2/11A, Swadeshi Bima Nagar, AGRA–282 002 P.S. …Sakkardara Road, Ground Floor, Opp. Hanuman...

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Transcript of 2/11A, Swadeshi Bima Nagar, AGRA–282 002 P.S. …Sakkardara Road, Ground Floor, Opp. Hanuman...

  • Editorial Board

    Pratiyogita Darpan

    Upkar Prakashan, Agra-2

  • © Publishers

    PublishersUPKAR PRAKASHAN2/11A, Swadeshi Bima Nagar, AGRA–282 002Phone : 4053333, 2530966, 2531101Fax : (0562) 4053330E-mail : [email protected], Website : www.upkar.inBranch Offices4845, Ansari Road, Daryaganj, 16-11-23/37, Moosarambagh, Teegan Guda Paras Bhawan (First Floor),New Delhi–110 002 Opp. RTA Office Main Road, Beside– Khazanchi Road,Phone : 011–23251844/66 Andhra Bank, Hyderabad–500 036 (TS) Patna–800 004

    Phone : 040–66753330 Phone. : 0612–2673340

    H-3, Block-B, Municipal Premises B-33, Blunt Square, 8-310/1, A. K. House,No. 15-2, Galiff Street, Kanpur Taxi Stand, Mawaiya, Heeranagar, Haldwani,P.S. Shyampukur, Lucknow–226 004 (U.P.) Distt.–Nainital–263139Kolkata–700 003 (W.B.) Phone : 0522–4109080 (Uttarakhand)Phone : 033–25551510 Mob. : 7060421008

    1461, Juni Shukrawari, 63-64, Kailash Marg,Sakkardara Road, Ground Floor,Opp. Hanuman Mandir, Shreeji Avenue, Malharganj,Nagpur–440 009 Indore–452 002 (M.P.)Phone : 0712–6564222 Phone : 9203908088

    � The publishers have taken all possible precautions in publishing this book, yet if any mistake has crept in, thepublishers shall not be responsible for the same.

    � This book or any part thereof may not be reproduced in any form by Photographic, Mechanical, or any othermethod, for any use, without written permission from the Publishers.

    � Only the courts at Agra shall have the jurisdiction for any legal dispute.

    Price : ̀ 115.00(Rs. One Hundred Fifteen Only)

    Code No. 1928

    Printed at : UPKAR PRAKASHAN (Printing Unit) Bye-pass, AGRA

  • Contents

    • Practice Set-1 ........................................................................................................................... 3–15

    • Practice Set-2 ........................................................................................................................... 16–29

    • Practice Set-3 ........................................................................................................................... 30–44

    • Practice Set-4 ........................................................................................................................... 45–57

    • Practice Set-5 ........................................................................................................................... 58–71

    • Practice Set-6 ........................................................................................................................... 72–86

    • Practice Set-7 ........................................................................................................................... 87–100

    • Practice Set-8 ........................................................................................................................... 101–114

    • Practice Set-9 ........................................................................................................................... 115–129

    • Practice Set-10 ........................................................................................................................... 130–143

  • General Information

    • NationalityA candidate applying for recruitment in the Company must be either—

    (a) a citizen of India, or (b) a subject of Nepal, or (c) a subject of Bhutan, or (d) a Tibetan refugee who came over toIndia before January 1, 1962 with the intention of permanently settling in India, or (e) a person of Indian origin who hasmigrated from Pakistan, Burma, Sri Lanka, East African countries of Kenya, Uganda, the United Republic of Tanzania,Zambia, Malawi, Zaire, Ethiopia and Vietnam with the intention of permanently settling in India.

    Provided that a candidate belonging to categories (b), (c), (d) and (e) shall be a person in whose favour a certificateof eligibility has been issued by the Government of India.

    Please note that the eligibility criteria specified herein are the basic criteria for applying for the post. At the time ofinterview the Candidates must necessarily produce the relevant documents in original and a self-attested photocopy insupport of their identity and eligibility pertaining to category, nationality, age, educational qualifications etc. as indicatedin the online application form. Please note that no change of application data will be permitted at any stage aftercompletion of registration process of the online application. Merely applying for the post and being shortlisted in theonline examination and/or in the subsequent interview and/or subsequent processes does not imply that a candidate willnecessarily be offered employment in the Company. No request for considering the candidature under any category/post other than the one in which applied will be entertained.

    • Service ConditionsThe service conditions will be applicable as per the prevalent rules of the company from time-to-time. Selected

    candidates on appointment may be posted or transferred to any place in India as may be decided by the Company.

    • ProbationA candidate appointed in the Officers’ cadre on regular pay rolls of the Company shall be on probation for a period

    of one year from the date of joining the duty. The probation period may be extended twice by a further period of sixmonths at a time stretching up to one year.

    During the probation period the Officers would be required to pass the non-life “Licentiate Examination” conductedby Insurance Institute of India. Only after passing the said examination the Officer will be eligible for confirmation of his/her services in the Company. Failure to pass the said Examination within the extended probation period will render theofficer liable to be terminated from service on expiry of the period so specified.

    The Company reserves the right to terminate the services of the candidate if found unsuitable at any time duringthe probation period or the extended probation period without any notice or assigning any reason thereof.

    • Guarantee BondBefore joining as probationer, the selected candidates will be required to give an undertaking to serve the Company

    for a minimum period of four years including probation period. In the event of their resigning from the Company beforethe expiry of the bond period, they will be liable to pay liquidated damages equivalent to one year’s gross salary paid tothem during the year of probation which could be proportionately reduced depending on the length of service rendered.Besides, he/she will have to submit a stamped Bond duly executed by two sureties (not blood relatives) of soundfinancial standing for an amount equivalent to one year’s gross salary.

  • ( v )

    Candidates resigning from the Company during the probation period and candidates whose services are terminatedby the Company during the probation period shall be liable to pay the salary received by them during their entire servicein the Company in addition to an amount of ` 25,000/- towards partial cost of training. No lien/bond executed to retaina substantive post with present employer will be binding upon the Company and no leave Salary or Pension Contributionwill be made.

    • Educational Qualification (As on stipulated date)For Generalist Stream, a candidate must possess the minimum qualification of a Graduate/Post

    Graduate in any discipline from a recognized University OR any equivalent qualification recognized as such by CentralGovernment with atleast 60% marks in either of the degree examination (atleast 55% for SC/ST) condidates.

    Note : (a) Qualification mentioned above should be from any of the recognized Indian Universities duly approvedby the UGC or any of the recognized Indian Institutes duly approved by AICTE.

    (b) The candidate must possess valid mark-sheet/Degree certificate of the necessary qualification as on stipulateddate.

    (c) The percentage marks shall be arrived at by dividing the total marks obtained by the candidate in all the subjectsin all semester(s)/year(s) by aggregate maximum marks in all the subjects irrespective of honours/optional/additionaloptional subject, if any. This will be applicable for those Universities also where Class/Grade is decided on basis ofHonours marks only. The fraction of percentage so arrived will be ignored i.e., 59.99% will be treated as less than 60%.

    (d) Where CGPA/OGPA are awarded, the candidate will have to produce a certificate issued by the appropriateauthority inter alia stating the norms of the University regarding conversion of grade into percentage and the percentageof marks scored by the candidate in terms of norms.

    • Age (As on stipulated date)A candidate must be of the Minimum Age of 21 years and the Maximum Age of 30 years as on the stipulated date

    for this purpose. Relaxation in upper age limit shall be as follows :

    S. No. Category Age Relaxation

    1. Scheduled Caste/Scheduled Tribe 5 years

    2. Other Backward Classes (OBC) 3 years

    3. Persons With Disability (PWD) 10 years

    4. Persons domiciled in Kashmir Division of Jammu & Kashmir State during theperiod from 1-1-80 to 31-12-89

    5. Ex-Serviceman, Commissioned Officers including Emergency Commissioned Officers(ECOs)/ Short Service Commissioned Officers (SSCOs) who have rendered at leastfive years Military Service as on 01.03.2017 and have been released; (a) on completionof assignment (including those whose assignment is due to be completed withinone year from 01.03. 2017) otherwise than by way of dismissal or discharge onaccount of misconduct or inefficiency; or (b) on account of physical disabilityattributable to Military Service; or (c ) on invalidment.

    6. Defence service personnel disabled in operation during the hostilities with any foreigncountry or in a disturbed area and released as consequence thereof.

    7. Existing confirmed employees of Public Sector General Insurance Companies(including GIC & Agriculture Insurance Company of India Ltd.)

    Note : (i) In case of a candidate who is eligible for relaxation under more than one of the above categories, the agerelaxation will be available on a cumulative basis subject to the maximum age not exceeding 45 years.

    5 years

    5 years

    3 years

    8 years

  • ( vi )

    (ii) Candidates seeking age relaxation will be required to submit copies of necessary certificate(s) and produce theoriginal certificate(s) for verification at the time of interview and/or any subsequent stage of recruitment process.

    • Selection Procedure(A) The selection procedure comprises of the following :

    Phase-I : Preliminary Examination

    Preliminary Examination consisting of Objective Tests for 100 marks will be conducted online. This test wouldbe of 60 minutes duration consisting of 3 sections as follows :

    S. No. Name of Test (Not in Sequence) Type of test Max. Marks Duration Version

    1 English Language Objective 30 English

    2 Reasoning Ability Objective 35 Eng/Hindi

    3 Quantitative Aptitude Objective 35 Eng/ Hindi

    Total (Aggregate) 100

    Candidates have to qualify in each test by securing passing marks to be decided by the Company. Adequatenumber of candidates in each category as decided by the Company (approximately 15 times the numbers of vacanciessubject to availability) will be shortlisted for the Main Examination.

    Phase – II : Main Examination

    Main Examination will consist of Objective Tests for 200 marks and Descriptive Test for 30 Marks. Both theObjective and Descriptive Tests will be online. Candidates will have to answer Descriptive Test by typing on thecomputer. Immediately after completion of Objective Test, Descriptive Test will be administered.

    (i) Objective Test : The Objective Test of 2 hours duration consists of 5 sections for total 200 Marks :

    S. No. Name of Test Type of test No. of Questions Max. Marks Medium of Exam Duration

    1 Reasoning Objective 40 40 Eng/ Hindi

    2 English Language Objective 40 40 Eng

    3 General Awareness Objective 40 40 Eng/ Hindi 120 mins

    4 Computer Knowledge Objective 40 40 Eng/ Hindi

    5 Quantitative Aptitude Objective 40 40 Eng/ Hindi

    Total (Aggregate) 200

    6 English Language Descriptive 3 30 Eng 30 mins(Essay, Precis andComprehension)

    (ii) Descriptive Test : The Descriptive Test of 30 Minutes duration with 30 marks will be a Test of EnglishLanguage (Essay, Precis and Comprehension). The descriptive test will be in English and will be conducted throughon line mode.

    Each candidate will be required to obtain a minimum score for each section of objective test separately for shortlisting for the Descriptive Test evaluation/Interview i.e., Descriptive answer script would be evaluated only in respectof those candidates who qualify the objective test. There will also be a separate cut-off marks for the Descriptive Test.

    Each candidate will be required to obtain a minimum total score (to be decided by the Company according tonumber of vacancies) in the objective test(Main Examination) and qualify in the descriptive test for short listing forthe Interview.

    A candidate shall be required to qualify in the descriptive test, but the marks in the descriptive test will not becounted towards short listing for interview or final selection.

    60 minutes

  • ( vii )

    Penalty for Wrong Answers (Applicable to both – Preliminary and Main Examination)

    There will be penalty for wrong answers marked in the Objective Tests. Each question for which a wrong answerhas been given by the candidate, onefourth of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty to arriveat corrected score. If a question is left blank, i.e. no answer is marked by the candidate, there will be no penalty for thatquestion.

    The Company reserves the right to modify the structure of the examination which will be intimated through itswebsite.

    Candidates will be shortlisted for Interview on the basis of overall marks scored in Main Examination afterevaluation as above.

    Note : All the questions will be objective type with alternative choices out of which one will be correct answer.The candidate has to select the correct answer and ‘mouse click’ that alternative which he or she feels correct. Therewill be penalty for wrong answers marked by the candidates. The objective test except on ‘English Language’ will bebilingual (in English and in Hindi). For each wrong answer marked ¼ of the marks assigned to the question will bededucted as penalty to arrive at the corrected score. If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is marked by the candidate,there will be no penalty for that question. The alternative/option that is clicked on will be highlighted and will betreated as answered to that question.

    The Descriptive English Test will be conducted only through online mode. Questions will be displayed on thescreen of the computer. Answers are to be typed using the keyboard. Before start of typing answers to questions inDescriptive Paper please check all key functions of the keyboard. The Candidates will get 30 minutes to answer thequestions.

    Candidates will have to appear for the online examination at their own expenses.

    The Company reserves the right to modify the structure of the examination which will be intimated through itswebsite. Selection would be based on the performance in the on-line test & interview. The final merit list shall beprepared in descending order of the consolidated marks secured by the candidates. Candidates who fall withinthe number of vacancies in the merit list shall be considered for appointment. The selected candidates may beappointed in more than one batch as per the discretion of the Management. The seniority of the selected candidateswill be as per the merit / select list. A Waiting List of candidates not exceeding 50% of the number of vacanciesmay also be prepared and may be utilized in the event of non acceptance of employment offer by the candidatesselected in the final merit list. The decision to select the candidates from waiting list is solely at the discretion ofthe management.

    Please note that candidates will not be permitted to appear for the online examination without the followingdocuments (All documents are compulsory) :

    (1) Valid Call Letter for the respective date and session of Examination

    (2) Photo-identity proof (as specified) in original bearing exactly the same name and other information as it appearson the call letter/application form and

    (3) Photocopy of the above photo-identity proof (as given in the advertisement)

    (4) E-Aadhar Card

    Phase-III : Interview

    Candidates who have been shortlisted based on online Phase-II (mains examination) will subsequently be calledfor an Interview to be conducted by the Company. Interview will be conducted at select centres. The centre, address ofthe venue, time & date of Interview will be informed to the shortlisted candidates in the call letter. Candidates are requiredto download their interview call letters from company’s website Please note that any request regarding change in date,centre etc. of interview will not be entertained. However the company reserves the right to change the date/venue/time/centre etc. of interview or hold supplementary process for particular date/session/venue/centre/set of candidates at itsdiscretion, under unforeseen circumstances, if any.

  • ( viii )

    Final Selection

    The combined final score of candidates shall be arrived at on the basis of scores obtained by the candidates in theonline main examination (Objective and Descriptive Section) and interview. The weightage (ratio) of online Main Examinationand Interview will be 80:20 respectively. Scores of the candidates failing to secure minimum qualifying scores or otherwisebarred from the interview or further process may not be disclosed. A candidate should be sufficiently high in the merit tobe shortlisted for subsequent recruitment process, details of which will be made available subsequently on Company’swebsite.

    The candidates are advised to satisfy themselves before they apply, that they fulfill requirement as to age andqualification and if found ineligible, their candidature will be cancelled at any stage of recruitment process. Appearing inthe ONLINE MAIN EXAMINATION & INTERVIEW will not automatically confer any right of being selected for the saidpost.

    • Examination CentersThe examination will be conducted online in venues given in the respective call letters.

    No request for change of centre/venue/date/session for Examination shall be entertained.

    Company, however, reserves the right to cancel any of the Examination Centres and/or add some other Centres, atits discretion, depending upon the response, administrative feasibility, etc.

    Company also reserves the right to allot the candidate to any centre other than the one he/she has opted for.

    Candidate will appear for the examination at an Examination Centre at his/her own risks and expenses and Companywill not be responsible for any injury or losses etc. of any nature.

  • Practice SetsOfficers Exam.

  • Model Paper-1

    Reasoning Ability1. It is possible to make only one meaningful English

    word with the third, fourth, seventh and the eighthletters of the word ‘VIDEOGRAPHY’, which wouldbe the second letter of that word from the right end ?If more than one such word can be formed, give ‘X’as the answer. If no such word can be formed, give Zas your answer.(A) R (B) A(C) E (D) Z(E) X

    2. If ‘3’ is subtracted from each odd digit and ‘1’ is addedto each even digit in the number 8547692, which ofthe following numbers will appear twice in the newnumber thus formed ?(A) Only 2 (B) Both 3 and 7(C) None (D) Both 3 and 5(E) Only 4

    3/ Study the given information to answer the givenquestion.“I am a regular passenger of ‘Fly-High Airlines’. Theircrew members have always been rated high in theirdemeanour and services towards the passengers. Thisis the first time I saw two of their air hostesses behavein such a bad way”.—said Mr. Narang, a frequentpassenger of the airlines. Which of the following canbe a reason for the different behaviour of the two airhostesses.(a) Owing to recession, Fly-High Airlines have

    denied giving the yearly 7% pay rise. Instead,the crew members will receive only 2% pay risethis year.

    (b) Some passengers in a particular flight changedtheir food and beverage orders twice.

    (c) A group of four passengers was constantly takingphotographs of a few air hostesses despite gettingmany warning from the crew members.

    (d) Fly High airlines have been highly successful andfamous since their inception 12 years ago. As aresult, the crew members have become indifferentto the way they behave with passengers.

    (A) Only (a) (B) Only (b) and (d)(C) Only (c) (D) Only (b)

    Directions (Q. 4-8) : Study the given informationcarefully to answer the given question :

    In a certain code language,

    ‘ban all animal products’ is written as ‘tp fm ax bz’

    ‘animal hunting is wrong’ is written as ‘ke hw tp cu’‘all are wrong answers’ is written as ‘dy ni bz hw’‘products are well known’ is written as ‘fm gr sl dy’(All codes are two letter codes only)

    4. What does the code ‘sl’ stand for in the given codelanguage ?(A) either ‘well’ or ‘known’(B) products(C) either ‘hike’ or known’(D) are(E) profit

    5. What will be the possible code for ‘wrong products

    received’ in the given code language ?(A) ty dy gr (B) fm zu hw(C) gr fm tp (D) fm hw ni(E) ni zu fm

    6. In the given code language, if ‘busy’ is coded as ‘ot’,then how will ‘is busy hunting’ be coded as ?(A) cu ot hw (B) tp ke ot(C) ot hw tp (D) ot ke hw(E) ot cu ke

    7. What will be the code for ‘animal’ in the given codelanguage ?(A) cu (B) hw

    (C) tp (D) fm(E) other than those given as options

    8. What is the code for ‘all’ in the given code language ?(A) hw (B) ax(C) bz (D) ni(E) dy

    Directions (Q. 9-11) : Study the following informationand answer the given question :

    J is the sister of T. T is married to D. D is the father of R.M is the son of H. T is the mother-in-law of H.D has only one son and no daughter.J is married to B. L is the daughter of B.

    9. How is L related to T ?(A) Niece(B) Sister(C) Cannot be determined(D) Daughter(E) Mother

  • 4 | P. Sets Officers (I)

    10. How is M related to D ?(A) Nephew (B) Uncle(C) Brother (D) Son(E) Grandson

    11. How is J related to R ?(A) Sister (B) Aunt

    (C) Mother-in-law (D) Mother(E) Cannot be determined

    Directions (Q. 12-16) : Study the following informa-tion carefully and answer the given question :

    When a word and number arrangement machine isgiven an input line of words and numbers, it arranges themfollowing a particular rule. The following is an illustrationof input and rearrangement.

    (All the numbers are two-digit numbers)Input : centre 24 actual 15 require impact 37 96

    marine 49 unable 82Step-I : 24 centre actual 15 require impact 37 96

    marine unable 82 49Step-II : 82 24 centre actual 15 require impact 96

    marine unable 49 37Step-III : 96 82 24 centre actual require impact

    marine unable 49 37 15Step-IV : centre 96 82 24 actual require impact

    marine 49 37 15 unableStep-V : marine centre 96 82 24 actual require 49

    37 15 unable impactStep-VI : require marine centre 96 82 24 49 37 15

    unable impact actual

    Step VI is the last step of the above arrangement asthe intended arrangement is obtained.

    As per the rules followed in the given steps, find outthe appropriate steps for the given input.

    Input : embark 53 palace 16 65 salute obvious 42achieve 71 heaven 98.

    12. Which element is fourth to the right of the one whichis ninth from the right end in Step III of the giveninput ?(A) 16 (B) achieve(C) 53 (D) salute(E) obvious

    13. Which element comes exactly between ‘16’ and‘salute’ in step IV of the given input ?(A) Both obvious and heaven(B) Only achieve(C) Both embark and place(D) Only 65(E) Only 71

    14. If in the Vth step, ‘16’ interchanges its position with‘obvious’ and ‘heaven’ also interchanges its positionwith ‘65’ then which element will be fifth to the rightof ‘42’ ?

    (A) 16 (B) 65(C) obvious (D) 71(E) heaven

    15. Which of the following combinations represents thefirst two and last two elements in step VI of the giveninput ?(A) salute, obvious, embark, palace(B) heaven, salute, achieve, obvious(C) palace, heaven, obvious, embark(D) salute, palace, embark, achieve(E) embark, obvious, palace, achieve

    16. In which step are the elements ‘heaven 98 achieve71’ found in the same order ?(A) Fourth (B) Sixth(C) Fifth (D) Third(E) The given order of elements is not found in any

    step

    Directions (Q. 17-22) : In this question two/threestatements followed by two conclusions numbered I andII have been given. You have to take the given statementsto be true even if they seem to be at variance from thecommonly known facts and then decide which of the givenconclusions logically follows from the given statementsdisregarding commonly known facts :

    (A) Only conclusion I follows(B) Neither conclusion I nor II follows(C) Only conclusion II follows(D) Either conclusion I or conclusion II follows(E) Both conclusion I and II follows

    17. Statements : Some gifts are parcels. Some parcelsare boxes.

    Conclusions : I. At least some gifts are boxes.II. All parcels being gifts is a pos-

    sibility

    18. Statements : Some offices are godowns. Allgodowns are mills. All offices arefactories.

    Conclusions : I. Some mills are factories.II. All mills are factories.

    19. Statements : All texts are messages. All calls aretexts. No message is a ringtone.

    Conclusions : I. No text is a ringtone.II. All calls are messages.

    20. Statements : No cycle is a bike. All bikes areflights. Some flights are trucks.

    Conclusions : I. At least some trucks are bikes.II. No cycle is a truck.

    21. Statements : Some offices are godowns. All godownsare mills. All offices are factories.

    Conclusions : I. All mills being offices is apossibility.

    II. Some factories are definitely notgodowns.

  • P. Sets Officers (I) | 5

    22. Statements : All expenses are payments. Somepayments are savings. All savings areincome.

    Conclusions : I. All income being expenses is apossibility.

    II. No payment is an income.

    23. A person starts walking from his home towards hisfriends place. He walks for 25 m towards West. Hetakes a 90º right turn and walks for 20 m. He againtakes a 90º right turn, and walks for 10 m. He thenwalks for another 10 m after taking a 90º left turn.Turning 90º towards his right, he walks for 15 m toreach his friend’s place. How far and in whichdirection is the friend’s place from his home ?(A) 30 m towards East(B) 30 m towards North(C) 40 m towards South(D) 30 m towards South(E) 40 m towards North

    Directions (Q. 24-29) : Study the following infor-mation carefully and answer the given questions :

    Eight persons—P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are sittingaround a circular table with equal distance between eachother, facing the centre, but not necessarily in the sameorder. Each one of them belongs to a different professionviz., Manager, Engineer, Chef, Pilot, Lawyer, Doctor,Architect and Teacher but not necessarily in the same order.

    V sits second to the right of the Manager. The Pilotand the Engineer are the immediate neighbours of V. Rsits second to the right of T who is Lawyer. T is animmediate neighbour of the Pilot. Only one person sitsbetween W and U. S sits third to the left of T. P sits exactlybetween U and S. The Architect sits second to the left of P.The Chef and the Teacher are immediate neighbours ofthe Architect. W is not a Teacher.

    24. Who among the following is a doctor ?(A) R(B) V(C) Other than those given as options(D) W(E) P

    25. Who sits exactly between R and the manager, whencounted from the right of R ?(A) W (B) T(C) Q (D) S(E) U

    26. Which of the following statements is not true as perthe given information ?(A) R is a Chef(B) P and V are immediate neighbours of S(C) All the given statements are true(D) Only three persons sit between U and Q(E) S is an Engineer

    27. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way basedon their positions in the arrangement and hence forma group. Which one does not belong to that group ?(A) SU (B) RW(C) TQ (D) PU(E) VS

    28. Who sits second to the right of Q ?(A) S(B) P(C) Other than those given as options(D) W(E) U

    29. If all the persons are made to sit in the alphabeticalorder in clockwise direction starting from P, theposition of how many of them will remain unchanged(exclusing P) ?(A) Three (B) One(C) Two (D) Four(E) None of these

    30. Statement : M O L T = E DConclusions : I. D O

    II. M E(A) Either conclusion I or II is true(B) Both conclusions I and II are true(C) Only conclusion II is true(D) Neither conclusion II is true(E) Only conclusion I is true

    31. Statement : B < C = D X Y < ZConclusions : I. B < X

    II. Z C(A) Either conclusion I or II is true(B) Both conclusions I and II are true(C) Only conclusion II is true(D) Neither conclusion I nor II is true(E) Only conclusion I is true

    32. Statement : R < O L E; G = E S; P SConclusions : I. R > P

    II. P E(A) Either conclusion I or II is true(B) Both conclusions I and II are true(C) Only conclusion II is true(D) Neither conclusion I nor II is true(E) Only conclusion I is true

    33. Statement : M O L T = E DConclusions : I. T < O

    II. T = O(A) Either conclusion I or II is true(B) Both conclusions I and II are true(C) Only conclusion II is true(D) Neither conclusion I nor II is true(E) Only conclusion I is true

    34. Statement : S P A = R > E DConclusions : I. A > D

    II. S E

  • 6 | P. Sets Officers (I)

    (A) Either conclusion I or II is true(B) Both conclusions I and II are true(C) Only conclusion II is true(D) Neither conclusion I nor II is true(E) Only conclusion I is true

    35. Statement : R < O L E; G = E S; P SConclusions : I. O < G

    II. G = P(A) Either conclusion I or II is true(B) Both conclusions I and II are true(C) Only conclusion II is true(D) Neither conclusion I nor II is true(E) Only conclusion I is true

    Quantitative AptitudeDirections (Q. 36-39) : Study the following table and

    answer the given question :

    The annual expenditures of sixfamilies for five year

    (In Thousand)

    Family/ 2008 2009 2010 2011 2012Year

    A 285 310 325 295 305B 129 135 140 175 145C 420 485 520 585 523D 395 355 370 425 441E 380 420 485 475 526F 515 565 510 615 645

    Note—Saving = Income—Expenditure

    36. What was the respective ratio of annual savings offamily E and D in 2011 if the annual income of eachfamily was 5,20,000 ?(A) 6 : 21 (B) 9 : 19(C) 7 : 26 (D) 5 : 17(E) 7 : 30

    37. What was the combined savings of all family in 2011if the income of all families was ` 51,20,000 ?(A) ` 23,20,000 (B) ` 25,10,000(C) ` 25,50,000 (D) ` 27,10,000(E) ` 21,60,000

    38. How much percentage increased in expenditure (inthousand) of family A between 2008 to 2012 ?(A) 11 (B) 4(C) 10 (D) 13(E) 7

    39. If family ‘C’ had saved 30% of his annual income in2008 then how much was his annual income in thatyear (in thousand) ?(A) ` 520 (B) ` 730(C) ` 600 (D) ` 580(E) ` 850

    40. Meena Kumari goes to a shop and buys a saree, costing` 5,225, including sales tax of 12%. The shopkeeper

    gives her a discount, so that the price is decreased byan amount equivalent to sales tax. The price isdecreased by (nearest value).(A) ` 615 (B) ` 650(C) ` 560 (D) ` 580(E) ` 680

    41. There are two garbage disposal rectangular tanks, Aand B with lengths 12m and 15m respectively in asquare field. If the total area of the square fieldexcluding the rectangular tanks is 360 sq. m and thebreadth both the rectangular tanks is 1/3 of the side ofthe square field, what is the perimeter of the squarefield ? (in m)(A) 92 (B) 84(C) 96 (D) 78(E) 72

    Directions (Q. 42-46) : The question consists of aquestion and two statements I and II given below it. Youhave to decide whether the data provided in the statementsthe data provided in the statements are sufficient to answerthe question. Read both the statements and choose theappropriate option.

    42. What is the definitely the value of ‘x’ ?

    I. The value of

    2 6–

    7 7

    xx

    is equal to 0.

    II. The value of 3x–2. 92x–3 is equal to 95x–19.(A) The data either in statement I alone or in statement

    II alone are sufficient to answer the question(B) The data in both the statements I and II together

    are not sufficient to answer the question(C) The data in both the statements I and II together

    are necessary to answer the question(D) The data in statement I alone are sufficient to

    answer the question while the data in statementII alone are not sufficient to answer the question

    (E) The data in statement II alone are sufficient toanswer the question while the data in statement Ialone are not sufficient to answer the question

    43. An item was sold after giving a certain discount onthe marked price. What was the percentage of discountgiven ?I. The profit earned by after giving the discount is

    44%. Had the percentage of discount been doubledthe profit earned would have been 28%.

    II. The cost price of the item is ` 400.(A) The data either in statement I alone or in statement

    II alone are sufficient to answer the question(B) The data in both the statements I and II together

    are not sufficient to answer the question(C) The data in both the statement I and II together

    are necessary to answer the question(D) The data in statement I alone are sufficient to

    answer the question while the data in statementII alone are not sufficient to answer the question

  • P. Sets Officers (I) | 7

    (E) The data in statement II alone are sufficient toanswer the question while the data in statement Ialone are not sufficient to answer the question

    44. What is the respective ratio of initial investments ofA and B ?I. A started the business by investing a certain amount

    and he invested for the while year. B joined A after4 months from the start of the business and investedfor the rest of the year. The profit earned by A andB are in the respective ratio of 7 : 8.

    II. The initial investment of B was ` 10,800.(A) The data either in statement I alone or in statement

    II alone are sufficient to answer the question(B) The data in both the statements I and II together

    are not sufficient to answer the question(C) The data in both the statements I and II together

    are necessary to answer the question(D) The data in statement I alone are sufficient to

    answer the question while the data in statementII alone are not sufficient to answer the question

    (E) The data in statement II alone are sufficient toanswer the question while the data in statement Ialone are not sufficient to answer the question

    45. How much will the boat take to cover a distance of 63km upstream ?I. The difference between the time taken by the boat

    to travel from A to B (upstream) and time taken byit to travel from B to A (downstream) is 2 hours.

    II. The distance between A and B is 45 km and speedof the boat in still water is 12 kmph.

    (A) The data either in statement I alone or in statementII alone are sufficient to answer the question

    (B) The data in both the statements I and II togetherare not sufficient to answer the question

    (C) The data in both the statements I and II togetherare necessary to answer the question

    (D) The data in statement I alone are sufficient toanswer the question while the data in statementII alone are not sufficient to answer the question

    (E) The data in statement II alone are sufficient toanswer the question while the data in statement Ialone are not sufficient to answer the question

    46. There are two cylindrical rollers-bigger and smaller.How many rotations will the bigger roller take toflatten a stretch of land (X) ?I. The respective ratio of the radii of the bigger and

    the smaller roller is 7 : 3. Both the rollers are ofthe same length.

    II. The smaller takes 63 rotations to flatten the stretchof land (X).

    (A) The data either in statement I alone or in statementII alone are sufficient to answer the question

    (B) The data in both the statements I and II togetherare not sufficient to answer the question

    (C) The data in both the statements I and II togetherare necessary to answer the question

    (D) The data in statement I alone are sufficient toanswer the question while the data in statementII alone are not sufficient to answer the question

    (E) The data in statement II alone are sufficient toanswer the question while the data in statement Ialone are not sufficient to answer the question

    Directions (Q. 47-51) : Refer to the graph and answerthe given question—

    Data related to number of elephants in twoReserves A and B of country X during 6 years

    47. Number of elephants in reserve A increased by whatper cent from 2001 to 2005 ?(A) 56·5 (B) 62·5(C) 68·5 (D) 54·5(E) 58·5

    48. What is the average number of elephants in reserve Bduring 2001, 2003, 2005 and 2006 ?(A) 46 (B) 56(C) 51 (D) 53(E) 49

    49. Out of the total number of elephants in reserves A andB together in 2002 only 40% were African elephantsand out of the total number of elephants in reserves Aand B together in 2004 only 65% were Africanelephants. What is the difference between total numberof African elephants in reserves A and B together in2002 and total number of African elephants in reservesA and B together in 2004 ?(A) 37 (B) 47(C) 43 (D) 41(E) 55

    50. What is the respective ratio between total number ofelephants in reserve A in 2003 and 2006 together andtotal number of elephants in reserve B in 2005 and2006 together ?(A) 17 : 18 (B) 23 : 24(C) 11 : 14 (D) 9 : 14(E) 11 : 12

    51. Number of elephants in reserve A decreased by 25%from 2006 to 2007 and number of elephants in reserveB increased by 15% from 2006 to 2007. What wasthe total number of elephants in reserves A and Btogether in 2007 ?(A) 172 (B) 164(C) 158 (D) 174(E) 166

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