, provide explanations for why each of the answer choices F, G and J, individually, are the wrong answers. (Or choose any other question that employs the standard comma usage). [See Day1/Document 6 26D: Passage II: Answers and Labels for an example of what a student response might look like.]


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TEST TRICKS! Remember to read the sentences before and after the underlined

portion: read around the question. Often times the PLAN hides clues and hints in the surrounding text.

Once youve used POE to arrive at the answer, read the entire sentence with your answer choice to make sure that you have really chosen the best answer. Also, dont be fooled into thinking that your first answer is best: studies of high-scoring test-takers showed that their second instinct was usually correct!

NO CHANGE means the underlined portion stays the same Remember: OMIT means to delete the underlined portion.

CHART: Lets chart a STUDENT TEST-TAKING CHECKLIST to write down our new testing knowledge for the objective PLAN English Test, including: Always remember to use POE on objective questions. Remember to read around for hints and clues.

Always check your final answer; remember, your first instinct may be incorrect.

Use your knowledge of grammar, usage, and mechanics to select the correct answer on objective questions.

On objective questions, remember to think about why the wrong answers are wrong.

Remember that OMIT means to delete and NO CHANGE means to keep the underlined portion the same.

Remember that OMIT and NO CHANGE are often the correct choice. More commas are not necessarily better. Only choose comma

answers that make sense in the sentence. Remember, knowing standard comma usage also means knowing when NOT to use them.

WRAP-UP: Today you learned how to know what the question is asking, identify wrong answers, and use your knowledge of standard comma usage and POE to get to the correct answers. In the next lesson, we will learn about how best to tackle the PLAN English Rhetorical Skills Questions. GRADEBOOK: For today, teachers may want to give a grade for student work with the practice items and for identifying the wrong answers.


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GRADE 9: Day 1/Document 1

PLAN English Test Structure The PLAN English Test is primarily a test of your editing skills. Lets take a closer look at the specific structure of this test: Timing: 50 questions to answer 30 minutes timed test

(36 seconds per question) Passages to read: Four passages (essays) to read ~10-12 questions per passage to answer

Types of Questions: 30 Grammar and Usage Questions

Focus on standard usage 20 Rhetorical Skills Questions

Focus on organization, transitions, quality of argument/writing

Focus on purpose, audience, unity and focus, just like when writing an essay


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PLAN English Strategies: D.W. Griffith Passage

English Test ACT, used by permission Directions: In the passage that follows, certain words and phrases are underlined and numbered. In the right-hand column, you will find alternatives for the underlined part. In most cases, you are to choose the one that best expresses the idea, makes the statement appropriate for standard written English, or is worded most consistently with the style and tone of the passage as a whole. If you think the original version is best, choose NO CHANGE. In some cases, you will find in the right-hand column a question about the underlined part. You are to choose the best answer to the question. You will also find questions about a section of the passage, or about the passage as a whole. These questions do not refer to an underlined portion of the passage, but rather are identified by a number or numbers in a box. For each question, choose the alternative you consider best and fill in the corresponding oval on your answer folder. Read the passage through once before you begin to answer the questions that accompany it. For many of the questions, you must read several sentences beyond the question to determine the answer. Be sure that you have read far enough ahead each time you choose an alternative. ------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------ D. W. Griffith and the Art of the Close-Up

[1] In the late 1890s, thousands of people crowded into penny arcades across the country to see a remarkable new invention: the movie. Seldom longer than one minute, the first movies were simply recordings of everyday events. A distantly speeding train toward 1 the camera or a man watering his gardenthese were typical subjects.

[2] Within ten years, the movies were telling ten-minute stories. But they were still primitive, because moviemakers were still recording the story from only one viewpoint, just as their predecessors recorded the speeding train. For example, supposing the story 2 called for a young man to propose marriage. The moviemaker would place the camera far from the stage, recording the entire scene from this single 3 position.

[3] [1] It took the genius of D.W. Griffith to change this method of filming. [2] When we watch this proposal scene, he argued, our eyes move.

(passage continues on next page)

1. A. NO CHANGE B. train speeding distantly C. distant train speeding D. train, distantly speeding 2. F. NO CHANGE G. supposedly H. suppose J. I suppose 3. A. NO CHANGE B. turn the camera and record the entire scene

placing it far from C. record, place the camera far away, and turn to D. turn, start, and recording

grammar usage: adjectives and adverbs

grammar usage: verb question

comma question

ACT, used by permission


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[3] We watch the expressions on the faces of the characters; we look at the hands as the man presented the engagement ring to the woman. 4 [4] Why Griffith asked, cant the camera be our eyes? 5 [5] Why cant we have close-ups of the faces of the man and woman, or of the hands as the man gives his fiance the ring? 6

[4] Some said it wouldnt go over so big. Audiences 7 would be confused if the screen were suddenly filled by a face, let alone a pair of hands and a ring! But Griffith proved the skeptics wrong. By carefully placing close-ups into his scenes, audiences could feel the actors emotions and 8 the storys suspense. By 1917, Griffith was so confident of his style that, he boldly filled 9 the screen with a close-up of a womans nervous hands to convey its anguish at the injustice in 10 the world. That close-up, in the film Intolerance, became famous.

4. F. NO CHANGE G. presents H. having presented J. has presented 5. A. NO CHANGE B. Why? Griffith asked, cant C. Why? Griffith asked. Cant D. Why, Griffith asked, cant 6. Which of the following sequences of sentences will make Paragraph 3 flow most logically? F. NO CHANGE G. 2, 1, 3, 5, 4 H. 3, 5, 1, 2, 4 J. 4, 5, 1, 2, 3 7. A. NO CHANGE B. wouldnt be a big deal. C. wouldnt go too good. D. would never work. 8. F. NO CHANGE G. audiences began a feeling for H. he made audiences feel J. audiences, he felt, would experience 9. A. NO CHANGE B. which he boldly C. that he boldly D. that bold, he 10. F. NO CHANGE G. its H. to them J. her

Question 11 asks about the passage as a whole. 11. Suppose that the writer wanted to add the following sentence to the essay: Film director Martin Scorsese, greatly influenced by the work of Griffith, labeled Intolerance one of the ten greatest films ever. This sentence would most logically fit into: A. Paragraph 1. B. Paragraph 3. C. the beginning of Paragraph 4. D. the end of Paragraph 4.

grammar & usage: verb usage

grammar & usage: punctuation

rhetorical skills: word choice

verb usage

verb usage

grammar: relative pronoun/adj/adv

grammar & usage: pronoun

rhetorical skills: writers strategy, evidence



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Teacher Model: PLAN English Strategies The following is an example of a think-aloud rationale for the teacher to use with the PLAN English Strategies student handout.

On the PLAN English Test, the questions have a specific look. First, you are presented with a passage. At certain points in the passage, specific sections are underlined: a word, a phrase or a sentence. These are usually Grammar and Usage Questions.

READ AROUND When tackling a PLAN English question, it is important to read around the underlined portion. Often, the PLAN gives little hints and clues to help me get to the correct answer, and if you read around the question, you will see these hints. This means that you should read a few words or sentences before the underlined portion and a few sentences after the underlined portion.

UNDERSTANDING WHAT THE QUESTION IS ASKING On the PLAN English Test, another strategy is to identify what the question is asking. For example, on this sample test (Day 1 / Document 2), Question 2 focuses on the underlined section, supposing. First, I read around what the question is asking and see that the sentence currently states, For example, supposing the story called for a young man to propose marriage. Reading around tells me that whatever I choose needs to make sense within the larger sentencethe author wants me to imagine a hypothetical situation. Second, I look at the answer choices. When I do, it is clear the PLAN is testing standard verb usage:

Answer Choice F is to leave the sentence as it is: NO CHANGE Answer Choice G is to change the underline portion to supposedly Answer Choice H is to change the underlined portion to suppose Answer Choice J is to change the underlined portion to I suppose

The strategy here is to notice what is changing in the answer choices. This helps me to know what the question is asking. I do this BEFORE I start Process of Elimination. In Question 2, I see very quickly that this question is testing standard usage of verbs, precisely because the verb is what is different between each answer choice. The words supposing, suppose and supposedly are what is changing from one answer choice to the next. These are all adverbs in an idiomatic expression. This tells me that I should think back to what I know of standard usage of verbs to determine what I can eliminate and what I should keep. Quite quickly, I see that the only answer choice that makes sense idiomatically is H. Still, I double-check the other answers. F is the wrong verb tense. G is an adverb. Finally, J adds an additional subject, which makes the sentence nonsensical. Therefore, H is the best answer.

Next, lets look at a punctuation question. When I look at Question 5, I see right away that each answer choices have different punctuation options:

A has only one comma, after asked B adds a question mark after Why C adds a question mark after Why and a period after asked D has a comma after Why and after asked.

Now that I know what the question is asking, I can use my knowledge of standard punctuation usage to get closer to the answer.

The best answer is D. Griffith asked is a part of the sentence that is not grammatically essential. We set off non-essential elements with a comma on both sides. Answer choice A is confusingwe need the second comma. Answer choices B and C use a question mark that breaks up the sentence and makes it confusing.

Finally, lets look at a PLAN English Rhetorical Skills Question. PLAN rhetorical questions focus on audience, purpose, organization, style, argument, and transitions. Question 6 is a rhetorical question: specifically, in Question 6, I must decide the order of the paragraphs. Tomorrow, we will go over specific strategies to handle this sort of question. For today, just practice recognizing which are Rhetorical Skills Questions and which are Grammar and Usage Questions.


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D. W. Griffith Passage: Answer Key with Explanations

Taken from the retired PLAN assessment. 1. The best answer is C, It offers the only idiomatically acceptable wording (adjective before the noun it modifies). Answer choice A modifies the noun with an adverb, answer choice B has an adverb that doesnt modify the verb, and answer choice D has a misplaced comma and an adverb used incorrectly. 2. The best answer is H because in makes the most sense idiomatically. In addition, the sentence requires a verb, so Answer choice G is incorrect because it is an adverb. Answer choice F is in the wrong tense, and answer choice J adds an additional subject. 3. The best answer is A. The subject is moviemaker, and the verb phrase needs to begin with a verb. Adding the words turn and record (in Answer choices B, C, and D) are both redundant. 4. The best answer is G. The tense required from the context is present tense. Answer choice G is the only answer choice in present tense. Answer choice F is past, while the use of the helping verb in Answer choices H and J indicates past perfect tense. 5. The best answer is D. The best answer is D. Griffith asked is a part of the sentence that is not grammatically essential. We set off non-essential elements with a comma on both sides. Answer choice A is confusingwe need the second comma. Answer choices B and C use a question mark, which breaks up the sentence and makes it confusing. 6. The best answer is F. It is the only answer choice with the current order of paragraphs, which is the most logical order. Beginning with sentences 2, 3 or 4 would make the paragraph confusing. 7. The best answer is D. In this question, Answer choices B, C, and D employ the contraction wouldnt and informal language. This does not match the tone of the rest of the passage. Answer choice D uses would never to avoid the contraction and uses a more formal word choice. 8. The best answer is H. It proposes the best phrasing by adding a subject he and a verb in the correct tense, feel. Answer choices F, G, and J offer no subject or add unnecessary auxiliary verbs (would). 9. The best answer is C. It logically presents this verb phrase as a relative clause with a subject and an adverb modifying the verb filled. Answer choices A, B, and C offer an unnecessary comma (A), the wrong relative pronoun (which in B), or bold instead of boldly, which makes the sentence nonsensical. 10. The best answer is J. The antecedent in this sentence is a woman; her hands convey her emotion. Therefore, any answer choice with it is incorrect, as in Answer choices F and G. Answer choice H is incorrect because no preposition is required, nor is there a plural antecedent. 11. The best answer is D. It is the only choice that places the new sentence at the beginning of the paragraph. This new sentence introduces Intolerance, the movie whose shots are discussed in paragraph 4. It wouldnt make sense to add this sentence to another paragraphthis means Answer choices A and B are incorrect. Finally, adding the sentence at the end of paragraph 4 would leave the paragraph with an awkward ending.


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26D: Passage II: The Howl of the Wolf

The howl of a wolf is at once forlorn as well 13 exuberant, an eerie moan than can raise the hair on your head, a joyous call of the wild. The 3.9 million acres of the Superior National Forest in northeastern, 14 Minnesota are home to more than a thousand timber wolves. Walking in the forest and along wilderness fire trails, I had seen tracks and other sign of this elusive creature. Once I actually glimpsed a wolf. For years, I listened in vain for the song that to many stands for and is the very symbol of 15 wilderness. I decided that I would try to get the wolves to howl. I paddled a canoe out onto an isolated lake at dusk and played recorded wolf calls out across the water. The local wolves must have been unimpressed with this performance: they did not 16 bother to answer the calls. I realized that a tape player was out of keeping with the spirit of the wilderness I sought, so I devised a new plan. All that winter I listened, to recordings of wolf calls.

17 For months I worked on perfecting my own howl, had serenaded my neighbors in my urban apartment 18 complex far from the wilds of the Minnesota woods. (passage continues on the next page)

13. A. NO CHANGE B. and as C. and D. as is 14. F. NO CHANGE G. Forest, in northeastern Minnesota H. Forest in northeastern Minnesota J. Forest, in northeastern, Minnesota, 15. A. NO CHANGE B. stands for the very symbol of C. is the very symbol of D. is the symbol standing for 16. Given that all of the choices are true, which one most clearly supports the first half of the statement? F. NO CHANGE G. they often howl in harmony, rather than

chorusing on the same note. H. the rich, captivating sound of their howl

can carry many miles. J. they howl to assemble the pack and to pass on an alarm.

17. A. NO CHANGE B. listened: C. listened and

D. listened 18. F. NO CHANGE G. serenading H. was serenading J. to have serenaded



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Day 1/Document 5 26D: Passage II (cont) When once again I found myself in the north

19 woods, standing on the shore of a clear lake under a bright moon and a sky filled with stars, I threw back my head and howled. I stopped and listened, a 20 vast northern silence enveloped me. I howled again, and finally I heard it. The unmistakable sound of a chorus of wolves drifted toward me from over the

21 trees and across the lake. The strains of the serenade were so faint I 22 almost had to hold my breath to hear them. The wolves had to of been probably several miles away. 23 I was ecstatic: I felt in that moment that the very soul of the wilderness had acknowledged my existence. Whatever those wild creatures were saying to me, I was no merely observer in that place. 24 25

19. A. NO CHANGE B. on the one hand C. furthermore D. later at a point in time 20. F. NO CHANGE G. stopped and, listened. A H. stopped and listened. A J. stopped, and listened a 21. A. NO CHANGE B. me! From C. me. From D. me; from 22. F. NO CHANGE G. with H. for J. on 23. A. NO CHANGE B. would of been C. being D. were 24. F. NO CHANGE G. mere H. more J. merely more 25. A. NO CHANGE B. place where I was. C. place where I was there with them. D. placethere.



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26D: Passage II: Answers and Labels Question Correct

Answer Choice

Type of Question Specific

13 C Grammar and Usage Conjunction usage

14 H Grammar and Usage Comma usage

14 Answer choice F places the comma after northeaster separating the adjective from its verbnot an example of standard comma usage. Likewise, G places the comma after forest, causing a break-up of the prepositional phrase in northeaster Montana. Finally, J breaks up the sentence even more: none of the commas used here fulfill the test of our seven comma rules. Therefore, answer choice H, with no commas, is our best decision. Knowing standard comma usage means knowing when NOT to use them, too.

15 C Rhetorical Skills Redundancy

16 F Rhetorical Skills Writers strategy: support

17 D Grammar and Usage Punctuation

18 G Grammar and Usage Verb phrase usage

19 A Rhetorical Skills Transitions

20 H Grammar and Usage Comma / period usage

20 Answer choice H is correct because stopped and listened is a compound predicate and should not be broken up by punctuation. The only answer choice that does not break up the predicate is answer choice H. Please notice that, again, knowledge of comma usage means knowing when NOT to use them.

21 A Grammar and Usage Punctuation

22 F Grammar and Usage Preposition usage

23 D Grammar and Usage Verb phrase usage

24 G Grammar and Usage Adjective/adverb usage.

25 A Rhetorical Skills Redundancy


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GRADE 9: Day 1: Document 7

Grammar Cheat Sheet: The Seven Comma Rules 1. Use a comma before a coordinating conjunction (and, or, but, nor, yet, for, so) that separates two independent clauses.

I like you, but I wont go to the prom with you.

2. Use a comma after an introductory word, phrase, or clause that comes before a main clause. In addition, we will be editing our papers. Though some people claim it is hard to understand, we know better.

3. Use commas around words, phrases, and clauses in the middle of a sentence when they aren't essential to the meaning of the sentence. Ms. Smith, my English teacher, taught me about commas.

4. Use commas between items in a series. I went to the store to buy bananas, apples, artichokes, beef jerky, licorice,

and pizza.

5. Use commas before and after a quotation within a sentence. Learning about editing, said Terrence enthusiastically, is fun.

6. Use a comma before an afterthought or contrasting element.

To appreciate a particular dish, we must consider the meal as a whole, not its individual courses.

7. Use commas to set off geographical names, items in date, and professional titles.

New York, New York August 12, 2006 Terence George, Ph.D.


DAY 2 FOCUS: Dealing with English Rhetorical Skills Questions on the PLAN Test MATERIALS: Students should keep all materials for this unit in the ELA/MME Units of Study: Student Materials Folder since they will need to use some of them again on subsequent days. Overhead transparencies of student handouts are recommended.

[pg 2-3; Passage I, PLAN 26D] 46-75 (This retired test is

available from the ACT by ordering from the attached form or calling 319/337-1429). ACT, used by permission)

Day 2/Document 1 (Overhead/Handout): Anatomy of a Rhetorical Skills Question (p. 19)

Day 2/Document 2 (Overhead/Handout): PLAN Rhetorical Skills Cheat Sheet: Half-Right is All Wrong (p. 20)

Day 2/Document 3 (Handout): 26D: Passage I: A World Apart (p. 21-22) Day 2/Document 4 (Overhead/Handout): 26D: Passage I:

Answers and Labels (p. 23) Day 2/Document 5 (Handout): PLAN English Strategies: Tuning

In During the Twenties (p. 24-25) Day 2/Document 6 (Overhead/Handout): Tuning In During the

Twenties: Answer Key with Explanations (p. 26-28) CONNECTION: Yesterday we learned about the structure of the PLAN English Test and how to determine what the questions are asking. We also learned criteria for eliminating wrong answers using Process of Elimination (POE) and reviewed standard common usage. Today we will focus on strategies for the PLAN English Rhetorical Skills Questions.

HANDOUT: Day 2/Document 1: Anatomy of a Rhetorical Skills Question

TEACHING POINT 1: The PLAN English Test wants to test your ability to recognize elements of grammar, as well as your knowledge of good writing. This is where the PLAN English Rhetorical Skills Questions come in. These questions focus on: organization, effective transitions, eliminating repetition or redundancy; the quality of the argument, thesis, and evidence; and writing strategy, purpose, audience, unity, and focus. Basically, the PLAN English Rhetorical Skills Questions test whether or not you can distinguish between strong and weak writing, and if you can offer solutions to remedy weak writing.

Point out the question stem and answer choices Note that the rhetorical questions often have questions before

the answer choices: Students get used to the Grammar and Usage items that do not have a question and sometimes actually SKIP OVER the rhetorical questions stem to go straight to the answer choices, which is confusing.

HANDOUT: Day 2/Document 2: Rhetorical Skills Cheat Sheet: Half-Right is All Wrong.

TEACHING POINT 2: On PLAN English Rhetorical Skills Questions, one of the skills you will have to employ will be the ability to determine whether or nor the author has achieved his/her purpose. Sometimes, you will be given the authors assignment, and you will determine whether he/she has adequately completed that assignment. For these types of PLAN questions, you should identify the authors purpose, or argument, to get to the correct answer. Your job as editors is: step one, to decide if the author has met his/her purpose and answer yes or no; step two, to decide whether your answer choice gives a good reason for answering yes or no. You have to get both the yes or no part correct AND the explanation correct to get the answer correct. Go over the Day 2/Document 2 (Rhetorical Skills Cheat Sheet), pointing out the two halves of the answer that need to be correct. Show how to eliminate either all the yes answers or all the no answers first; then, show how to determine the opposite answers.


HANDOUT: Day 2/Document 3: 26D: Passage I: A World Apart

ACTIVE ENGAGEMENT: You will be reading two passages. The underlined portions of the passages are in question. You are to determine, from the choices provided, how the underlined portions should be changed. Remember to think about what the question is asking and to always use Process of Elimination (POE). Also, remember to use your redundancy strategy: Half-Right is All Wrong. You will have 7 minutes to complete these sections.

When time is up, give students a few moments to identify the types of questions they have just answered, as you did on Day 1, for example Grammar and Usage Questions (e.g., comma, punctuation, adverb usage, adjective usage) and Rhetorical Skills Questions (e.g., organization, transitions, redundancy, authors purpose, effective argument). Use terms with which your students are familiar.

HANDOUT: Day 2/Document 4: 26D: Passage I: Answers and Labels

ACTIVE ENGAGEMENT: Go over answers and labels with the students. Remember, the best test strategy that we have discussed is POE. In order to eliminate an answer choice, we must discover what is wrong with that particular answer.

On one or two questions, model for students how to determine the wrong answer. Day 2/Document 5 (PLAN English Strategies: Tuning In During the Twenties) and Day 2/Document 6 (Tuning In During the Twenties: Answer Key with Explanations) give one possible model for this process. Question 15 would be best to show students.

ACTIVE ENGAGEMENT: Now, using your Rhetorical Skills Cheat Sheet (Day 2/Document 2), you are going to write an explanation for why each incorrect answer choice is wrong on question number 12. First, explain why the correct answer (J) is correct; then, provide explanations for why answer choices F, G and H, individually, are the wrong answers (or choose any other question that suits the Half-Right is All Wrong strategy). See Day 2/Document 4 26D (Passage I: Answers and Labels) for possible student answers to this activity.

CHART: Lets add to the chart we made yesterday: THE STUDENT TEST-TAKING CHECKLIST to write down our new

testing knowledge for the objective tests. Remember to include the following: Always remember to use POE on objective questions. Remember to read around. Remember that Half-Right is All Wrong on writers purpose

questions. WRAP-UP: Today we worked on our editing skills. Now you know how to recognize what the question is asking, identify wrong answers, and use your knowledge of Rhetorical Skills Questions and POE to get to the correct answers. In the next lesson, we will learn about effective prompt analysis for the tests writing tasks. GRADEBOOK: For today, teachers may want to give a grade for participating in the practice items and for practicing identifying the wrong answers.


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Anatomy of a Rhetorical Skills Question PLAN Rhetorical Skills Questions: Test your ability to recognize writers strategy. This includes:

o Determining the BEST organization for a passage o Determining the BEST transitions for the passage o Determining the quality of the writers argument o Determining the whether the writer has:

A clear purpose A clear audience A sense of unity A sense of focus

This means that you will have to consider the passage as a whole, including its tone, point of view, topic, and purpose.

EXAMPLE taken from Tuning in During the Twenties on the ACT website: http://www.actstudent.org/sampletest/test3/engl3/answer3e.html Rhetorical Skills Question: 15. The writer has been asked to write an essay assessing the development of modern technologies after the First World War. Would this essay fulfill that assignment?

A. Yes; the writer focuses exclusively on the commercial possibilities of radio. B. Yes; the writer focuses on the need for federal regulation in the world of broadcasting. C. No; the writer focuses on the commercial possibilities of radio, just one technology. D. No; the writer focuses on the contrast between early radio and radio broadcasting of today.

When ACT gives you a question like this, be sure to read carefully.

Make sure that both halves of the answer choice are correct.


20


PLAN Rhetorical Skills Cheat Sheet: Half-Right is All Wrong

The PLAN Rhetorical Skills often tests whether you can recognize an authors purpose for writing. This means you will have to identify how well or how poorly an author met his/her stated purpose in his/her writing. Lets take a closer look at an example.

Rhetorical Skills Test Trick: Half-Right is All Wrong The PLAN Test writers try to trick test-takers by providing answers that are half-right. They think that students wont read the second half of the answer choice to notice that it is incorrect. By knowing that Half-Right is All Wrong, you will know to read the entire answer choice before deciding whether or not to eliminate it. EXAMPLE taken from Tuning in During the Twenties on the ACT website: http://www.actstudent.org/sampletest/test3/engl3/answer3e.html (While we dont have the passage, we can still see how this works on a sample question.) Rhetorical Skills Question: 15. The writer has been asked to write an essay assessing the development of modern technologies after the First World War. Would this essay fulfill that assignment?

A. Yes; the writer focuses exclusively on the commercial possibilities of radio. B. Yes; the writer focuses on the need for federal regulation in the world of broadcasting. C. No; the writer focuses on the commercial possibilities of radio, just one technology. D. No; the writer focuses on the contrast between early radio and radio broadcasting of today.

Answer choice C meets both requirements: it is the correct answer (no) AND it repeats a reason that is mentioned in the question: technology. Keywords in the question can sometimes help decide on an answer.


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26D: Passage I: A World Apart

I want to be alone! I yelled. There was a hurt look on my six-year-old brothers face as he left the room. I returned to my studies. He never understood that I needed privacy. No matter where I went, he was always there, and this time I lost my temper. A few weeks later, our lives were transformed. My parents received an invitation to join a marine biology study in the Caribbean, thousands of miles from our New York City apartment. We talked it over and decided the change would be good for us all. My brother would leave 1 with them to the Cayman Islands. I would stay in New York and live with my aunt 2 with one year of high school left. I would graduate 2 with my friends and then will join my family in the 3 islands to celebrate. Our plan was in place. Now, months after our good-byes, my ideas go to

my little brother, he always loves attention

whether its for his lively drawings or his wild

dreadlocks.

(passage cont on next page)

1. A. NO CHANGE B. go C. join D. pack up 2. F. NO CHANGE G. With one year of high school left, my aunt

would let me stay with her in New York. H. My aunt, with one year of high school left,

would let me stay with her in New York. J. With one year of high school left, I would stay

in New York and live with my aunt. 3. A. NO CHANGE B. join C. would have joined D. will be joining 4. F. NO CHANGE G. notions H. concepts J. thoughts 5. A. NO CHANGE B. of whom C. who D. OMIT the underlined portion

4

5



22

GRADE 9: Day 2/Document 3 (Cont.)

I wonder if he misses New York at

all. I remember the way he used to tag along as I walked to the nearby candy store. Now he lives in a house near the beach. I wouldnt mind the ocean view.

7 Your brother is enjoying himself here, but he misses you, my father writes. [8] My brothers new friendsCarlos, Sonja, and Larrykeep him company. Playing soccer, the letter goes on, watch scuba

divers, and build elaborate sandcastles. My brother eats mangoes, coconuts, guavas, and star fruitall grown in the islands. Tonight the moon appears, its light falling on the

ships in the Hudson River. Perhaps some of the vessels travel to the Caribbean. If he were here, my brother would sketch one of them before the light changed. Maybe Ill ask my brother to draw me a picture of his view of the sea. I could mail him one of mine along with a bag of his favorite American candy. By now, yet, he may prefer star fruit. 11 12. Suppose the writer had intended to write an essay focusing on an incident in which parents learned a lesson from their children. Does this essay accomplish that goal? F. Yes, because the essay mentions that the parents

included their children in the decision to move. G. Yes, because the essay explains that the parents

kept in touch with the child who stayed behind. H. No, because the essay explains how the

children learn from their parents how to adapt to a new setting.

J. No, because the essay emphasizes the changing attitude of the narrator toward a younger brother.

6. F. NO CHANGE G. wonder and am curious H. ask myself not knowing J. wonder and ask myself 7. Given that all the choices are true, which one ends the paragraph with an idea that is consistent with the focus of this paragraph? A. NO CHANGE B. going for a walk right now, come to think of it. C. tagging along with him for a swim. D. getting a job this summer at the beach. 8. If the writer were to delete the preceding sentence, the essay would primarily lose: F. a sense of how the younger brother spends his

time in ways that are unfamiliar to the narrator. G. an indication that the younger brothers

successful move has not severed his attachment to the narrator.

H. the only indication that the members of this family communicate among themselves.

J. the only evidence of the feelings that exist between members of this family.

9. A. NO CHANGE B. They play soccer, C. Enjoying soccer, D. Soccer playing, 10. F. NO CHANGE G. appearing its falling light H. appearing. Its light falling J. appears its light falling 11. A. NO CHANGE B. though, C. moreover, D. without a doubt,

9

10

6

Question 12 (below) asks about the preceding passage as a whole.



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26D: Passage I: Answers and Labels

Question Correct Answer Choice

Type of Question Specific

1 B Grammar and Usage Verb phrase usage

2 J Grammar and Usage Comma usage

3 B Grammar and Usage Verb phrase usage

4 J Grammar and Usage Logical word choice

5 C Grammar and Usage Pronoun usage

6 F Rhetorical Skills Redundancy

7 C Rhetorical Skills Writers strategy: focus

8 G Rhetorical Skills Writers strategy: evidence

9 B Grammar and Usage Sentence fragment

10 F Grammar and Usage Verb usage / punctuation

11 B Rhetorical Skills Transitions

12 J Rhetorical Skills Writers strategy: purpose

12 a. The question asks whether the author met the intended purpose of writing about parents learning from children. This essay is about an older child learning from a younger child. This means that neither F nor G, with yes answers, can be correct.

b. The second half of the answer choice in H discusses adapting to new settings. Since the question did not ask about adapting to new settings, answer choice H is incorrect. Therefore, answer choice J is correct. Its first half, No, is correct, and its explanation that the essay emphasizes a relationship with a younger brother is also correct.


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PLAN English Strategies: Tuning In During the Twenties

[1]

Modern broadcasting began to develop after the First

World War. Before 1920, radio was simply a useful

way to send electrical signals ashore from a ship at

sea, or, from one "ham" operator to another. The

new technology associated with movies and

airplanes was already developing rapidly by the time

soldiers started returning from European trenches in

1918. The vast potential of the airwaves, therefore,

had scarcely been touched.

[2]

[1] Then a vice president of Westinghouse, looking

for a way to make the transmission of radio signals

more profitable, decided on a two-fold strategy. [2]

First, he would entice an audience with daily

programming of great variety. [3] Second, he would

sell this audience the radio receivers necessary to

listen to this entertainment. [4] The plan succeeded

beyond anyone's expectations.

[3]

The federal Radio Division in Washington, D.C., was

created to license stations, because it had no power

to regulate them. Broadcasters multiplied wildly,

some helping themselves to the more desirable

frequencies, others increasing their transmission

power at will. Chaos means things were out of

control.

[4]

Yet even in the midst of such anarchy, some

commercial possibilities and organizations saw

clearly of a medium whose regulation seemed

imminent.

1. A. NO CHANGE B. ship, at sea, or C. ship at sea or; D. ship at sea or

2. F. NO CHANGE G. however, H. also, J. in fact, 3. A. NO CHANGE B. but had a decision C. deciding D. yet decided 4. F. NO CHANGE G. successful planning was H. success plan was J. plans succeeding

5. Which of the following sequences of sentences will make Paragraph 2 most logical? A. NO CHANGE B. 1, 4, 3, 2 C. 2, 1, 3, 4 D. 4, 1, 2, 3

6. F. NO CHANGE G. since H. thus J. but

7. Which of the alternatives provides the most logical and succinct conclusion for Paragraph 3? A. NO CHANGE B. Chaos reigned. C. There were some problems. D. The government was always in control. 8. F. NO CHANGE G. some saw clearly the commercial possibilities

and organizations H. some organizations saw clearly the

commercial possibilities J. organizations saw clearly some possible

commercials

1

2

3

4 5

6

7

8

1



25

GRADE 9: Day 2/Document 5 (Cont.)

In 1926, RCA paid the American Telephone &

Telegraph Company one million dollars for station

WEAF in New York Cityand NBC was born.

Years later, the Radio Law of 1927 was enacted. It

authorized its control for licensing and of policing the

broadcasters.

[5]

The RCA executives who created the powerful NBC

network were right to see that sizable profits would

come from this new medium. Even in 1930 for

example an hour's advertising on nationwide radio to

forty-seven cities cost $10,180. Advertising turned

broadcasting into an industry, and the untapped

potential of the airwaves began to be realized.

14. The writer wishes to add the following sentence to the essay: Nowadays, no matter where you are, it's hard to be far from a radio. If added, this sentence would best support and most logically be placed: F. before the first sentence of Paragraph 2. G. after the last sentence of Paragraph 2. H. before the last sentence of Paragraph 3. J. after the last sentence of Paragraph 4.

9. A. NO CHANGE B. A year later, C. Factually, D. In conclusion, 10. F. NO CHANGE G. controlling H. the control of J. OMIT the underlined portion. 11. A. NO CHANGE B. which C. having D. as 12. F. NO CHANGE G. Even in 1930; for example H. Even, in 1930 for example, J. Even in 1930, for example, 13. A. NO CHANGE B. begins realizing it. C. began reality. D. began it's realizing.

15. The writer has been asked to write an essay

assessing the development of modern technologies after the First World War. Would this essay fulfill that assignment?

A. Yes; the writer focuses exclusively on the commercial possibilities of radio.

B. Yes; the writer focuses on the need for federal regulation in the world of broadcasting.

C. No; the writer focuses on the commercial possibilities of radio, just one technology.

D. No; the writer focuses on the contrast between early radio and radio broadcasting of today.

9

10

11

12

13

Questions 14 and 15 ask about the preceding passages as a whole.



26


Tuning In During the Twenties: Answer Key with Explanations

Taken from the ACT website: http://www.act.org 1. Grammar and Usage: Punctuation The best answer is D because the meaning of the sentence is clearest and the rhythm of the sentence is smoothest with no punctuation separating the two adverbial phrases from a ship at sea and from one ham operator to another. All the other choices have superfluous punctuation marks that cloud the meaning and interrupt the rhythm of the sentence. In Choice A, the comma before the conjunction or is acceptable (but not necessary) to separate the adverbial phrases, but the comma after or performs no useful function here; the pair of commas do nothing but confuse the meaning of the sentence. In Choice B, the pair of commas setting off the prepositional phrase at sea interrupts the sentence because there is no reason to set this phrase apart from the rest of the sentence. Choice C misuses the semicolon; there is no need to use any punctuation after the conjunction or, and to use a semicolon, which customarily marks a break in sentence flow greater than that marked by a comma, creates both an unnecessarily big interruption. 2. Rhetorical Skills: Transitions The best answer is G because the transitional word however is the only choice that: a) logically connects the last sentence in Paragraph 1 with the preceding sentence, and b) clearly expresses the idea that even with the new technology, the vast potential of the airwaves had scarcely been touched. The other choices create faulty logic. In Choice F, the use of therefore is illogical because the potential of the airwaves was not the result of the new technology. Choice H is illogical because the potential of the airwaves was not in addition to the new technology. In Choice J, the use of the phrase in fact also creates an illogical connection. 3. Grammar and Usage: Sentence structure The best answer is A because the use of the verb decided results in a clear, complete, and logical sentence. The other choices contain sentence structure defects. Choices B and D add coordinating conjunctions (but and yet, respectively) that distort the meaning of the sentences and create faulty subordination. Choice C creates a sentence fragment because using the present participle deciding (instead of decided) deprives the sentence of a predicate. 4. Grammar and Usage: Verb usage The best answer is F, which clearly conveys the idea that the vice president's plan was very successful. The other choices contain style or sentence structure defects. In Choice G, the intended meaning of the sentence is distorted; the plan itself was successful, not the act of planning. In Choice H, the word success is improperly used as an adjective. Choice J results in a sentence fragment because it proposes the present participle succeeding instead of a predicate form.


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5. Rhetorical Skills: Order within a paragraph The best answer is A because it places the sentences in the most logical order. The other choices create faulty logic. Choices B and C arrange the sentences so that the events do not occur in a chronological order. Choice D is illogical because its sequence suggests that the vice president's plan succeeded before he had even conceived it. 6. Grammar and Usage: Conjunctions The best answer is J, which uses the coordinating conjunction but to logically connect the two clauses in the sentence. The other choices introduce defects in logic. Choices F and G (because and since, respectively) propose subordinating conjunctions that suggest a cause-effect relationship between the clauses that isn't supported by the essay. The use of the adverb thus in Choice H creates a comma splice as well as another logic problem: the creation of the federal Radio Division did not result in its lack of power to regulate. 7. Rhetorical Skills: Writers strategy logic The best answer is B, which is the most logical and succinct conclusion to the paragraph. Chaos reigned clearly concludes the idea expressed in the preceding two sentences (that the lack of regulation brought disorder and confusion to the broadcasting industry). Choice B also provides an effective transition between paragraphs 3 and 4. None of the other choices logically and effectively conclude paragraph 3. Choice A changes the subject and creates an irrelevancy by defining the word chaos. By stating There were some problems, Choice C weakly concludes the paragraph with an understatement. Choice D creates an irony, but this irony is not in keeping with the tone of the essay. 8. Rhetorical Skills: Writers strategy - clarity The best answer is H because it is the only response that clearly expresses the idea that, despite the anarchy in the broadcasting industry, some organizations saw commercial possibilities. The other choices propose wordings that are either ambiguous or contain defects in style or sentence structure. Choice F contains a misplaced modifier. The word organizations can be modified by in the midst of such anarchy, but the phrase some commercial possibilities cannot. Choices G and J are unclear and ambiguous. 9. Rhetorical Skills: Transitions The best answer is B, which proposes the most logical transitional phrase between this sentence and the preceding one. The other choices are either illogical or create poor transitions. Choice A would only confuse the reader because the Radio Law of 1927 did not occur years laterit occurred just one year later. Choice C does not logically connect the two sentences. Choice D is also illogical because a conclusion is not being made at this point in the essay. 10. Rhetorical Skills: Parallel construction The best answer is H, which provides a parallel construction. In Choice H, the coordinated phrases of licensing and of policing are effectively presented in parallel forms. None of the other choices make these elements parallel. Choices G and J both create faulty parallelism by proposing the phrase licensing and of policing as a compound direct object of the sentence. Also, in Choice F, the use of the contraction it's is grammatically incorrect.


28

11. Grammar and Usage: Relative pronoun The best answer is A, which proposes the correct relative pronoun to link the subject of the sentence (the RCA executives) with the clause that best describes the subject (who created the powerful NBC network). Choice B uses which, a relative pronoun that is used to refer to things, not persons. Choice C creates a gerund phrase that would need to be set off by commas. Choice D creates both faulty logic and faulty subordination. 12. Grammar and Usage: Punctuation The best answer is J, which uses commas to set off the parenthetical (nonessential) element for example from the rest of the sentence. The other choices either use no punctuation or use punctuation incorrectly. Choice F creates confusion and ambiguity by allowing the nonessential element to blend into the sentence. Choice G uses a semicolon instead of a comma and does not set off for example from the rest of the sentence. Choice H does not correctly identify the nonessential element in the sentence. 13. Grammar and Usage: Verb usage The best answer is A because it proposes clear and idiomatic phrasing and a consistency of verb tense in the sentence. The other choices have defects in clarity, logic, and sentence structure. Choice B makes the sentence unclear and shifts from the past tense (turned) to the present tense (begins). Choice C results in a sentence that has no logical meaning. Choice D is unclear and illogical; also, it can be ruled out because it uses the contraction it's incorrectly. 14. Rhetorical Skills: Writers strategy - support The best answer is G, which logically places the new sentence at the end of Paragraph 2, where it supports the idea that the vice president's plan succeeded beyond anyone's expectation. The other choices create organizational problems in the essay. Choice F places the sentence at the beginning of Paragraph 2, where it would provide a poor transition from Paragraph 1. The placement proposed by Choice H creates a disruption in the flow of Paragraph 3. The new sentence does not support the information in that paragraph, which focuses on the lack of regulation during the early years of broadcasting. The placement proposed by Choice J creates a weak conclusion to Paragraph 4 because the new sentence does not logically follow the preceding information, which focuses on the licensing and policing of broadcasters. 15. Rhetorical Skills: Writers strategy - purpose The best answer is C, which clearly states that the essay has not fulfilled the assignment because it has a focus that is more narrow and specific than assessing the development of modern technologies after the First World War. Choice A is illogical because, while it says the writer has fulfilled the assignment, it also states the opposite by saying that the essay is exclusively about radio. Choice B does not even mention the development of technologies. Choice D describes a contrast between early radio and radio of today, a subject that is not addressed in this essay.


29

DAY 3 FOCUS: Writing on Demand: Effective Prompt Analysis and Generating Ideas MATERIALS: Students should keep all materials for this unit in the ELA/MME Units of Study: Student Materials Folder since they will need to use some materials again on subsequent days. Overhead transparencies of student handouts are recommended.

Student journals (use the blue book or something similar) Day 3/Document 1 (Overhead/Handout): Sample ACT Prompt on

Dress Codes and Prompt Analysis Worksheet (p. 31) Day 3/Document 2 (Overhead/Handout): Blank Prompt Analysis

Worksheet (p. 32) Day3/Document 3 (Overhead/Handout): Sample ACT Prompt on

Junk Food (p. 33) Overhead transparency markers

CONNECTION: Yesterday we learned strategies to apply to the multiple-choice portion of the PLAN English Exam. Today we will learn how to analyze prompts for the timed writing portion of the PLAN Writing exam. Successful test takers know how to analyze the prompts for the writing tasks on the PLAN essays.

HANDOUTS: Day 3/Document 1: Sample ACT Prompt on Dress Codes and Prompt Analysis Worksheet

TEACHING POINT 1: A prompt always has a topic, purpose, and audience. Understanding these features of the prompt will help you avoid writing off topic (and thereby scoring a 0). Review the prompt with a quick tour to notice and name the parts:

o Topic: What is the focus of the prompt? o Purpose: What is the purpose of the prompt? o Audience: Who is the audience?

Model analyzing a prompt, using an overhead transparency of Day 3/Document 1.

Writers, lets analyze a prompt using this prompt analysis worksheet. As you can see, the information that is filled in comes directly from the prompt. The box labeled Your position on the topic is the place for writers to clearly state their opinions on the topic. Taking the time to decide on a position before writing the essay is important to give the essay a solid focus.

Teachers: Model filling in the overhead transparency of Document 1 like this:

Write your prompt here: In your opinion should high schools adopt dress codes for students? Topic: dress codes

Purpose: to persuade my audience to agree with my opinion

Audience: explicit: teachers and parents in favor of and against dress codes implicit: test grader

Your position on the topic: High Schools should not adopt dress codes for students because it limits students freedom of expression, ignores cultural or religious needs, and makes students appear too homogenous. ACTIVE ENGAGEMENT: Now it is your turn to practice the prompt analysis I have just modeled for you. We will come back to the dress code topic tomorrow. Right now, imagine you are taking the ACT Writing Test. Fill out the blank prompt analysis worksheet for this prompt on junk food.

HANDOUTS: Day 3/Document 2: Blank Prompt Analysis Worksheet

Day 3/Document 3: Sample ACT Prompt on Junk Food.

TEACHING POINT 2: Lets take a look at how one of you generated ideas for the prompt. Use a copy of the blank prompt analysis worksheet on an overhead transparency to have the student write down what he/she has planned. Discuss the choices with the whole group. Specifically discuss the importance of clearly stating a position on the topic.


30

REFLECTION: Ask students to write in their journals. How has our work with analyzing prompts today helped you understand what you are expected to do? What questions still remain as we end our work today? WRAP-UP: Today we learned how to analyze a prompt and clearly state an opinion on the topic. Tomorrow, we will learn how to assess good writing using the actual ACT rubric. On Day 5 we will return to todays prompt analysis worksheet and learn about counterarguments and rebuttals. GRADEBOOK: Teachers may consider assigning a participation grade and/or collecting worksheets for assessment. Journal reflections are assigned regularly during this unit, so teachers may prefer collecting all reflections for a journal grade at the end of the unit.


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Sample ACT Prompt on Dress Codes and Prompt Analysis Worksheet

In some high schools many teachers and parents have encouraged the

school to adopt a dress code that sets guidelines for what students can wear in the school building. Some teachers and parents support a dress code because they think it will improve the learning environment in the school. Other teachers and parents do not support a dress code because they think it restricts the individual students freedom of expression. In your opinion should high schools adopt dress codes for students?

In your essay take a position on this question. You may write about either one of the two points of view given, or you may present a different point of view on this question. Use specific reasons and examples to support your position. Write your prompt here: Topic:

Purpose: Audience:

Your position on the topic:

Source: Preparing for the ACT 2005-2006, ACT 2005


32


Blank Prompt Analysis Worksheet

Write your prompt here: Topic:

Purpose: Audience:

Your position on the topic:


33


Sample ACT Prompt on Junk Food Some high schools in the United States have considered banning the sale of sugary and fatty foods in their vending machines, cafeterias, and even at their fundraisers. Some educators point out that the country is seeing ever-rising rates of obesity in younger children. Other educators feel that through proper education, young adults are capable of making good choices, and that banning these foods from vending machines will not really prevent students from drinking sodas or eating junk foods. In your opinion, should high schools ban sugary and fatty foods from being sold on their campuses? In your essay, take a position on this question. You may write about either one of the two points of view given, or you may present a different point of view on this question. Use specific reasons and examples to support your position.


Contributed by Andrea Zellner


34

DAY 4 FOCUS: Writing on Demand: Understanding Rubrics and Writing Solid Body Paragraphs MATERIALS: Students should keep all materials for this unit in the ELA/MME Units of Study: Student Materials Folder since they will need to use some materials again on subsequent days. Overhead transparencies of student handouts are recommended.

Student journals Day 4/Document 1 (Handout): ACT Scoring Rubric (p. 36 - 37) Day 4/Document 2 (Overhead/Handout): ACT Scoring Rubric:

Requirements for a 6 (p. 38) Day 4/Document 3 (Overhead/Handout): Sample Body Paragraph

and Worksheet (Topic: Dress Codes) (p. 39) Day 4/Document 4: (Overhead/Handout) Model Prompt Analysis

Worksheet with Sample Body Paragraph (Topic: Dress Codes) (p. 40)

Highlighters

SCAFFOLDING: This session requires students to look at examples of writing at the body paragraph level. Teachers may want to review paragraph basics for some students prior to this lesson. CONNECTION: Yesterday you learned about effective prompt analysis. Today, we will use that knowledge to think like the readers who grade the essays.

HANDOUTS: Day 4/Document 1: ACT Scoring Rubric TEACHING POINT 1: When readers score student essays, they use a rubric as their guideline. You now have a copy of the ACT scoring rubric. Lets look really closely at all the elements writers must have in their essays.

HANDOUTS: Day 4/Document 2: ACT Scoring Rubric: Requirements for a 6

ACTIVE ENGAGEMENT: Use your highlighter pen to highlight certain sections as we read together the requirements for scoring a 6, the highest score on the ACT rubric.

TEACHING POINT 2: Lets read the rubric requirements together: Essays within this score range demonstrate effective skill in responding to the task. The essay shows a clear understanding of the task. The essay takes a position on the issue and may offer a critical context for discussion. The prompt analysis work we did yesterday addresses this first part of the rubric. The next section is something we will address tomorrow. The essay addresses complexity by examining different perspectives on the issue, or by evaluating the implications and/or complications of the issue, or by fully responding to counterarguments to the writers position. Here is the key part we will address today. Highlight this section of your rubric as I read aloud: Development of ideas is ample, specific, and logical. Most ideas are fully elaborated. A clear focus on the specific issue in the prompt is maintained. The organization of the essay is clear: the organization may be somewhat predictable or it may grow from the writers purpose. Ideas are logically sequenced. This part of the rubric asks writers to be sure to make assertions, supply evidence, and warrant or connect that evidence back to their position on the topic. This last part of the rubric, we will address tomorrow. Now lets get out our work from yesterday on the topic of the dress codes.

SCAFFOLDING: Have students refer to the work on the dress code rubrics from Day 3 (Day 3/Document 1).


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HANDOUTS: Day 4/Document 3: Sample Body Paragraph Worksheet (Topic: Dress Codes)

TEACHING POINT 3: Yesterday, we analyzed a prompt and discussed the importance of developing a strong position. Once a writer has stated his/her opinion on a topic, he/she must develop his/her essay through the body paragraphs of the essay. Each body paragraph should contain three parts:

1. an assertion; 2. evidence; and 3. warrant, connecting the evidence to the writers position

(opinion) on the topic.

ACTIVE ENGAGEMENT: Lets color-code these columns so we can see how these three parts fit into a body paragraph of an essay. You will need three different color highlighter pens. Going down, use highlighter color 1 to color the assertion column; use highlighter color 2 to color the evidence column, and use highlighter color 3 to color the warrant/connection column. ACTIVE ENGAGEMENT: Writers, now it is your turn to look closely at a sample body paragraph. Lets deconstruct or break it down into three parts: assertion, evidence, and warrant on the sample. First, use the appropriate color highlighter pens to highlight these three parts within this sample paragraph. Then, write each highlighted part in the appropriate boxes of your model prompt analysis worksheet.

HANDOUTS: Day 4/Document 4: Model Prompt Analysis Worksheet with Sample Body Paragraph (Topic: Dress Codes)


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GRADE 9: Day 4/Document 1:

ACT Scoring Rubric

Source: Preparing for the ACT 2005-2006, ACT 2005. Papers at each level exhibit all or most of the characteristics described at each score point. (Used by permission from ACT)

Score = 6: Essays within this score range demonstrate effective skill in responding to the task. The essay shows a clear understanding of the task. The essay takes a position on the issue and may offer a critical context for discussion. The essay addresses complexity by examining different perspectives on the issue, or by evaluating the implications and/or complications of the issue, or by fully responding to counterarguments to the writers position. Development of ideas is ample, specific, and logical. Most ideas are fully elaborated. A clear focus on the specific issue in the prompt is maintained. The organization of the essay is clear: the organization may be somewhat predictable or it may grow from the writers purpose. Ideas are logically sequenced. Most transitions reflect the writers logic and are usually integrated into the essay. The introduction and conclusion are effective, clear, and well developed. The essay shows a good command of language. Sentences are varied and word choice is varied and precise. There are few, if any, errors to distract the reader. Score = 5: Essays within this score range demonstrate competent skill in responding to the task. The essay shows a clear understanding of the task. The essay takes a position on the issue and may offer a broad context for discussion. The essay shows recognition of complexity by partially evaluating the implications and/or complications of the issue, or by responding to counterarguments to the writers position. Development of ideas is specific and logical. Most ideas are elaborated, with clear movement between general statements and specific reasons, examples, and details. Focus on the specific issue in the prompt is maintained. The organization of the essay is clear, although it may be predictable. Ideas are logically sequenced, although simple and obvious transitions may be used. The introduction and conclusion are clear and generally well developed. Language is competent. Sentences are somewhat varied and word choice is sometimes varied and precise. There may be a few errors, but they are rarely distracting. Score = 4: Essays within this score range demonstrate adequate skill in responding to the task. The essay shows an understanding of the task. The essay takes a position on the issue and may offer some context for discussion. The essay may show some recognition of complexity by providing some response to counterarguments to the writers position. Development of ideas is adequate, with some movement between general statements and specific reasons, examples, and details. Focus on the specific issue in the prompt is ma

9th Grade Mini-Lesson Writing Unit

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