1. Hiring workers who have criminal backgrounds without proper safeguards is considered _____.a. improper hiringb. negligent hiringc. appropriate depending upon the jobd. negligent intente. unwise, but not illegal

2. Which of the following is an example of a reliable test?a. one that yields consistent scores when a person takes two alternate forms of the test b. one that yields one score on a test and a different, but better score on the same test

taken on a different occasionc. one that yields the same score from two different people taking the test on the same

occasiond. one that yields different scores from two different people taking the test on different

occasionse. one that includes questions that are not repetitive in any way

3. If a person scores a 90 on an intelligence test on one day and scores 130 when retested on another day, you might conclude that this test is _____.a. validb. invalidc. reliabled. unreliablee. inconsistent

4. If a person scores a 78 on a test on one day and scores a 79 when retested on another day, you might conclude that this test is _____.a. validb. invalidc. reliabled. unreliablee. inconsistent

5. _____ is used as an estimate of reliability when one administers the same test to the same people at two different points in time and then compares the test scores at time 2 with the scores at time 1. a. Equivalent form estimateb. Retest estimatec. Internal consistencyd. Internal comparison estimatee. Criterion validity

6. Which of the following describes using a retest estimate to assess reliability?a. administer the same test to the same people at two different points in time and

compare their test scores at time 2 with the scores at time 1b. administer a test with x number of item designed to assess a topic; then statistically

analyze the degree to which responses to the items vary togetherc. administer different tests to different people and compare test scores of the different

peopled. administer the same test to different people and compare test scores of the different

peoplee. administer a test with content based on what a person actually needs to know to do the

job in question well1

7. _____ is used as an estimate of reliability when one administers two tests deemed to be equivalent by experts and then compares the test scores from the two tests. a. Equivalent form estimateb. Retest estimatec. Internal consistencyd. Internal comparison estimatee. Criterion validity

8. _____ is used as an estimate of reliability when one administers a test with x number of item designed to assess a topic; then statistically analyze the degree to which responses to the items vary together. a. Equivalent form estimateb. Retest estimatec. Internal consistencyd. Internal comparison estimatee. Criterion validity

9. Which of the following describes using an internal consistency as an assessment of reliability?a. administer the same test to the same people at two different points in time and

compare their test scores at time 2 with the scores at time 1b. administer a test with x number of item designed to assess a topic; then statistically

analyze the degree to which responses to the items vary togetherc. administer different tests to different people and compare test scores of the different

peopled. administer the same test to different people and compare test scores of the different

peoplee. administer a test with content based on what a person actually needs to know to do the

job in question well

10. When repetitive questions appear on a questionnaire, which form of reliability is likely being measured?a. retest estimateb. internal consistencyc. equivalent formd. test validitye. criterion validity

11. Which of the following describes using an equivalent form estimate to assess reliability?a. administer the same test to the same people at two different points in time and

compare their test scores at time 2 with the scores at time 1b. administer a test with x number of item designed to assess a topic; then statistically

analyze the degree to which responses to the items vary togetherc. administer two tests deemed the same by experts and then compare participants’ test

scores for test one and test twod. different tests to different people and compare test scores of the different peoplee. administer a test with content based on what a person actually needs to know to do the

job in question well

12. Which of the following describes using an internal comparison estimate to assess reliability?

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a. administer the same test to the same people at two different points in time and compare their test scores at time 2 with the scores at time 1

b. administer a test with x number of item designed to assess a topic; then statistically analyze the degree to which responses to the items vary together

c. administer different tests to different people and compare test scores of the different people

d. administer the same test to different people and compare test scores of the different people

e. administer a test with content based on what a person actually needs to know to do the job in question well

13. Which of the following is not a reason that a test might be unreliable?a. questions may not represent materialb. tests used to estimate equivalence may not have been equivalentc. testing conditions could varyd. the test may not predict actual performancee. all are reasons for unreliable tests

14. The first step in the validation process is to _____.a. choose the tests to measure attributes of jobb. analyze the jobc. administer testsd. relate test scores and job criteriae. cross-validate

15. The second step in the validation process is to _____.a. choose the tests to measure attributes of jobb. analyze the jobc. administer testsd. relate test scores and job criteriae. cross-validate

16. The final step in the validation process is to _____.a. choose the tests to measure attributes of jobb. analyze the jobc. administer testsd. relate test scores and job criteriae. cross-validate

17. Which of the following tasks is not part of demonstrating content validity?a. demonstrating that the tasks a person performs on the test are represent the tasks

performed on the jobb. demonstrating that the tasks on the test are a random sample of tasks performed on

the jobc. demonstrating the conditions under which the person takes the test resemble the work

situationd. demonstrating that the scores on the test are a good predictor of criterion like job

performancee. all of the above are part of demonstrating content validity

18. A(n) _____ aims to measure an array of possible predictors for job performance.a. test validity

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b. test criterionc. test batteryd. job analysise. assessment rating

19. To use _____, one administers a test to employees presently on the job and then compares their test scores with current performance.a. concurrent validationb. predictive validationc. correlation analysisd. expectancy assessmente. test batteries

20. To use _____, one administers the test to applicants before they are hired. The applicants are then hired using existing selection techniques but not the new tests in development. Later, job performance measures are compared to the test scores under development. a. concurrent validationb. predictive validationc. correlation analysisd. expectancy assessmente. test batteries

21. Which method of test validation is considered more dependable?a. content validationb. criterion validationc. predictive validationd. concurrent validatione. face validation

22. Which statistical tool is used to determine if a significant relationship exists between the predictor scores and the performance criterion? a. regression analysisb. discriminant analysisc. correlation analysisd. canonical correlational analysise. confirmatory factor analysis

23. The process of cross-validating a test involves all of the following except _____.a. using a new sample of employeesb. administering more testsc. evaluating the relationship between scores and performanced. assessing predictive validatione. analyzing a scatter plot of scores versus performance

24. Which form of validation emphasizes the use of judgment as a validation tool?a. criterion validationb. predictive validationc. content validationd. concurrent validatione. all of the above

25. _____ means there is a significant discrepancy between rates of members of the protected groups and others.a. Discrimination

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b. Disparate impactc. Criterion validityd. Negligent hiringe. Discrimination discrepancy

26. Psychologists qualified to develop, validate, and use selection standards such as selection tests are _____.a. licensed by their respective stateb. familiar with federal equal rights lawsc. familiar with state equal rights lawsd. usually holders of a Ph.D. degreee. all of the above

27. A rejected minority job candidate has shown that the selection rate for the applicant’s racial group was less than four-fifths that for the group with the highest selection rate. The candidate has shown _____.a. discriminationb. disparate impactc. adverse impactd. negligent hiringe. affirmative action

28. If an employer is shown to use selection procedures resulting in adverse impact, the employer could then use all of the alternatives listed below except _____.a. institute another valid selection procedure that does not have an adverse impactb. show that the test is valid by conducting a validation studyc. monitor the selection test to see if it has disparate impactd. revise the selection test to eliminate the probleme. all are possible alternatives

29. All of the following are considered “pink collar” jobs excepta. waitressb. secretaryc. nursingd. teachinge. psychologist

30. Traditionally female professions are referred to as _____ jobs.a. purple collarb. white collarc. pink collard. blue collare. none of the above

31. _____ tests include tests of general reasoning ability and tests of specific mental abilities like memory and inductive reasoning.a. Motor abilityb. Personality c. Achievementd. Cognitivee. Physical ability

32. Tests that measure a range of abilities including memory, vocabulary, verbal fluency, and numerical ability are called _____.

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a. aptitude testsb. intelligence testsc. achievement testsd. personality testse. comprehensive tests

33. Jack is being tested on static strength, dynamic strength, body coordination and stamina during the selection period at UPS. UPS is using _____ tests.a. aptitude b. personalityc. motor and physical abilitiesd. achievemente. comprehensive

34. _____ tests include tests like finger dexterity, manual dexterity, and reaction time.a. Motor abilityb. Personality c. Achievementd. Cognitivee. Interest

35. _____ tests measure a person’s level of introversion, stability, and motivation.a. Motor abilityb. Personality c. Achievementd. Cognitivee. Physical ability

36. Most people are fired due to _____.a. lack of qualificationsb. lack of aptitudec. nonperformanced. lack of necessary motor abilitiese. cognitive abilities

37. Because nonperformance is usually the result of _____, it is important to measure motivation and interpersonal skills as well as cognitive and physical abilities during the selection process.a. attitudeb. motivationc. temperamentd. all of the abovee. none of the above

38. The Big Five personality dimensions include all of the following except a. neuroticismb. optimismc. extraversiond. conscientiousnesse. agreeableness

39. _____ represents a tendency to exhibit poor emotional adjustment and experience negative effects such as anxiety, insecurity, and hostility.

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a. Neuroticismb. Extraversionc. Conscientiousnessd. Agreeablenesse. Openness to experience

40. _____ represents a tendency to be sociable, assertive, active, and to experience positive effects such as energy and zeal. a. Neuroticismb. Extraversionc. Conscientiousnessd. Agreeablenesse. Openness to experience

41. Mike Simmons has recently applied for a position in pharmaceutical sales. Which personality characteristic is most predictive of Mike’s likelihood of success in a sales position?a. neuroticismb. extraversionc. conscientiousnessd. agreeablenesse. openness to experience

42. Which personality characteristic refers to the disposition to be imaginative, nonconforming, and unconventional?a. neuroticismb. extraversionc. conscientiousnessd. agreeablenesse. openness to experience

43. Which personality characteristic refers to the tendency for one to be trusting, compliant, caring, and gentle?a. neuroticismb. extraversionc. conscientiousnessd. agreeablenesse. openness to experience

44. Which personality characteristic captures a combination of achievement and dependability?a. neuroticismb. extraversionc. conscientiousnessd. agreeablenesse. openness to experience

45. While some personality characteristics are associated with success in different types of jobs, which one characteristic tends to be associated with job performance across types?a. neuroticismb. extraversion

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c. conscientiousnessd. agreeablenesse. openness to experience

46. Which of the following best describes how the work sampling technique is executed?a. applicants submit work samples from previous jobsb. applicants are tested on their ability to perform several tasks crucial to performing the

job of interestc. applicants are tested on their ability to perform a range of tasks related to several

positions in a companyd. applicants are asked to respond to questions about how they would perform various

taskse. applicants are given video-based situational interviews

47. Which of the following is an indirect method for predicting job performance during the selection process?a. intelligence testsb. miniature job training and evaluationc. management assessment centerd. work sampling techniquee. video-based simulation technique

48. Which of the following is a direct method for predicting job performance during the selection process?a. intelligence testsb. motor abilities testsc. personality testsd. work sampling techniquee. interests inventories

49. An employer’s selection process is likely to include any of the following methods excepta. testingb. reference checksc. honesty testingd. substance abuse screeninge. all of the above may be included in an employer’s selection process

50. Employers may conduct background investigations and reference checks to verify a candidate’s _____.a. ageb. marital statusc. identificationd. ethnic backgrounde. all of the above

51. Which of the following is not usually verified by an employer prior to hiring a job candidate?a. legal eligibility for employmentb. educationc. aged. credit e. motor vehicle record

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52. Which of the following is not a possible motivation for a current employer to give an in correct reference to an employee who is applying for a different position with another company?a. fear of legal consequencesb. desire to improve employee’s chances for a new jobc. desire to remove employee from companyd. respect for employee privacye. all are possible motivations

53. Which selection tool is considered the least useful by HR managers?a. interviewb. reference lettersc. application formd. academic recorde. psychological tests

True/ False

54. EEO laws require nondiscriminatory selection procedures for protected groups.

55. Effective selection depends to a large degree on the concept of validity but not

reliability.

56. A reliable test is one that yields consistent scores when a person takes two alternate

forms of the test when he or she takes the same test on two or more different

occasions.

57. An internal comparison estimate measures internal consistency.

58. Equivalent form estimates compare test scores from the same test administered at

two points in time to determine test equivalence.

59. Test validity answers the question, “Does this test measure what it’s supposed to

measure?”

60. Reliability confirms that one is measuring what one intends to measure.

61. Validity confirms that one is measuring something consistently.

62. There are six steps in the validation process beginning with analyze the job and

concluding with revalidation.

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63. A test battery is based on a combination of several tests that can then measure an

array of predictors.

64. Concurrent validation is the most dependable way to validate a selection test.

65. To use predictive validation, one administers the test to applicants before they are

hired. The applicants are then hired using existing selection techniques but not the

new tests in development. Later, job performance measures are compared to the

test scores under development.

66. If there is a correlation between test and job performance, one can develop an

expectancy chart to illustrate the relationship between test scores and job

performance graphically.

67. Criterion validity emphasizes judgment.

68. Developing, validating, and using selection standards including selection tests

generally require a qualified psychologist.

69. Selection tests must be validated in the organization that uses them regardless of the

validity shown in other similar organizations.

70. Selection tests are used as supplements to other tools like interviews and background

checks.

71. A selection test can be found to have an adverse impact but still be permissible for use

as long as it does not have a disparate impact.

72. Cognitive tests are the most difficult tests to evaluate and use.

73. Interest inventories are useful for career planning because they compare the

interests of the test taker to the interests of those people in various occupations.

74. Rejected applicants who receive bad references could sue the source of a reference

for defamation of character.

75. Most employers report favoring written references to telephone references because

written letters provide a permanent record for the employer’s files.

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