1. Sample CMAT Question Paper

7/27/2019 1. Sample CMAT Question Paper

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CPLC/Sample CMAT 1

Section 1:

Quantitative and Data Interpretation & Sufficiency

1. Ratio of addition and product of 3 numbers which are in A.P. is 3: 140. Then what is the ratio of LCM to GCF if

middle number is 12?

(a) 140 : 3 (b)180 : 1 (c) 200 : 3 (d)210 : 1

2. Two friends A and B were caught while copying in the examination. The punishment given to them was, they

have to run from the opposite ends of the playground 25 meters long towards each other. If A is running at a speedof 10 meters per min and B is running at the rate of 15 meters per min, then how many times will they meet in 14

minutes?

(a)

7 times (b) 28 times (c) 3 times (d) 4 times

3. Group A contains 4 girls, P, Q, R, S and group B contains 4 boys, Z, Y, X, W. A committee of 4 people is to beformed such that there should be 2 girls from group A and 2 boys from group B. If P and Z do not want to be

selected on the same committee, then in how many ways the committee will be formed?

(a) 45 (b) 50 (c) 54 (d) 60

Direction for Questions 4 and 5

The line graph below gives us the number of drug addicts in the periond 2002-08

7.16.8

7.3

6.87 6.9 7

4.3 4.24.5

4.1 4.23.9

4.2

1.5 1.5 1.6 1.51.7 1.6

1.4

1.5 1.4 1.4 1.51.6 1.7 1.7

0

1

2

3

4

5

6

7

8

2002 2003 2004 2005 2006 2007 2008

N

umbersinmillions

lllicit Drugs

Marijuana

Cocaine

Pain Relievers


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2 CPLC/Sample CMAT

4. In which of the following year is the increase in drugs the maximum?

(a)

Illicit Drugs, 2004 (b) Cocaine, 2006 (c) Pain Relievers, 2008 (d) Marijuana 2004

5. If in year 2009, the number of people who are addicted to Marijuana increases at the same rate as in year 2004. If

the number of people addicted to illicit drugs decrease as this calculated rate for the year 2009, then what is the

average number of people addicted to Marijuana and illicit drugs in 2009?

(a) 5.50 million (b) 2.50 million (c) 3.25 million (d) 5.20 million

6. Two circles of center N and O are internally touches each other at point D. A point N is lie on the circumference

of smaller circle and AD is diagonal of bigger circle (A-N-O-D). If radius of inner circle is 4 cm, then find the

length of tangent AB to the smaller circle.

(a) 12.892 cms (b) 10.827 cms (c) 13.044 cms (d) 11.312 cms

7. There are 100 consecutive even nos in ascending order average of 1st

50 nos is N then what is the average of all

the nos?

(a) N + 49 (b) N + 50 (c) N + 51 (d) N + 30

8. Solve the following equation form,

( ) ( )m

5

5

m8

2

3m=

+

(a)

14

15011

(b) 13

14011

(c) 14

14011

(d) 12

14011

Directions for questions 9 and 10: Answer these questions on the basis of the information given below.

Inflow and Outflow of Funds of Indian Railways for the year 2001

Miscellaneo

us

5% GoodReceipts

45%

Passenger

Receipt

30%

Fine

Receipts

5%

Sundry

Earnings

15%

INFLOW OF FUNDS


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CPLC/Sample CMAT 3

Profit = Inflow Outflow

9. If the inflow of funds was Rs.18,000 crore and Outflow was Rs.20,000 crore, what is the different between the

amount received from goods receipts and the amount spent on fuel?

(a) Rs.3,200 crore (b) Rs.4,100 crore (c) Rs.5,100 crore (d) Rs.1,000 crore

10. If the sum of sundry earning and fine receipts is Rs. 5,000 crore, what would the profit/loss be, given that the

sum of pensions and dividend is Rs. 1,800 crore?

a) Rs. 8,000 crore profit b) Rs. 10,000 crore profit

c) Rs. 12,000 crore loss d) Rs. 10,000 crore loss

11. Find the area of the sphere, if the right circular cylinder of height 5cm and surface area 88cm2

is placed at the

center of the sphere with its circular part touching the surface of the sphere.

=

7

22

(a) 52.84 cm

2(b) 55.82 cm

2(c) 50.28 cm

2(d) 58.90 cm

2

12. Two taps T1 and T2 are used to fill two tanks of the same volume. T1 starts after T2 has filled half the other tank

and fills its own tank taking 10s more than the time required by T2 to fill the whole tank. Next T2 doubles its rateand takes 5s less than T1. What is the ratio of the slower tap to the faster?

(a) 1 : 1 (b) 1 : 3 (c) 2 : 3 (d) 1 : 2

13. A shopkeeper sold two computers. One of them is sold for 20% profit and the second is sold for 20% loss. If the

selling price of the first computer equals the cost price of the second computer. Find the effective profit/loss

percentage approximately.

(a) 1 % loss (b) 1 % profit (c) 2 % loss (d) 2 % profit

Stores10%

Wages30%

LeaseCharges

20%

Pensions

7%

Capital &

other funds

8%

Dividends

5%

Fuel20%

OUTFLOW OF FUNDS


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4 CPLC/Sample CMAT

Directions for Questions 14 and 15:

A meeting was conducted in the state affairs ministry to decide the prices of few new brands of the regular items that

would be available in the government run and government funded markets for the people of state. The price of each

items was discussed by quoting a reference price, then the members in the meeting would quote the price they feel,

and finally the price would be finalized by gaining a majority. Another year, same meeting was conducted amongst

the same members and for same items. The highest and Lowest columns indicate the Highest price and lowest price

quoted by a member or group of members for that item in that meeting. All the prices discussed are in rupees.

2008 2009

Item Reference Highest Lowest Finalized Reference Highest Lowest Finalized

Petrol (1

litre) 60 72 55 70 63 77 60 75

Diesel (1

litre)40 51 39 48 43 53 41 50

Sugar (per

kg)36 40 32 40 40 47 39 45

Milk (per

litre)32 33 22 30 35 36 30 35

Onions(per kg)

39 39 35 35 40 41 40 41

Kerosene

(per litre)50 50 50 50 51 52 50 50

State bus

transport

(per km)

6 9 4 8 7 12 5 10

Jaggery

(per kg)72 81 66 78 69 82 66 80

Castor oil

(per litre)57 73 55 71 62 80 52 58

Rice(per

kg)82 93 81 85 90 99 87 94

Wheat(per kg) 83 88 80 88 82 89 78 89


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CPLC/Sample CMAT 5

14. Which item has the highest difference in the finalized price and lowest quoted price in two years?

(a) Petrol (b) Wheat (c) Jaggery (d) None of these

15. Which item had the highest percentage change for highest price as a percentage of lowest price quoted in the

year 2009?

(a) Castor oil (b) Diesel (c) State Bus Transport (d) None of these

16. All the 2-digit numbers from 10 to 90 are written consecutively so as to form the number X =

101112.....87888990. What is the largest power of 9 that divides X?

(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 7

17. The value of f

n

(x) if n = 2k+1 where k is a positive integer is(a)1 x

3(b) 1+ x

3(c) (1 x

3)

1/3(d) x

Directions for questions 18 and 19: Answer these questions on the basic of the information given below.

Distribution of marks scored by four candidates Dhruv, Satish, Bijay and Andrique.

(As a percentage of their respective total marks)

0%

10%

20%

30%

40%

50%

60%

70%

80%

90%

100%

Dhruv Satish Bijay Andrique

Andrique

Maths

Chemistry

Physics


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6 CPLC/Sample CMAT

18. If the total marks of Satish are less than the total marks of Bijay but more than the total marks of Dhruv, then

which of the following statements is definitely true?

(a) The marks scored by Satish in Physics are less than the marks scored by Dhruv in Maths.

(b) The total marks scored by Bijay in Chemistry and Biology combined are more than the marks scored by Satish in

Physics.

(c) The marks scored by Andrique in Chemistry are more than the marks scored by Dhruv in Maths.

(d) The total marks scored by Dhruv in Maths and Biology combined are more than the marks scored by Bijay in

Chemistry.

19. If Andrique scored the same marks in Physics as Dhruv scored in Chemistry, then what the ratio of the total

marks scored by Andrique to the total marks scored by Dhruv?

(a) 2 : 3 (b) 1 : 2 (c) 1 : 3 (d) 3 : 2

20. Amar, Akbar and Anthony decided to start a trading business. The ratio of the investments of Amar, Akbar and

Anthony, were 4 : 7 : 9. Amar specializes in accounts and hence also manages the accounts of the company for

which he is paid a fixed salary of Rs. 2500 monthly. Whereas, Akbar specializes in marketing and obtains orders for

the company for which he gets 20% of the total profits after the salary to Amar is paid. The remaining profit is

shared among them in the ratio of their investment. If then Akbar is manages to take home Rs.48,000 Then what is

the profit earned by Anthony?

(a) 24,000 (b) 46,000 (c) 48,000 (d) 36,000

21. A boy has 6 green and 4 white marbles in his first pocket, 5 white and 3 green marbles in his second pocket. Ifhe randomly takes out one marble from his pocket, then find the probability that selected marble is green.

(a)40

9(b)

40

3(c)

40

39(d)

80

39

22. A can is filled to its capacity with petrol. Fifteen liters of petrol is withdrawn from it and replaced by kerosene.This procedure is repeated again. The vessel now has 48 liters of petrol. Find the capacity of the can (in liters).

(a) 50 (b) 60 (c) 75 (d) 80

23. x and y are two positive numbers which satisfy the equation log16 (x) = log28 (y) = log49 (x + y). Find the value of

xy ?

a)4

3b)

1

2(1 + 3 ) c)

8

5d)

1

2(1 + 5 )

.


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CPLC/Sample CMAT 7

24. What would be the area of a regular hexagon, if the area of the circumscribed circle around it is 2464 cm2

andthe area of the inscribed circle is 1386 cm

2?

(a) 2cm14441 (b)2

7441 cm

2

(c)2

7443 cm

2

(d)

2cm14431

25. If a, b, c, d, e and f are integers and a + b + c + d + e + f = 2005, what is the minimum value of

( 1)a + 1

+ 1 + 1

+ 1 + 1

a) 5 b) 4 c) 2 d) 0


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8 CPLC/Sample CMAT

Section 2:

Analytical & Logical Reasoning

Direction for Questions 26 and 27: Refer to the following information and answer the questions that follow.

A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers, rearranges them by

following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and steps of rearrangement.

Input book 58 mass 42 31 sheep ring 75

Step I sheep book 58 mass 42 31 ring 75

Step II sheep 75 book 58 mass 42 31 ring

Step III sheep 75 ring book 58 mass 42 31

Step IV sheep 75 ring 58 book mass 42 31

Step V sheep 75 ring 58 mass book 42 31

Step VI sheep 75

Step VI Is the last step

26. If the step II of an input is:

work 86 earn 21 pity beam 43 54

Which of the following will be the last step?

a) VIth b) VIIth c) Vth d) VIIIth e) None of these

27. If Input:

95 84 get man farm 29 61 dine

Which of the following steps would be man 95 get 84 farm 61 29 dine?

a) IVth b) IIIrd c) Vth d) IInd e) None of these

Direction: Q.28 to 30 are based on below mentioned information

A family consisting of 6 members namely- man, his wife, his daughter, his son, his mother and his father. They all

sit for a dinner on a rectangular table. Only males can sit on the smaller sides and the mans father has to sit on one

of the smaller sides. Both the children cant sit on the same side of the table and also not opposite to each other.

Also, mother and wife cant sit on same side or opposite to each other. The daughter has to sit on the right of his

grandfather.

28. In how many ways can the family sit for dinner according to the given conditions?

(a) 4 (b) 6 (c) 8 (d)5


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CPLC/Sample CMAT 9

29. If daughter and mother are sitting together on the same side, which of the following one can sit along with wife

on same side?

(a) Only Man (b) Only Son (c) Only Daughter (d) Either Man or Son

30. Who cant sit to the right of Man?

(a) Mother (b) Father (c) Wife (d) Son

Direction for Questions 31 and 32: Each question is followed by two statements, I and II.

Mark a), if statement I is sufficient to answer the question and statement II is not sufficient to answer the question.

Mark b), if statement II is sufficient to answer the question and statement I is not sufficient to answer the question.

Mark c), if either statement I or statement II is sufficient to answer the question.

Mark d), if neither statement I nor statements II are sufficient to answer the question.

Mark e), if both the statements together are sufficient to answer the questions.

31. A, B, C, D and E are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. Who is second to the left of D?

I. C is second to the right of B.

II. E is the only person sitting between A and D.

32. In a pile of five books, how many books are kept between Botany and Civics books?

I. Physics book is at the top and the G.K. book is at the bottom.

II. There is no book between the book at the top and the Botany book and there is one book between the book at the

bottom and the G.K. book.

Directions for the Questions 33 to 35: The question contains a statement followed by four possible conclusions.

Choose the one which that logically follows.

33. Unless Rita studies hard, she will not pass her exam.

(a) Rita studied hard implies she passed the exam.

(b) Rita did not study hard implies she did not pass the exam.

(c) Rita studied hard implies she failed the exam.

(d) Rita did not study hard implies she passed the exam.

34. When Virat hits a six, Dhoni dances.

(a) Dhoni dances implies that Virat has hit a six.

(b) Dhoni does not dance implies Virat has not hit a six.

(c) Dhoni does not dance implies Virat has hit a six.

(d) Dhoni dances implies that Virat has not hit a six.


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10 CPLC/Sample CMAT

35. Either Harry is late for the class or Harry doesnt want to attend the class.

(a) Harry wants to attend the class and he is late.(b) Harry wants to attend the class and he is not late

(c) Harry is late and does not want to attend the class.

(d) Harry is late and wants to attend the class.

Direction for questions 36 and 37: Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow

I. H, I, J, K, L, M are six sportsmen who play six different games Football, Hockey, Cricket, Volleyball, Tennis

and Basketball.

II. Each one of them stays in one of the hostel dorms A, B, C, D, E and F.

III. No two of them stay in the same dorm.

IV. J who plays volleyball does not stay in dorm B or D.

V. The person who plays Football stays in dorm E.

VI. K plays Tennis and stays in Dorm C.VII. I stays in dorm F.

VIII. H and L play Basketball and Cricket respectively.

IX. Additional data given for any question should be used for that question only.

36. Which of the following combinations is not correct?

(a) I Hockey (b) M Football (c) M Dorm A (d) L Cricket

37. If L stays in Dorm B, who stays in Dorm D?

(a) H (b) J (c) M (d) Data Insufficient

38. If PROBLEM is coded as LJMZPWO, then SOLVING is coded as:

(a) INOFSNU (b) IMPFSMU (c) IMPFSNU (d) HMOFRNU

39. Find the next term in the given series

5, 40, 135, 320, 625, 1080, ?

(a) 1705 (b) 1815 (c) 1715 (d) 1714

Direction for Questions 40 and 41. In these questions, certain symbols have been used to indicate relationships

between elements as follows:

A + B A is neither smaller than nor greater than B.A B A is not greater than B.A B A is neither smaller than nor equal to B.A ~ B A is neither greater than nor equal to B.A B A is not smaller than B.

In each of the question, three statements showing relationships have been given, which are followed by two

conclusions I and II. Assuming that the given statements are true, which of the two conclusions I and II is/are

definitely true? Mark


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CPLC/Sample CMAT 11

a) only conclusion I is true.

b) only conclusion II is true.c) either conclusion I or II is true.

d) neither conclusion I nor II is true.

e) both conclusions I and II are true.

40.

Statement: E + Y, O Y, O C

Conclusions: I. E ~ C

II. C + E

41.Statement : Q F, F ~ K, K + Z

Conclusions : I. Q Z

II . Z F

Directions for question 42 and 43: There are 4 teams playing in the football league tournament called La Liga

where every team faces every other team exactly once. The team is awarded 3 points for every win and 1 point for

every match it draws. No point is awarded of the team loses a match. The table shown below is the snapshot of the

points tally and goals scored and conceded by the teams during the ongoing tournament. Few matches are left and

this is just a partial table of the scores. The total number of goals scored till now are 13.

Team Played Wins Losses DrawsGoals

scored

Goals

conceded

Points

tally

RealMadrid 3 7

Barcelona 0 5 4

Valencia 1 2 0

Villareal 2 0 6 0

42. How many matches has Barcelona played til l now?

(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 1 (d) Cannot be determined

43. What is the number of goals conceded by Villareal against Barcelona till now?

(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 5

Direction for questions 44 to 46 : Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.

The theme for a birthday party is circus. Kids and parents alike have to come dressed as clowns, trapeze artists,

ringmasters, gymnasts, goblins, magicians. However there are certain conditions.

1. In a family of not less than 4 invitees if there is a trapeze artist there has to be a ringmaster.

2. Ringmasters and magicians cannot be from the same family.

3. Only kids can become goblins.


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12 CPLC/Sample CMAT

4. No two families can have the same combination of disguises.5. Girls cannot come dressed as gymnasts.

6. The same disguise cannot be repeated in the family.

The guests include

The Ghoshes a family of two adults and one male child.

The Mehras a family of two adults and two kids (male and female).

The Marathes a family of two adults and two kids (both males).

Mr. Marathe is disguised as a Ringmaster.

Mrs. Mehra is disguised as a Gymnast.

Mrs. Mehta is dressed as a Clown.

One of Mehras child is a Goblin.

44. Assuming that the Marathes had decided first what to wear how many possible combinations of dresses can theMarathe family wear?

(a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 3

45. Assuming that one of the Marathe kids have taken up the costume of a Goblin and Mrs. Mehra is a Clown and

Mr. Mehra does not want to be a Trape Artist. If Mr. Mehra also rules out the possibility of being a Gymnast, how

many combinations are possible?

(a) 4 (b) 6 (c) 3 (d) 2

46. Mr. Ghosh is a magician and his son a Goblin, then which of the following conditions will hold true?

(a) Mrs. Ghosh will definitely have to be either a Ringmaster or a Trapeze Artist.(b) Mrs. Ghosh can be either a Clown or a Trapeze Artists.

(c) Mrs. Ghosh has to be a Trapeze Artist.

(d) Mrs. Ghosh can either be a Ringmaster or a Clown.

Directions for questions 47 and 48: The question contains six statements followed by four sets of three statements.

Choose the set in which the statements are logically related.

47.

1. No fruits are flowers

2. Some flowers are seeds

3. Some vegetables are not flowers

4.

Some seeds are vegetables

5. Some vegetables are fruits

6. All seeds are flowers

(a) 2, 3, 6 (b) 4, 2, 3 (c) 5, 1, 3 (d) 3, 6, 1


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CPLC/Sample CMAT 13

48.

1. All clever are well-behaved

2. All students are clever

3. All clever are girls

4. All clever are students

5. All girls are well-behaved

6. All well-behaved are students

(a) 1, 2, 3 (b) 3, 4, 5 (c) 2, 4, 6 (d) 3, 5, 1

49. In a class of 800 students, 50% students passed in Mathematics, 40% students passed in Physics and 35%

students passed in Biology. If 12% students passed in all three subjects, then what percentage of students passed in

exactly two subjects assuming all students passed in at least one subject?

(a) 3 % (b) 1 % (c) 5 % (d) 8 %

50. In a degree college, only PCM combination is available with 88% seats. 31% students have taken physics, 39%

have taken chemistry and 41% students have taken maths. The college started a special course of statistics. 17%

students are there in this batch where only maths or stats students are allowed to attend lectures. 8% students havetaken physics and maths, 10% students have taken physics and chemistry 9% students have taken maths and

chemistry. Then how many maths students attend stats lectures if 4% students have taken all 3 subjects i.e. PCM

(There are 4000 students in the college)?

(a) 50 (b) 75 (c) 125 (d) 200


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14 CPLC/Sample CMAT

Section 3:

General English

Q. 51-58. Read the following passages and answer the questions.

Passage 1

An unidentified flying object (UFO) is an object which is observed in the sky, but cannot be identified. While people

have been spotting mysterious objects in the sky for centuries, claims of UFO sightings exploded in the wake of theSecond World War. Attitudes about UFOs vary widely, with some people believing that such objects have a

perfectly logical scientific explanation, while others have suggested that the origin of UFOs is paranormal in nature.

People who support a paranormal explanation for UFOs are sometimes referred to as believers, referencing the

idea that they believe in paranormal phenomena. It may come as a surprise to learn that the vast number of UFO

sightings reported each year are later downgraded to IFOs, or identified flying objects. Claims of genuine UFOs

are rare, and hard to confirm, usually due to lack of photographic evidence or reliable witnesses. Some believers

accuse skeptics of suppressing evidence which would support a more paranormal explanation for UFOs, arguing that

there is a conspiracy to hide the truth. The UFO craze really started in 1947, when a pilot named Kenneth Arnold

reported seeing a flying object which he likened to a saucer, coining the term flying saucer along the way. Arnold

was viewed as a reasonably credible witness, and his sketches of the mysterious object got a lot of press,

undoubtedly inflaming the collective imagination. Today, UFO believers can share information about sightings,

along with conspiracy theories, on numerous websites and forums.

When examining the history of the UFO, it is interesting to note that sightings greatly increased after the close of

World War Two, when numerous nations started experimenting with cutting-edge aircraft. Experimental aircraft

associated with the military obviously have to be tested at some point, and such aircraft often look extremely

strange. Due to security reasons, sightings of experimental aircraft cannot be confirmed or explained, so it is

possible that the UFOs which believers think are whizzing across the sky at all hours are actually just extremely

sophisticated planes. It should also be noted that UFO sightings have historically been very high in the Southwest, a

region which has been used as a military proving ground for a very long time. Other UFO sightings around theworld often happen to occur near military bases and research facilities, further supporting the idea that these

unidentified objects remain obscure for security reasons, rather than mysterious ones.

Some UFOs do indeed look like aircrafts of some form, leading people to suggest that they are examples of alien

technology, despite lack of confirmation. Others take the form of moving lights and random floating shapes. In most

cases, mundane explanations like the weather can be used to dismiss UFO claims, but believers still retain their hope

that the truth is out there, as they say in the X-Files series. UFO hotspots are specific locations where

numerous UFO sightings have taken place. People who would like an opportunity to see UFOs can visit

a UFO hotspot for the best chance of success.

51. Which of the following can be inferred from this passage about UFOs?

(a) UFO believers nowadays share information, views, photographs and discussions on several online forums.

(b) There are theories that state that UFOs could be sophisticated and never-seen-before military aircrafts.

(c) UFOs have typically been sighted more around areas that have military bases close by.

(d) All of the above


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CPLC/Sample CMAT 15

52. What are UFO hotspots?

(a) A location where believers can connect directly with UFOs via a satellite system.

(b) A location where numerous UFO sightings have been seen.

(c) A location where there is a clear landing strip welcome UFOs to land.

(d) A location where, in case of a UFO invasion, all earthlings should gather.

53. What is the tone of the passage?

(a) Derogatory (b) Balanced (c) Analytical (d)Passionate

54. According to the passage, what is the believers argument against those who do not believe in UFOs?

(a) They argue that most of them have seen UFOs and hence know, for a fact, that they exist.

(b) They believe in the X file series and base their argument on it.

(c) They believe that the evidences are being suppressed to hide the truth.

(d) They know that the UFOs are just sophisticated flying planes in the sky

Passage 2

The social values of our society, which has manifested in perpetual warfare, corruption, oppressive laws, social

stratification, irrelevant superstitions, environmental destruction, and a despotic socially indifferent profit oriented

ruling class; is fundamentally the result of a collective ignorance of two of the most basic insights humans can haveabout reality-the emergent and symbiotic aspects of natural law.

The emergent nature of reality is that all systems; whether it is knowledge, society, technology, philosophy, or any

other creation; will, when uninhibited, undergo fluid perpetual change.

What we consider commonplace today such as modern communication and transportation, would have been

unimaginable in ancient times. Likewise, the future will contain technologies, realizations, and social structures that

we cannot even fathom in the present.

We have gone from alchemy to chemistry, from a geocentric universe to a heliocentric, from believing that demons

were the cause of illness to modern medicine. This development shows no sign of ending, and it is this awareness

that aligns us and leads us on a continuous path to growth and progress.Static empirical knowledge does not exist; rather it is the insight of the emergence of all systems we must recognize.

This means we must be open to new information at all times, even if it threatens our current belief system, and

hence, identities. Sadly society today has failed to recognize this, and the established institutions continue to

paralyze growth by preserving outdated social structures.

Simultaneously, the population suffers from a fear of change. For their conditioning assumes a static identity and

challenging ones belief system, usually results in insult and apprehension for being wrong is erroneously associated

with failure when in fact to be proven wrong should be celebrated. It is elevating someone to a new level of

understanding, furthering awareness. The fact is, there is no such thing as a smart human being, for it is merely a

matter of time before their ideas are updated, changed, or irradiated.


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16 CPLC/Sample CMAT

And this tendency to blindly hold on to a belief system, sheltering it from new possibly transforming information is

nothing less than a form of intellectual materialism. The monetary system perpetuates this materialism not only byits self-preserving structures, but also through the countless number of people who have been conditioned into

blindly and thoughtlessly upholding these structures, therefore becoming self-appointed guardians of the status quo.

Sheep which no longer need a sheep-dog to control them. For they control each other by ostracizing those who step

out of the norm.

This tendency to resist change and uphold existing institutions for the sake of identity, comfort, power and profit is

completely unsustainable; and will only produce further imbalance, fragmentation, distortion, and very invariably

destruction.

55. Who does the author refer to in the line Sheep which no longer need a sheep-dog to control them?

(a) People who believe that monetary system is the fundamental measure of success and inherently put their faith in

it.

(b) Those who are misguided and demoralized by the many downfalls of the economic system of recent times.(c) People who have been conditioned into unwaveringly preserving their belief in the monetary system.

(d) People who inculcate discipline and no longer require anyone to guide them.

56. What advice does the author convey through the passage?

(a) We must continue on our path of innovations in science and technology as they can tools that can bring out

social development.

(b) We should consider all aspects of a situation before forming an opinion.(c) We should be open to criticism of our opinions and hence develop utilitarian opinions for the betterment of

society.

(d) In order to progress we must be open to change and avoid holding biases.

57. Which of the following will the author agree with?

I. Failure should be celebrated because it brings further awareness.

II. The knowledge that development is a perpetual process drives us on a continuous path to growth and

progress.

III. The threat of expulsion from the community is a possible deterrent to those who try to do go past the belief

systems.

(a) Only III (b) II and III (c) I and III (d) All of the above

58. What is the role of the sentence Whether it is knowledge, society, technology, philosophy, or any other

creation; will, when uninhibited, undergo fluid perpetual change in the context of the passage?

(a)It is an example that conforms to the message of the author.

(b)

It is the reason behind the conclusion of the passage.

(c)It is the premise that the conclusion is based upon.

(d)It an assumption that the conclusion of the passage rejects.


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Directions for the Questions 59 and 60: Choose from the choices the pair of words that exhibits the same

relationship as the capitalized pair of words.

59. SOB : WAIL ::

(a) whisper : holler (b) abode : dwelling

(c) death : mortal (d) sad : exuberant

60. PEACE : WHITE ::

(a) knife : cut (b) temptation : serpent

(c) maple : leaf (d) sun : yellow

Directions for the Questions 61 to 63: Read the following questions and answer each of them independently

61. No assignment of copyright to make a film or sound recording shall affect the right of the author of the work to

claim royalties in case of utilization of the work in any form other than as part of cinematograph film or sound.

This new provision could put an end to the catch-all clause in Bollywood contracts whereby lyricists, composers and

scriptwriters give away "all rights in any medium of exploitation - whether now known or hereinafter invented" to

producers buying the copyrights.

What is not possible after effect of the new provision?

(a)A songwriter who`s been paid to write the song for a particular situation in a film, can claim a royalty when that

song is used outside the film.

(b)

The discos which use many songs from Bollywood movies may have to royalties to the composers of the song.(c)A TV soap using a song from a Bollywood movie may have to pay a royalty to the lyricist.

(d)The royalties earned by all music composers will increase.

62. Economic uncertainty has always added luster to gold in the eyes of investors, and in recent weeks there has

been no shortage of unsettling developments. While gold has always won the vote of investors seeking safety from

turbulent financial markets, the sharp rise in prices has now brought on a new set of buyers, those who take high

risks for quick returns.

Which of the following is not correct according to the facts stated above?

(a) Gold will no longer be a resort to any investor seeking safety from turbulent financial markets.

(b) The market for gold is becoming more turbulent in nature.

(c)

This new set of investors will deter some of the initial investors who were seeking safety.

(d) The high risk for quick return attitude is unsafe for many investors.

63. The latest fossil finds of microscopic life about 3.4 billion years ago in sedimentary rocks in Western Australia

suggests that life began some 200 million years earlier than previously reckoned. The authors have come across

several lines of evidence that confirm the find to be truly microfossils. The foremost among them is the cell-like

structures of similar size found in clusters. The microstructures also have uniform cell thickness, a hollow interior,

and partially preserved partitions seen between adjacent cellular compartments. The presence of carbon, nitrogen,


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18 CPLC/Sample CMAT

and sulphur in the cell walls clearly emphasizes the biological nature. The presence of pyrite crystals associated with

the microfossils indicates a possible sulphur metabolism by the life forms wherein sulphates are reduced to

sulphides.

Which of the following statements, if true, questions the claim made in the above hypothesis?

(a)The climatic conditions present during that period were not conducive for any living organism known to man.

(b)Before the continental shift which happened around 2 billion years ago, Western Australia was a part of Asia,

and Asia shows no such fossils.

(c)Oxygen levels during that period were not sufficient for life dependent on oxygen to thrive.

(d)The carbon dating method used to date fossils has an error in the magnitude 0.3 billion years, if the time

estimated is greater than 3 billion years.

Directions for the Questions 64 and 65: Rearrange the following four sentences (A), (B), (C), and (D) in the

proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph

64.A. Aloe Vera has an anti-inflammatory chemical called B-sitosterol that effectively treats many skin conditions

arising from insect bites, plant rashes like poison oak, allergic eruptions, etc.

B. Unlike many purported natural, plant-based medicines or ointments, Aloe's positive health effects have been

well-documented and studied.

C. It is used as a topical treatment in the burn wards of hospitals across the world.

D. Along with another ingredient, salicylic acid, Aloe greatly reduces the time it takes for skin to heal from minor or

severe burns.

(a) ABDC (b) DBAC (c) CBDA (d) CDBA

65.A. It is located in the western region of Saudi Arabia, near the Red Sea and technically, the city is formally known

as Makkahal-Mukaaramah, translating into English as Mecca the Blessed.

B. The change is spelling has not, however, caught on in most of the English speaking world.

C. The Saudi Arabian government has pushed many English speaking nations to adopt Makkah as the proper

transliteration from Arabic, rather than Mecca.

D. Mecca is the Holy City of Islam, although the city had religious importance before the advent of Islam.

(a) BCDA (b) CDAB (c) DACB (d) ADBC

Directions for the Questions 66 to 67: Rearrange the following four phrases: (A), B), (C) and (D) to make the

sentence grammatically meaningful.

66.A. towards certain random points

B. it would show an unhealthy favouritism

C. too strongly the grand significance of this week

D. in the calendar year to stress

(a) BDCA (b) BDAC (c) BADC (d)BACD


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CPLC/Sample CMAT 19

67.

A. escaped, and then made it eighty miles down the Niger to SgouB. travelled two hundred miles up the Gambia, got caught by a native chief

C. the Scottish adventurer Mungo Park left for Africa in 1795 and

D. for reasons best known to himself

(a) CBDA (b) CDBA (c) CDAB (d)CBAD

Directions for the Questions 68 to 70: Fill in the blanks with suitable words

68. Kate, who herself on neatness and organization at home, saw those give way to ____________ as the cameras

rolled.

(a) Mayhem, prided (b) Tranquility, proud(c) Serenity, applauded (d) Placidity, recommended

69. Before the FDA gained ______________ of medical devices in 1932, business was fairly brisk for some

___________ and generally useless cure-all contraptions.

(a) insight, outgoing (b) control, banal

(c) oversight, outlandish (d) undertaking, hackneyed

70. Falling into the latter category is an ______of medicines that were _______ to calm upset babies, allowing the

infant -- and its parents -- to sleep soundly through the night.

(a) assortment , finished (b) panel, unvarnished

(c) assortment, purported (d) array, ceased

Directions for the Questions 71 and 72: In the given sentence, a few words have been highlighted, choose the one

option which means exactly the same.

71. Sally chortled with glee at the thought of Ken slipping on the ice.

(a) to snort in some manner because one is unhappy

(b) to chuckle in some manner because one is anxious

(c) to laugh in some manner to cover up ones unhappiness.

(d) to giggle in some manner because one is happy

72. She made a reasonable stab at solving the problem.

(a) half hearted attempt

(b) an unsuccessful attempt

(c) try an activity that you have not done before

(d) try an activity at which you have been unsuccessful before


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Direction for the Questions 73 to 75: Each of the following questions consists of a sentence fragmented into four

phrases. These are marked as (a),(b), (c),and (d). Identify the one that is not acceptable in standard English.

73.A. Professional writers realize that they cannot hope to

B. affect their readers remotely as they wish

C. without care and practise

D. in the proper use of words.

(a) Only A (b) B and C (c) only B (d) only C

74.A. The tropical coastline of India,

B. especially the south-west coastline,

C.

is very reliable forD. establishing wave energy plants.

(a) Only C (b) B and C (c) A and B (d) All correct

75.A. Solar radiant energy falling fromB. the surface of the earth in the form

C. of visible lights can be

D. converted into thermal energy.

(a) Only A (b) Only B (c) Only D (d) All correct


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CPLC/Sample CMAT 21

Section 4:

General Knowledge

76. Rio Tinto is an Australian company. Its main business is

(a) Mining (b) Construction (c) Banking (d) Tourism

77. Which of the following is a submarine of Indian Navy?

(a) Aakash (b) Arjun (c) Shalki (d) Godavari

78. Who, among the following has written the lyrics of Kolaveri Di?

(a) Aishwarya (b) Dhanush (c) Anirudh Ravichandar (d) A.R. Rehman

79. Kochi Tuskers Kerala, a team in IPL'11 had this as their home ground -

(a) Jawaharlal Nehru Stadium, Pune (b) Jawaharlal Nehru Stadium, Kochi

(c) D.Y. Patil Stadium, New Mumbai (d) Holkar Stadium, Indore

80. Shares issued by a company to a consultant in lieu of his/her services are known as

(a) Employee Stock Options (b) Preference Shares

(c) Sweat Equity (d) Dividend

81. Which of the following districts in Andhra Pradesh do NOT fall in Telengana region?

(a) Karimnagar (b) Medak (c) East Godavari (d) Warangal

82. Which country is known as the Holy See?

(a) Vatican (b) Iran (c) Saudi Arabia (d) Israel

83. Tainted Judge P.D.Dinakaran, who had to resign on corruption charges, was the Chief Justice of -

(a) Kerala (b) Maharashtra (c) Assam (d) Sikkim

84. India is the second country in the World to have its currency symbol printed on the notes. Who's first?

(a) USA (b) Australia (c) Japan (d) UK

85. Which of the following countries joined Eurozone in 2011?

(a) Poland (b) Ukraine (c) Estonia (d) Denmark

86. The World's first underground river 'Hamza' flows underneath

(a) Mississippi (b) Brahmaputra (c) Amazon (d) Euphrates


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87. Which port in India is the first corporatised port?

(a) Mumbai (b) Kandla (c) Kochi (d) Ennore

88. To whom has UAE replaced as the topmost recipient of India's exports?

(a) USA (b) China (c) Japan (d) Germany

89. This compound is used in toothpastes to act as antiseptic

(a) Sodium Chloride (b) Potassium Permangnate

(c) Hydrogen Peroxide (d) Calcium Fluoride

90. Infant Mortality is the highest in India in -

(a) Haryana (b) Rajasthan (c) Bihar (d) Madhya Pradesh

91. Ten degree channel separates -

(a) Sri Lanka from India (b) Japan from Asia (c) UK from Europe (d) Andaman from Nicobar

92. Ethology is the study of

(a) Culture and Ethos (b) Ethiopia (c) Animal Behaviour (d) Ethnic Wear

93. This letter does not appear even once in the periodic table of elements-

(a) B (b) A (c) J (d) W

94. Antrix Corporation is the commercial wing of -

(a) DRDO (b) ISRO (c) Indian Army (d) Indian Railways

95. Which civil war in Africa has been the longest and bloodiest?

(a) Rwanda (b) Sierra Leone (c) Algeria (d) Sudan

96. How many countries are part of the G20 group?

(a) 20 (b) 7 (c) 19 (d) 21

97. Apart from India, which country is a leading producer of saffron?

(a) Italy (b) Sweden (c) Denmark (d) Spain

98. As per Indian Constitution, number of ministers cannot exceed a certain percentage of ruling party members.

What is it?

(a) 50 (b) 15 (c) 20 (d) 40


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99. According to the Census 2011, which State/Union Territory has the lowest sex ratio in India?

(a) Chandigarh (b) Haryana (c) Daman and Diu (d) Madhya Pradesh

100. World's longest narrow gauge railway route is in India between

(a) Darjeeling and Siliguri (b) Shimla and Kalka

(c) Gwalior and Sheopur (d) Neral and Matheran

1. Sample CMAT Question Paper

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