1. Solution: a)

INSIGHTS MOCK TESTS -‐ 2015 TEST – 20 SOLUTIONS

WWW.INSIGHTSONINDIA.COM

1. Solution: a)

The Central Information Commission (CIC) set up under the Right to Information Act is the authorised body, established in 2005, under the Government of India to act upon complaints from those individuals who have not been able to submit information requests to a Central Public Information Officer or State Public Information Officer due to either the officer not having been appointed, or because the respective Central Assistant Public Information Officer or State Assistant Public Information Officer refused to receive the application for information under the RTI Act.

It was constituted through an Official Gazette Notification under the provisions of the Right to Information Act (2005). Hence, it is not a constitutional body.

2. Solution: d)

The Commission consists of a Chief Information Commissioner and not more than ten Information Commissioners. They are appointed by the President on the recommendation of a selection committee.

They should be persons of eminence in public life with wide knowledge and experience in law, science and technology, social service, management, journalism, mass media or administration and governance. They should not be a Member of Parliament or Member of the Legislature of any State or Union Territory. They should not hold any other office of profit or connected with any political party or carrying on any business or pursuing any profession.

3. Solution: a)

It is an independent body which inter alia looks into the complaints made to it and decide the appeals. It entertains complaints and appeals pertaining to offices, financial institutions, public sector undertakings, etc., under the Central Government and the Union Territories.

The Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances is the nodal agency of the Government of India for administrative reforms as well as redressal of public grievances relating to the states in general and those pertaining to Central Government agencies in particular.



4. Solution: c)

They are appointed by the President on the recommendation of a committee consisting of the Prime Minister as Chairperson, the Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha and a Union Cabinet Minister nominated by the Prime Minister. They should be persons of eminence in public life with wide knowledge and experience in law, science and technology, social service, management, journalism, mass media or administration and governance.

5. Solution: b)

The Chief Information Commissioner and an Information Commissioner hold office for a term of 5 years or until they attain the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier. They are not eligible for reappointment.

The President can remove the Chief Information Commissioner or any Information Commissioner from the office.

Same goes for CAG; Chairman, UPSC (5 year term); and CEC. Other members of election Commissioners are re-eligible for the post of Chairman or Chief; not any other.

6. Solution: a)

The State Chief Information Commissioner and a State Information Commissioner hold office for a term of 5 years or until they attain the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier. They are not eligible for reappointment.

The Governor can remove the State Chief Information Commissioner or any State Information Commissioner from the office under the following circumstances:

• if he is adjudged an insolvent; or • if he has been convicted of an offence which (in the opinion of the Governor)

involves a moral turpitude; or



• if he engages during his term of office in any paid employment outside the duties of his office; or

• if he is (in the opinion of the Governor) unfit to continue in office due to infirmity of mind or body; or

• if he has acquired such financial or other interest as is likely to affect prejudicially his official functions.

In addition to these, the Governor can also remove the State Chief Information Commissioner or any State Information Commissioner on the ground of proved misbehaviour or incapacity4. However, in these cases, the Governor has to refer the matter to the Supreme Court for an enquiry. If the Supreme Court, after the enquiry, upholds the cause of removal and advises so, then the Governor can remove him.

7. Solution: d)

The Constituent Assembly was constituted in November 1946 under the scheme formulated by the Cabinet Mission Plan.

The features of the scheme were:

1. The total strength of the Constituent Assembly was to be 389. Of these, 296 seats were to be allotted to British India and 93 seats to the Princely States. Out of 296 seats allotted to the British India, 292 members were to be drawn from the eleven governors' provinces and four from the four chief commissioners' provinces3, one from each. 2. Each province and princely state (or group of states in case of small states) were to be allotted seats in proportion to their respective population. Roughly, one seat was to be allotted for every million population. 3. Seats allocated to each British province were to be decided among the three principal communities—Muslims, Sikhs and general (all except Muslims and Sikhs), in proportion to their population. 4. The representatives of each community were to be elected by members of that community in the provincial legislative assembly and voting was to be by the method of proportional representation by means of single transferable vote. 5. The representatives of princely states were to be nominated by the heads of the princely states. It is thus clear that the Constituent Assembly was to be a partly



elected and partly nominated body. Moreover, the members were to be indirectly elected by the members of the provincial assemblies, who themselves were elected on a limited franchise.

The elections to the Constituent Assembly (for 296 seats allotted to the British Indian Provinces) were held in July–August 1946. The Indian National Congress won 208 seats, the Muslim League 73 seats, and the small groups and independents got the remaining 15 seats.

However, the 93 seats allotted to the princely states were not filled as they decided to stay away from the Constituent Assembly. Although the Constituent Assembly was not directly elected by the people of India on the basis of adult franchise, the Assembly comprised representatives of all sections of Indian Society—Hindus, Muslims, Sikhs, Parsis, Anglo–Indians, Indian Christians, SCs, STs including women of all these sections. The Assembly included all important personalities of India at that time, with the exception of Mahatma Gandhi and M A Jinnah.

8. Solution: d)

The CVC is a multi-member body consisting of a Central Vigilance Commissioner (chairperson) and not more than two vigilance commissioners. They are appointed by the president by warrant under his hand and seal on the recommendation of a three-member committee consisting of the prime minister as its head, the Union minister of home affairs and the Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha.

They hold office for a term of four years or until they attain the age of sixty five years, whichever is earlier. After their tenure, they are not eligible for further employment under the Central or a state government.

9. Solution: c)

The president can also remove the Central Vigilance Commissioner or any vigilance commissioner on the ground of proved misbehaviour or incapacity. However, in these cases, the president has to refer the matter to the Supreme Court for an enquiry.



If the Supreme Court, after the enquiry, upholds the cause of removal and advises so, then the president can remove him. He is deemed to be guilty of misbehaviour, if he

(a) is concerned or interested in any contract or agreement made by the Central government, or

(b) participates in any way in the profit of such contract or agreement or in any benefit or emolument arising there from otherwise than as a member and in common with the other members of an incorporated company

10. Solution: b)

The CBI is headed by a director, an IPS officer with a rank of Director General of Police or Commissioner of Police (State). The director is selected based on the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013, and has a two-year term.

The CBI is subject to five ministries of the Government of India -

• Ministry of Home Affairs: Cadre clearance

• DoPT: Administration, budget and induction of non IPS officers

• Union Public Service Commission: Officers above the rank of Deputy SP

• Law and Justice Ministry: Public prosecutors

• Central Vigilance Commission: Anti-corruption cases

11. Solution: c)

The amended Delhi Special Police Establishment Act empowers a committee to appoint the director of CBI. The committee consists the following people:

• Prime Minister – chairperson

• Leader of Opposition – member

• Chief Justice of India or a Supreme Court Judge recommended by the Chief Justice – member



When making recommendations, the committee considers the views of the outgoing director.

Above Selection committee was constituted under The Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013. Before this central vigilance commissioner, under CVC act, had this power.

Police comes under the State governments. CVC is concerned only with the Central government and its authorities.

12. Solution: c)

Based on its motto, mission and the need to develop professionalism, transparency, adaptability to change and use of science and technology in its working, the CBI focuses on

• Combating corruption in public life, curbing economic and violent crimes through meticulous investigation and prosecution

• Evolving effective systems and procedures for successful investigation and prosecution of cases in various law courts

• Helping fight cyber and high technology crime • Creating a healthy work environment that encourages team-building, free

communication and mutual trust • Supporting state police organisations and law enforcement agencies in

national and international cooperation, particularly relating to enquiries and investigation of cases

• Playing a lead role in the war against national and transnational organised crime

• Upholding human rights, protecting the environment, arts, antiques and heritage of our civilisation

• Developing a scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform • Striving for excellence and professionalism in all spheres of functioning so

that the organisation rises to high levels of endeavor and achievement.

13. Solution: d)

The Government of India had notif ied a National Manufacturing Policy (NMP) vide Press Note dated 4 November 2011 with the objective of enhancing the share of manufacturing in GDP to 25 per cent and creating 100 million jobs over a decade. The Policy specially focuses on industries that are employment intensive, produce



capital goods, have strategic significance, and where India enjoys a competitive advantage besides small and medium enterprises and public-sector enterprises. The NMP provides for promotion of clusters and aggregation, especially through the creation of national investment and manufacturing zones (NIMZ). Till 2013-14, 16 NIMZs had been announced.

Of these, eight are along the Delhi-Mumbai Industrial Corridor (DMIC). Eight other NIMZs have been given in-principle approval: (i) Nagpur in Maharashtra, (ii) Chittoor in Andhra Pradesh, (iii) Medak in Andhra Pradesh (now Telengana), (iv) Prakasam in Andhra Pradesh, (v) Tumkur in Karnataka, (vi) Kolar in Karnataka, (vii) Bidar in Karnataka, and (viii) Gulbarga in Karnataka.

14. Solution: d)

In the recent past the Prime Minister’s Task Force on MSMEs and the Twelfth Plan Working Group on MSMEs have discussed issues related to the MSME sector.

Some of the major initiatives taken for the development of this sector are: (i) Technology Centre Systems Programme; (ii) India Inclusive Innovation Fund; (iii) Credit Linked Capital Subsidy; (iv) Credit Guarantee Scheme; (v) Prime Minister’s Employment Generation Programme; (vi) MSE-Cluster Development Programme; and (vii) Scheme for Extension of non tax benef its to MSMEs for three years.

15. Solution: d)

http://www.moneylife.in/article/fslrc-recommendations-on-rbi-stop-look-and-proceed/32137.html

16. Solution: c)

Following in the jurisdiction of Lokpal;

Prime Minister has been brought under the purview of the Lokpal.

• Lokpal’s jurisdiction will cover all categories of public servants.



• All entities receiving donations from foreign source in the context of the Foreign Contribution Regulation Act (FCRA) in excess of Rs 10 lakh per year are brought under the jurisdiction of Lokpal.

• Provides adequate protection for honest and upright public servants. • Lokpal will have power of superintendence and direction over any

investigation agency including CBI for cases referred to them by Lokpal.

17. Solution: a)

Keeping in view the prominence of housing and real estate as a major area for creation of both physical and financial assets and its contribution in overall National wealth, a need was felt for setting up of a mechanism, which could track the movement of prices in the residential housing segment. Regular monitoring of the house prices can be useful inputs for the different interest groups. Accordingly, National Housing Bank, at the behest of the Ministry of Finance, undertook a pilot study to examine the feasibility of preparing such an index at the National level.

The pilot study covered 5 cities viz. Bangalore, Bhopal, Delhi, Kolkata and Mumbai. Besides, a Technical Advisory Group (TAG), with Adviser, Ministry of Finance, as its Chairman and comprising of experts members form RBI, NSSO, CSO, Labour Bureau, NHB and other market players, was constituted to deal with all the issues relating to methodology, collection of data and also to guide the process of construction of an appropriate index . Based on the results of the study and recommendations of the TAG, NHB launched RESIDEX for tracking prices of residential properties in India, in July 2007 by Shri P. Chidambram (then Hon’ble Finance Minister).

18. Solution: d)



19. Solution: d)

The failure of the Simon commission and the Round table conference which led to the Government of India Act, 1935, to satisfy the Indian aspirations accentuated the demand for a constitution of India made by people of India without outside interference. This was officially asserted by the INC in 1935.

This was reiterated at the working committee meeting of INC in Ludhiana, 1939.

Before this period, there were demands either only to review the constitution or reform the administrative structures – not to have a constituent assembly.

20. Solution: d)

The Commission can order inquiry into any matter if there are reasonable grounds (suo-moto power). While inquiring, the Commission has the powers of a civil court in respect of the following matters:

• summoning and enforcing attendance of persons and compelling them to give oral or written evidence on oath and to produce documents or things;



• requiring the discovery and inspection of documents; • receiving evidence on affidavit; • requisitioning any public record from any court or office; • issuing summons for examination of witnesses or documents; and • any other matter which may be prescribed.

During the inquiry of a complaint, the Commission may examine any record which is under the control of the public authority and no such record may be withheld from it on any grounds. In other words, all public records must be given to the Commission during inquiry for examination.

21. Solution: a)

The Constitution (Ninety Seventh Amendment) Act 2011 relating to the co-operatives is aimed to encourage economic activities of cooperatives which in turn help progress of rural India. It is expected to not only ensure autonomous and democratic functioning of cooperatives, but also the accountability of the management to the members and other stakeholders.

As per the amendment the changes done to constitution are:-

• In Part III of the constitution, after words "or unions" the words "Cooperative Societies" was added.

• In Part IV a new Article 43B was inserted, which says: The state shall endeavour to promote voluntary formation, autonomous functioning, democratic control and professional management of the co-operative societies".

• After Part IXA of the constitution, a Part IXB was inserted to accommodate state vs centre roles.

Other features:

• It makes Right to form cooperatives is a fundamental right. • Reservation of one seat for SC/ST and two seats for women on the board of

every co-operative society.

22. Solution: c)



The Constitution imposes a duty upon the Centre to promote the spread and development of the Hindi language so that it may become the lingua franca of the composite culture of India.

Further, the Centre is directed to secure the enrichment of Hindi by assimilating the forms, style and expressions used in hindustani and in other languages specified in the Eighth Schedule and by drawing its vocabulary, primarily on sanskrit and secondarily on other languages.

Every aggrieved person has the right to submit a representation for the redress of any grievance to any officer or authority of the Union or a state in any of the languages used in the Union or in the state, as the case may be. This means that a representation cannot be rejected on the ground that it is not in the official language.

23. Solution: c)

http://www.thehindu.com/news/national/salient-features-of-lokpal-lokayuktas-bill/article5474256.ece



24. Solution: c)

Agriculture being a state subject, the primary responsibility for increasing agricultural production and productivity, exploiting untapped potential, and enhancing incomes of the farming community, rests with state governments. Their efforts are supplemented by many centrally sponsored and central sector schemes (not legislation).

Therefore, the Union Minsitry of Agriculture supports the efforts to the state to bring about greater coordination and reduce regional imbalances.

25. Solution: b)

A wind gap is a valley through which a waterway once flowed but is now dry as a result of stream capture. A water gap is a similar feature, but one in which a waterway still flows. Water gaps and wind gaps often provide practical routes for trails, roads, and railroads through mountainous terrain.

Examples of wind gaps in the Blue Ridge Mountains of Virginia include Swift Run Gap, Rockfish Gap, and Buford's Gap.

Here is an image.

Since deltas have a large sediment deposition, they prevent ships from anchoring close to the shores. There is not enough depth in the water.



26. Solution: d)

27. Solution: a)

http://www.thehindu.com/business/black-money-in-stock-markets-sebi-to-suspend-shell-companies/article6871176.ece

Crooks are increasingly using shell companies for tax evasion, money laundering and even bidding lucrative coal mines with good rail-road connectivity so they can be resold to genuine companies at a higher price (similar to 2G scam). Therefore, SEBI began an exercise to find and suspend such shell companies.

28. Solution: b)

The first indigenously built submarine is part of the Indian Navy’s ambitious submarine programme- Project 75. This programme is undertaken in collaboration France to build fleet of six such submarines.

Features about Scorpene submarine - Kalvari

• Has superior stealth capability. • Can undertake various operations including multifarious warfare, Anti-

submarine warfare, Intelligence gathering, mine laying, area surveillance etc. • Ability to launch attack on the enemy using precision guided weapons. • The attack can be launched from underwater or on surface. • Designed to operate in all theatres including the tropics.



• Built using special steel that can withstand high yield stress that can withstand high hydrostatic force and enabling to dive deeper.

• Equipped with Weapons Launching tubes (WLT) that can carry weapons on board and can be easily reloaded at sea.

29. Solution: c)

The CAT is a multi-member body consisting of a chairman and members. Earlier, the CAT consisted of a Chairman, Vice-Chairmen and members. With the amendment in Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985 in 2006, the members have been given the status of judges of High Courts. At present (2013), the sanctioned strength of the Chairman is one and sanctioned strength of the Members is 65. They are drawn from both judicial and administrative streams and are appointed by the president. They hold office for a term of five years or until they attain the age of 65 years, in case of chairman and 62 years in case of members, whichever is earlier.

Originally, appeals against the orders of the CAT could be made only in the Supreme Court and not in the high courts. However, in the Chandra Kumar case2 (1997), the Supreme Court declared this restriction on the jurisdict-ion of the high courts as unconstitutional, holding that judicial review is a part of the basic structure of the Constitution.

30. Solution: c)

What is DigiLocker?

Dedicated personal storage space, linked to each resident’s Aadhaar number. DigiLocker can be used to securely store e-documents as well as store Uniform Resource Identifier (URI) link of e-documents issued by various issuer departments. The e-Sign facility provided as part of DigiLocker system can be used to digitally sign e-documents.

How does DigiLocker work?

To Sign-up for the DigiLocker you need to have an Aadhaar and mobile number registered with Aadhaar. Type your Aadhaar number and the captcha code. After clicking signup button, an OTP (One Time Password) will be sent to the registered mobile number and email-id. Enter OTP and click on “Validate OTP” button to complete the sign up and login.

How is DigiLocker going to help me?



It will minimize the use of physical documents and will provide authenticity of the e-documents It will provide secure access to Govt. issued documents. It will also reduce administrative overhead of Govt. departments and agencies and make it easy for the residents to receive services.

From https://digitallocker.gov.in/

31. Solution: b)

His name was given to the minor planet which was previously identified as planet 4538. Now the planet will be called as 4538 Vishyanand and is located somewhere between the Mars and Jupiter. Minor planet 4538 Vishyanand was discovered on 10 October 1988 by Japanese astronormer Kenzo Suzuki. Initially, the planet was unnamed for almost 10 years.

A minor planet is a term used to describe an astronomical object that is neither a dominant planet nor a comet and thus includes the dwarf planets that orbit around the Sun. The orbital categories of these planets are the asteroids, Kuiper belt objects, trojans, centaurs and other trans-Neptunian objects. The first minor planet discovered was Ceres in 1801.

Naming of Minor Planets - Traditionally, the practice of naming a minor planet is left to its discoverer. If the discovered minor planet remained unnamed for over 10 years, than International Astronomical Union (IAU) names the planet.

32. Solution: d)

About India’s ranking: India is ranked 115 position on the economic parameter that takes into account GDP, political risk and oil intensity. This rank is same as in year 2014.

In the risk quality factor, India is ranked 109 for its quality of natural hazard and fire risk management. In this parameter, India has shown slight improvement from its 113th rank in 2014.

In the supply chain category that looks at corruption control, local supplier quality and infrastructure, India is ranked 89th position. In this category, India has fallen 11 spots from the previous year 2014.



About FM Global Resilience Index - The Index measures business resilience of 130 nations. It is based on economic, risk quality and supply chain factors. The higher ranking of country in this index indicates that it is best suited for companies seeking to avoid disruptions in their global supply chain operations.

33. Solution: c)

The new trade policy will incorporate government ambitious initiatives such as Make in India, Digital India mission, Skill India programme, ease of business in order to boost jobs and take India’s exports to 900 billion dollars by 2020.

Focus areas of the new FTP are:

• Labour intensive sectors to generate more employment. • Boosting to environment-friendly products. • High tech value addition. • Involving skill India programme to promote entrepreneurship. • Moving towards branding of products. • Incentives for units located in SEZs. • Making the life of traders easier.

The new FTP also move towards paperless working. In this regard, a facility has been created to upload documents in exporter/ importer profile in order to avoid need of repeatedly submitting documents.

34. Solution: c)

Following was included in the 97th amendment:

• Cooperatives could set up agency which would oversee election. • Uniformity in the tenure of Cooperative Board of Directors. • Provisions for incorporation, regulation and winding up of co-operative

societies based on the principles of democratic process and specifying the maximum number of directors as twenty-one.

• Providing for a fixed term of five years from the date of election in respect of the elected members of the board and its office bearers;

• Providing for a maximum time limit of six months during which a board of directors of co-operative society could be kept under suspension;



• Providing for independent professional audit; • Providing for right of information to the members of the co-operative

societies;

35. Solution: d)

The legislature of a state may adopt any one or more of the languages in use in the state or Hindi as the official language of that state.

Under this provision, most of the states have adopted the major regional language as their official language. For example, Andhra Pradesh has adopted Telugu, Kerala—Malayalam, Assam—Assamese, West Bengal—Bengali, Odisha—Odia. The nine northern states of Himachal Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Bihar, Jharkhand, Haryana and Rajasthan have adopted Hindi. Gujarat has adopted Hindi in addition to Gujarati.

Similarly, Goa has adopted Marathi in addition to Konkani Jammu and Kashmir has adopted Urdu (and not Kashmiri). On the other hand, certain north-eastern States like Meghalaya, Arunachal Pradesh and Nagaland have adopted English. Notably, the choice of the state is not limited to the languages enumerated in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution.

36. Solution: c)

When the President (on a demand being made) is satisfied that a substantial proportion of the population of a state desire the use of any language spoken by them to be recognised by that state, then he may direct that such language shall also be officially recognised in that state. This provision aims at protecting the linguistic interests of minorities in the states.

Also refer to http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Languages_of_India#State_level

37. Solution: a)

Fisheries is an important source of livelihood and f ish, are an important source of protein. There are 14.4 million fishermen in the country. India ranks second in world f ish production, contributing about 5.4 per cent of global f ish production. It is also a major producer of f ish through aquaculture. Total fish production during 2013-14 is



estimated at 9.45 mt with 6.10 mt coming from the inland sector and 3.35 mt from the marine sector. The sector contributes about 1 per cent to overall GDP and represents 4.6 per cent of agri GDP.

38. Solution: d)

39. Solution: a)

The nodal agency that undertakes open-ended procurement, distribution, and storage of foodgrains is the Food Corporation of India (FCI) with other central and state agencies. Coarse grains are procured by state governments and their agencies.

The National Agricultural Cooperative Marketing Federation of India Limited (NAFED), National Cooperative Consumers’ Federation of India Limited (NCCF), CWC, and SFAC are the central nodal agencies that undertake procurement of oilseeds and pulses under the Price Support Scheme (PSS) when the market rates of these commodities fall below MSP. However, procurement operations are found to be successful largely for rice and wheat and that too only in a few states like Punjab, Haryana, Andhra Pradesh, and Madhya Pradesh.



To enhance eff iciency in procurement and public distribution and to extend the benef its of MSP to local farmers, the Decentralized Procurement Scheme (DCP) is adopted by some state governments. For paddy it has been adopted by West Bengal, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Uttarakhand, Andaman and Nicobar Islands, Odisha, Tamil Nadu, Gujarat, Karnataka, Kerala, and Bihar; and by Andhra Pradesh in KMS 2013-14 in 10 districts.

40. Solution: a)

41. Solution: d)

A river delta is low-lying plain or landform that occurs at the mouth of a river near where the river flows into the ocean or other body of water. Deltas are important to both human activities and fish and other wildlife because they are normally home to very fertile soil as well as a large amount of vegetation.

Most rivers begin at high elevations where snow, rain and other precipitation run downhill into creeks and small streams. As these small waterways flow farther downhill they eventually meet and form rivers.



In many cases these rivers then flow toward larger the ocean or another body of water and oftentimes they combine with other rivers. At the lowest part of the river is the delta. It is in these areas where the river's flow slows and spreads out to create sediment-rich dry areas and bio-diverse wetlands.

River deltas are some of the most biodiverse areas on the planet and as such it is essential that they remain healthy to provide habitat for the many species of plants, animals, insects and fish that live in them. There are many different species of rare, threatened and endangered species living in deltas and wetlands.

42. Solution: d)

Factors influencing formation of deltas:

• Amount and type of sediment available.

• Variations in volume of water discharged from river.

• Aspect and geometry of coast.

• Coastal processes in operation, for example, wave action.

• Changes in coast level.

• Impacts of climate on growth of vegetation and marine organisms.

Deltas are especially favourable for agriculture, due to the deposition of fine sediment, but at the same time are places of high flood risk as shown by the Ganges Delta.

Moreover, there should not streams that cut at right angles, that could wash sediments away.

Also, if any large lake is present, all sediment on way be deposited in the lake itself and the delta will not be formed.

43. Solution: a)

The existing extension and IT schemes from the Eleventh Plan were strengthened, expanded, and scaled up appropriately and implemented as components of the Sub Mission on Agricultural Extension (SMAE) under the National Mission on Agricultural Extension and Technology (NMAET).



Greater role has been envisaged for the states in implementation and monitoring. The schemes subsumed under the SMAE include: District-level Agriculture Technology Management Agencies (ATMAs) that have been set up in 639 rural districts of 28 states and 3 union territories (UT) across the country-these have benef ited 28.5 million farmers, 25.6 per cent of whom were women; Mass Media and Kisan Call Centre schemes, Central-sector Establishment of Agri-Clinics and Agri-Business Centres (ACABC) Scheme; SMS portal for farmers.

44. Solution: d)

A wide array of crops from fruits and vegetables to nuts, spices, medicinal plants, flowers, and plantation crops, provides many opportunities for income generation. Globally India is the second largest producer of fruits and vegetables; the largest producer of mango, banana, coconut, cashew, papaya, and pomegranate; and the largest producer and exporter of spices. Horticulture production, estimated at 265 million tonnes, exceeded the production of foodgrains and oilseeds in 2012-13 owing to an 8.6 per cent increase in productivity of horticulture crops between 2008-09 and 2012-13.

45. Solution: c)

46. Solution: d)



Vertical erosion is dominant in upper reaches because of

I. high speed of river II. low sediment load

III. high gradient IV. bed erosion

Basically river rejuvenation is a term used when the river starts becoming young again (back from mature and old stage). Incised meanders are formed when river (in its upper courses) develops deep valleys and gorges. And existing meanders are vertically eroded by the rejuvenating stream.

47. Solution: b)

https://nsidc.org/cryosphere/glaciers/gallery/piedmont.html

An image of a piedmont glacier

48. Solution: c)



The all-India services are controlled jointly by the Central and state governments. The ultimate control lies with the Central government while the immediate control is vested in the state governments. Any disciplinary action (imposition of penalties) against these officers can only be taken by the Central government.

The personnel of Central services work under the exclusive jurisdiction of the Central government. They hold specialised (functional and technical) positions in various departments of the Central government.

The personnel of state services work under the exclusive jurisdiction of the state government. They hold different positions (general, functional and technical) in the departments of the state government.

However, they occupy lower positions (in the administrative hierarchy of the state) than those held by the members of the all-India services (IAS, IPS and IFS).

49. Solution: a)

The Centre, the states, local bodies, public corporations and other public authorities can have the services of a dedicated tribunal. In other words, Article 323 A enables the Parliament to take out the adjudication of disputes relating to service matters from the civil courts and the high courts and place it before the administrative tribunals.

In pursuance of Article 323 A, the Parliament has passed the Administrative Tribunals Act in 1985.

The act authorises the Central government to establish one Central administrative tribunal and the state administrative tribunals. This act opened a new chapter in the sphere of providing speedy and inexpensive justice to the aggrieved public servants.

50. Solution: d)

This link offers a comprehensive account of desert formation

https://faculty.unlv.edu/landau/desertgeography.htm

51. Solution: a)



http://www.waterencyclopedia.com/Hy-La/Lake-Formation.html

52. Solution: a)

http://www.livemint.com/Money/rUapzQTYbqwJi1yLAwI3jP/Reserve-Banks-longterm-game-plan.html

53. Solution: d)

http://www.clickgreen.org.uk/product/directory/125055-petrol-vs-diesel-which-is-more-environmentally-friendly-.html

http://www.bbc.com/news/science-environment-30381223

54. Solution: a)

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Drainage_system_(geomorphology)#Dendritic_drainage_pattern

55. Solution: d)



56. Solution: d)

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Yalu_River

57. Solution: d)

Increased fertilizer usage has played a significant role in improving agricultural productivity. Urea, which is the main source of nitrogen (N), constitutes around 50 per cent of total fertilizer consumption. India meets 80 per cent of urea requirement through indigenous production, but is largely import dependent for its potassic (K) and phosphatic (P) fertilizer requirements.

A modified New Pricing Scheme (NPS)-III for existing urea units, notified to address under-recoveries of existing urea units due to freezing of fixed cost at 2002-03 rates will be implemented for one year from 2 April 2014.

58. Solution: a)

http://www.downtoearth.org.in/content/pesticide-and-antibiotic-use-threaten-food-safety-india



59. Solution: c)

http://www.downtoearth.org.in/content/government-releases-national-air-quality-index-cse-welcomes-it

60. Solution: b)

With the shadow of the El Niño looming over the Indian monsoon, there are legitimate concerns about its likely impact on agricultural production and consequently prices of food products. What is significant is that over the last decade Indian agriculture has become more robust with record production of foodgrains and oilseeds.

Increased procurement, consequently, has added huge stocks of foodgrains in the granaries. India is one of the world’s top producers of rice, wheat, milk, fruits, and vegetables.

However, given that India is still home to a quarter of all undernourished people in the world and since on an average almost half the total expenditure of about half the households is on food, increasing the efficiency of the farm-to-fork value chain is crucial for eliminating poverty and malnutrition.

61. Solution: b)

The CAT is not bound by the procedure laid down in the Civil Procedure Code of 1908. It is guided by the principles of natural justice. These principles keep the CAT flexible in approach. Only a nominal fee of `50 is to be paid by the applicant. The applicant may appear either in person or through a lawyer.

The Principles of Natural Justice have come out from the need of man to protect himself from the excesses of organized power man has always appealed to someone beyond his own creation. Such someone is the God and His laws, divine law or natural law, to which all temporal laws and actions must confirm.

Natural Law is of the 'higher law of nature' or 'natural law'

Two core points in the concept of principles of natural justice



1. Nemo in propria causa judex, esse debet - No one should be made a judge in his own case, or the rule against bias.

2. Audi alteram partem - Hear the other party, or the rule of fair hearing, or the rule that no one should be condemned unheard.

These two are the basic pillars of the Principles of Natural Justice. No system of law can survive without these two basic pillars.

62. Solution: a)

While Article 323 A contemplates establishment of tribunals for public service matters only, Article 323 B contemplates establishment of tribunals for certain other matters (mentioned above).

While tribunals under Article 323 A can be established only by Parliament, tribunals under Article 323 B can be established both by Parliament and state legislatures with respect to matters falling within their legislative competence.

Following matters can be adjudicated by separately established tribunals as per the Article 323 B of the Constitution:

o Taxation o Foreign exchange, import and export o Industrial and labour o Land reforms o Ceiling on urban property o Elections to Parliament and state legislatures o Food stuffs o Rent and tenancy rights

63. Solution: a)

The civil servants are conferred personal immunity from legal liability for official contracts. This means that the civil servant who made a contract in his official capacity is not personally liable in respect of that contract but it is the government (Central or state) that is liable for the contract. But, if the contract is made without complying the conditions specified in the Constitution, then the civil servant who made the contract is personally liable.



Further, the civil servants also enjoy immunity from legal liability for their tortious acts in respect of the sovereign functions of the government. In other cases, the liability of the civil servants for torts or illegal acts is the same as of any ordinary citizen.

64. Solution: d)

65. Solution: c)

The government has also notified the Public Procurement Policy for Micro & Small Enterprises (MSEs) order 2012. The policy mandates that every central ministry/department/public sector-undertaking shall set a minimum annual procurement goal of 20 per cent of total product and service purchases from MSEs from f inancial year 2012-13 onwards, in a period of three years. Further, the policy has also earmarked a sub-target of 4 per cent of this 20 per cent for MSEs owned by Scheduled caste (SC)/Scheduled tribe (ST)entrepreneurs.



66. Solution: c)

In fact, all these sectors received the maximum FDI.

During 2013-14, total FDI inflows (including equity inflows, reinvested earnings, and other capital) were US$ 36.4 billion. FDI equity inflows were US$ 24.30 billion, showing an increase of 8 per cent as compared to the previous year. Cumulative FDI inflows from April 2000 to March 2014 stood at US$ 323.9 billion. Net FDI inflows were US$ 21.6 billion during 2013-14. In recent years, services, construction, telecommunications, computer software and hardware, drugs and pharmaceuticals, automobile industry, power, metallurgical industries, and hotels and tourism are sectors that have attracted maximum FDI inflows.

67. Solution: a)



http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Glacial_landform

68. Solution: d)

https://www.asf.alaska.edu/blog/how-do-glaciers-move/

69. Solution: a)



70. Solution: d)

Services share in world GDP was 65.9 per cent. But its share in employment was only 44.0 per cent in 2012. However, for the top 15 countries (in terms of services GDP), except India and China,

the shares of both services GDP and services employment are high and close to each other. In China, the shares of both services income and services employment are low. In the Indian case the services sector had a high share in income at 56.9 per cent in 2012 with a lower share of 28.1 per cent in employment and the gap between the two widening from 27.3 percentage points in 2001 to 28.8 percentage points in 2012.

India’s share in world services exports, which increased from 0.6 per cent in 1990 to 1.1 per cent in 2000 and further to 3.3 per cent in 2013, has been increasing faster than its share in world merchandise exports. While the growth rate of services exports of India has been higher than that of the world for all the years since 1996 (except 2009), in 2013 this has been reversed.

71. Solution: c)

The Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) is the main agency for preventing corruption in the Central government. It was established in 1964 by an executive resolution of the Central government. Its establishment was recommended by the Santhanam Committee on Prevention of Corruption (1962–64).

Thus, originally the CVC was neither a constitutional body nor a statutory body. Recently, in September 2003, the Parliament enacted a law conferring statutory status on the CVC.

In 2004, the Government of India authorised the CVC as the “Designated Agency” to receive written complaints for disclosure on any allegation of corruption or misuse of office and recommend appropriate action.

The CVC is conceived to be the apex vigilance institution, free of control from any executive authority, monitoring all vigilance activity under the Central Government and advising various authorities in Central Government organisations in planning, executing, reviewing and reforming their vigilance work.



72. Solution: d)

The main proposals of the mission were as follows:

--An Indian Union with a dominion status; would be set up; it would be free to decide its relations with the Commonwealth and free to participate in the United Nations and other international bodies.

--After the end of the war, a constituent assembly would be convened to frame a new constitution. Members of this assembly would be partly elected by the provincial assemblies through proportional representation and partly nominated by the princes.

--The British Government would accept the new constitution subject to two conditions.

(i) any province not willing to join the Union could have a separate constitution and form a separate Union, and

(ii) the new constitution- making body and the British Government would negotiate a treaty to effect the transfer of power and to safeguard racial and religious minorities.

--In the meantime, defence of India would remain in British hands and the governor-general’s powers would remain intact.

73. Solution: d)

In the past decade, the El Niño occurred in 2002, 2004, 2006, and 2009. While 2002-03 was the only year that India showed negative agri sector growth with average rainfall dropping 20 per cent below normal, 2009-10 experienced the most severe drought in nearly 40 years with total rainfall being 23 per cent below normal. A comparison of the changes in kharif and rabi production during the last four occurrences of El Niño reveals that the impact was more in the kharif season.

The Extended Range Forecast System (ERFS provided by the IMD) seasonal forecast for this monsoon season indicates the probability of lower rainfall in the rainfed regions of central, south, and north-west India, which may affect crops like rice, soybean, cotton, maize, jowar, groundnut, and sugarcane.

The f ifth South Asian Climate Outlook Forum (SASCOF-5) session forecast monsoon def icit rainfall mainly in the southern peninsula and central India.



74. Solution: d)

Robustness of the agri sector can be attributed to the steady increase in GCF (both public and private) from 16.1 per cent of its GDP in 2007-08 to 21.2 per cent in 2012-13 (2004-05 prices).

However, public expenditure (comprising public investments and input subsidies) has been ceding its share in total GCF of the agri sector to the private sector and was 14.7 per cent in 2012-13. As a percentage of agri GDP also private investment has been rising and was 18.1 per cent in 2012-13. The quality of public GCF, which is largely directed towards subsidies, is also of concern.

The largest increase in private GCF was in labour-saving machines such as irrigation and water-saving equipment , evidently a result of the declining rural workforce and rising real wages.

75. Solution: d)

Seed quality accounts for 20-25 per cent of crop productivity.

As hybrid seeds in cross-pollinated crops give higher yields, greater emphasis was placed on their production; thus, their availability has been higher than the requirement. Important policy initiatives under the amended New Policy on Seed Development (NPSD) include permitting 100 per cent foreign direct investment (FDI) under the automatic route and simplifying the procedure for inclusion of new varieties in the Organisation for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD) Seeds Scheme.

The thrust is also on creating a seed bank. A Seed Rolling Plan for the period up to 2016-17 is in place for all the states since 2013-14 for identification of good varieties for the seed chain, and agencies responsible for production of seeds at every level.

1. Solution: a)

Documents

Transcript of 1. Solution: a)