Post on 23-May-2020
COMPETITION FOCUSINOctober 2017 73
Directions (Q. Nos. 1-7) The following itemsconsists of two statements, statement I andstatement II. Examine these two statementscarefully and select the correct using the codegiven below.
Code
a. Both the statements are individually true
and statement II is the correct explanation
of statement I.
b. Both the statements are individually true,
but statement II is not the correct
explanation of statement I.
c. Statement I is true, but statement II is false.
d. Statement I is false, but statement II is true.
1. Statement I Plantation farming has
mostly been practiced in humid tropics.
Statement II The soil of humid tropics is
highly fertile.
3 (a) Both the statements are correct andstatement II is the correct explanation of the Istatement. Countries that have plantationagriculture usually experience high annualtemperatures and receive high annual rainfall.Plantations are mainly found in countries that havea tropical climate.
The soils found in the humid regions are variedand diverse and are usually high on fertility.
2. Statement I Chameleon changes its skin
colour to match with the colour of the
surroundings.
Statement II The skin of chameleon
emits light of the colour of the
surroundings through fluorescence.
3 (c) Both the statements are correct andstatement II is the correct explanation of thestatement I. Chameleons are famous for theirquick colour-changing abilities. It's a commonmisconception that they do this to camouflagethemselves against a background. In fact,chameleons mostly change colour to regulatetheir temperatures or to signal their intentionsto other chameleons through specialised cellscalled chromatophores.
3. Statement I Occsionally we see two
rainbows together, the primary rainbow
with another less intense secondary
rainbow about10° away.
Statement II The secondary rainbow
appears due to refraction after a reflection of
sunlight from the water droplets.
3 (a)
4. Statement I Nationalism in India,
which was assigned a privileged position
by its western educated political
leadership, was ‘different’, but a
‘derivative discourse’ from the West.
Statement II Indian nationalism as a
response to western imperialism was
‘like all such responses, shaped by what
it was respondings to’.
Union Public Service Commission
AssistantCommandant
(BSF/CRPF/ITBP/SSB/CISF)
Examination 2017
July 23, 2017
Paper General Ability andIntelligence
I
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3 (b) Both the statements are correct, butstatement II is not the correct explanationof statement I. Statement I talks aboutstatus of nationalism in india and itsIndianised version that took shape in india.while second statement is india’s responseto western nationalism.
5. Statement I The British legal
scholars relied on Indian Pandits and
Maulavis for understanding of canons
of authoritative texts.
Statement II British codified the
Hindu Laws in 1783 and the Muslim
Laws in 1785.
3 (a)
6. Statement I Dadabhai Naoroji
argued that what was being drained
out was ‘potential surplus’ that could
generate more economic development
in India if invested in India.
Statement II Imperialists believed
that India was brought into the large
capitalist world market and that was in
itself a progress towards modernisation.
3 (b)
7. Statement I The man Booker
International Prize is now unlikely to
be won by an English author.
Statement II The Booker Prize
Foundation announced that the Man
Booker International Prize was to
evolve from 2016 onwards into a prize
for fiction in translation.
3 (d)
8. Which one of the following
statements about Pradhan Mantri
Ujjwala Yojana is not correct?
a. It is a social welfare scheme to provide
LPG connections in BPL households
b. The scheme was launched in the year
2015
c. The government has set a target of 5
crores LPG connections under the
Yojana
d. The objective of the scheme is to
safeguard the health of women and
children by providing them with
clean cooking fuel
3 (b) Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana waslaunched in the year 2016 not in 2015. It isan ambitious social welfare scheme whichaims to provide free LPG connections toBPL households in the country. Thescheme is aimed at replacing the uncleancooking fuels mostly used in the rural Indiawith the clean and more efficient LPG.
9. Which one of the following portals
was launched on the 250th
anniversary of Survey of India?a. Service Plus b. DigiMap
c. Udaan d. Nakshe
3 (d) The topographic maps or OpenSeries Maps (OSM) containing natural andman-made geographical featuresincluding terrain or topography areprepared by Survey of india. These OSMmaps have been made available for freedownload from ‘Nakshe’.
10. Which one of the following
countries has been ranked as the
least corrupt country in the
Corruption Perception Index 2016
released by Transparency
International?a. Denmark b. Sweden
c. Switzerland d. Norway
3 (a) Denmark has maintained thenumber 1 position in the category of leastcorrupt countries. This index employs avariety of methods to gauge the corruptionlevel of a country like surveys and blackmoney flows.
11. The Central Vigilance
Commission was set-up on the
recommendation of
a. First Administrative Reforms
Commission
b. Gorwala Committee
c. Kripalani Committee
d. Santhanam Committee
3 (d) Central Vigilance Commission(CVC) is an apex Indian governmentalbody created in 1964 to addressgovernmental corruption. It has the statusof an autonomous body.. It was set-up bythe government of India in February,1964on the recommendations of SanthanamCommittee. The present Chairman of CVCis KV Chaudhary.
12. The Ninth Schedule was added
to the Constitution of India by thea. Fourteenth Amendment
b. First Amendment
c. Ninety-Third Amendment
d. Ninety-Ninth Amendment
3 (b) Ninth Schedule of the IndianConstitution that majorly deals with landreforms was added through though theFirst Amendment Act of the IndianConstitution in 1951.
13. Which one of the following cases
in the Supreme Court of India dealt
with the issue of ‘creamy layer’
among the backward classes?a. KM Nanavati Vs State of Bombay
b. Indra Sawhney Vs Union of India
c. Madhu Limaye Vs Ved Murti
d. Sajjan Singh Vs State of Punjab
3 (b) The 27% reservation quota forbackward classes and the governmentnotification reserving 10% governmentjobs for economically backward classesamong the higher castes was challengedin the Supreme Court in the IndraSawhney Case of 1992.
14. Which one of the following
statements about Cripps Mission is
not correct?
a. In March, 1942, Cripps persuaded War
Cabinet to agree to a draft declaration
b. Jawaharlal Nehru and Sardar Patel
represented Congress to negotiate
with the mission
c. The mission offered Dominiton status
after the war
d. The mission offered formation of Cons-
titution making body after the war
3 (a) The Cripps Mission was an attempt inlate March, 1942 by the British governmentto secure full Indian cooperation andsupport for their efforts in World War II. Themission was headed by Sir Stafford Cripps.It never persuaded any the war cabinet toagree to draft declaration.
15. Which one of the following
statements about the Treaty of
Allahabad is not correct?a. It was signed in the year 1765.
b. The Mughal Emperor by a farman
formally granted the Diwani of
Bengal, Bihar and Orissa to the East
India Company.
c. Awadh was restored to its Nawab on
payment of ` 50 lakhs
d. Banaras and the Surrounding tracts
were detached from Awadh and
handed over to Shah Alam II.
3 (d) The Treaty of Allahabad was signedon August 12, 1765, between the MughalEmperor Shah Alam II, son of the lateEmperor Alamgir II, and Robert, Lord Clive,of the East India Company, as a result ofthe Battle of Buxar of October 22, 1764. Thetreaty marks the political and constitutionalinvolvement and the beginning of Britishrule in India. Based on the terms of theagreement, Shah Alam granted the EastIndia Company’ Diwani rights, or the right tocollect taxes on behalf of the Emperor fromthe eastern province of Bengal- Bihar-Orissa.
16. Which among the following was
not the provision of the Gandhi-Irwin
pact?
a. Immediate release of all political
prisoners of the Civil Disobedience
Movement
b. Clause 2 of the March, 1931 pact
defined ‘reservations and safeguards’
to cover financial credit of India
c. The return of confiscated land already
gold to third parties
d. Reservation of 18% seats for depressed
classes
3 (d) The Gandhi–Irwin Pact was a politicalagreement signed by Mahatma Gandhi andthe then Viceroy of India, Lord Irwin onMarch 5, 1931 before the second RoundTable Conference in London. The list ofprovisions include
COMPETITION FOCUSINOctober 2017
l Discontinuation of the ‘CivilDisobedience’ movement by the IndianNational Congress.
l Participation by the Indian NationalCongress in the Round TableConference.
l Withdrawal of all ordinances issued by theBritish government imposing curbs on theactivities of the Indian National Congress.
l Withdrawal of all prosecutions relating toseveral types of offenses except thoseinvolving violence.
l Release of prisoners arrested forparticipating in the ‘Civil Disobedience’movement.
l Removal of the tax on salt, which allowedthe Indians to produce, trade, and sellsalt legally and for their own private use.
17. Which one of the following novels
won the Pulitzer Prize for the year
2017 in the Fiction category?a. The Goldfinch
b. All the Light We Cannot See
c. The Sympathizer
d. The Underground Railroad
3 (d) ‘The Underground Railroad’ is thesixth novel by American author ColsonWhitehead. It is the winner of the 2017Pulitzer Prize for Fiction, the 2016 NationalBook Award for Fiction, the Arthur C.Clarke Award and the 2017 AndrewCarnegie Medal for Excellence.l The novel tells the story of Cora and
Caesar, two slaves who make a bid forfreedom from their Georgia plantations byfollowing the Underground Railroad,which in the novel is an actual subway asopposed to a series of safe houses andsecret routes.
18. Which one of the following does
not pass through the Kaziranga
National Park?a. The Brahmputra river
b. The Diphlu river
c. National Highway No. 37
d. Railway Track of Indian Railway
3 (d)
19. The US President in 2017 has signed
an executive order for US withdrawal
from a trade organisation of the Pacific
region. Identify the organisation from
among the following.
a. Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation
(APEC)
b. Trans-Pacific Partnership (TPP)
c. Free-Trade Agreement of the
Asia-Pacific (FTAAP)
d. Regional Comprehensive Economic
Partnership (RCEP)
3 (b) Trump Administration boycotted fromboth Trans Pacific Partnership and theParis Peace Climate deal recently. TheTrans-Pacific Partnership (TPP), is a tradeagreement between Australia, Brunei,
Canada, Chile, Japan, Malaysia, Mexico,New Zealand, Peru, Singapore, the UnitedStates (until January 23, 2017) and Vietnam.
The agreement aimed to ‘promote economicgrowth; support the creation and retention ofjobs; enhance innovation, productivity andcompetitiveness; raise living standards;reduce poverty in the signatories' countries;and promote transparency, goodgovernance, and enhanced labour andenvironmental protections.
20. Which one of the following
judgements declared that the
Parliament has not power to amend
any of the provisions of Part III of the
Constitution of India?
a. Kesavananda Bharati Vs State of
Kerala
b. Golak Nath Vs State of Punjab
c. Champakam Dorairajan Vs State of
Madras
d. Minerva Mills Limited Vs
Government of India
3 (b) Golak Nath Vs State of Punjab was a1967 Indian Supreme Court case, in whichthe Court ruled that Parliament could notcurtail any of the Fundamental Rights in theConstitution.
The judgment reversed the SupremeCourt's earlier decision which had upheldParliament's power to amend all parts ofthe Constitution, including Part III related toFundamental Rights. The judgement leftParliament with no power to curtailFundamental Rights.
21. Who among the following leaders
is associated with the concept of
partyless democracy?a. JB Kripalani
b. Jay Prakash Narayan
c. Acharya Narendra Dev
d. Vinoba Bhave
3 (b) Party Less democracy was a conceptdeveloped by many scholars like MN Royand Mahatma Gandhi, but was followed byJai Prakash Narayan. He advocated that allcommunities would be organicallyintegrated through the processes. whichhave been described and all their councilswould be linked to the most organic of allsocial units after the family, namely thevillage, district and so on.
22. Who among the following is
empowered to establish Inter-State
Council under Article-263 of the
Constitution of India?a. Parliament
b. Council of Ministers
c. President of India
d. Chief Justice of India
3 (c) The President of India underArticle-263 of the Constitution of india isempowered to establish an Inter-StateCouncil. It is based on therecommendation of Sarkaria Commission
and seeks to establish an institutionalmechanism to facilitate coordination ofpolicies and their implementation betweenthe Union and the State governments.
23. Which among the following was
not the recommendation of the Nehru
Report?a. Dominion Status
b. Separate Electorate
c. Unitary and Democratic Centre
d. Adult Suffrage
3 (b) The Nehru Report of August 28-30,1928 was a memorandum outlining aproposed new dominion status Constitutionfor India. It was prepared by a committeeof the All Parties Conference chaired byMotilal Nehru with his son JawaharlalNehru acting as secretary.The mainrecommendations of this report wasl Unlike the eventual Government of India
Act 1935 it contained a Bill of Rights.l All power of government and all
authority-legislative, executive and judicial- were derived from the people and thesame shall be exercised throughorganisations established by, or under,and in accord with this Constitution.
l There shall be no State religion; men andwomen shall have equal rights ascitizens.
l There should be federal form ofgovernment with residuary powers vestedin the Centre.
l It included a description of the machineryof government including a proposal forthe creation of a Supreme Court and asuggestion that the provinces should belinguistically determined.
l It did not provide for separate electoratesfor any community or weightage forminorities. However, it did allow for thereservation of minority seats in provinceshaving a minorities of at least ten%, butthis was to be in strict proportion to thesize of the community.
24. Which one of the following
statements about the Indigo Revolt of
1859 is correct?
a. It broke out at Poona and
Ahmadnagar.
b. It was directed against moneylenders.
c. It was supported by the intelligentsia
of Bengal.
d. It was directed against the petty
Zamindars and ex-employees of the
planters.
3 (d) The Indigo revolt that arose inBengal, was directed against Britishplanters who forced peasants to takeadvances and sign fraudulent contractswhich forced the peasants to grow Indigounder terms which were the least profitableto them. Revolt was directed against thepetty Zamindars and ex-employees of theplanters.
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25. Which of the following active
step(s) was/were taken by the
Congress in 1823 to eradicate
untouchability from India?
1. Effort to educate and mobiliseopinion among caste Hindus.
2. Efforts to educate the ‘avarnas’about the evils of untouchability.
3. Forcibly open the doors oftemples for ‘avarnas’.
4. Petition the government to passlaws that would declareuntouchability unlawful.
Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
a. Only 1 b. 1 and 2
c. 2, 3 and 4 d. Only 4
3 (d) In 1823, the Congress petitioned thegovernment to pass laws that declareduntouchability unlawful in a bid to put anend to this practice.
26. Which one of the following is not
a river covered under the Indus Water
Treaty 1960?a. Ravi b. Chenab
c. Teesta d. Beas
3 (c) The Indus Waters Treaty is awater-distribution treaty between India andPakistan that is brokered by the WorldBank. The treaty was signed in Karachi onSeptember 19, 1960 by Prime Minister ofIndia Jawaharlal Nehru and President ofPakistan Ayub Khan.l According to this agreement, control over
the three ‘eastern’ rivers, the Beas, theRavi and the Sutlej, was given to India,while control over the three ‘western’rivers, the Indus, the Chenab and theJhelum, to Pakistan. Since Pakistan'srivers flow through India, the treatyallowed India to use them for irrigation,transport and power generation, whilelaying down precise regulations for Indianbuilding projects along the way.
l Teesta is a river in North-East india andforms one of the important tributaries ofBrahmaputra. It is not covered under theIndus Water Treaty.
27. Who among the following are
awarded with the Special
Breakthrough Prize in Fundamental
Physics for the year 2017?
a. Stephan W. Hawking and Roger
Penrose
b. Ronald Drever, Kip S. Thorne and
Rainer West
c. Joseph Polchinski, Andrew
Strominger and Cumrun Vafa
d. J. Michael Kosterlitz, Duncan
Haldane and David J. Thouless
3 (c) The Breakthrough Prize inFundamental Physics recognisesindividuals who have made profoundcontributions to human knowledge. It is
open to all physicists – theoretical,mathematical and experimental – workingon the deepest mysteries of the Universe.The prize can be shared among anynumber of scientists.
28. Who among the following
Mathematician is the recipient of the
Abel Prize for the year 2017?a. John F. Nash
b. Yves Meyer
c. SR Srinivasa Varadhan
d. Andrew Wiles
3 (b) The Abel Prize is a Norwegian prizeawarded annually by the government ofNorway to one or more outstandingmathematicians. Yves Meyer received the2017 Abel Prize for his pivotal role in thedevelopment of the mathematical theory ofwavelets.
29. Who among the following
scholars has conceptualised the
Constitution of India as a ‘seamless
web’?a. MV Pylee b. DD Basu
c. Granville Austin d. Subhas Kashyap
3 (c) Granville Austin has conceptualisedthe Constitution of India as a ‘seamlessweb’ as he perceptively saw three distinctstrands: one, protecting and enhancingnational unity and integrity;two-establishing the institution and spirit ofdemocracy; and three-fostering socialreform.
30. Which of the following
statements is/are correct?
1. Article-15 of the Constitution ofIndia is available to both citizensof India and the foreigners.
2. Article-16 of the Constitution ofIndia is available to the citizens ofIndia only.
3. Article-21 of the Constitution ofIndia is available to both citizensof India and the foreigners alikewithin the territory of India.
Select the correct answer using the code
given below.a. Only 1 b. 2 and 3
c. Only 3 d. All of these
3 (b) Article-15 of the Constitution of Indiais not available to the foreigners. It is onlyfor the citizens of India. It says that theState shall not discriminate against anycitizen on grounds only of religion, race,caste, sex or place of birth.l Article-16 provides for equality of
opportunity for all citizens in matters ofemployment or appointment to any officeunder the State.
l Article-21 declares that no person shallbe deprived of his life and personal libertyexcept according to procedureestablished by law. This right is avalilableto both citizens and foreigners.
31. Who among the following are
entitled to get the benefits of equality
before the law and the equal protection
of the laws as enshrined under
Article-14 of the Constitution of
India?
1. All Indian citizens living in India.2. All Indian citizens living abroad.3. Foreigners living within the
territory of India.4. All citizens born in India.
Select the correct answer using the code
given below :a. 1 and 2 b. 1, 2 and 3
c. 1 and 3 d. Only 4
3 (b) Article-14 says that the State shallnot deny to any person equality before thelaw or equal protection of the laws withinthe territory of India. However it is notavailable to all citizens who are born inIndia. It is only available to Indian citizenswhether living in India or living abroad. Alsoit is available to the foreigners living withinthe territory of India.
32. Which one of the following
statements about the English
Education Act of 1835 is not correct?
a. It was proposed by Governor General
William Bentinck on the advice of
Macaulay.
b. It made English the language of
instruction in Indian education system
c. With the formal institutionalisation
of English as the language of
instruction, the stage was set for a
new direction of Indian education.
d. To the existing Oriental Institutions
fresh awards of stipends to students
and the publication of classical texts
were to continue.
3 (d) The English Education Act was alegislative Act of the Council of India in1835 giving effect to a decision in 1835 byLord William Bentinck to reallocate fundsthe East India Company was required bythe British Parliament to spend oneducation and literature in India. It madeEnglish the language of Indian educationsystem. Also it became the language ofadministration and of the higher law courts(replacing Persian). This led eventually toEnglish becoming one of the languages ofIndia, rather than simply the native tongueof its foreign rulers.
33. Which one of the following
dynasties ruled under the suzerainty
of Kingdom of Vijaynagar?
a. Sangamas, Saluvas, Tuluvas and
Aravidus
b. Sangamas, Hoysalas, Aravidus and
Tuluvas
c. Hoysalas, Saluvas, Poligars and
Sangamas
d. Yadavas of Devagiri, Hoysalas,
Saluvas and Aravidus
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3 (a) The Sangamas, Saluvas, Tuluvasand Aravidus were dynasties that ruledunder the suzeranity of the kingdom ofVijayanagar empire.
34. Which one of the following
statements about the Colonial
economy is not correct?
a. The British presence inhibited
indigenous capitalism.
b. Laissez-faire actively promoted
indigenous capitalism.
c. The ‘white collective monopoly’ came
earliest and remained most
pronounced in Eastern India.
d. The Bombay hinterland was difficult
to penetrate before the construction
of railways.
3 (b) All the remaining statements arecorrect except for the second one. Alaissez-faire state does not promoteingigenous capitalism.
35. Which of the following
statement(s) about Easterine Kire
is/are correct?
1. Born in Nagaland, she is a poet,novelist and children’s bookwriter.
2. She is the recipient of the HinduPrize for the year 2015 for herpoetic novel ‘When the RiverSleeps’.
3. ‘When the River Sleeps’ was anexploration of the Naga spirituniverse.
Select the correct answer using the code
given below.a. Only 1 b. 2 and 3
c. 1 and 3 d. All of these
3 (d) All the given statements are correct.Easterine Kire published her first book ofpoetry in 1982 titled ‘Kelhoukevira’. Thiswas also first book of Naga poetrypublished in English. Her novel ‘A NagaVillage Remembered’ published in 2003was the first novel by a Naga writer inEnglish.
36. Which of the following
statements about the Paris
Agreement on Climate Change is not
correct?
a. The agreement has been signed by
more than 190 countries (as of March
2017).
b. The agreement went into effect on
November 4, 2016.
c. The Intended Nationally Determined
Contribution (INDC) pledged during
the 2015 Climate Change Conference
has been withdrawn in the Paris
Agreement.
d. Both the USA and China joined the
Paris Agreement.
3 (c) The Paris Agreement brings allnations into a common cause to undertakeambitious efforts to combat climate changeand adapt to its effect. With enhancedsupport from developed nations it assiststhe developing countries to chart a newcourse in the global climate effort. All thegiven statements are correct except for (c)as the INDC's pledged during the ClimateChange Conference has not been withdrawn.
37. Akshay Kumar was chosen for
the best actor award for the 64th
National Film Awards (2017) for his
role in the Hindi filma. Mukti Bhawan b. Naam Shabana
c. Rustom d. Airlift
3 (c) Akshay Kumar was chosen as thebest actor award for film Rustom. The filmis based on the real life incident of NavalOfficer KM Nanavati and businessmanPrem Ahuja.
38. Which one of the following
statements about the provisions of
the Constitution of India is correct?
a. Minorities can establish and
administer educational institutions of
their choice.
b. Only linguistic ethnic and religious
minorities find mention under
Article-30.
c. Every religious denomination has
unfettered right to establish and
maintain institutions for religious
and charitable purposes.
d. An educational institution
established by a religious minority
loses its. minority status on receiving
financial aid from the government.
3 (a) The first statement is correct.Article-30 of the Indian Constitution givesspecial rights to minorities in India that ‘‘Allminorities shall have the right to establishand administer educational institutions oftheir choice’’.
39. Which of the following pair(s)
is/are correctly matched?
1. Rule of lapse : Part of grant thatcan be carried over to next year.
2. Supplementary grant : Anadvance grant to meetexpenditures
3. Vote on account : Additionalfunds granted in the course offinancial year
Select the correct answer using the code
given below.a. Only 1 b. 1 and 2
c. 2 and 3 d. None of these
3 (d) None of statements are matchedcorrectly.
Rule of lapse It implies that the money leftunspent in a year must also lapse to thepublic treasury and government should notbe able to spend it unless it is resanctioned
in next year’s budget. This is called Rule ofLapse and is useful as an effective tool offinancial control.
Supplementary Grant The additional grantrequired to meet the required expenditureof the government is called SupplementaryGrants.
Vote on Account The Vote on Account isthe special provision given to thegovernment to obtain the vote ofParliament to withdraw money when thebudget for the new financial year is notreleased or the elections are underway,and the caretaker government is in place.
40. Who among the following has
won the Dada Saheb Phalke award
for the year 2016?a. K. Viswanath b. Shashi Kapoor
c. Gulzar d. Manoj Kumar
3 (a) Kasinathuni Vishwanath is an Indianaudiographer turned director, screenwriter,and character actor known for his workspredominantly in Telugu cinema and alsonotable films in Tamil and Hindi cinema. Hehas been awarded the prestigious DadaSaheb Phalke award for his outstandingcontribution to the Indian cinema.
41. Which one of the following has
created the office of the Secretary of
State for India?a. The Councils Act 1861
b. The Government of India Act 1858
c. The Morley Minto Reforms
d. Montague Chelmsford reforms
3 (b) The office of the Secretary of Statewas created under the provisions of theGovernment of India Act 1858.
Government of India Act provided forl The Company's territories in India were to
be vested in the Queen, the Companyceasing to exercise its power and controlover these territories. India was to begoverned in the Queen's name.
l The Queen's Principal Secretary of Statereceived the powers and duties of theCompany's Court of Directors. A councilof fifteen members was appointed toassist the Secretary of State for India. Thecouncil became an advisory body in Indiaaffairs. For all the communicationsbetween Britain and India, the Secretaryof State became the real channel.
l The Secretary of State for India wasempowered to send some secretdespatches to India directly withoutconsulting the Council. He was alsoauthorised to constitute specialcommittees of his Council.
l The Crown was empowered to appoint aGovernor-General and the Governors ofthe Presidencies.
l An Indian Civil Service was to be createdunder the control of the Secretary of State.
l The Act ushered in a new period of Indianhistory, bringing about the end ofCompany rule in India.
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42. Match List I with List II and
select the correct answer using the
code given below the Lists :
List I(Author)
List II(Book)
A. Herman Kulke 1. The Delhi Sultanate: A political andMilitary History
B. BrajadulalChattopadhayaya
2. The Emergence ofDelhi Sultanate:1192-1296 AD
C. Peter Jackson 3. The State in India:1000-1700 AD
D. Sunil Kumar 4. The Making of EarlyMedieval India
Code
A B C D A B C D
a. 2 1 4 3 b. 3 4 1 2
c. 2 4 1 3 b. 3 1 4 2
3 (b)
43. Match List I with List II and
select the correct answer using the
code given below the Lists :
List I(Official)
List II(Office held)
A. Samahartri 1. Chief of thePalace Guards
B. Samnidhatri 2. Chief collector ofrevenue
C. Sansthadhyaksha 3. Treasurer
D. Antaravamshika 4. Superintendent ofmarkets
Code
A B C D A B C D
a. 2 4 3 1 b. 2 3 4 1
c. 1 3 4 1 d. 1 4 3 2
3 (b)
44. Which of the following most
suitably captures the meaning and
essence of ‘globalisation’?
1. It is about conducting externalrelations between two or moreStates of the world.
2. It is a process of coming togetherof world-wide social relationsbypassing territories.
3. It refers to thinkingtransterritorially about globalrisks affecting people.
4. It has a wishful vision ofsuprastate governance
Select the correct answer using the code
given below :a. 1 and 4 b. 2 and 3
c. 2, 3 and 4 d. All of these
3 (b) Globalisation refers to the freemovement of goods, capital, services,people, technology and information. It isthe action or procedure of internationalintegration of countries arising from theconvergence of world views, products,ideas, and other aspects of culture. Ithowever does not involve maintaining
external relations between two or morestates of the world. Neither does it refer towishful vision of suprastate governance.
It is rather a concept based purely oneconomic issue where trade and otherexchanges between two countries.
45. Who among the following is one
of the six winners of the Goldman
Environmental prize, for the year
2017?a. Jadav Payeng
b. Anadish Pal
c. Prafulla Samantra
d. Sunderlal dahuguna
3 (c) The Goldman Environmental Prize isa prize awarded annually to grassrootsenvironmental activists, one from each ofthe world's six geographic regions.
Prafulla Samantara, the face of people’sresistance against Vedanta’s plan to minebauxite from Niyamgiri hills in Odisha, hasbeen honoured with this year’s GoldmanEnvironmental Prize. The 65-year-oldactivist is also fighting POSCO, the SouthKorean steel major whose proposed ironand steel plant in Jagatsinhpur district ofOdisha has run into similar problems.
46. Padma Shri Sudarsan Pattnaik is
well known as aa. novelist b. golfer
c. classical dancer d. sand artist
3 (d) Padam Shri Sudarsan Pattnaik is awell known sand artist who has alsocreated a Guinness World Record bybuilding the world’s tallest sand castle (48feet and 8 inch) at the Puri beach.
47. Which one of the following is the
correct sequence of different stages a
budget has to go through in the
Parliament?
1. Presentation of the Budget2. Scrutiny by Departmental
Committees3. Passing of Finance Bill4. Passing of Appropriation Bill
Select the correct answer using the code
given below :
a. 1 – 2 – 4 – 3 b. 1 – 3 – 2 – 4
c. 2 – 1 – 3 – 4 d. 4 – 3 – 2 – 1
3 (a)
48. Government of which one of the
following States has appointed the
Rajamannar Committee to study the
Centre-State relations?a. Government of Andhara Pradesh
b. Government of Karnataka
c. Government of Maharashtra
d. Government of Tamil Nadu
3 (d) A Centre-State Relations InquiryCommittee was set-up by the then DMKgovernment of Tamil Nadu on September2, 1969 under the Chairmanship of Dr. PV
Rajamannar to consider the entire questionregarding relationship that should subsistbetween the Centre and the States in afederal set-up.
The Committee in its report recommendedthat, “the Inter-State Council should beconstituted immediately” and that, “nodecision of national importance or whichmay affect one or more States should betaken by the Union government except afterconsultation with the Inter-State Council”.
49. Which one of the following was
the mandate of the Dhar Commission
(1948)?a. To study the classification of States
b. To recommend whether the States
can be reorganised on linguistic basis
c. To study the Centre-State relations
d. To examine whether Madras city can
be transferred to Andhra
3 (b) There was a demand from differentregions, mainly South India, forreorganisation of States on linguistic basis.Consequently, in June 1948, thegovernment of India appointed theLinguistic Provinces Commission under theChairmanship of Justice SK Dhar to studythe feasibility of organising States onLinguistic basis.
The Commission, rejected the linguisticbasis of reorganisation of States andrecommended the reorganisation of Stateson the basis of following criteriasl Geographical contiguityl Financial self-reliancel Administrative viabilityl Potential for development
50. Which one of the following pairs
of term and meaning is not correctly
matched?
a. Khalisa : Villages whose income went
directly to the State Treasury
b. Mauza : Rebellious territory
c. Inam : Land allotted to learned and
religious man
d. Jagir : Territorial assignment given to
Mansabdars in lieu of salary
3 (d) Jagir is basically a feudal land grantin South Asia. It developed during theIslamic era where powers to govern andcollect tax from an estate was granted toan appointee of the State. It was prominentmore during the Sultanate period.
51. In which one of the following
buildings the first extant true arch is
found?a. Arhai din ka Jhonpra
b. Quwwat-ul-Islam Mosque
c. Tomb of Sultan Balban
d. Alai Darwaza
3 (c) The first extant true arch is found inthe Tomb of Ghiyas-ud-din Balban. He wasthe ninth Sultan of the Mamluk dynasty ofDelhi. Balban was the greatest of the Slave
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kings. Balban was instrumental in theoverthrow of Masud Shah, installingNasiruddin Mahmud as Sultan and himselfas his Vazier from 1246-65.
52. Which one of the following
statements is not correct?
a. Sharaf Qai was a minister of
Allauddin Khilji.
b. Under Giyasuddin Tughluq Muqtis
were warned not to ill-treat any of
their officials for small amounts
taken over and above their salaries.
c. The Arabic work masalik-i-Absar
gives description of the functioning
of Iqta system under
Muhammad-bin- Tughluq.
d. Marco Polo has not mentioned about
Pearl Fishery of Tuticorin in South
India.
3 (c) ‘Masalik-i-Absar’ was written byAl-Umari who was a scholar writer andwhose works on the administration ofthe Mamluk dominions of Egypt and Syriabecame standard sources for Mamlukhistory. Iqta system that developed underMuhammad-bin-Tughlaq does not find itsmention in Masalik-i-Absar. It was thepractice of Tax farming that was introducedby Iltutmish in Delhi sultanate.
Allauddin Khilji abolished the Iqta and hebecame the first Sultan to set-up apermanent standing army of the sultanate.
53. Match List I with List II and
select the correct answer using the
code given below the Lists:
List I(Book)
List II(Author)
A. The World As ISee It
1. APJ Abdul Kalam
B. How to LiveLonger and FeelBetter
2. Stephen Hawking
C. The Theory ofEverything
3. Albert Einstein
D. Indomitable Spirit 4. Linus Pauling
Code
A B C D A B C Da. 3 4 2 1 b. 1 2 4 3c. 3 2 4 1 d. 1 4 2 3
3 (a)
54. Which one of the following
countries has officially recognised
Bitcoin as a legal payment method
since April 1, 2017?a. Japan
b. China
c. The USA
d. India
3 (a) In Japan under a new law passed,virtual currency like bitcoin is considered asan asset for accounting purposes. This isbasically to boost the cryptocurrencyBitcoin.
55. Consider the following passage
and indentify the person :
Born in April, 1932, she was a
renowned Hindustani classical
vocalist. She was recognised as an
innovative exponent of the Jaipur
Gharana. She was awarded Padma
Bhushan and Padma Vibhushan. She
was also a Fellow of Sangeet Natak
Akademy. She died in April 2017.
a. Mrinalini Sarabhai
b. Mogubai Kurdikar
c. Kishori Amonkar
d. MS Subbulakshmi
3 (c) Kishori Amonkar was a performer ofthe classical genre khyal and the lightclassical genres thumri and bhajan. She isconsidered one of the pre-eminentrepresentatives of Hindustani classicalmusic. She received several of India'snational awards and civilian honours,including the Padma Bhushan, PadmaVibhushan, Sangeet Natak Academy awardand Sangeet Natak Academy Fellowship.
56. Which one of the following is the
winner of the Vijay Hazare Trophy
2017?a. Uttar Pradesh b. Karnataka
c. Assam d. Tamil Nadu
3 (d) The Vijay Hazare Trophy, also knownas the Ranji One Day Trophy, was startedin 2002–03 as a limited-overs cricketdomestic competition involving Stateteams from the Ranji Trophy plates. It isnamed after the famous Indian cricketerVijay Hazare. This year's trophy has beenbagged by Tamil Nadu.
57. Match List I with List II and
select the correct answer using the
code given below the Lists :
List I(Committee)
List II(Subject)
A. RangarajanCommittee
1. Tax Reform
B. NarsimhanCommittee
2. Insurance Reform
C. Kelkar Committee 3. Disinvestment ofshares in PSEs
D. MalhotraCommittee
4. Banking SectorReform
Code
A B C D A B C D
a. 2 1 4 3 b. 2 4 1 3
c. 3 4 1 2 d. 3 1 4 2
3 (c)
58. To which of the following sectors
of the economy, the activity of
agriculture and services belong to?a. Primary and Tertiary respectively
b. Primary and Secondary respectively
c. Tertiary and Secondary respectively
d. Secondary and Quaternary
respectively
3 (a) Primary activities are directly dependenton environment as these refer to utilisationof Earth’s resources, such as land, water,vegetation, building materials and minerals.It, thus includes, hunting and gathering,pastoral activities, fishing, forestry,agriculture, and mining and quarrying. Theworkers are called red collared workers.Secondary activities add value to naturalresources by transforming raw materials intovaluable products. Secondary activities,therefore, are concerned withmanufacturing, processing and construction(infrastructure) industries. These jobs arecalled blue collared workers job.
Tertiary activities include both productionand exchange. The production involves the‘provision’ of services that are ‘consumed.Exchange involves trade, transport andcommunication facilities that are used toovercome distance. Tertiary jobs are calledWhite Collar Jobs. Quaternary activities arespecialised tertairy activities in the‘Knowledge Sector’ which demands aseparate classification. There has been avery high growth in demand for andconsumption of information-based servicesfrom mutual fund managers to taxconsultants, software developers andstatisticians.
Quinary activities are services that focus onthe creation, rearrangement andinterpretation of new and existing ideas;data interpretation and the use andevaluation of new technologies. Oftenreferred to as ‘gold collar’ professions, theyrepresent another subdivision of the tertiarysector representing special and highly paidskills of senior business executives,government officials, research scientists,financial and legal consultants, etc.
59. Which one of the following
statements about Allahabad Prashasti
is correct?
a. It clearly presents the Gupta empire
as the epicenter of a complex web of
varied political relationship.
b. Line 15 of it refers to the capturing a
king of the Kota family.
c. Line 23 refers to Samudragupta
violently exterminating a number of
kings of Aryavarta.
d. Line 20 refers to rulers offering tribute,
obeying the orders of the Gupta king.
3 (c) The Allahabad pillar ,one of the pillarsof Ashoka, was an emperor of the Mauryadynasty. While it is one of the few extantpillars that carry his edicts. It is particularlynotable for containing later inscriptionsattributed to the Gupta emperor,Samudragupta. Also engraved on thestone are inscriptions by the Mughalemperor, Jahangir, from the 17th century.
Lines 13 to 15 of the inscription refer to hisconquest of the three kings of the North.They were Achyuta, Nagasena andGanapati Naga, all belonging to the Nagadynasty.
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Lines 19-20 describe Samudragupta’sDeccan campaign.
Lines 21 to 23 mention the names of thenine kings of Aryavarta defeated bySamudragupta.
60. Which one of the following
statements about the Gupta period is
not correct?
a. Forced labour (Vishti) became more
common than before in this period.
b. A passage in the Vishnu Purana refers
to the Guptas enjoying all the
territories along the Ganga up to
Prayaga.
c. The Mehrauli inscription suggests
that Chandragupta fought against a
confederacy of enemies in Bengal and
also led a campaign into the Pubjab.
d. Saurashtra was not a part of the
Gupta empire.
3 (d) All the given statements are correctexcept for statement d as Saurashtra wasvery much a part of Gupta dynasty andChandragupta Vikramaditya reignedbetween AD 470. It was also a part of theMauryan dynastry and later became a partof Samprati Mauryas of Ujjain. Further itcame under the rule of Satavahanadynastry.
61. Which one of the following
statements about the Sukanya
Samridhi Scheme is not correct?
a. Only parents of girls up to the age of
10 years can open such accounts in
their daughter’s name.
b. Contributions are eligible for tax
benefits under Section-80C of the
Income Tax Act.
c. Interest earned thereon is exempted
up to ` 1500 per annum.
d. A maximum of ` 1.50 lakh per annum
can be invested in this account.
3 (a) ‘Sukanya Samriddhi AccountScheme’ is a small deposit scheme for girlchild, as part of ‘Beti Bachao Beti Padhao’campaign, which would fetch yearlyinterest rate of 9.1% and provide incometax deduction Under Section-80C of theIncome Tax Act-1961. It is a scheme withthe vision to provide for girl child educationand her marriage expense. The schemewas launched in January, 2015.
The scheme will ensure equitable share toa girl child in resources and savings of afamily in which she is generallydiscriminated against a male child.
Sukanya Samridhi Yojana will enableparents to open bank accounts of girls whoare under 10 years of age.
62. Which of the following are the
reforms introduced in Budget
2017-18?
1. Presentation of Budget advancedto February 1 to enable the
Ministries to operationalise allactivities from the commence-ment of the financial year.
2. Merger of Railway Budget withGeneral Budget to bring Railwaysto the centre stage ofgovernment’s Fiscal Policy.
3. Removal of plan and non-planclassification of expenditure tofacilitate a holistic view ofallocations for Sectors andMinistries.
Select the correct answer using the code
given below :a. 1 and 3 b. 2 and 3
c. All of these d. 1 and 2
3 (c) All these changes have been madein the Budget of financial year (2017-18).
These changes have been considered akind of reform in the Budget making inIndia.
63. ‘Nomadic Elephant’ is a joint
military exercise between India anda. China b. Mongolia
c. Vietnam d. Bhutan
3 (b) The twelfth edition Indo-MongolianJoint Military Exercise ‘Nomadic Elephant’2017 was held at Vairengte in Mizoram.The first joint ‘Nomadic Elephant’ was heldin 2004 and since then it is annually held. Itseeks to promote military associationsbetween India and Mongolia.
64. Which one of the following
artificial sweeteners is modified Sugar?a. Aspartame b. Saccharin
c. Sucralose d. Alitame
3 (c) Sucralose is an artificial sweetenerand sugar substitute. The majority ofingested sucralose is not broken down bythe body, so it is noncaloric. Sucralose isabout 320 to 1000 times sweeter thansucrose, three times as sweetas aspartame, twice as sweet as sodiumsaccharin and three times as sweetas acesulfame potassium.
65. Which one of the following
polymers is made of protein?a. Rubber b. Cotton
c. Wool d. Jute
3 (c) Wool polymer is a linear,alpha-keratin polymer which has a helicalconfiguration. Steps in the formation ofwool polymer are not known, so therepeating unit of wool polymer is aminoacid, which is linked to each other by thepeptide bond (–CO–NH–). As a result, it isnot possible to determine the extent ordegree of polymerisation for wool. Itconsists of a long polypeptide chainconstructed from 18 amino acids.
66. Which of the following diseases
are caused by the consumption of
water contaminated by mercury and
nitrate?
a. Minamata disease and Osteoporosis
b. Osteoporosis and Blue baby syndrome
c. Minamata disease and Blue baby
syndome
d. Osteoporosis and Minamata disease
3 (c) Minamata disease, sometimesreferred to as Chisso-Minamata disease, isa neurological syndrome caused by severemercury poisoning. Symptoms includeataxia, numbness in the hands and feet,general muscle weakness, narrowing of thefield of vision and damage to hearing andspeech.
A sort of ‘blue baby syndrome’ can also becaused by methemoglobinemia. It iswidely believed to be caused by nitratecontamination in groundwater resulting indecreased oxygen carrying capacity ofhaemoglobin in babies leading to death.The groundwater can be contaminated byleaching of nitrate generated from fertilizersused in agricultural lands, waste dumps orpit latrines.
67. Leakage of which one of the
following gases had caused Bhopal
Gas Tragedy in the year 1984?a. Methyl isocyanate
b. Hexamethylene di isocyanate
c. Isophorone di isocyanate
d. Isothiocyanate
3 (a) The Bhopal disaster or Bhopal gastragedy was an industrial accident. Ithappened at a Union Carbide subsidiarypesticide plant in the city of Bhopal (India).On December 3, 1984, the plant released42 tonnes of toxic methyl isocyanate(MIC) gas, exposing more than 500000people to toxic gases. A mixture ofpoisonous gases flooded the city, causinggreat panic as people woke up with aburning sensation in their lungs.Thousands died immediately from theeffects of the gas. Many were trampled inthe panic that followed.
68. The difference between the
compound interest and the simple
interest for 2 years on a sum of
money is ` 60. If the simple interest
for 2 years is ` 1440, what is the rate
of interest?
a. 41
6% b. 6
1
4%
c. 8% d. 81
3%
3 (d) Given, difference in Cl and SI of twoyears = ` 60.
SI for 2 years = ` 1440
We know that difference in Cl and SI for
two years = ×SI R
200
(Where, R = Rate of interest)
⇒ 601440
200= × R ⇒ R = ×60 200
1440
⇒ R = 25
3% ⇒ R = 8
1
3%
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69. A, B, C, D, E and F compared
their marks in an examination and
found that A obtained the highest
marks, B obtained more marks than
D, C obtained more than at least two
others and E had not obtained the
lowest marks.
Consider the following statements :
Statement 1 At least two members
obtained less marks than C.
Statement 2 E and F obtained the
same marks.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are
sufficient to identify the one with the
lowest marks?a. Both 1 and 2 b. Neither 1 nor 2
c. Only 1 d. Only 2
3 (a) From given information
A > E/F > E/F > C > B > D
It is clear from above that D obtained thelowest marks. Hence, to identify the onewith the lowest marks both statements Iand II are sufficient.
70. Two men set out at the same time
to walk towards each other from
points A and B; 72 km apart. The first
man walks at the speed of 4 km/h
while the second walks 2 km in the
first hour, 21
2km in the second hour,
3 km in the third hour, and so on. The
two men will meeta. in 8 hours
b. nearer to A and B
c. nearer to B than A
d. midway between A and B
3 (d) Given,
Distance covered by first man
= × =4 9 36 km
Distance covered by second man
= × + − ×9
22 2 9 1 0 5[ ( ) . ]
= + × = × +4 5 4 8 0 5 4 5 4 4. [ . ] . ( )
= × =4 5 8 36. km
∴ Distance covered by first man
= Distance covered by second man = 36 km
Hence, It is clear from above that both manwill meet midway between A and B.
71. Match List I with List II and
select the correct answer using the
code given below the Lists :
List I(Hydro-power project)
LIst II(River)
A. Maithon project 1. Chambal river
B. Salal project 2. Bhagirathi river
C. Rana Pratap Sagarproject
3. Barakar river
D. Tehri project 4. Chenab river
Code
A B C D A B C D
a. 2 1 4 3 b. 2 4 1 3
c. 3 1 4 2 b. 3 4 1 2
3 (d) The Maithon Dam is locatedat Maithon, 48 km from Dhanbad, in theState of Jharkhand. It is 15712 ft(4789 m) long and 165 ft (50 m) high.
This dam was specially designed for floodcontrol and generates 60000 kW of electricpower. There is an underground powerstation, the first of its kind in the whole ofSouth-East Asia. The dam is constructed onthe Barakar river. The lake is spread over 65sq km (25 sq mi). Salal Hydroelectric Projectis built on river Chenab near Reasi inUdhampur district of Jammu and Kashmir(India). The Ranapratap Sagar Dam is agravity masonry dam of 53.8 m (177 ft)height built on the Chambal river atRawatbhata in Rajasthan (India).
The Tehri dam is the highest dam in Indiaand one of the highest in the world. It is amulti-purpose rock and earthfillembankment damon the Bhagirathi rivernear Tehri in Uttarakhand (India).
72. Match List I with List II and
select the correct answer using the
code given below the Lists:
List I(Vegetation)
List II(Region)
A. Chaparrals 1. North America
B. Maquis 2. Southern Europe
C. Fynbos 3. South Africa
D. Malle scrubs 4. Australia
Code
A B C D A B C D
a. 1 2 3 4 b. 1 3 2 4
c. 4 3 2 1 b. 4 2 3 1
3 (a)
73. Which one of the following tiger
reserves of India has ‘Bhoorsingh the
Barasingha’ as its official mascot?a. Nameri tiger reserve
b. Ranthambhore tiger reserve
c. Panna tiger reserve
d. Kanha tiger reserve
3 (d) Kanha has become the first tigerreserve in India to officially introduce amascot, Bhoorsingh the Barasingha, topresent the hard ground swamp deer asthe spirit of the reserve and spreadawareness to save it from possibleextinction. Barasingha, or swamp deer, isthe State animal of Madhya Pradesh.
74. Which one of the following
elements is present in the green
pigment of leaves?a. Magnesium b. Iron
c. Calcium d. Copper
3 (a) Magnesium has an important rolein photosynthesis because it forms thecentral atom of chlorophyll (green pigment).
Therefore, without sufficient amounts ofmagnesium, plants begin to degrade thechlorophyll in the old leaves. This causesthe main symptom of magnesiumdeficiency, chlorosis, or yellowing betweenleaf veins, which stay green, giving theleaves a marbled appearance.
75. Which one of the following is not
correct about organic farming?
a. It does not use genetically modifiedseeds.
b. Synthetic pesticides or fertilizers arenot used.
c. It uses minimal crop rotation.
d. It uses ecologically protectivepractices.
3 (c) Organic farming is an alternativeagricultural system which originated earlyin the 20th century in reaction to rapidlychanging farming practices. Organicfarming continues to be developed byvarious organic agricultural organisationstoday. It relies on fertilizers of organic originsuch as compost, manure, green manure,and bone meal and places emphasis ontechniques, such as crop rotation andcompanion planting. Biological pestcontrol, mixed cropping and the fosteringof insect predators are encouraged.
76. Which one of the following
instruments is used for measuring
moisture content of air?a. Hydrometer b. Hygrometerc. Hypsometer d. Pycnometer
3 (b) A hygrometer is an instrument usedfor measuring the water vapour in theatmosphere. Humidity measurementinstruments usually rely on measurementsof some other quantity, such astemperature, pressure, mass or amechanical or electrical change in asubstance as moisture is absorbed.
77. Bronze is an alloy of copper anda. nickel b. ironc. tin d. aluminium
3 (c) Bronze is an alloy consistingprimarily of copper, commonly with about12% tin and often with the addition of othermetals (such as aluminium, manganese, nickel or zinc) and sometimes non-metals ormetalloids, such as arsenic, phosphorus orsilicon, These additions produce a range ofalloys that may be harder than copperalone, or have other useful properties, suchas stiffness, ductility, or machinability.
78. The length of a rectangle is
increased by 60%. By what percent
would the width have to be decreased
to maintain the same area?a. 37.5% b. 60% c. 75% d. 120%
3 (a) We know that if the length of arectangle is increased by x%, then tomaintain the same area width have to
decreased by100
100
×+
x
x%
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72 kmA B
COMPETITION FOCUSIN October 2017
Here, x = 60%
∴ Required decrement in width of rectangle
= ×+
100
100
x
x%
= ×+
100 60
100 60
= ×100 60
160
= =75
237 5. %
79. Two pipes A and B can fill a tank
in 12 minutes and 16 minutes
respectively. If both the pipes are
opened together, then after how
much time, B should be closed so that
the tank is full in 9 minutes?
a. 31
2min b. 4 min
c. 41
2min d. 4
3
4min
3 (b) Let, pipe B is closed after x min
Then, part filled by pipe A in 1 min = 1
12
and part filled by pipe B in 1 min = 1
16
Now, part filled by pipe ( )A B+ in x min +part filled by pipe A in ( )9 − x min = 1
⇒ x x x
12 16
9
121+ + − =
⇒ 4 3 36 4
481
x x x+ + − =
⇒ 3 36 48x + =⇒ 3 48 36 12x = − =⇒ 3 12x =⇒ x = 4 min
80. One year ago, a father was four
times as old as his son. After six years
his age exceeds twice his son’s age by
9 years. The ratio of their present age
isa. 9 : 2 b. 11 : 3
c. 12 : 5 d. 13 : 4
3 (b) Let, present age of father = F years
and present age of son = S years
According to the question,
( ) ( )F S− = −1 4 1
⇒ F S− = −1 4 4
⇒ F S− = −4 3 …(i)
and ( ) ( )F S+ = + +6 2 6 9
⇒ F S+ = + +6 2 12 9
⇒ F S− = −2 21 6
⇒ F S− =2 15 …(ii)
Now, solving Eqs. (i) and (ii), we have
F = 33 years
and S = 9 years
∴ Ratio of their present ages
= 33 9:
= 11 3:
81. Which one of the following pairs
of Island and Sea/Ocean is not
correctly matched?a. Cyprus : Mediterranean Sea
b. Falkland : Atlantic Ocean
c. Chagos : North Pacific Ocean
d. Islas Cocos : Indian Ocean
3 (c) The Chagos Archipelago or ChagosIslands is a group of seven atolls comprisingmore than 60 individual tropical islands inthe Indian Ocean about 500 km (310 mi)South of the Maldives archipelago.
82. Match List I with List II and
select the correct answer using the
code given below the Lists:
LIst I(Mineral)
LIst II(Mine)
A. Zinc 1. Amjhore
B. Gold 2. Sukinda
C. Chromite 3. Zawar
D. Pyrite 4. Hutti
Code
A B C D A B C D
a. 1 2 4 3 b. 3 2 4 1
c. 3 4 2 1 d. 1 4 2 3
3 (c)
83. As per Census 2011, which one of
the following is the correct
descending order of States in India in
respect of sex ratio (female per
thousand of males)?
a. West Bengal–Madhya
Pradesh–Uttarakhand–Jammu and
Kashmir
b. Madhya Pradesh–West
Bengal–Jammu and
Kashmir–Uttarakhand
c. Uttarakhand–West Bengal–Madhya
Pradesh–Jammu and Kashmir
d. West Bengal–Uttarakhand–Madhya
Pradesh–Jammu and Kashmir
3 (c)
84. Liquid water is denser than ice
due toa. higher surface tension
b. hydrogen bonding
c. van der Waals forces
d. covalent bonding
3 (b) When water freezes, watermolecules form a crystalline structuremaintained by hydrogen bonding.Solid water, or ice, is less dense thanliquid water because the orientation ofhydrogen bonds causes molecules to pushfarther apart, which lowers the density.
85. Which one of the following is the
chemical name of heavy water?a. Hydrogen oxide
b. Deuterium dioxide
c. Deuterium oxide
d. Heavy hydrogen oxide
3 (c) Heavy water (deuterium oxide) is aform of water that contains a larger thannormal amount of the hydrogenisotopedeuterium. The presence ofdeuterium gives the chemicalls differentnuclear properties, and the increase ofmass gives it different physical andchemical properties compared to normal‘light water’.
86. Who among the following has
coined the term ‘Quark’, the
fundamental particles that make up
protons and neutrons in an atomic
nucleus?a. Richard Feynman
b. Murray Gell-Mann
c. Alberi Einstein
d. Niels Bohr
3 (b) A ‘quark’ is a type of elementaryparticle and a fundamental constituent ofmatter. Quark scombine to form compositeparticles called Hadrons, the most stable ofwhich are protons and neutrons, thecomponents of atomic nuclei. This termwas coined by Murray Gell-Mann.
87. The mass number of an element
is not changed when it emitsa. Alpha and Beta radiations only
b. Alpha and Gamma radiations only
c. Beta and Gamma radiations only
d. Alpha, Beta and Gamma radiations
3 (c) Gamma radiation doesn’t change thenumber of protons or neutrons in a nucleusbut it does change the way they arearranged. Therefore keeping the massnumber of the atom unchanged. Similarlybeta radiations also keeps the atomicmass in an atom unchanged.
88. Which one of the following is the
smallest number by which 2880 must
be divided in order to make it a
perfect square?a. 3 b. 4
c. 5 d. 6
3 (c) From option (c)2880
5576=
Now, 576 24 2= ( )
Hence, we can say that 5 is the smallestnumber by which 2880 must be divided inorder to make is a perfect square.
89. A 3 digit number 4X3 is added to
984 to get a 4 digit number 13Y7. If
13Y7 is divisible by 11, then what is
the value of (X+Y)?a. 15 b. 12
c. 11 d. 10
3 (d) According to the question,
4 × 3
(+)9 8 4
13Y7
Now, 13Y7 is divided by 11∴ Putting, Y = 9
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COMPETITION FOCUSINOctober 2017
∴ Number = 1397
Now, 4 × 3
9 8 4
1397
x + =8 9 ⇒ x = − =9 8 1
⇒ x = 1
∴ 4 1 3
9 8 4
1397
∴ X = 1and Y = 9
Now, ( )X Y+ = + =1 9 10
90. If all students are boys and all
boys are dancers, then which one of
the following statements is definitely
true?a. All dancers are boys
b. All boys are students
c. All dancers are students
d. All students are dancers
3 (d) If all students are boys and all boysare dancers, then we can say that allstudents are dancers.
91. In March, 2017, a High Court in
India had accorded he status of living
human entities to which two of the
following rivers?a. Brahmaputra and Ganga
b. Ganga and Yamuna
c. Yamuna and Godavari
d. Krishna and Kaveri
3 (b) The Uttarakhand High Court haddeclared the Ganga and Yamuna livingentities, bestowing on them same legalrights as a person, a move that could helpin efforts to clean the pollution-chokedrivers. However, the order has been stayedby the Supreme Court of India.
92. Which one of the following
statements about land tenure system
is not correct?
a. During the British rule in India three
categories of land tenure system, viz.
Zamindari, Mahalwari and Ryotwari
were introduced.
b. Under Zamindari system, land was
held by one person or at the most by
a few joint owners who were
responsible for the payment of land
revenue.
c. Under the Mahalwari system, the
agricultural lands belonged to the
government.
d. Under Ryotwari system, the individual
holders had the permanent rights over
land and were directly responsible for
payment of land revenue.
3 (c) This kind of tenancy was introducedduring the British rule. It was first introducedin Agra and Oudh and later on in Punjab.Muslim tradition was instrumental in theemergence of the Mahalwari system.So faras the Mahalwari tenure was concerned, thevillage lands were held jointly by the villagecommunities. The ruralites were jointly andseverally responsible for the payment ofland revenue.
93. Which of the following are the
necessary conditions for the growth
of coral reefs?
1. Photic conditions2. Clean and sediment-free water3. SEA salinity of 6%4. Tropical sea water with
temperature of 20°C to 21°C
Select the correct answer using the code
given below :a. 1, 2 and 4 b. 2 and 4
c. 1 and 3 d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
3 (a) Corals is limestone rock made byaccumulation of skeletons of tiny marineorganisms called coral polyps.
The following are five conditions whichfavour occurrence of coral reefs.l Sunlight Coral reefs need to grow in
shallow water where sunlight can reachthem. Corals depend on the Zooxanthellae(algae) that grow inside of them for oxygenand other things, and since these algaeneed sunlight to survive, corals also needsunlight to survive.
l Clean Water Corals need clean waterthat lets the sunlight through. They do notthrive well in muddy like near river mouth.Sediments and plankton can cloud waterwhich decrease the amount of sunlightthat reaches the Zooxanthellae.
l Warm Water Reef building corals requirewarm water condition to survive. Differentcorals living in different regions canwithstand various temperaturefluctuations. However, corals generallythrive in water temperature of 20-30° C.
l Salty Water Corals need salty water tosurvive and require certain balance in theratio of salt to water. This is why corals donot live in areas where rivers drain freshwater into the sea.
94. Which one of the following
diseases is caused by cadmium
pollution?a. Minamata b. Itai-itai
c. Fluorosis d. Blue baby syndrome
3 (b) Itai-itai disease was the name givento the mass cadmiumpoisoning of Japan. The term ‘itai-itai’,disease was coined by locals for thesevere pains victims felt in the spine andjoints. Cadmium poisoning can alsocause softening of the bones and kidneyfailure.Cadmium was released into riversby mining companies in the mountains.
95. Presence of ozone in the
atmosphere is important because it
absorbs
a. ultraviolet-A and ultraviolet-B
radiations
b. ultraviolet-B radiations only
c. infrared-B radiations only
d. outgoing ultraviolet-B radiations and
incoming ultraviolet-A radiations
3 (a) Although the concentration of theozone in the ozone layer is very small, it isvitally important to life because it absorbsbiologically harmful UltraViolet (UV)radiation coming from the sun. UVradiation capable of penetrating nitrogen isdivided into three categories, based on itswavelength; these are referred to as UV-A(400–315 nm), UV-B (315–280 nm), andUV-C (280–100 nm).
96. NPP (Net Primary Productivity) is
highest fora. tropical forests
b. swamps
c. reefs
d. woodland and shrub land
3 (a) Gross Primary Production (GPP) isthe total amount of CO2 that is fixed by theplant in photosynthesis.
Net Primary Production (NPP) is the netamount of primary production after thecosts of plant respiration are included.Therefore, NPP = GPP – R
Order of net primary productivity
Tropical forests > reefs > swamps >woodland and shrubland
97. Study of a single species and the
environmental factors in its habitat is
calleda. Genecology b. Synecology
c. Autecology d. Ethology
3 (c) Autecology is the study of individualorganism or individual species. It is alsoknown as population ecology.
98. In an examination, 25% of the
candidates failed in Mathematics and
12% failed in English. If 10% of the
candidates failed in both the subjects
and 292 candidates passed in both the
subjects, which one of the following is
the number of total candidates
appeared in the examination?a. 300 b. 400 c. 460 d. 500
3 (b) Here, a = 25%, b = 12%, andc = 10%
∴ Percentage of candidates passed in boththe subject
= − + −[ ( )]%100 a b c
= − + −[ ( )]%100 25 12 10
= −( )%100 27
= 73%
Now, let total number of candidatesappeared in the examination = x
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139711 127112922
7777×
COMPETITION FOCUSIN October 2017
Accordng to the question,
73% of x = 292
⇒ x × =73
100292 ⇒ x = ×292 100
73
⇒ x = ×4 100 ⇒ x = 400
Hence, total number of candidatesappeared in the exmination = 400
99. 5% of income of A is equal to 15%
of income of B and 10% income of Bis equal to 20% of income of C. If the
income of C is ` 2000, then what is
the total income of A, B and C?a. ` 20000 b. ` 18000
c. ` 14000 d. ` 6000
3 (b) According to the question,
A B× = ×5
100
15
100
⇒ A B= 3
And B C× = ×10
100
20
100⇒
B C= 2
Given, Income of C = ` 2000
∴ Income of B = × =2 2000 4000`
And income of A = × =3 4000 12000`
∴ Total income of A B, and C
= + +12000 4000 2000
= ` 18000
100. If the product of n positive
numbers is unity, then their sum isa. a positive integer b. divisible by n
c. cqual to n
n
+ 1d. never less than n
3 (a) If the product of n positive numbers isunity, then their sum is a positive integer.
101. Which of the following
statements about the Equatorial
region are correct?
1. It is a megathermal region.2. It is a sclerophyll region.3. It is a region of high
development.4. It is a region of aerial streamlets.
Select the correct answer using the code
given below :a. 1 and 4
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 2, 3 and 4
d. 1, 2 and 3
3 (a) The term megathermal is sometimesused as a synonym for ‘tropical.’ In orderfor a particular place to qualify as having amegathermal climate, every single monthout of the year must have an averagetemperature of 18°C or above which is veryprominently found in the equatorial regions.
Most of the rains in the equatorial climate isintercepted by forest canopy and thusreaches ground surface slowly in the formof aerial streamlets through leaves,branches and stems of trees and thusthere is maximum infiltration of rainwater.
102. Which one of the following
statements about the Himalayas is
not correct?a. They are young fold mountains.
b. They have geosynclinal rocks.
c. Himalayan Frontal Faults (HFF)
separates Himalaya from Tibet.
d. Indus and Sutlej rivers form
antecedent drainage in Himalaya
3 (c) Himalayas are one of the youngestmountain ranges on the planet andconsists mostly of uplifted sedimentary andmetamorphic rock. There is presence ofgeosynclinal rocks.
A geosyncline or geosynclinal rocks aredescribed as a subsiding linear trough thatwas caused by the accumulation ofsedimentary rock strata deposited in abasin and subsequently compressed,deformed, and uplifted into a mountainrange, with attendant volcanism andplutonism.
The antecedent rivers originating from theHimalayas include Indus, Satluj,Brahmaputra, Kosi and Subansiri.
However there is no fault line thatseparates himalayas from Tibet as it is anextension of the former.
103. Which one of the following is
not a favourable condition for
occurrence of a thunderstorm?a. Conditional and convective instability
b. Adequate supply of moisture in the
lower atmosphere
c. Advection of cold dry air in the lower
troposphere and warm moist air in
the uppper troposphere
d. A synoptic situation of low level
convergence and upper level
divergence
3 (c) Five Necessary conditions forthunderstorm are as followsl Instability through a reasonable depth of
the atmospherel Enough humidity to sustain / feed deep
convection through a reasonable depth:advection of warm, humid air at low levelsgreatly assists thunderstormdevelopment.
l Cloud tops reaching to a level where thetemperature is at least − 18°C.
l A large amount of energy available to bereleased.
l Something to ‘kick it all off’-a ‘trigger’ orinitiating action (differential surfaceheating, orographic ascent, frontal(conveyor) ascent, mass convergences,coastal or sea-breege convergence,vorticity-driven forcing).
104. The ecological niche of an
organism relates toa. specific habitat of the organism
b. symbiotic relationship with other
organisms
c. diverse occurrence of a species underdifferent conditions
d. its interaction with all otherorganisms
3 (a) An ecological niche is the role andposition a species has in its environment;how it meets its needs for food and shelter,how it survives, and how it reproduces. Aspecies' niche includes all of its interactionswith the biotic and abiotic factors of itsenvironment.
105. Free swimming macroscopic
animals in an aquatic environment
are referred to asa. Plankton b. Periphyton
c. Benthos d. Nekton
3 (d) Marine animals are divided into threegroups: zooplankton, nekton, and benthos.
Nekton are the free swimmers andprobably the largest portion of familiaranimals found in the ocean belong to thisclass. They are large in size and commonfishes, the octopus, whales, eels and squidare all examples of nekton.
106. The term ‘Biomagnification’ is
referred to asa. increase in the body weight
b. uncontrolled growth of harmful
organisms
c. accumulation of increasing amount
of non-degradable pollutant through
food chain
d. increase in the number of bacteria in
a culture medium
3 (c) Biological magnification often refersto the process whereby certainsubstances, such as pesticides or heavymetals move up the food chain, work theirway into rivers or lakes, and are eaten byaquatic organisms such as fish, which inturn are eaten by large birds, animals orhumans. The substances becomeconcentrated in tissues or internal organsas they move up the chain.Bioaccumulants are substances thatincrease in concentration in livingorganisms as they take in contaminatedair, water, or food because the substancesare very slowly metabolised or excreted.
107. Which one of the following
statements about air pollution caused
by diesel engines is correct?
a. It produces large quantity of carbon
monoxide at lower and high
temperatures.
b. It produces large quantity of nitrogen
oxides at lower and high
temperatures.
c. It produces large quantity of carbon
monoxide at lower temperature and
nitrogen oxides at high temperature.
d. It produces large quantity of nitrogenoxides at lower temperature andcarbon monoxide at high temperature.
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3 (c) Diesel-powered vehicles andequipment account for nearly half of allnitrogen oxides (NOx) and more thantwo-thirds of all Particulate Matter (PM)emissions. It also produces large quantity ofCarbon monoxide(CO) at extreme operatingtemperatures. However at low temperaturesit produces nitrogen oxide.
108. In an election which was
contested by two candidates, X and Y,
4000 votes were polled. Suppose that
every vote was polled in favour of
either of the two candidates.
Candidate Y got 40% of vote polled and
was defeated. What was the margin of
defeat?a. 500 votes b. 800 votes
c. 1200 votes d. 1600 votes
3 (b) We know that if two candidatecontested in an election and one candidateget x% of total votes casted and still lose byy votes, then
Total number of votes casted = ×−
100
100 2
y
x
Here, total number of votes casted
= 4000, y x= =?, %40
∴ 4000100
100 2 40= ×
− ×y
⇒ 4000100
100 80= ×
−y ⇒ 4000
100
20= × y
⇒ 4000 5= y ⇒ y = 800
∴ Margin of defeat = 800 votes
109. The average of 7 consecutive odd
number is M. If the next 3 odd numb 3
odd numbers are also included, the
averagea. remains unchanged
b. increases by 1.5
c. increases by 2
d. increases by 3
3 (d) If the next 3 odd numbers are alsoincluded, then average will be increase by 3.
Directions (Q.Nos. 110-112) Followingthree questions are based on theinformation provided below
Investment in various industries/sectorsacross five years (in ` 100 Crore)
Type ofindustry/
sector
2005-06
2006-07
2007-08
2008-09
2009-10
Manufacturing
740 800 470 440 810
Electrical 500 520 600 650 800
Services 420 480 500 600 750
Mining 440 500 550 600 660
Others 800 900 980 1110 1080
110. What is the percentage increase
in investment in the Electrical sector
from 2005-06 to 2009-10 ?a. 30% b. 40%
c. 50% d. 60%
3 (d) Required percentage increased
= − ×( )800 500
500100
= × = ×300
500100
3 100
5
= ×3 20 = 60%
111. During the given years, what is
the average investment per year for
the service sector (` 100 Crore)?a. 490 b. 550 c. 580 d. 670
3 (b) Average investment per year for theservice sector
= + + + +1
5420 480 500 600 750( )
= ×1
52750 = 550
112. During which one of the
following years, was the total
investment maximum?a. 2006-07 b. 2007-08
c. 2008-09 d. 2009-10
3 (d) Total investment in 2006-07
= + + + + =800 520 480 500 900 3200
Total investment in 2007-08
= + + + + =470 600 500 550 980 3100
Total investment in 2008-09
= + + + + =440 650 600 600 1110 3400
Total investment in 2009-10
= + + + + =810 800 750 660 1080 4100
In is clear from above that the totalinvestment maximum was in the year2009-10.
113. Which one of the following is a
major effects of long term consump-
tion of drinking water containing little
(less than 0.5 ppm) or no fluoride?a. Cavity of tooth
b. Erosion of nail
c. Deformation of bone
d. Mottling of tooth
3 (d) Fluoride in toothpaste and drinkingwater, is like a constant ‘repair kit’ that helpsto protect teeth against tooth decay.Absence of fluoride is results in mottling oftooth. Dental fluorosis manifests as whitemottling of teeth in which noticeable whitelines or streaks have joined into largeropaque areas. Brown staining or pitting ofenamel may also be present. In severe formsactual breakdown of enamel may take placewith loss of anatomical structure of the teeth.
114. Carborundum is used as an
abrasive, because ita. has high thermal conductivity
b. has low coefficient of expansion
c. has high chemical stability
d. is extremely hard
3 (d) Carborundum also known as Siliconcarbide is a compound of silicon andcarbon. Synthetic silicon carbide powderhas been mass-produced since 1893 for
use as an abrasive. Grains of siliconcarbide can be bonded together bysintering to form very hard ceramics thatare widely used in applications requiringhigh endurance, such as car brakes, carclutches and ceramic plates inbulletproof vests.
115. Which one of the following is
not decomposed by bacterial action?a. Vegetable remains
b. Plastic materials
c. Animal carcasses
d. Wastes of flowers
3 (b)
116. Two positions of a dice with 1 to
6 dots on its side are shown below :
If the dice is resting on the side with
three dots, what will be the number
of dots on the side at the top?
a. 1 b. 1 or 5 c. 5 d. 2 or 5
3 (b) After watching the two positions of adice, we can say that if the dice is restingon the side with three dots, then thenumber of dots on the side at the top willbe 1 or 5.
117. Consider the following figure :
What is the number of rectangles
which are not squares in the above
figure? (Given that ABCD is a square
and E, F, G, H are mid-points of its
sides)
a. 14 b. 16 c. 20 d. 21
3 (b) Given figure is as follows
In this figure, the number of rectangleswhich are not squares, is as follows
AENM, MNOH, EPRO, PBFR
HXYD, XOGY, OFIJ, JICG
APRH, ABFH, HFCD, XFCY
AEGD, MNGD, EBCG, EBIJ
Hence, there are such 16 rectangles arepresent in the given figure which are notsquares.
A E B
D G C
H FR
J I
A E B
D G C
H F
N
OR
J
X
M
Y
I
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118. Consider the following number :
n = × ×[( ) ( ) ( ) ]6374 625 3131793 317 49
Which one of the following is the
digit at the unit place of n?
a. 0 b. 1 c. 2 d. 5
3 (a) Given,
n = × ×[( ) ( ) ( ) ]6374 625 3131793 317 49
∴ Unit place digit in given number
= unit place digit of ( ) ( ) ( )4 5 33 7 9× ×= unit place digit of 64 78625 19683× ×= unit place digit of 4 5 3× × = 0
119. Match List I with List II and
select the correct answer using the
code given below the Lists:
List I(Bird Sanctuary)
List II(State)
A. Sultanpur 1. West Bengal
B. Kulik 2. Haryana
C. Nawabganj 3. Uttar Pradesh
D. Attiveri 4. Karnataka
Code
A B C D A B C Da. 2 1 3 4 b. 2 3 1 4c. 4 3 1 2 d. 4 1 3 2
3 (a)
120. Match List I with List II and
select the correct answer using the
code given below the lists :
List I (National Park)
A. Corbett B. Neora Valley
C. Betla D. Kanha
List II (Location in map)
Code
A B C D A B C Da. 2 1 3 4 b. 2 3 1 4c. 4 1 3 2 d. 4 3 1 2
3 (d)
121. Consider the following
statements:
1. Areas where rainfall exceeds
250 cm
2. Annual temperature 25 27− °C3. Average humidity exceeds 75%
4. Trees do not shed the leaves
To which one of the following types of
vegetation does the above represent?a. Tropical wet evergreen
b. Tropical semi-evergreen
c. Tropical moist deciduous
d. Tropical dry evergreen
3 (a) Wet evergreen forests are found inthe South along the Western Ghats and theNicobar and Andaman Islands and allalong the North-eastern region. It ischaracterised by tall, straight evergreentrees that have a buttressed trunk or rooton three sides like a tripod that helps tokeep a tree upright during a storm. Rainfallpeaks around 400 mm, but on the averageis above 250 mm. The average annualtemperature lies in the range of 25-27°.The more common trees that are foundhere are the jackfruit, betel nut palm,jamun, mango, and hollock. The trees inthis forest form a tier pattern: shrubs coverthe layer closer to the ground, followed bythe short structured trees and then the tallvariety. High humidity levels of more than75% ensures that leaves do not shedleaves throughout the year. Beautiful fern ofvarious colours and different varieties oforchids grow on the trunks of the trees.
122. Which of the following
statements related to tribes in India
are correct?
1. Tharu tribes are found in Uttar
Pradesh and Uttarakhand.
2. Irula, Chenchu and Sumali tribes
are found in Kerala.
3. Garasia tribes are found in Goa.
4. Gaddi tribes are nomadic herders
of Jammu & Kashmir and
Himachal Pradesh.
Select the correct answer using the code
given below :a. 1 and 3 b. 2 and 4c. 1, 2 and 4 d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
3 (a) The Tharu people are an ethnicgroup indigenous to the southern foothillsof the Himalayas; most of the Tharu peoplelive in the Nepal Terai. Some Tharu groupsalso live in the Indian Terai, foremost inUttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh and Bihar.
Garasia is a Scheduled Tribe inhabiting theIndian States of Rajasthan and Gujarat.Garasiya settlements are found in theRajasthan districts of Pali, Sirohi, Udaipurand Dungarpur, and the Gujarat districts ofSabarkantha and Banaskantha. The Gaddisare a group of nomadic tribe living mainly inthe Indian States of Himachal Pradesh andJammu and Kashmir. Irula is an ethnic groupof India. They inhabit the area of the Nilgirimountains, in the States of Tamil Nadu andKerala (India). The Chenchus are Adivasi, adesignated Scheduled Tribe in the IndianStates of Andhra Pradesh, Telangana,Karnataka and Odisha.
123. Consider the following
statements about ‘Ring of Fire’:
1. It is also known as Circum-Pacificbelt of volcanoes
2. It is an active seismic zone3. It is a zone of divergent place
margin
Select the correct answer using the code
given below :a. Only 1 b. 1 and 2c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2 and 3
3 (b) The Ring of Fire is a string ofvolcanoes and sites of seismic activity, orearthquakes, around the edges of thePacific Ocean. Roughly 90% of allearthquakes occur along the Ring of Fire,and the ring is dotted with 75% of all activevolcanoes on Earth. It is also commonlyknown as the Circum-Pacific belt ofvolcanoes as it entirely lies in the PacificOcean. It lies in the zone of convergentplate boundary margin and the convergentboundaries are often subduction zones,where the heavier plate slips under thelighter plate, creating a deep trench.
124. The Bum-La Pass is located ina. Sikkimb. Arunachal Pradeshc. Himachal Pradesh d. Uttarakhand
3 (b) Bum-La Pass is a high mountainpass at an elevation of 5000 m (16500 feet)above the sea level, on the Himalayanmountain range, in Arunachal Pradesh, atthe Indo-China border.
125. Which one of the following is
located at the southernmost latitude?a. South Africa b. Australiac. Chile d. Polynesia
3 (c) The geographical alignment of Chileincorporates latitude of 30° 00' S andlongitude of 71° 00' W and has thesouthernmost latitude.
Tropic of Cencer
Kms.0 250 500. Kms.
60° 64° 68° 76° 80° 84° 88° 92° 96° 100° 104°
32°
28°
24°23½°
20°
16°
12°
8°
100°96°92°88°84°88°76°72°68°64°
8°
12°
16°
20°
24°
28°
32°
4
1
2
3
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