2014-2015 - FIITJEE North West Delhifiitjeenorthwest.com/admin/upload/JSTSE_2015_Answer_Key.pdf ·...

FIITJEE Ltd., N-W Centre, 31, 32, 33, Central Market, West Avenue Road, Punjabi Bagh, New Delhi - 110026, Ph: 011-45634000.

JUNIOR SCIENCE TALENT SEARCH EXAM – 2014 -2015

GENERAL KNOWLEDGE

1. The term ‘Upnishad’ literally implies (1) Wisdom (2) Sitting near (3) Recitation (4) Knowledge 1. 2 2. What is the total area of India? (1) 3,897, 590 sq.km (2) 3,782,950 sq.km (3) 3,287,590 sq.km (4) 3,287,950 sq.km 2. 3 3. The wire of flash bulbs is made up of (1) Ba (2) Cu (3) Ag (4) Mg 3. 4 4. Who is the first woman Chairperson of SBI? (1) Chanda Kochar (2) Indira Nooyi (3) Shikha Sharma (4) Arundhati Bhattacharya 4. 4 5. In world, which first rail system is awarded for energy efficiency? (1) Delhi Metro (2) Shanghai Metro (3) Moscow Metro (4) Mexico City Metro 5. 1 6. World Cancer Day is observed on: (1) January, 31 (2) February, 4 (3) February, 1 (4) February, 6 6. 2 7. In HDI Report 2013, India’s ranks is … (1) 132 (2) 138 (3) 135 (4) 130 7. 3 8. Ceylone is the old name of which country? (1) Sri Lanka (2) Thailand (3) Iran (4) Myanmar 8. 1 9. Which one of the following is recorded first by the Seismograph? (1) P – waves (2) R – waves (3) S – waves (4) L – waves 9. 1 10. In 2014, Government of which states was awarded UN appreciation for better management

of cyclone ‘Phalin’? (1) West Bengal (2) Andhra Pradesh (3) Tamil Nadu (4) Odisha 10. 4 11. ___ was sworn is as the New Chief Justice of India on April 27, 2014 (1) Justice Mr P Sadashivam (2) Justice Mr R M Lodha (3) Justice Mr P Mukherjee (4) Justice Mr R K Dhowan 11. 2


12. Name of India’s first Navigation Satellite is ___ (1) IRNSS – 1B (2) IRNSS – A1 (3) IRNSS – 1A (4) IRNSS – B1 12. 3 13. Which of the following is not a correct expansion? (1) PIL – Public Induced Litigation (2) SIT – Special Investigation Team (3) KYC – Know Your Customer (4) BPO – Business Process Outsourcing 13. 1 14. Among the four sons of Shahjahan who is credited to have got translated Atharva Veda? (1) Shuja (2) Murad (3) Dara Shikoh (4) Aurangazeb 14. 3 15. National centre for good governance is located at: (1) New Delhi (2) Bhopal (3) Gurgaon (4) Mumbai 15. 1 16. Which is the Capital of Australia? (1) Perth (2) Canberra (3) Sydney (4) Melbourne 16. 2 17. Anti – sexual harassment law (Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal) 2013, came into force

in India to protect: (1) Women at workplace (2) Trans genders (male) (3) Child abuse (4) Live – in – partners 17. 1 18. ‘Dar – ul – Shafa’ established by Feroz Tughlaq was ___ (1) An alms house (2) A free hospital (3) A library (4) A guest house for Pilgrims 18. 2 19. In which article of India Constitution does the word ‘Minority’ appear? (1) Article 25 (2) Article 26 (3) Article 28 (4) Article 29 19. 4 20. The common refrigerant used in domestic refrigerator is: (1) Neon (2) Oxygen (3) Freon (4) Nitrogen 20. 3 21. In accordance with the wishes of Akbar, Ramayana was translated into Persian by: (1) Abul Fazal (2) Abdul Quadir Balouni (3) Faizi (4) Abdur – Rahim Khan – i – Khana 21. 2 22. According to Census 2011, percentage of rural population to total population in India is: (1) 68.8% (2) 78.8% (3) 65.8% (4) 72.8% 22. 1


23. In BRICS, ‘B’ stands for which country? (1) Belgium (2) Bhutan (3) Brazil (4) Bangladesh 23. 3 24. Bamboo is a ___ (1) Bush (2) Weed (3) Grass (4) Tree 24. 3 25. The Keibul Lamjao, the only floating national park in the world is in: (1) China (2) Japan (3) Thailand (4) India 25. 4 26. National Food Security Scheme was finally launched in: (1) August 2013 (2) March 2013 (3) June 2013 (4) October 2013 26. 4 27. Longitude, which is known as standard meridian in India: (1) 82o 30’ W (2) 87o 30’ W (3) 87o 30’ E (4) 82o 30’ E 27. 4 28. Ryder Cup is associated with: (1) Cricket (2) Badminton (3) Golf (4) Tennis 28. 3 29. Willy – Willy is a: (1) Computer software (2) Cyclone (3) River (4) Bacteria 29. 2

30. First Indian Woman who reached Antarctica is: (1) Ujjawala Patil (2) Pritisa Gupta (3) Mahel Musa (4) Geeta Ghosh 30. 3 31. Which is the west coast port in India? (1) Chennai (2) Kochi (3) Tutikorin (4) Vishakhapatnam 31. 2

32. Autobiography of Nelson Mandela is: (1) Wings of Fire (2) The Race of My Life (3) Long Walk to Freedom (4) My Country My Life 32. 3 33. FBI means (1) Foreign Bureau of Investigation (2) Famous Bureau of Investigation (3) First Bureau of Investigation (4) Federal Bureau of Investigation 33. 4 34. The earth revolves around the sun at a speed of: (1) 18.5 km/s (2) 26.6 km/s (3) 29.7 km/s (4) 31.9 km/s 34. 3


35. International court of Justice is located at: (1) Hague (2) Perth (3) Geneva (4) New Delhi 35. 1 36. Which pair is incorrectly matched? State Bird Sanctuaries 1. Haryana Sultanpur 2. Rajasthan Bharatpur 3. Uttar Pradesh Chandraprabha 4. Odisha Ghatparbha 36. 4 37. The first state in India to put a ban on plastic bags: (1) Himachal Pradesh (2) Uttar Pradesh (3) Kerala (4) Gujarat 37. 1 38. When was Child Marriage Restraint Act passed in India? (1) 2001 (2) 1947 (3) 1929 (4) 1939 38. 3 39. Highest water fall of world is ___ (1) Angel (2) Niagara (3) Victoria (4) Jog 39. 1 40. A state of India having maximum number of Lok Sabha Constituencies is ___ (1) Tamil Nadu (2) Rajasthan (3) Madhya Pradesh (4) Uttar Pradesh 40. 4 41. What does soda water contain? (1) Carbonic acid (2) Sulphuric acid (3) Carbon dioxide (4) Nitrous oxide 41. 3 42. Which country has won the FIFA World cup most of the times? (1) Spain (2) Germany (3) Italy (4) Brazil 42. 4 43. India’s first monorail opened in: (1) Mumbai (2) Ahmedabad (3) Bengaluru (4) Kolkata 43. 1 44. Satya Nadella is CEO of (1) Infosys (2) Microsoft (3) IBM (4) Apple 44. 2 45. Who invented mobile phones? (1) Martin Cooper (2) Samuel Finley (3) Tim burners (4) Alexander Graham Bell 45. 1


46. First Indian to win an Olympic gold medal is ___ (1) Mary Kom (2) Abhinav Bindra (3) Milkha Singh (4) Sushil Kumar 46. 2 47. Which of the following lay eggs? (1) Whale (2) Dolphin (3) Platypus (4) Bat 47. 3 48. Who is the author of the book ‘Narendra Modi : A Political Biography’ published on 24

March, 2014? (1) Andy Marino (2) John Marino (3) Peter Marino (4) Sandy 48. 1 49. ___ is used in banks to read the numbers on a cheque. (1) MICR (2) Mouse (3) Web Camera (4) Scanner 49. 1 50. How many players are there on court in a volleyball team? (1) 8 (2) 7 (3) 6 (4) 5 50. 3

PHYSICS

51. Two objects are made to fall freely from heights h1 and h2. The ratio of time taken by them to reach ground is (Neglect air friction)

(1) 1 (2) 1

2

hh

(3) 1

2

hh

(4) 2

1

2

hh

⎛ ⎞⎜ ⎟⎝ ⎠

51. 3

Sol. 21h gt2

= ; 2htg

=

52. A bullet moving with velocity ‘v’ penetrates a sand bag upto distance ‘x’. Same bullet with

velocity ‘2v’ can penetrate bag upto distance: (1) x (2) 2x (3) 3x (4) 4x 52. 4 Sol. v2 = u2 + 2as (0)2 = v2 – 2a(x) …(i) (0)2 = (2v)2 – 2a(x1) …(ii) ⇒ x1 = 4x 53. A stone is tied with a string and a uniform circular motion is developed in the stone. If the

string breaks down the stone moves in direction: (1) Radially in ward (2) Radially out ward (3) Tangentially out ward (4) Tangentially in ward 53. 3 Sol. Stone will follow its direction of motion i.e. tangential.


54. A ball of mass 20 g is travelling at 10 m/sec towards a wall. It hits the wall and returns with a speed of 5 m/sec. The change in the momentum of the ball is

(1) 0.1 kg m/sec (2) 1 kg m/sec (3) –1 kg m/sec (4) –0.1 kg m/sec 54. No correct option is given. 55. A ball rolls down from an inclined plane to a horizontal frictionless plane. It will (1) Stop after 10 seconds (2) Continue to move with uniform acceleration (3) Continue to move forever with uniform velocity (4) Will start moving in a circular path 55. 3 Sol. Newton’s I law 56. Which one of the following is incorrect? (1) Rate of change of momentum of an object is equal to applied force. (2) In action – reaction law both the forces act on different objects (3) The object always moves in the direction of force (4) Momentum in object is the product of mass and is velocity 56. 3 Sol. Factual question

57. If the planet is revolving around the sun at r distance from the centre of sun with a time period of revolution ‘T’. The following remains constant:

(1) Tr

(2) T2 r3

(3) 2

3

Tr

(4) 3

2

Tr

57. 3 Sol. Kepler’s III law of planetary motion. T2 ∝ R3 58. Time period of seconds pendulum on moon will (1) Increase (2) Decrease (3) Remains constant (4) Cannot say 58. 1

Sol. T 2g

= π

‘g’ on moon is less as compared to earth. 59. A piece of ice is floating in a vessel filled with water when ice melts, the level of water in

vessel (1) Decrease (2) Increase (3) Remains same (4) 1st decreases then increases 59. 3 Sol. Weight of displaced water by ice is equal to weight of ice. 60. The amplitude of sound wave in reduced to one third and frequency is doubled. The intensity

of sound wave at same point will be

(1) Increases by a factor of 94

(2) Decreases by a factor of 94

(3) Increases by a factor of 49

(4) Decreases by a factor of 49

60. 4 Sol. I = 2π2 ρv A2 f2 where ρ – density of medium


v – speed of wave A – Amplitude f – frequency 61. ‘Ultra sonography’ is based on: (1) Reflection of sound (2) Transmission of sound (3) Reflection and refraction of sound (4) Reflection and transmission of sound 61. 1 Sol. Factual 62. Rarefractions are the points where: (1) Pressure is low and extension is high (2) Pressure is high and extension is low (3) Pressure and extension both high (4) Pressure and extension both low 62. 1 Sol. Factual 63. Power of an engine is 19.6 kw. The capacity of water it can lift up per sec from a well of 40 m

depth is (1) 48 kg (2) 50 kg (3) 52 kg (4) 54 kg 63. 2

Sol. Power = EnergyTime

19.6 × 103 = m(9.8) (40)(1)

64. The correct relation between kwh and joule is (1) 3.6 × 1010 J (2) 3.6 × 108 J (3) 3.6 × 106 J (4) 3.6 × 105 J 64. 3 Sol. 1 kwh = (103 w) (3600 sec) = 3.6 × 106 J 65. Which of the following graph correctly represents the energy-displacement relationship for a

spring-mass system? (1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

65. 1 Sol. Potential energy in stretched spring

21U kx2

=

⇒ U ∝ x2


66. The defect of human eye in which far off objects can not be seen clearly can be corrected by using

(1) Concave Mirror (2) Concave Lens (3) Convex Lens (4) convex Mirror 66. 2 Sol. Myopia is corrected by concave lens.

67. The stars in the sky appear twinkling due to (1) Reflection of light (2) Atmospheric diffraction (3) Atmospheric refraction (4) None of the above 67. 3 Sol. Factual 68. Light of velocity 3 × 108 m/sec, falls on a glass prism. The frequency of light is 2 × 103 Hz.

What will be its frequency after passing through glass prism:

(1) 52 10 Hz3

−× (2) 53 10 Hz2×

(3) 2 × 103 Hz (4) None of the above 68. 3 Sol. Frequency remains same. 69. A car is running between two points P and Q. If it travels half of the distance between P and

Q with velocity 40 km/hr and other half with 60 km/hr and return in the same manner. The average speed of the car is

(1) 50 km/hr (2) 52 km/hr (3) 100 km/hr (4) 48 km/hr 69. 4

Sol. Average speed = 1 2

1 2

2v vv v+

70. In the given (v–t) graph The displacement of the body in 6 seconds is: (1) 45 m (2) 90 m (3) 15 m (4) 6 m

70. 1 Sol. Area under (v – t) graph = displacement. 71. Acceleration in a particle moving in uniform circular motion is due to (1) Change in velocity (2) Change is speed (3) Acceleration is zero (4) Change in speed as well as direction 71. 1 Sol. In uniform circular motion speed remains constant only direction of velocity changes. 72. SI unit of Impulse is (1) kg m/sec2 (2) kg m/sec (3) kg sec/m (4) Newton-meter (Nm) 72. 2 Sol. Impulse = change in momentum = (Force × time)


73. A body of mass 20 kg is moving under force of 10 N. The value of Inertia of the body is (1) 5 kg (2) 0.2 kg (3) 20 kg (4) 100 kg 73. 3 Sol. Inertia is measure of mass. 74. A body immersed in a liquid shows loss in weight due to (1) Frictional force between liquid and the body (2) Gravitational force (3) Columbian force (4) Buoyant force 74. 4 Sol. Archimedes’s principle. 75. What will be the mass of the object on moon whose weight is 180 N on the earth? (1) 30 kg (2) 10 kg (3) 18 kg (4) 180 kg 75. 3 Sol. Mass remains same. 76. Value of ‘g’ does not depend on (1) Rotation of earth about its axis (2) Height above the earth/distance below the earth (3) Radius of earth at poles and at equator (4) Revolution of earth around sun 76. 4 Sol. Value of ‘g’ does not depend on revolution of earth around sun. 77. Weightlessness is a condition in which (1) Mass of body becomes zero (2) Weight of body becomes zero (3) Mass and weight both become zero (4) Neither mass nor weight become zero 77. 2 Sol. In the frame of mass (weightlessness) the apparent value of ‘g’ is zero. 78. Which of the following graphs represents high pitch sound:

(1) (2)

(3)

(4)

78. 4 Sol. High pitch means high frequency.


79. The given figure shows the shape of part of long string in which transverse waves are produced. Which pair of particles are in phase:

(1) 2 and 5 (2) 5 and 7 (3) 2 and 3 (4) 4 and 5 79. 1 Sol. Particles separated by a distance which is integral multiple of wavelength are in phase. 80. Which of the following characteristics of sound changes by loudspeaker? (1) Amplitude (2) Frequency (3) Velocity (4) Wavelength 80. 1 Sol. Intensity is directly proportional to square of amplitude. Loudspeakers changes intensity

while the frequency remains same. 81. When 10 N force is applied on a moving body, it travels 50 m before coming to rest.

The work done is (1) 500 N sec (2) 500 Joule (3) –500 Joule (4) –250 Joule 81. 3 Sol. Work done = Change in kinetic energy. 82. When a spring is compressed the work done during compression is stored in the spring in

the form of (1) Gravitation Energy (2) Elastic Potential Energy (3) Elastic Kinetic Energy (4) Frictional Energy 82. 2 Sol. Elastic potential energy. 83. In the following diagram the positions of Pendulum are indicated. In which position it has

maximum potential energy:

(1) A, D (2) D, C (3) C, B (4) A, B 83. 4 Sol. At A and B height attained is maximum. 84. Mach-2 means (1) Mechanics of 2nd generation (2) Velocity of twice of velocity of light (3) Way of representation of technology of aero plane (4) Velocity twice of velocity of sound 84. 4 Sol. Factual


85. Quality of musical sound depends upon (1) Frequency (2) Amplitude (3) Overtones (4) None of these 85. 3 Sol. Quality of sound depends on waveform which depends on sum of overtones. 86. Work done by gravitational force depends upon (1) Initial and final positions of object (2) Length of the path between two points (3) Density of the object (4) Size of the object 86. 1 Sol. Work done by conservative force is independent of path. 87. The distance between two consecutive crests is given by (1) λ (2) 2λ

(3) 2λ (4) 3λ

87. 1 Sol. Factual 88. In which situation will maximum pressure is exerted on the floor by the given object

(1) a (2) b (3) c (4) All will exert same pressure 88. 1

Sol. Pressure = ForceArea

89. Which of the following represents graph for zero acceleration?

(1) (iii) and (iv) (2) (i) and (iii) (3) (i) and (ii) (4) (ii) and (iv) 89. 3 Sol. Slope of displacement time graph gives velocity in (i) slope is not changing. In (ii) velocity is

constant.


90. The density of the liquid is determined by (1) Lactometer (2) Barometer (3) Hydrometer (4) None of the above 90. 3 Sol. Factual

CHEMISTRY

91. Arrange the following in increasing order of their intermolecular force of attraction (a) Salt (b) Water (c) Carbon dioxide(CO2) (1) c < b < a (2) a < b < c (3) b < c < a (4) c < a< b 91. 1 Sol. Because [Solid > Liquid > Gas] Inter molecular force of Attraction 92. Separation method used for separating two miscible liquids: (1) Distillation (2) Evaporation (3) Separating funnel (4) Chromatography 92. 1 Sol. Because distillation is used to separate two miscible liquid. 93. A compound of carbon, hydrogen and nitrogen contains these elements in the ratio of their

atomic mass 9 : 1: 3.5, if its molecular mass is 108u. What is its molecular formula. (1) C2H2N (2) C3H4N (3) C2HN2 (4) C6H8N2 93. 4 Sol. C6H8N2 i.e., 12 × 6 + 8 × 1 + 14 × 2 = 108u 94. The correct chemical formula of the given compounds: Aluminium Phosphate, Ammonia Carbonate and Sodium Sulphite are (1) Al2(PO4)3, (NH4)2CO3, Na2SO4 (2) AlPO4, NH4CO3, Na2SO3 (3) Al(PO4)3, (NH4)2CO3, Na2SO4 (4) AlPO4, (NH4)2CO3, Na2SO3 94. 4 Sol. AlPO4, (NH4)2CO3, Na2SO3 95. The process of respiration is: (1) Oxidation reaction which is endothermic (2) Reduction reaction which is endothermic (3) Combination reaction which is exothermic (4) Oxidation reaction which is exothermic 95. 4 Sol. Respiration is oxidation & exothermic process. 96. Orthoboric acid used as mild antiseptic for eyes is (1) H3BO2 (2) H2B4O7 (3) B(OH)3 (4) Na2B4O7 96. 3 Sol. H3BO3 or B(OH)3 97. Chemical symbol of antimony is: (1) As (2) Sb (3) At (4) Am 97. 2 Sol. As symbol for antimony Sb 98. Which chemical is not used for preserving coloured food material: (1) SO2 (2) Vit-C (3) Sodium benzoate (4) BHA 98. 1


Sol. As SO2 is a bleaching agent and rest all are preservatives. 99. Identify the species having the same number of valence electrons: (1) O–, Cl– (2) O–2, N3+ (3) Ne, Ar (4) Na, Mg 99. 3 Sol. As Ne & Argon both have 8e− in their last shell. 100. The table given below gives information about four unknown substances(Room temperature

= 30oC) Substance M. Pt(oC) B. Pt(oC)

A –188 –40 B –110 24 C 16 117 D 37 340

Which of the following substance is a volatile liquid? (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D 100. 2 Sol. Because among B, has little lower boiling point then room temperature. 101. The diagram given below show the electron arrangement in the outer shell of 1, 2, 3, 4 and

5. All the elements are from period 3 of the periodic table

Which two elements form a covalent compound with YZ2 type formula. (1) 5 and 2 (2) 1 and 2 (3) 3 and 4 (4) 1 and 5 101. 1 Sol. As both shows non-metal configuration. 102. Which weigh the maximum? (1) 2.2 L of CO2 at STP (2) 6.022 × 1023 molecules of CO2 (3) 6.022 × 1023 atoms of carbon (4) 10 g of CO2 102. 2 Sol. As option (1) has 0.1 mol CO2 = 4.4 g Option (2) has 1 mole CO2 = 44 g Option (3) 1 mole of carbon atom = 12 g 103. Glyptal is an example of (1) Soap (2) Detergent (3) Polymer (4) Fibre 103. 3 Sol. Glyptal is commonly used as polymer. 104. In solid state, molar mass of sulphur is (1) 16 g (2) 32 g (3) 256 g (4) 128 g 104. 3 Sol. As S is S8 i.e., 32 × 8 = 256 gram


105. Silver articles become black when exposed to air. It is due to the formation of (1) Silver oxide (2) Silver nitrate (3) Silver chloride (4) Silver sulphide 105. 4 Sol. As only sulphides are black in colour. 106. 4.4 g of an unknown gas occupies 2.24 L of volume under STP conditions. The gas may be: (1) CO2 (2) CO (3) O2 (4) SO2 106. 1 Sol. 22.4 at STP = 1 mole of CO2 = 44 g CO2

2.24 ⎯→ 0.1 mole of CO2 = 4.4 g CO2 107. 2.5 L of 1 M NaOH solution is mixed with 3 L of 0.5 M NaOH solution. The molarity of

resulting solution is: (1) 0.80 M (2) 1.0 M (3) 0.73 M (4) 0.50 M 107. 3

Sol. As 1 1 2 23

1 2

M v M v 2.5 1 3 0.5M 0.7279v v 2.5 3+ × + ×

= = =+ +

108. The label of a breakfast cereal showed that it contained 110 mg of sodium per 100 g of the

cereal. The mass percentage of sodium in the cereal is: (1) 1.10 % (2) 0.110 % (3) 0.011 % (4) 11.0 % 108. 2

Sol. As 3110 10 100 0.110%of Na

100

−⎡ ⎤×× =⎢ ⎥

⎣ ⎦

109. The formula of phosphate salt of a metal is MPO4. The formula of its nitrate salt will be (1) MNO3 (2) M(No3)2 (3) M2(No3)3 (4) M(No3)3 109. 4 Sol. As M(NO3)3 110. At higher altitude(mountains) people add common salt to water to boil potatoes. This is done

to: (1) increase boiling point of water (2) decrease boiling point of water (3) to cook salty potatoes (4) none of these 110. 1 Sol. As adding of NaCl increase the BP of water. 111. Mercury is used in thermometers because it has: (1) Lowest heat of fusion (2) Lowest specific heat among all the liquids (3) High specific heat among all the liquids (4) Highest latent heat of fusion 111. 2 Sol. As Hg has low specific heat among all Liquid. 112. Which of the following will not show tyndall effect (1) Blood (2) Starch solution (3) CuSO4 solution (4) Sulphur solution 112. 3 Sol. As blood starch and sulphur solution all are colloid but CuSO4 solution is True solution.


113. Valency of phosphorus is (1) 1, 3, 5 (2) only 3 (3) only 5 (4) 3 and 5 both 113. 4 Sol. As P has 3 and 5 valency both. 114. Arrange the following in order of increasing their calorific value: (a) Petrol (b) Wood (c) Cow dung cake (d) Biogas (1) a < b < c < d (2) b < a < d < c (3) c < b < a < d (4) d < b < a < c 114. 3 Sol. Cow dung cake < Wood < Petrol < Biogas 115. Florescent tube glows because of (1) Plasma (2) Phosphorus (3) Sulphur (4) Hydrogen 115. 1 Sol. Florescent tube glows due to plasma. 116. Number of aluminium ions present in 0.051 g of Al2O3 (1) 6.022 × 1022 ions (2) 6.023 × 1023 ions (3) 6.023 × 1021 ions (4) 6.022 × 1020 ions 116. 4

Sol. Mole of Al2O3 = 0.051102

= 0.0005

Mole of Al3+ ions = 2 × 0.0005 = 0.001 No of Al3+ ions = 0.001 × NA 117. The residue obtained after destructive distillation of wood is: (1) Coke (2) Charcoal (3) Coal tar (4) Ash 117. 2 Sol. Residue left after destructive distillation of coal is ‘CHARCOAL’. 118. Which among the following fuels has the highest calorific value? (1) Coal (2) Kerosene (3) Biogas (4) Hydrogen 118. 4 Sol. As hydrogen has highest calorific value i.e., 150 KJ/mol. 119. A colloidal solution in which both the dispersed phase and dispersion medium are liquids is: (1) Milk (2) Butter (3) Shaving cream (4) Jelly 119. 1 Sol. Milk is emulsion i.e liquid in liquid 120. Which of the following statements is correct for the melting of ice? (1) At 0oC water exists only in the solid state (2) At 0oC water exist in solid as well as in liquid state (3) At 0oC vapour pressure of ice is equal to vapour pressure of liquid water (4) Both (2) & (3) are correct 120. 4 Sol. At melting point both state exists together & both have same vapour pressure.


121. Identify the oxide which reacts with HCl and NaOH both: (1) Al2O3 (2) CO2 (3) Na2O (4) CaO 121. 1 Sol. Al2O3 is amphoteric oxide. 122. Which of the following metals does not react with dil Sulphuric acid but reacts with a solution

of Ferrous sulphate (1) Cu (2) Zn (3) Fe (4) Mg 122. Rate of reaction with pure zinc is very slowly therefore we use impure zinc so among these

options zinc is most suitable answer but if we goes with statement as given in question i.e. metals “does not” react with dil. Sulphuric acid, none of the answer is correct.

123. Geeta poured 20 g of salt into 200 ml of water in a beaker. She stirred the water to dissolve

the salt completely. Then she heated the mixture unit it was reduced to half. How many grams of salt can be recovered from remaining solution

(1) 0 g (2) 10 g (3) 20 g (4) 40 g 123. 3 Sol. Because on heating only water evaporates salt doesn’t. 124. Which of the following is not an indicator (1) Litmus (2) Turmeric (Haldi) (3) Phenolphthalien (4) Sodium hydroxide 124. 4 Sol. NaOH is a strong base. 125. Match the following : (1) Bakelite (a) prepared by using wood pulp (2) Rayon (b) Used for making parachutes (3) Nylon (c) Used to make electrical switches (4) Terylene (d) Fabric do not wrinkle easily (1) i(c) ii(a) iii(b) iv(d) (2) i(a) ii(b) iii(c) iv(d) (3) i(b) ii(c) iii(d) iv(a) (4) i(c) ii(a) iii(d) iv(b) 125. 1 Sol. As Bakelite is commonly used for making electric switches and due to strength properties

Nylon is used for making parachute. 126. Among the following _____ has highest density (1) Air (2) Exhaust from Chimney (3) Cotton (4) Honey 126. 4 Sol. As honey is more dense than air, exhaust and cotton. 127. Acid present in ‘spinach’ (1) Oxalic acid (2) Lactic acid (3) Tartaric acid (4) Formic acid 127. 1 Sol. Mainly Oxalic acid is present in spinach. 128. In complete combustion of fuel gives x. Burning of coal and diesel release y, which is

extremely suffocating gas. (1) CO2, NO2 (2) NO2, CO2 (3) CO, SO2 (4) SO2, CO2 128. 1 Sol. Because on complete combustion of fuel gases CO2, H2O and NO2.


129. A student was given an unknown solution in a test tube. When he added universal indicator solution to test tube, it turned violet. The unknown solution is mostly likely to be

(1) Baking soda solution (2) Starch solution (3) Caustic Soda solution (4) Vinegar solution 129. 3 Sol. Because violet color indicates highly alkaline in nature. 130. The ionic radii of N3−, O2−, F−, Na+ follow the decreasing order (1) N3− > O2− > F− > Na+ (2) N3− > Na+ > O2− > F− (3) Na+ > O2− > N3− > F− (4) O2− > F− > Na+ > N3− 130. 1 Sol. As increase in charge decrease the radii of cation while increase in negative charge

increases the size of anion. So 3 2N O F Na− − − +> > >

BIOLOGY 131. The leaves of lotus plant float on water due to the presence of : (1) Chlorenchyma (2) Collenchyma (3) Sclerenchyma (4) Aerenchyma 131. 4 Sol. Aerenchyma are the parenchyma cells filled with air, which gives boyancy to the plant. 132. Species of plants and animals found exclusively is a particular area are called : (1) Endangered (2) Biological (3) Endemic (4) Exotic 132. 3 Sol. Local flora and fauna a particular area is called “Endemic”. 133. The Organisms present in the faeces of mammals which are indicators of quality of water

are : (1) Bacteria (2) Fungus (3) Algae (4) Virus 133. 1 Sol. E.coli is the most commonly known species, of faecal matter which indicates the quality of

water. 134. Rainfall patterns prevailing in an area generally depend on : (1) Temperature (2) Wind patterns (3) Pressure increase (4) Pollution levels 134. 3 Sol. Low pressure give rise to high rainfall in a particular place. 135. The essential nutrients for the plants except, carbon, oxygen and hydrogen are ‘B’ out of

which the macronutrients are ‘C’. ‘B’ and ‘C’ are respectively : (1) Sixteen, Six (2) Thirteen, Six (3) Sixteen, Seven (4) Thirteen, Seven 135. 1 Sol. If B is oxygen the molecular weight is 16 and if C is carbon the atomic number is 6. 136. The antibiotic penicillin inhibits the growth of bacteria by blocking the process which helps to

build its : (1) Cell wall (2) Cell membrane (3) Endoplasmic Reticulum (4) Mitochondria 136. 1 Sol. Antibiotic penicillin inhibits the growth of cell wall and hence stops the growth of becteria.


137. The smooth endoplasmic reticulum helps in the manufacture of : (1) Lipids (2) Glycogen (3) Sugars (4) Proteins 137. 1 Sol. SER are involved in the manufacture of lipids and steroids. 138. The plants having inconspicuous or hidden reproductive organs are placed in : (1) Cryptogamae (2) Phenerogamae (3) Angiospermae (4) Gymnospermae 138. 1 Sol. Crypto means hidden and gamae means marriage. So cryptogamae has hidden

reproductive organ. 139. The movement of water molecules from region of high concentration to a region of low

concentration through a selectively permeable membrane is called : (1) Diffusion (2) Osmosis (3) Active Transport (4) Facilitated Transport 139. 2 Sol. Oxmosis is the movement of water molecule from lower concentration of solute to higher

concentration of solute through semi permeable membrane. 140. The engulfing of food and other material from the external environment by Amoeba is

termed: (1) Passive transport (2) Endocytosis (3) Pinocytosis (4) Plasmolysis 140. 2 Sol. The process through which the food is taken inside the cell is called endocytosis. 141. The free living cells were first discovered by : (1) Robert Brown (2) T. Schwann (3) Robert Hooke (4) Leeuwenhoek 141. 4 Sol. He was the first to discover moving cell and named them as animalcules. 142. The fibrous tissue with great strength but limited flexibility is : (1) Tendon (2) Ligament (3) Cartilage (4) Areolar Tissue 142. 2 Sol. Ligament connects bone to bone which has limited flexibility. 143. The structure marked as “E” in the figure below is : (1) Cytosome (2) Water Vacuole (3) Food Vacuole (4) Cytopyge 143. Incomplete question (diagram missing) 144. A true body cavity called coelom is present in phylum : (1) Coelenterata (2) Platyhelminthes (3) Nematoda (4) Annelida 144. 4 Sol. Annelidans have the true body cavity have coelom which have mesodermal origin. 145. The record of all endangered plants and animals is called as : (1) Flora (2) Monograph (3) Manual (4) Red Data Book 145. 4 Sol. Red Data Book have the record of all endangered plants and animals.


146. Best time for the removal of weed is : (1) Before they produce flower and seeds (2) As soon as they start producing flower and seeds (3) Only after they have produced flower and seeds (4) After giving proper irrigation to the fields 146. 1 Sol. If the weeding is done after flowering than the weeds would increase. 147. The plasma membrane of the cells is mainly composed of : (1) Sugars and lipids (2) Proteins and sugars (3) Proteins and Lipids (4) Sugars and fats 147. 3 Sol. Plasma membrane is a bilipid layer in which proteins are embedded in it. 148. Clearing of forests and using that land for other purposes is called : (1) Deforestation (2) Afforestation (3) Social forestry (4) Reforestation 148. 1 Sol. Clearing of forest is called deforestation. 149. If a cell is placed in a hypertonic solution the cell will : (1) Shrink (2) Swell up (3) Remain of same size (4) Will burst 149. 1 Sol. Water will move from higher concentration to lower concentration. 150. The girth of the stem or root increases due to the activity of the : (1) Apical Meristem (2) Cambium (3) Inter calary Meristem (4) Epithelium 150. 2 Sol. The girth of the stem or root increases during secondary growth by which cambium rings are

formed. 151. The figure below represents : (1) Fibres (2) Tracheids (3) Vessels (4) Companion Cell 151. Incomplete question (diagram missing) 152. IRIS of the Eye contains : (1) Striated Muscle (2) Smooth Muscle (3) Cardiac Muscle (4) All the above 152. 2 Sol. Involuntary muscles. 153. “The Origin of Species” is written by : (1) Charles Brown (2) Lamark (3) Robert Hooke (4) Charles Darwin 153. 4 Sol. During the study of evolution “Charles Darwin” wrote a book called “Origin of species”. 154. Mushroom belongs to : (1) Algae (2) Fungi (3) Plantae (4) Protozoa 154. 2 Sol. Mushroom is the only edible fungi.


155. Which is called Amphibians of the plant kingdom : (1) Gymnosperms (2) Bryophyta (3) Thallophyta (4) Angiosperms 155. 2 Sol. Bryophyta are known as amphibian of plant kingdom as it requires water for fertilization. 156. The largest group of animal kingdom is : (1) Arthropoda (2) Mollusca (3) Porifera (4) Cnidaria 156. 1 Sol. Largest number of species are formed in this phylum. 157. Mammals who do not give birth to young ones : (1) Rat (2) Bat (3) Echidna (4) Cat 157. 3 Sol. These are egg laying mammals. 158. Peptic ulcer is caused by : (1) Acidity related pain and bleeding in stomach (2) Stressful life (3) Helicobacter pylori (4) Virus 158. 3 Sol. It causes ulcer in stomach and duodenum. 159. Which of following is green house gases? (1) Carbon dioxide (2) Methane (3) Nitrous oxide (4) All the above 159. 4 Sol. These gases traps the infra red radiation of sun and causes green house effect. 160. Which of the following is a micronutrient? (1) Iron (2) Sulphur (3) Calcium (4) Potassium 160. 1 Sol. Sulphur, Calcium and Potassium are macronutrients. 161. The part of seed which grows into root on germination : (1) Cotyledon (2) Radicle (3) Plumule (4) None 161. 2 Sol. After germination radical becomes root and phemule becomes shoot. 162. The largest bone in human body : (1) Femur (2) Fibula (3) Tibia (4) Ulna 162. 1 Sol. Largest Bone is the thigh bone known as Femur. 163. Function of gall bladder in our body is : (1) To produce bile (2) To consume bile (3) To store bile (4) None 163. 3 Sol. Bile juice secreted by liver gets stored in gall bladder.


164. Blood pressure in a normal person is : (1) 120/80 mm Hg. (2) 80/120 mm Hg. (3) 140/80 mm Hg. (4) 120/60 mm Hg. 164. 1 Sol. It’s the systolic and Diastolic pressure of blood in arteries. 165. July 11, is observed as : (1) World population day (2) No tobacco day (3) World Health day (4) World Environment day 165. 1 Sol. It is celebrated to raise awareness of global population issues. 166. Which type of carbohydrate stored in animal : (1) Starch (2) Cellulose (3) Glycogen (4) Glucose 166. 3 Sol. Food is stored in animals in the form of glycogen. 167. 2, 4-D is a : (1) Insecticide (2) Pesticide (3) Weedicide (4) All the above 167. 3 Sol. 2, 4-D is weedicide to erradicate weeds. 168. Following is the example of internal fertilizations: (1) Hen (2) Fish (3) Starfish (4) Frog 168. 1 Sol. Hen layer egg after fertilization. 169. Production of Dolly Sheep by : (1) Sexual Reproduction (2) Fragmentation (3) Regeneration (4) Cloning 169. 4 Sol. Cloning is a technique of making a new individual with the help of a cell. 170. Rhizobium lives in the : (1) Yeast cells (2) Stem of green plant (3) Air (4) Root nodules of leguminous plant 170. 4 Sol. “Rhizobium” shows symbiotic relationship with the root nodules of leguminous plants.

MATHEMATICS

171. If abc 1= , then the value of 1 1 1

1 1 11 a b 1 b c 1 c a− − −+ ++ + + + + +

is

(1) 0 (2) –1 (3) 1 (4) 1 a ab+ + 171. 3

Sol. x y za ; b ; cy z x

= = =

1 1 1x z y x z y1 1 1y y z z x x

+ ++ + + + + +


y z xy x z z y x x z y

= + ++ + + + + +

y z xy x z+ +

=+ +

= 1

172. Factors of ( )4 2x x 1+ + are:

(1) ( ) ( )2 2x x 1 x x 1+ + + − (2) ( ) ( )2 2x x 1 x x 1− + + +

(3) ( ) ( )2 2x x 1 x x 1− + + − (4) ( ) ( )2 2x 1 x 1+ − 172. 2 Sol. 4 2 2x 2x 1 x+ + −

( )22 2x 1 x= + −

( ) ( )2 2x 1 x x 1 x= + + + − 173. Ajay wanted to type the first 180 natural numbers. Find the number of times he had to press

the numbered keys: (1) 416 (2) 430 (3) 432 (4) 448 173. 3 Sol. 1 – 9 → one key 10 – 99 → two keys 100 – 180 → 3 keys

174. If 4 2a2 1

=+

then the value of a 2 a 2 2a 2 a 2 2+ +

−− −

is

(1) 12 8 2+ (2) 12 8 2− (3) 2 (4) –2 174. 1

Sol. By componendo and dividendo a 2 22 2 1=

+⇒

a 2 3 2 1a 2 2 1+ +

=− −

………….(i)

a 2 a 2 2 3 22 2 2 1 a 2 2 2 1

⎛ ⎞+ += ⇒ − =⎜ ⎟⎜ ⎟+ − −⎝ ⎠

…………….(ii)

Adding (i) and (ii) a 2 a 2 2 12 8 2a 2 a 2 2+ +

− = +− −

175. If 2x 1 x 15 100 25− −− = , then the value of x6 is

(1) 6 (2) 16

(3) 36 (4) 136

175. 3

Sol. 2x 2x5 5 1005 25

− =

2x5 4 100 x 225×

⇒ = ⇒ = x6 36⇒ =

176. If 3a 2b c 0,− + = then the value of 2 2 29a 4b c 6ac− + + is: (1) –1 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 0 176. 4 Sol. ( ) ( )2 23a c 2b 0+ − = ⇒ 2 2 29a 4b c 6ac− + + =0


177. If 3 2 5 b a 15,3 2 5+

= +−

then the value of a and b are:

(1) 23 4a , b17 17−

= = (2) 23 4a , b17 17

= =

(3) 4 23a , b17 17− −

= = (4) 4 23a , b17 17−

= =

177. 3

Sol. 3 2 5 3 2 5 3 2 53 2 5 3 2 5 3 2 5

⎛ ⎞ ⎛ ⎞+ + += ⎜ ⎟⎜ ⎟⎜ ⎟ ⎜ ⎟− − +⎝ ⎠⎝ ⎠

( )

3 20 4 153 20

+ +=

−

23 4 1517

+=

− 4 23a , b

17 17−

⇒ = = −

178. If 1/3 2/3x 3 3 3 ,= + + then the value of 3 2x 9x 18x 12− + − is (1) 0 (2) –1 (3) 1 (4) 2 178. 1 Sol. 3 2x 27 9x 27x 12 9x 27− − + = + − 3 2x 9x 18x 12 0− + − = 179. In figure, AC = CB = AD, then the value of x is: (1) o49.5 (2) o30 (3) o33 (4) o49

xB

C D

A 99o

179. 3 Sol. ox 2x 99+ = ox 33= 180. One interior angle of a regular polygon is o165 , then the number of sides of the polygon is: (1) 15 (2) 25 (3) 24 (4) 18 180. 3 Sol. Ext. o15∠ =

360 n15

=

n 24=

181. If ( ) ( )2 nn 2 n/2

3m 3

9 3 3 27 1 ,273 2

−−× × −=

× then the value of (m – n) is:

(1) –1 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) –2 181. 2

Sol. ( ) ( ) ( )

3n3

3m

3 9 13 3 n m 3 m n 1

3 8−−

= ⇒ − = − ⇒ − =×


182. If 1 2x3 174

5 27

−⎛ ⎞ =⎜ ⎟⎝ ⎠

, then the value of x is:

(1) 27− (2) 2

7

(3) 72− (4) 7

2

182. 4

Sol. 6 2x 15 5

3 3

−⎛ ⎞ ⎛ ⎞=⎜ ⎟ ⎜ ⎟⎝ ⎠ ⎝ ⎠

2x 7=

7x2

=

183. The sum of five consecutive odd natural numbers is 65. The sum of the extreme numbers is: (1) 24 (2) 26 (3) 28 (4) 30 183. 2 Sol. x x 2 x 4 x 6 x 8 65+ + + + + + + + = x 9= . Sum of extreme numbers = 9 17 26+ = 184. In figure, 0 is the centre of the circle, then: (1) ox y z 180+ + = (2) z 2x y= + (3) y z x= + (4) z x y= +

Z

E

A B

y

x D C

184. 4

Sol. o o oz z180 y 180 x 3602 2

− + + − + =

x y z+ = 185. The value of 0.2 0.23+ is: (1) 0.43 (2) 0.43 (3) 0.45 (4) 0.45 185. 3 Sol. 0.2 0.23 0.45+ =

186. If 5x 8y 45 ,6x 7y 9

+=

− then the value of x

y is:

(1) 53

(2) 35

(3) 53− (4) 3

5−

186. 1


Sol. 5x 8y 496x 7y 9

+=

−

( ) ( )9 5x 8y 49 6x 7y+ = − 415y 249x=

x 415 5y 249 3= =

187. The mean of 5 observation is 15. If the mean of first three observations is 14 and last three

observations is 17, then the third observation is: (1) 18 (2) 19 (3) 17 (4) 20 187. 1 Sol. 3rd observation ( ) ( ) ( )14 3 3 17 5 15= × + × − × = 18 188. The area of a semi – circle is 308 m2. The perimeter of the semi – circle is: (1) 44 m (2) 72 m (3) 58 m (4) 88 m 188. 2

Sol. 21 r 3082π =

2 7r 308 222

= × ×

= 196 r 14= ∴ Perimeter = r 2rπ +

22 14 287

= × +

44 28 72m= + =

189. If 3m 4 m 7x , y5 3− −

= = and 13x y3

+ = , then the value of m is:

(1) 6 (2) 8 (3) –8 (4) –4 189. 2

Sol. 13x y3

+ =

3m 4 m 7 135 3 3− −

+ =

( ) ( )3 3m 4 5 m 7 5 13− + − = × 9m 12 5m 35 65− + − = 14m 65 12 35= + +

112m14

= = 8

190. If the number 28, 25, 20, 19, 15, x, 10, 7, 6, 3 are in decreasing order and their median is 13,

then the mean is (1) 14.4 (2) 15.4 (3) 16.4 (4) 14.6 190. 1

Sol. 15 x 132+

=


x 11=

Mean 28 25 20 19 15 11 10 7 6 310

+ + + + + + + + +=

144 14.410

= =

191. In figure, CD and BD are bisectors of C∠ and ABE∠

respectively. If oBDC 28 ,∠ = then the value of ( )ABC ACB∠ + ∠ is:

(1) o28 (2) o56 (3) o84 (4) o124

C

D

A

E B

191. 4 Sol. ABD x∠ = ABC 180 2x∠ = − ( )DCB 180 180 2x x 28∠ = − − + + x 28= − ( )ACB 2 x 28∴∠ = − ABC ACB 180 2x 2x 56∴∠ + ∠ = − + − o124= C

D

A

E B

28o

192. The area of a square, if the sum of its diagonals is 100 cm, is: (1) 5000 cm2 (2) 125 cm2

(3) 2100 2 cm (4) 1250 cm2 192. 4 Sol. ( )22 22a 50 a 1250= ⇒ =

193. Travelling at 45

⎛ ⎞⎜ ⎟⎝ ⎠

th of his usual speed, a man is 15 minutes late. His usual time to cover the

same distance is: (1) 45 minutes (2) 60 minutes (3) 75 minutes (4) 90 minutes 193. 2

Sol. 5t 15 t t 604

+ = ⇒ = min.

194. The equations 1 1 15x y+ = and 1 1 5

x y− = are such that ax 1= and by 1= . The values of a

and b respectively are: (1) 10, 5 (2) 10, –5 (3) –5, 10 (4) 5, 10 194. 1

Sol. 1x a 1010

= ⇒ = and 1y b 55

= ⇒ =

195. A conical tent is 12 m high and radius of its base is 9 m. What is the cost of convas required

to make the tent, if the cost of 1 m2 canvas is Rs. 14? (1) Rs. 5840 (2) Rs. 5940 (3) Rs. 4950 (4) Rs. 5960 195. 2


Sol. cost 22 9 15 14 59407

= × × × =

196. The perimeter of a rectangle whose length is 60 cm and a diagonal is 61 cm is: (1) 120 cm (2) 242 cm (3) 121 cm (4) 142 cm 196. 4 Sol. Breadth = 11 197. The coefficient of 2x in ( ) ( ) ( )x 3 x 5 x 7+ − + is: (1) 28 (2) 1 (3) –5 (4) 5 197. 4 Sol. Coefficient of ( )2x 5= − α + β + γ =

198. Decimal expression of 98710500

is:

(1) 0.976 (2) 0.094 (3) 0.940 (4) 0.0094 198. 2

Sol. 987 0.09410500

=

199. If ( )x 3+ and ( )x 2+ are factors of 3 22x mx 7x n+ + + , then the values of m and n are: (1) m = 9, n = –6 (2) m = –9, n = 6 (3) m = –9, n = –6 (4) m = 9, n = 6 199. 1 Sol. ( ) ( )f 3 f 2 0 m 9, n 6− = − = ⇒ = = − 200. In figure ABCD is a cyclic quadrilateral and

o oADC 80 , ACD 50 ,∠ = ∠ = then CBD∠ is: (1) o60 (2) o130 (3) o50 (4) o40

BC

D A

200. 3 Sol. oABC 100∠ = then oCBD 50∠ =

2014-2015 - FIITJEE North West Delhifiitjeenorthwest.com/admin/upload/JSTSE_2015_Answer_Key.pdf ·...

Documents

Transcript of 2014-2015 - FIITJEE North West Delhifiitjeenorthwest.com/admin/upload/JSTSE_2015_Answer_Key.pdf ·...