64506_SBI PO Preliminary Model Paper 20

IBPSEXAMGURU

SBI PO 2015Prelims Model Paper - 20

www.ibpsexamguru.in

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Sections Number of questions Marks Duration of Exam

1. English Language 30 30 60 minutes 2. Reasoning 35 35

3. Quantitative Aptitude 35 35

Total = 100 Qs. Total marks = 100

Test English Language

Q. (1 5): Which of the phrases (1), (2), (3) and (4) given below should replace the phrase given in bold

in the following sentence to make the sentence grammatically meaningful and correct If the sentence is

correct as it is and no correction is required, mark (5) as the answer

Q. 1. The banks accumulated losses have come up for manageable levels this year.

(1) come to (2) came into (3) coming from (4) came within (5) No correction required

Q. 2. The incident has clearly highlighted his knowledge and attentive of detail.

(1) attended to detail

(2) attentively on details

(3) attention to detail

(4) attend for detail

(5) No correction required

Q. 3. Improving the educational system, which is one of the worst in the world requires commitment

from the countrys politicians.

(1) among the worse

(2) one of the worse

(3) become the worse

(4) from the worst



Q. 4. Considering the high demand for flights to Gulf countries airlines can risen prices.

(1) should rise (2) could raised (3) may raise (4) will raise up (5) No correction required

Q. 5. Without both issue is clarified the Board has kept all other matters before it pending.

(1) Unless both issues are

(2) Until each issue were

(3) Without the issue being

(4) Since both issues


Q. (6 10): Rearrange the following sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) into a meaningful paragraph

and then answer the questions given below it.

(A) Moreover salaries in public sector enterprises are not as competitive as those offered by private or

foreign corporate.

(B) This trend should be a wake up call for stakeholders to examine why employees are seeking better

opportunities with private companies in India and abroad.

(C) Public Sector Enterprises (PSEs) have been experiencing severe challenges in attracting, motivating

and retaining their key staff.

(D) Having identified these as the reasons employees leave PSEs it is important to empower

stakeholders to find ways to remedy the situation.

(E) One reason is that young employees lured away by private firms are more willing to undertake

professional risks.

(F) Employees in specialist roles especially have become increasingly difficult to retain.

Q. 6. Which of the following should be the LAST (SIXTH) sentence after rearrangement?

(1) (A) (2) (B) (3) (C) (4) (D) (5) (E)

Q. 7. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?


(1) (A) (2) (B) (3) (C) (4) (D) (5) (E)

Q. 8. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement?

(1) (A) (2) (B) (3) (C) (4) (D) (5) (F)

Q. 9. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?

(1) (B) (2) (C) (3) (D) (4) (E) (5) (F)

Q. 10. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?

(1) (A) (2) (B) (3) (C) (4) (D) (5) (E)

Q. (11 20): In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These

numbers are printed below the passage and against each five words have been suggested, one of which

fills the blanks appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

Traditional bank architecture is based on bank branches. These branches ensure the physical (11)

of a customers savings. A customer may go there to deposit and withdraw money, (12) loans and

(13) in other financial transactions. In the past two decades banking architecture has changed-the

Automated Teller Machine (ATM) has been a big (14) and credit and debit cards have created new

financial spaces. (15) the bank branch has remained the bedrock of the banking system-after all a

person needs a bank account in a branch before he can operate a debit or ATM card. This may be

about to change as technocrats now (16) cell phones as the new architecture of virtual banks. This

has the potential to make branches (17). Cell phone banking looks especially relevant for India since

it can penetrate the countryside cheaply and (18). The world over cell phones are spreading at a (19)

rate and in India alone new cell phone connections are growing at the rate of six million a month a rate

of customer (20) that no bank can dream of.


Q. 11. (1) confidentiality (2) guarantee (3) knowledge (4) security (5) presence

Q. 12. (1) disburse (2) sanction (3) negotiate (4) advance (5) credit

Q. 13. (1) enable (2) engage (3) pursue (4) interact (5) operate

Q. 14. (1) luxury (2) innovation (3) drawback (4) hurdle (5) consequence

Q. 15. (1) Yet (2) Until (3) Despite (4) Although (5) Even

Q. 16. (1) engineer (2) assess (3) view (4) realize (5) display

Q. 17. (1) retreat (2) expired (3) essential (4) obsolete (5) extant

Q. 18. (1) indiscriminately (2) effectively (3) moderately (4) occasionally (5) compulsorily

Q. 19. (1) competitive (2) projected (3) phenomenal (4) gradual (5) proportionate

Q. 20. (1) satisfaction (2) relationship (3) discount (4) base (5) expansion

Q. (21- 25): Fill in the blanks with the appropriate given.

Q. 21. Fortunately no one was hurt _______ the accident being ______ .

(1) although, fatal

(2) though, damaging


(3) however, critical

(4) as, serious

(5) in spite of, serious.

Q. 22. As a _______ of the foreign rule the country was ______ into mass poverty.

(1) sequel, going

(2) consequence, steeped

(3) consequence, sliding

(4) fall-out, slipping

(5) sequence, much.

Q. 23. ______ of the farmers has lead to their _______.

(1) exploitation, insecurity

(2) loan, progress

(3) progress, output

(4) bonding, misery

(5) joy, progress.

Q. 24. ______ is the result of ______ growth.

(1) this, burden

(2) corruption, corrupt

(3) poverty, repressive

(4) economy, planned

(5) unemployment, unplanned


Q. 25. The ____ of literacy determines the _____ of population.

(1) rate, quality (2) share, number (3) rate, rate (4) share, number (5) lack, control

Q. (26 30): Find the error, if any, in the underlined portion in BOLD, if none mark 5 as your answer.

Q. 26. 1) She didn't avail /2) the offer made by /3) the Company for which /4) she had been working for

thirteen years. /5) No error

Q. 27. 1) You really /2) don't know of whom about /3) you are speaking /4) ill of /5) No error

Q. 28. 1) It is /2) certainly no use /3) to cry for /4) spilt milk /5) No error

Q. 29. 1) I received /2) a letter by /3) my father after /4) more than two weeks. /5) No error

Q. 30. 1) It is me /2) and not he /3) who is guilty of /4) hurting your sentiments. /5) No error

Answers

Q. 1. (1) Come to is a phrasal verb which means to reach to a particular situation or to return to your

normal state.

eg:-We have come to the conclusion that his idea is better.

Q. 2. (3) Attention to detail should be used as attention is a noun. The sentence requires noun here as

another noun knowledge is used in the sentence.

Q. 3. (5)


Q. 4. (3) May a raise should be used May shows possibility of something happening in the future.

eg. He may go to Delhi tomorrow.

Here the airlines may a raise their prices as there is a high demand for flights.

can risen cannot be used as can is used with first form of the verb.

eg:- The price of food grains can rise up to 5 percent.

Q. 5. (1) Unless is used to express a condition (with a negative implication) and since two issues are

there the helping verb are should be used.

Q. 6. (4)

Q. 7. (3)

Q. 8. (1)

Q. 9. (5)

Q. 10. (2)

Q. 11. (4) Security means protection against

something bad that can happen in the future.

eg :- We all need financial security.

Q. 12. (3) negotiate means to obtain or give a sum of money in exchange for a financial document of the

same value.

eg. He has negotiated a large sum from the bank.


Q. 13. (2) engage in means to take part or involve in something.

Eg. The two organizations have agreed to engage in a comprehensive dialogue to solve the problem.

Q. 14. (1) innovation means a new idea or method.

(Here ATM has been a new Idea for everyone).

Eg.- He has developed the latest innovations in computer technology.

Q. 15. (1) Yet here means still

Eg:- I havent spoken to her yet.

Q. 16. (3) View means to have a particular opinion or way of thinking about someone or something.

Eg:- The journalist asked the minister how he viewed recent events.

Q. 17. (4) obsolete means no longer in use.

Eg:- Gas lamps became obsolete when electric lighting was invented.

Q. 18. (2) effectively means in an effective manner or in away that will produce good results.

Eg. The tablets work more effectively if you take a hot drink after them.

Q. 19. (3) phenomenal means successful, often because of special quality.

Eg: - Her rise to fame was quite phenomenal.

Q. 20. (5) expansion means when something increases in size, number or importance.

Eg:-There is a rapid expansion of software companies these days.


Q. 21. (5) The sentence is showing a contradiction that although a serious accident took place of nobody

was hurt, therefore, in spite of is used along with serious.

Q. 22. (3) Consequence means result and sliding means a change to a lower or worse condition.

eg. A downward slide in the price of oil.

Q. 23. (1) Exploitation means to treat somebody unfairly by making them work and not giving them

much in return and insecurity means not safe or protected.

Q. 24. (5) Unemployment means the fact of a number of people not housing a job and Unplanned

means not planned in advance.

Q. 25. (3) Rate is the correct term so as to define both literacy and population.

Rate means a measurement of the number of times something happens or exists during a particular

period.

Q. 26. (1) Because avail is always used with a reflexive pronoun.

Q. 27. (2) Whom is used to relate and about is a conjunction to relate so both cant be used together.

Q. 28. (3) This is a proverb It is no use of crying over spilt milk.

Q. 29. (2) From should replace by because from is used to show the origin or source

Where are as, by is used for the agent.

Q. 30. (1) Instead of me it should be I because he is a subjective case and I is also subjective wherereas

me, is an objective case.


Test 2 Reasoning

Q. (1 5): In these questions the symbols ,#,$, % and # are used with different meanings as follows:

A @ B means A is not smaller than B.

A # B means A is neither smaller than nor equal to B.

A $ B means A is neither greater than nor smaller than B.

A % B means A is not greater than B.

A * B means A is neither greater than nor equal to B.

In each question, four statements showing relationships have been given, which are followed by three

conclusions I, II and III. Assuming that the given statements are true, find out which conclusion(s) is/are

definitely true.

Q. 1. Statements: V $ Y, Y@Z, Z % X, X # T

Conclusions: I. T # Z II. X # Y III. Z * Y

(1) None follows (2) Only I follows (3) Only II & III follow (4) Only I & III follow (5) None of these

Q. 2. Statements: R @ J, J % F, F * E, E % M

Conclusions: I. M # J II. F % M III. M * R

(1) Only I follows (2) Only II follows (3) Only III follows (4) Only I & II follow (5) All follow

Q. 3. Statements: H # R, R @ L, L * W, W % F

Conclusions: I. H # L II. F # L III. H $ F

(1) Only I follows

(2) Only I & II follow

(3) Only II & III follow

(4) Only either I or II follows


(5) All follow

Q. 4. Statements: M # K, M $ F, F % Q, Q * H

Conclusions: I. H # K II. Q # K III. Q @ M


(2) Only either I or II follows

(3) All I, II & III follow

(4) Only II & III follow

(5) None of these

Q. 5. Statements: D * Q, Q $ L, L # T, T % H

Conclusions: I. D * L II. L @ H III. H * L

(1) Only I follows


(3) Only either II or III follows

(4) All I, II & III follow

(5) Only I and either II or III follow

Q. (6 10): Given an input line the machine arranges the words and numbers in steps in a systematic

manner as illustrated below:

Input line : 56 dress fine shine 32 66 72 offer

Step I 72 56 dress fine shine 32 66 offer

Step II 72 shine 56 dress fine 32 66 offer

Step III 72 shine 66 56 dress fine 32 offer

Step IV 72 shine 66 offer 56 dress fine 32

Step V 72 shine 66 offer 56 fine dress 32


Step VI 72 shine 66 offer 56 fine 32 dress

Step VI is the last step and the output in Step VI is the final output.

As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate

step for the given input.

Q. 6. Step IV of an input is 62 sound 56 sleep roam present 33 49'.What will be the input definitely?

(1) sound 62 sleep 56 roam present 33 49

(2) sleep sound 62 56 roam present 33 49

(3) 62 sound sleep 56 roam present 33 49

(4) Cannot be determined

(5) None of these

Q. 7. Which of the following will be the third step for input: jockey firm 36 43 growth chart 22 45?

(1) 45 jockey 43 growth firm 36 chart 22

(2) 45 jockey 43 firm growth 36 chart 22

(3) 45 jockey 43 growth 36 firm chart 22

(4) 45 jockey 43 firm 36 growth chart 22

(5) None of these

Q. 8. Step II of an input is 53 window 42 50 door lock key 36'. How many more steps will be required to

complete the arrangement?

(1) Three (2) Four (3) Five (4) Six (5) None of these

Q. 9. What will be the fifth step of an input whose first step is 85 journey train 36 54 daily 28 mansion?

(1) 85 train 54 mansion 28 journey daily 36

(2) 85 train 54 mansion journey 36 daily 28


(3) 85 train 54 mansion 36 journey daily 28

(4) There is no such step

(5) None of these

Q. 10. Which step will be the last step for an input whose second step is 63 Sour 18 56 grapes healthy

32 rise?

(1) IV (2) V (3) VIII (4) VII (5) None of these

Q. (11 15): In each question below is given a statement followed by two courses of action numbered I

and II. A course of action is a step or administrative decision to be taken for improvement, follow-up or

further action in regard to the problem, policy, etc. On the basis of the information given in the

statement, you have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then decide which of the

suggested courses of action logically follow(s) for pursuing.

Give answer (1) if only course of action I follows.

Give answer (2) if only course of action II follows.

Give answer (3) if either course of action I or II follows.

Give answer (4) if neither course of action I nor II follows.

Give answer (5) if both courses of action I and II follow.

Q. 11. Statement: Misuse of subsidies offered to the farmers was observed and brought to the notice of

the concerned authorities.

Courses of Action: I. Government should issue orders to the concerned officials to be stricter And more

careful while verifying the required documents while granting subsidy.

II. Government should take stringent action against those making false claim of subsidy.

Q. 12. Statement: Expensive clothes and accessories are becoming a growing need among college going

teenage children of middle-income group.

Courses of Action: I. Colleges should introduce a dress code.

II. Children should be counseled emphasizing the importance of many other things.


Q. 13. Statement: People in the locality were agitated as more than thirty people died in a building

collapse.

Courses of Action: I. Government should immediately announce compensations for the affected

families.

II. Authorities should take a stringent action against builders tending to compromise over quality of

material used.

Q. 14. Statement: With the onset of monsoon all the hospitals are getting increased number of patients

due to various epidemics.

Courses of Action: I. Civic authorities should educate the public the need for observing minimum

required hygiene.

II. Civic authorities should make arrangements to equip the hospitals with required medicines and other

facilities.

Q. 15. Statement: More number of students passing SSC examination has resulted into frustration

among children for not getting admissions into colleges of their choice.

Courses of Action: I. Government should permit the colleges to increase the number of seats.

II. Children and their parents should be counseled for being flexible on the choice of college.

Q. (16 20): In each of these questions a group of digits is given followed by four combinations of letter/

symbol code numbered (1), (2), (3) & (4). You have to code the group of digits as per the scheme and

conditions given below. Serial number of the combination that correctly represents the group of digits is

your answer. If none of the combinations is correct, your answer is (5) i.e. None of these.

Digit: 5 7 0 9 3 1 6 4 8 2

Letter/Symbol Code: K E H $ A J Q R @

Conditions: (i) If the first as well as the last digit is odd their codes are to be interchanged.

(ii) If the first digit is even and the last digit odd both are to be coded by the code for odd digit.

(iii) If the last digit is 0 it is to be coded by X.

(iv) If the first as well as the last digit is even both are to be coded by


Q. 16. 586403

(1) KRJQH (2) RJQHK (3) HJQRK (4) KHJQR (5) None of these

Q. 17. 801234

(1) * HA@ * (2) RHA@ * (3) *H @A* (4) RHA@ Q (5) None of these

Q. 18. 439157

(1) Q $AKE (2) E $AKQ (3) Q $AKQ (4) E $AKE (5) None of these

Q. 19. 389160

(1) R$AJH (2) R$AJX (3) XR$AJX (4) R$AJ (5) None of these

Q. 20. 764138

(1) EJQA E (2) RJQA E (3)RJQA R (4) EJQA * (5) None of these

Q. (21 25): These questions are based on the following information. Study it carefully to answer the

questions.

Seven officers L,M, N, P, Q, R & S work in three different shifts I, II & III with at least two persons working

in each shift. Each one of them has a different weekly off from Monday to Sunday not necessarily in the

same order.

M works in second shift only with R whose weekly off is on Friday. Qs weekly off is on the next day of Ls

weekly off and both of them work in different shifts. P works in third shift and his weekly off is on

Saturday. S has a weekly off on Monday and he works in first shift. The one who has a wseekly off on

Sunday works in first shift. L & P do not work in the same shift, Ls weekly off is on Tuesday.

Q. 21. Whose weekly off falls on Thursday?

(1) L (2) N (3) Q (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these


Q. 22. Which of the following combinations of shift, person and weekly off is definitely correct?

(1) II, M. Sunday (2) III, N, Sunday (3) II, P, Sunday (4) I, L, Tuesday (5) None of these

Q. 23. Whose weekly off is on Sunday?

(1) L (2) M (3) N (4) Q (5) None of these

Q. 24. On which day is Qs weekly off?

(1) Tuesday (2) Wednesday (3) Sunday (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these

Q. 25. Which of the following group of officers work is shift I?

(1) L,N,S (2) L,S (3) N,S (4) L,P,Q (5) None of these

Q. (26 30): In each of the following questions two rows of numbers are given. The resultant number in

each row is to be worked out separately based on the following rules and the questions below the rows

of numbers are to be answered. The operations of numbers progress from left to right.

Rules:

(i) If a two digit odd number is followed by a two digit odd number they are to be added.

(ii) If a two digit even number is followed by a two digit odd number which is the perfect square is to be

subtracted from the odd number.

(iii) If a three digit number is followed by a two digit number the first number is to be divided by the

second number.

(iv) If a prime number is followed by an even number they are to be added.

(v) If an even number is followed by another even number the two are to be multiplied.

Q. 26. 37 12 21

38 81 14

What is the difference between the resultants of the two rows?


(1) 23 (2) 32 (3) 13 (4) 18 (5) None of these

Q. 27. 23 15 12

X 24 49

If X is the resultant of the first row, what is the resultant of the second row?

(1) 24 (2) 25 (3) 28 (4) 22 (5) None of these

Q. 28. 16 8 32

132 11 X2

If X is the resultant of first row, what is the resultant of the second row?

(1) 192 (2) 128 (3) 132 (4) 144 (5) None of these

Q. 29. 345 23 X

45 17 81

If X is the resultant of the second row, what is the resultant of the first row?

(1) 285 (2) 33 (3) 135 (4) 34 (5) None of these

Q. 30. 12 28 84

37 22 18

What is the sum of the resultants of the two rows?

(1) 77 (2) 87 (3) 84 (4) 72 (5) None of these

Q. (31 35): Below is given a passage followed by several possible inferences which can be drawn from

the facts stated in the passage. You have to examine each inference separately in the context of the

passage and decide upon its degree of truth or falsity.

Mark answer (1) if the inference is definitely true, i.e. it properly follows from the statement of facts

given.


Mark answer (2) if the inference is probably true though not definitely true in the light of the facts

given.

Mark answer (3) if the data are inadequate, i.e. from the facts given you cannot say whether the

inference is likely to be true or false.

Mark answer (4) if the inference is probably false, though not definitely false in the light of the facts

given.

Mark answer (5) if the inference is definitely false', i.e. it cannot possibly be drawn from the facts given

or it contradicts the given facts.

Growth through acquisitions and alliances has become a critical part of creating value for pharma and

biotech manufacturers and their shareholders. However, companies and their investors may risk value

destruction if they acquire rights to a drug that suddenly poses unanticipated safety risks for patients.

Similarly, safety related compliance violations committed by an acquired company could significantly

impair the ultimate value of the transaction and the reputation of the acquirer. The pace of deal making

between pharma and biotech companies continued to accelerate in 2006, increasing 17% to about $ 18

billion. Pharma companies were typically the buyers, and the premiums they paid increased

substantially as competition intensified, to secure access to novel drugs and biologics. The stakes

increase everyday as competition pushes up prices and drives deal-making to earlier development

stages with greater uncertainty and less time to complete thorough due diligence.

Q. 31. Acquisitions of biotech companies was preferred among pharmaceutical companies in the recent

past.

Q. 32. Biotech companies are not capable to acquire pharmaceutical companies.

Q. 33. Pharmaceutical companies at times may incur loss after acquisition of biotech companies.

Q. 34. Safety related issues are prime concerns for the pharmaceutical companies while negotiating

acquisition of biotech companies.

Q. 35. Stiff competitions among the prospective buyers have resulted into erosion of value of the

biotech companies.

Answers


Q. 1. (1) Statement:

V = Y > Z

X > Z

X > T

Conclusion:

I. T > Z (False)

II. X > Y (False)

III. Y > Z (False)


R > J

M > E > F > J

Conclusion:

I. M > J (True)

II. M > F (False)

III. R > M (False)


H > R > L

F > W > L

Conclusion:

I. H > L (True)

II. F > L (True)

III. H = F (False)



H > Q > F = M > K

Conclusion:

I. H > K (True)

II. Q > K (True)

III.Q > M (True)


L = Q > D

L > T

H > T

Conclusion:

I. L > D (True)

II. L > H (False)

III. L > H (False)

Q. (6 10): In each next step of input numbers are arranged in descending order and words are

arranged according to English alphabet alternately.

Q. 6. (4) In this arrangement input cannot be obtained by any step.

Q. 7. (1) Input :'jockey firm 3643 growth chart 2245'.

Step I : 45 jockey firm 36 43 growth chart 22.

Step II : 45 jockey 43 firm 36 growth chart 22.

Step III : 45 jockey 43 growth firm 36 chart 22.


Q. 8. (2)

Step II : 53 window 42 50 door lock key 36.

Step III : 53 window 50 42 door lock key 36.

Step IV : 53 window 50 lock 42 door key 36.

Step V : 53 window 50 lock 42 key door 36.

Step VI : 53 window 50 lock 42 key 36 door.

So four more steps are required to complete this arrangement

Q. 9. (3) Step I : 85 journey train 36 45 daily 28 mansion.

Step II : 85 train journey 36 54 daily 28 mansion.

Step III : 85 train 54 journey 36 daily 28 mansion.

Step IV : 85 train 54 mansion journey 36 daily 28.

Step V : 85 train 54 mansion 36 journey daily 28.

Q. 10. (5)

Step II : 63 sour 18 56 grapes healthy 32 rise.

Step III : 63 sour 56 18 grapes healthy 32 rise.

Step IV : 63 sour 56 rise 18 grapes healthy 32.

Step V : 63 sour 56 rise 32 18 grapes healthy.

Step IV : 63 sour 56 rise 32 healthy 18 grapes.

Q. (11 15):

Q. 11. (5) Both the course of actions are follow because (I) is a preventive and (II) conclusion the action

against that person who take such type of benefits by the govt.


Q. 12. (2) I is not follow because only introducing dress code in colleges is not assured that teenager are

not attract for expensive clothes and accessories. Secondly, suggesting teenager regarding his bulk

amount expense on expensive cloths and accessory money prevent the teenager to do so. Therefore

only II follow.

Q. 13. (5) Both the courses of action follow because it is the duty of the govt to nurse the public which is

mentioned in the (I) whereas we have to take the stringent decision against the builder who uses such

low quality material in making building so, that other builder will also not adopt such manipulation.

Q. 14. (5) Follows because it is necessary for the people to aware about the precutionneeded to prevent

the epidemic II is also follows because people who is already admitted or need to admitted requires

proper diagonally. Therefore both the cources of action is follows.

Q. 15. (4) (I) is not follows because it is not sure that after increasing the number of seats in colleges all

the students will be satisfied.

(II) is also not follow because candidate obtained marks will determined that particular student is

suitable for particular college.

Q. 16. (2) 5 8 6 4 0 3 = R J Q H K Condition (i)

Q. 17. (1) 8 0 1 2 3 4 = * H A@ * Condition (iv)

Q. 18. (4) 4 3 9 1 5 7 = E $ A K E Condition (ii)

Q. 19. (2) 3 8 9 1 6 0 = R $ A J X Condition (iii)

Q. 20. (5) 7 6 4 1 3 8 = E J Q A R

Q. (21 25):


Officers Shifts Weekly Off

L I Tuesday

M II Friday

N I Sunday

P III Saturday

Q III Wednesday

R II Thursday

S I Monday

Q. 21. (5)

Q. 22. (4)

Q. 23. (3)

Q. 24. (2)

Q. 25. (1)

Q. 26. (3) 37 + 12 = 49 49 + 21 = 70

81 - 38 = 43 43 + 14 = 57

Difference = 70 - 57 = 13

Q. 27. (5) 23 + 15 = 38 38 12 = 456

456 24 = 19 19 + 49 = 68

Q. 28. (1) 16 8 = 128 32 = 4 132 11 = 12

12 42 = 192


Q. 29. (4) 45 + 17 = 62 81 - 62 = 19

345 23 = 15 15 + 19 = 34

Q. 30. (5) 12 28 = 336 336 84 = 4

37 + 22 = 59 59 + 18 = 77

Addition = 77 + 4 = 81

Q. 31. (2) Probably true

Q. 32. (5) Definitely False

Q. 33. (1) Definitely true

Q. 34. (3) Data inadequate

Q. 35. (1) Definitely true

Test 3 Quantitative Aptitude

Q. (1 - 5): What should come in place of the question mark (?) in each of the following questions?

Q. 1. 12 + 22 + 32 + .. + 102 = ?

(1) 400 (2) 625 (3) 380 (4) 385 (5) None of these

Q. 2.

(?) = (a-b)2

(1) (a+b) (a-b) (2) (a-b)2 (3) (a+b)2 (4) a3 + b3 (5) None of these


Q. 3. 9C(?) + 8C5 + 8 = 100

(1) 5 (2) 6 (3) 7 (4) 8 (5) None of these

Q. 4. 6% of 350 + (?)% of 200 = 75% of 40

(1) 5 (2) 4.5 (3) 5.5 (4) 7 (5) 6

Q. 5. 6

+ 7

- 8

=?

(1) 6

(2) 7

(3) 4

(4) 5

(5) None of these

Q. (6 - 10): What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in each of the

following equations?

Q. 6. (9.009)1/2 + (16.0001)1/4 = (?)% of 50.5

(1) 7 (2) 8 (3) 5 (4) 10 (5) None of these

Q. 7. 27.874 15.01 3 = ?

(1) 135 (2) 137 (3) 139 (4) 28 (5) 150

Q. 8. 52.861 + 0.2563 + 8.1 + 57.35 + 0.0087 = ?

(1) 119 (2) 116 (3) 121 (4) 115 (5) 123

Q. 9. 85% of 225 + 56% of 450 + 32.98 5.001 = ?

(1) 600 (2) 625 (3) 608 (4) 605 (5) 612

Q. 10. (59.96)2 + (81.009)1/4 3 = ?


(1) 3625 (2) 3300 (3) 3600 (4) 3455 (5) 3650

Q. (11 - 15): What should come in place of the question mark in the following number series?

Q. 11. 5 8 10 12 16 (?)

(1) 15 (2) 18 (3) 17 (4) 21 (5) None of these

Q. 12. (?) 12.5 3.75 1.875 1.3125

(1) 125 (2) 1.25 (3) 37.5 (4) 3.75 (5) None of these

Q. 13. 3 5 7 11 (?) 17

(1) 13 (2) 17 (3) 19 (4) 18 (5) None of these

Q. 14. 7 11 (?) 19 23 27

(1) 14 (2) 15 (3) 16 (4) 21 (5) None of these

Q. 15. 0.5 2.5 12.5 62.5 312.5 (?)

(1) 156.26 (2) 1.562 (3) 15.625 (3) 0.15625 (5) None of these

Q. (16 - 20): Study the following bar graph carefully and answer the questions that follow:

Annual sales of 1000 cc cars in New Delhi


Q. 16. What is the ratio for the maximum sales of the car brand which saw a continued growth in its

sales to the brand that saw a continued decline in sales?

(1) 26 : 37 (2) 13 : 18 (3) 18 : 13 (4) 3 : 5 (5) 37 : 26

Q. 17. What is the percent contribution of Hyundai to the total sales of 1000 cc cars in the year 2006?

(1) 40 (2) 45 (3) 39.7 (4) 35.6 (5) 33.9

Q. 18. What is the ratio of the percentage contribution of India in total sales in 2002 to the percentage

contribution of Maruti in total sales in 2004?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

(5)

Q. 19. What is ratio of average sales of Maruti to that of Hyundai over the given five years?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

(5) None of these

Q. 20. In which year did Indica register the maximum percentage growth over the previous year?

(1) 2004 (2) 2005 (3) 2006 (4) 2003 (5) None of these

Q. (21 - 25): For the two given equations I & II, given answer


1) if P is greater than q.

2) if P is smaller than q.

3) if P is equal to q.

4) if P is either equal to or greater than q.

5) if none of the above is true.

Q. 21. I. P2 + 7P + 10 = 0 II. q2 + 11q + 30 = 0

Q. 22. I. p2 9p + 20 = 0 II. 5q2 7q + 1 = 0

Q. 23. I. p2 12p 28 = 0 II. q2 + 12q + 36 = 0

Q. 24. I. 3p2 + 8p 5 = 0 II. 10q2 + 3q + 2 = 0

Q. 25. I. p2 17p + 72 = 0 II. 3q2 + 17q + 10 = 0

Q. (26 - 30): Study the following pie-charts and answer the question that follows:


Q. 26. Which is the costliest brand (not including Others)?

1) Capstan 2) Wills Navy Cut 3) Classic 4) Gold FIake 5) None of these

Q. 27. Sales of Gold Flake (by volume) is what per cent of sales of Wills Navy Cut (by volume)?

1) 80 2) 100 3) 125 4) 25 5) None of these

Q. 28. The price of 'Classic' is higher than the average market price by how many rupees?

1) Rs 2 2) Rel 3) Rs 3 4) None of these 5) Data inadequate

Q. 29. What is the rate per packet for Gold Flake?

1) Rs 10 2) Rs 15 3) Rs 20 4) Rs 25 5) Data inadequate

Q. 30. Assume the total sales by volume is 2 crore packets and the annual value of the sales is 20 crore

rupees. What is the sale price of a packet of Gold Flake?


1) Rs 12 2) Rs 15 3) Rs 10.80 4) Rs 12.50 5) None of these

Q. (31 - 35): Study the following graph carefully and answer the questions given below.

PREFERENCES OF PEOPLE IN USING DIFFERENT MODES OF TRANSPORT OVER THE YEARS

Q. 31. From 1999 to 2004, the total number of people who preferred to travel by rail was approximately

how many millions?

(1) 1300 (2) 1500 (3) 1600 (4) 1800 (5) 2000

Q. 32. The number of people preferring to travel by rail in 2004, was how many millions fewer than the

number of people preferring to travel by rail in 1999?

(1) 70 (2) 45 (3) 75 (4) 50 (5) None of these

Q. 33. In 2001, the people preferring to

travel by bus represented approximately what per cent of the people preferring to travel by buses, rail

and airlines together in that year?

(1) 65 per cent (2) 35 per cent (3) 55 per cent (4) 75 per cent (5) 45 per cent

Q. 34. What is the respective ratio of the number of people preferring to travel by bus to the number of

people preferring to travel by rail in the year 2002?

(1) 15 : 11 (2) 9 : 7 (3) 7 : 9 (4) 11 : 15 (5) None of these


Q. 35. In the year 2003, if all the airlines reduced their rates by 50% and 50% of the people who

preferred to travel by rail, now preferred airlines, approximately how many millions of people prefer to

travel by air?

(1) 290 (2) 313 (3) 330 (4) 300 (5) 325

Answers

Q. 1. (4) Sum of the square of first n natural

Number =

Put n = 10.

= 55 7 = 385.

Q. 2. (1)

=

= (a+b) (a-b)

Q. 3. (3) Use hit-and trial method.

Q. 4. (2) Let x% of 220 = 75% of 40 6% of 350 = 9

Or x =

=

= 4.09

Q. 5. (4) (6 + 7 - 8) + (

+

-

)

= 5 + (

) = 5

Q. 6. (4) 92 + 164 = (?)% of (50.5)


3 + 2 = (2)% of (5.5)

5 = 10% of 50.5

Q. 7. (3) 27.9 15 3 = 27 9 5 = 139.5

Q. 8. (1) 52.8 + .3 + 8 + 57.4 + 0087

= 118.5 + 0.0087 = 119

Q. 9. (3)

+ 56

+ 33 5

= 85 2.25 + 56 4.5 + 165 = 608

Q. 10. (3) (60)2 + (81)1/4 3 = 3600 + 3 3 = 3600

Q. 11. (2) The series is 5, and 5 + odd prime numbers.

5 + 3 = 8, 5 + 5 = 10, 5 + 7 = 12, 5 + 11 = 16

5 + 13 = 18

Q. 12. (1) The series is:

125.125 0.1 = 12.5, 12.5 0.3 = 3.75

3.75 0.5 = 1.875, 1.875 0.7 = 1.3125

Q. 13. (1) The series is: Prime numbers starting from 3.

Q. 14. (2) The series is: +45


Q. 15. (5) Series is: The series is: 5

Q. 46. (5) Indica saw a continuous growth over the given years, while Maruti saw a continued decline.

Ratio of maximum sales: =

=

Q. 17. (3) Total sales of cars in 2006 = 2165

Sales of Hyundai = 860

Required percentage =

100 = 39.7

Q. 18. (1) Percentage contribution of Indica in the total sales of 2002 =

100

Percentage contribution of Maruti in the to

Sales in 2004 =

100

Required ratio =

=

Q. 19. (3) Average sales of Maruti

=

=

= 522

Average sales of Hyundai

=

=

= 686

Required ratio =

=

Q. 20. (4) 2003

Q. 21. (4) I. p2 + 7p + 10 = 0

= P (p + 5) +2 (p+5) = 0


= P = - 2, -5

II. q2 + 11q + 30 = 0

= q = -5, -6

P > q

Q. 22. (1) I. p2 9p + 20 = 0

= P(p-5) -4(p-5) = 0

= P = 4,5

II. 5q2- 7q + 1 = 0

= q =

=

p > q

Q. 23. (1) I. p2 12p 28 = 0

= p(9-14) + 2(p-14) = 0

= p = -2, 14

II. q2 + 12q + 36 = 0

Q. 24. (5) 3p2 + 8p 5 = 0

= P =

=

=

II. 10q2 + 9q + 2 = 0

= 5q (2q + 1) + 2(2q + 1) = 0

= (5q + 2) (2q + 1) = 0

= q = -

-

None of the relation exist.


Q. 25. (1) I. p2 17p + 72 = 0

= p(p-9) -8(p-9) = 0

= P = 8,9

II. 3q2 + 17q + 10 = 0

= q =

= q =

=

= q = -5, -

Q. 26. (3) The costliest brand is the one where the ratio of market share percentage by value to market

share percentage by volume is the highest. So we have

Capstan =

Gold Flake =

Wills =

Classic =

Classic is the costliest brand.

Q. 27. (3)

100 = 125.

Q. 28. (5) We do not have the actual average market price, so the question cant be answered.

Q. 29. (5)

Q. 30. (3) Market share of Gold Flake by volume

= 25% of 2 cr = 0.5 cr packets

Market share of Gold Flake by value

27% of 20 cr = 5.4 cr


Rate per packet =

Q. 31. (4) Total number of people traveling by rail

= (350 + 275) millions = 1800 millions

Q. 32. (3) Required difference

= 350 275 = 75 millions

Q. 33. (5) Total number of people travelling by buses, rail and airlines in 2001

= 375 + 300 + 175 = 850 millions

Number of people travelling by buses = 375 millions

Required percentage

=

100 = 45

Q. 34. (1) Required ratio

= 375 : 275 = 15 : 11

Q. 35. (5) In the year 2003,

Number of people travelling by rail = 300 millions

Number of people travelling by air = 175 millions

Now, 50% of people travelling by rail shift to air.

Required number of people

= 175 + 150 = 325 millions

64506_SBI PO Preliminary Model Paper 20

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