Post on 15-Jul-2020
ID: A
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AP Chem - Topic 1 Test
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
1 What state of matter can be described as having
an indefinite shape but a definite volume?
A solid B liquid C gas D gas or liquid
E none of the above
2 Assuming identical conditions, in which state of
matter do the particles present have the least
amount of energy?
A solids B liquids C gases D both solids
and liquids E none of the above
3 Which of the following data are quantitative?
A the door is six feet tall B the door is white
C the door is rectangular D the door has one
door knob E both (A) and (D)
4 The physical change of state known as
"condensation" involves which transformation?
A solid to liquid B liquid to gas C gas to
solid D gas to liquid E liquid to solid
5 Which of the following is a pure substance?
A distilled water B Coca-Cola C sea water
D italian salad dressing E none of the above
6 How many significant figures in the number
585000?
A 2 B 3 C 4 D 5 E 6
7 How many significant figures in the number
3.955 x 105?
A 5 B 4 C 3 D 2 E 1
8 How many significant figures in the number
0.00075036?
A 9 B 8 C 5 D 4 E 3
9 How many significant figures should be recorded
in the result of the calculation, 98.55 - 18.5?
A 1 B 2 C 3 D 4 E none of the above
10 How many significant figures in the number
50.00?
A 1 B 2 C 3 D 4 E none of the above
11 Which is a possible correct sequence of
operations in the scientific method?
A make observations, experiment, form a
hypothesis B experiment, make a theory, form a
hypothesis C make observations, form a
hypothesis, experiment D make a theory, form a
hypothesis, experiment E none of the above
12 Which of the following represents the number
655000?
A 6.55 x 10-5 B 6.55 x 105 C 6.55 x 103
D 6.55 x 106 E 6.55 x 10-6
13 Which of the following represents the number
2.1 x 10-4?
A 0.0021 B 0.000021 C 0.021 D 0.21
E 0.00021
14 Which of the following base quantities has the
WRONG unit?
A temperature in K B time in s C mass in L
D amount of substance in mol E length in m
ID: A
2
15 Which of the following prefixes has the WRONG
power?
A giga, x109 B kilo, x103 C micro, x10-12
D milli, x10-3 E nano, x10-9
16 Convert 50 degrees Celsius to Kelvin.
A 50 B 550 C 253 D 323 E 353
17 Convert 104 degrees Fahrenheit to Celsius.
A 26 B 219 C -169 D 40 E 377
18 Convert 50.0 degrees Fahrenheit to Kelvin.
A 283 B 323 C 305 D 170 E none of the
above
19 The average of which set of data is most
ACCURATE if the accepted value is 4.49?
A 4.40, 4.41, 4.42 B 4.50, 4.59, 4.66 C 4.47,
4.48, 4.51 D 4.61, 4.62, 4.59 E 4.55, 4.49,
4.67
20 Which of the following indicates a chemical
change is taking place?
A gas bubbles form on the surface of a liquid
B a liquid turns into a solid C a piece of glass
is struck and shatters D a liquid is changing
colors E Both A and D
21 All pure substances can be classified as
A elements or mixtures B compounds or
mixtures C elements or compounds
D elements, compounds, or mixtures E only
elements
22 Determine the number of protons, neutrons, and
electrons present in 26
57Fe
3+
A 26 protons, 31 neutrons, 23 electrons B 57
protons, 26 neutrons, 57 electrons C 26
protons, 31 neutrons, 26 electrons D 23
protons, 48 neutrons, 26 electrons E 26
protons, 31 neutrons, 29 electrons
23 What is the correct name for MgSO4?
A magnesium sufide B magnesium sulfite
C magnesium sulfate D magnesium persulfate
E magnesium hyposulfite
24 Which of the following is a polyatomic anion?
A NH41+ B Mg2+ C Cl1- D IO31- E H2SO4
25 What is the correct formula for iron (III)
phosphate tetrahydrate?
A Fe3PO4 • 4H2O B FePO4 • 3H2O C FePO4 •
4H D FePO4 • 4H2O E None of the above
26 What is the correct formula for dinitrogen
pentoxide?
A 2N5O B N2O5 C N2O4 D NO4 E None of
the above
27 What is the correct formula for perchloric acid?
A H2ClO3 B HClO2 C HClO5 D HCl
E None of the above
28 A neutron bombards an isotope of tungsten as
follows : 74
180W +
0
1n
What are the possible products of this reaction?
A 70
176Yb +
2
4He B
0
0 γ + 74
181W C
74
180W +
−1
0e
D 0
0 γ + 75
181Re E none of the above
29 Which of the following information is true
regarding protons?
A found outside the nucleus, relative mass of 1,
charge of 0 B found inside the nucleus, relative
mass of 1, charge of 1- C found inside the
nucleus, relative mass of 0, charge of 1+
D found inside the nucleus, relative mass of 1,
charge of 1+ E None of the above
ID: A
3
A student created this graph of the band of
stability. It shows the ratio of neutrons to
protons in the elements with several example
elements shown with their exact ratios.
30 According to the band of stability above,
A silver has a 1:1 neutron to proton ratio
B iron has about 50% more neutrons than
protons C heavier elements are more stable in
nuetron to proton ratios close to 1.5:1
D neon-20 is most likely radioactive E none of
the above
31 Uranium-238 has a neutron to proton ratio of
2.59:1. This would indicate
A uranium could be used for fusion B this
nucleus is unstable and radioactive C electron
capture would stablize this nucleus D this
nucleus must be an ion E none of the above
32 Assuming the student properly collected the data
points, has the student made any errors in the
element examples presented?
A yes, the ratio for silver was miscalculated
B yes, the line doesn’t fit the data points C yes,
the student has the axes reversed D yes, the
ratio for neon was miscalculated E no, all
examples are correctly shown
33 What is the correct name for Al2P3?
A aluminum phosphate B aluminum phosphide
C aluminum (II) phosphide D aluminum
phosphite E dialuminum triphosphide
34 How would an alpha particle be affected when
passing through an electrical field?
A it would be unaffected by the electrical field
B it would move toward the negative plate C it
would oscillate between the positive and negative
plates D it would move away from the negative
plate E None of the above
35 Determine the number of protons, neutrons, and
electrons present in the following isotope of
cadmium: 48
112Cd
A 48 protons, 112 neutrons, 64 electrons B 112
protons, 64 neutrons, 48 electrons C 48
protons, 64 neutrons, 48 electrons D 64
protons, 48 neutrons, 48 electrons E 48
protons, 48 neutrons, 112 electrons
36 What is the correct formula for sodium hydrogen
sulfate?
A NaHSO4 B Na2HSO4 C H2SO4 D NaHS
E NaHS2O3
37 What is the correct name for HBr?
A monohydrogen monobromide B bromous
acid C bromic acid D hydrogen dibromide
E hydrobromic acid
38 Which of the following represents the alpha
decay of plutonium-242?
A 94
242Pu →
92
238U +
2
4He B
94
242Pu →
95
242Am +
−1
0e C
94
242Pu +
−1
0e →
93
242Np D
94
242Pu →
+1
0 β +
93
242Np E none of the above
ID: A
4
39 What are the key insights that were revealed by
Rutherford’s Gold Foil experiment?
A electrons are negatively charged particles
B most beta particles pass through gold foil
C the nucleus is made up of protons and
nuetrons D atoms have a dense positive nucleus
surrounded by mostly empty space E atoms can
not be divided into simpler substances
40 The difference between nuclear reactions and
chemical reactions is that
A a lot more energy is released in chemical
reactions than in nuclear reactions B chemical
reactions involve electron transfers and nuclear
reactions involve changing the nucleus C in
chemical reactions, new substances are formed
but nuclear reactions always stay the same
D nuclear reactions are always more dangerous
than chemical reactions E none of the above
41 Why is nuclear fusion so much more difficult to
control than fission?
A fusion only happens on the sun so it would be
impossible to do on earth B fission is when
two hydrogen nuclei come together which is
easier than separating large nuclei. C it is
harder to obtain the substances needed for fusion
than fission D fission requires large amount of
energy to force two positively charge nuclei
together but fusion just splits atoms E none of
the above
42 All of the following are isoelectronic, EXCEPT
which species?
A Ba2+ B Kr C Xe D Cs1+ E I1-
43 If a photon has frequency = 4.14 x 1014 s-1 and
the speed of light = 3.00 x 108 m • s-1, then what
is its wavelength?
A 725 x10-7 m B 725 nm C 6.02 x 1023
D 1.24 x1023 m E 725 m
44 How many occupied outer shell orbitals does a
tin atom possess?
A 3 B 5 C 2 D 50 E 8
45 Consider the element, Ag. How many 4d
electrons in one atom of Ag?
A 10 B 9 C 11 D 2 E None of the above
46 Consider the element, Cr. How many unpaired
electrons in one atom of Cr?
A 0 B 4 C 1 D 6 E 5
47 Consider the element, Zn. How many p electrons
in one atom of Zn?
A 6 B 12 C 18 D 24 E 30
48 The electronic configuration of Mn2+ is?
A [Ar] 4s2 3d5 B [Ar] 4s1 3d6 C [Ar] 4s0 3d5
D [Ar] 4s1 3d4 E [Ar] 4s0 3d7
49 Which of the following atoms is diamagnetic?
A Al B Rb C F D Cu E Cd
50 Which of the following sets of quantum numbers
could be used to describe the outermost electron
in a calcium atom?
A 4, 1, 0, -1/2 B 4, 0, 0, -1/2 C 4, 0, 1, +1/2
D 4, 0, -1, +1/2 E 4, 1, 0, -1/2
51 Which of the following states that electrons must
fill the lowest available energy sub-shell first?
A Hund’s Rule B Pauli Exclusion Prinicple
C Aufbau Principle D Heisenberg Uncertainty
Principle E The Bohr Model
52 Which of the following elements has the greatest
number of d electrons?
A Nb B Cd C Cu D I E Au
53 Which pairing is INCORRECT?
A p orbitals, l = 2 B s orbitals, ml = 0 C f
orbitals can have n = 4 D f orbitals, l = 3 E d
orbitals, ml can be +2
54 When considering the quantum numbers for a p
orbital, which of the following is true?
A n must be 1 B ms must be -1/2 C l must be
0 D ml must be +1 E None of the above
ID: A
5
55 What is the maximum number of electrons that
can be incoporated into a d sub-shell?
A 10 B 2 C 14 D 12 E 6
56 If the atoms of an element Q have the electronic
configuration 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p5, what is the most
likely formula of a compound it will form with
magnesium?
A MgQ3 B Mg2Q C Mg2Q2 D MgQ2
E Mg2Q3
57 Which electron transition would absorb the
greatest amount of energy?
A from n=4 to n=1 B from n=6 to n=3
C from n=2 to n=5 D from n=1 to n=2
E from n=3 to n=5
58 Which of the following is an impossible
electronic configuration?
A [Ar] 4s2 B [Ar] 4s1 3d5 C [Xe] 6s1 D 1s2 2s2
2p6 3p2 E [Ne] 3s2 3p3
59 What element would you expect requires the
most energy for an electron to transition from
n=1 to n=3?
A O B N C He D C E H
60 A dumbbell-shaped orbital would
A have an azimuthal quantum number (l) of 2
B contain electrons found in the p-block
elements C contain up to 6 electrons D have
lower energy than a spherical orbital with the
same principal quantum number (n) E have 5
possible orientations in a sub-shell
61 The main contribution of the Bohr model of the
atom is
A specific elements give off certain frequencies
of light when heated B electrons exist in 3D
regions known as orbitals C protons and
neutrons are found in the nucleus D the concept
of fixed energy “shells” E electrons travel
along fixed paths
62 After an electron has absorbed heat, that energy
is released as a photon with a wavelength of 548
nm. What is the frequency of this photon?
A 5.47 x 1014 s-1 B 5.47 x 105 s-1 C 1.64 x 1011
s-1 D 164.4 s-1 E None of the above
63 Which set of metals below will all displace
hydrogen from an acidic solution?
A Al, Ag, Mg B K, Zn, Pb C Na, Fe, Cu
D Pt, Ca, Sn
64 At which temperature would you expect particles
of a gas sample to have the highest urms?
A 75 ºC B 100 K C 273 K D 25 ºC
65 Which of the following assumptions is NOT part
of the kinetic theory?
A particles in a gas do not attract one another
B particles in a gas cannot be compressed
C gas particle speed is directly proportional to
the Kelvin temperature D particles in a gas have
negligible volume
66 A gas that is confined in a rigid container is
heated. Which of the following statements is
FALSE?
A The kinetic energy of the gas will increase.
B The pressure will increase. C The number of
moles of gas will increase. D The volume of the
gas will remain constant.
67 Which of the following are always the same for
each gas in a mixture of gases that are confined
in a single container?
A volume and pressure B volume and partial
pressure C volume and number of moles
D temperature and volume
68 Under which of the following conditions will the
pressure of a gas DEFINITELY decrease?
A lowering T and increasing V B raising T and
increasing V C reducing n and raising T
D lowering T and reducing V
ID: A
6
69 Which law relates the relative rates of effusion of
two gases based upon their molar mass or
density?
A Dalton’s B Charles’s C None of these
D Avogadro’s
70 Which of the following gases will have the
greatest rate of effusion?
A Oxygen B Neon C Chlorine D Helium
71 When the following elements are ordered
according to increasing size (smallest first),
which is the correct order? Li, Ne, Na, K
A Li, Na, Ne, K B K, Na, Li, Ne C Li, Ne,
Na, K D K, Na, Ne, Li E Ne, Li, Na K
72 Which of the following elements has the largest
first ionization energy?
A Ne B Xe C Kr D Ar E He
73 When considering the successive ionization
energies of Aluminum, which pair of values
might be expected to exhibit the greatest
difference?
A Fifth and Sixth B Second and Third
C Seventh and Eighth D Third and Fourth
E First and Second
74 Which of the following elements has the largest
atomic radius?
A Na B B C Li D Rb E I
75 The first three ionization energies for element X
are 900, 1757 and 14848 kJ/mol respectively? In
which group is X most likely to be found?
A 17 B 1 C 13 D 2 E 14
76 Which statement is INCORRECT?
A Potassium atoms are smaller than Cesium
atoms B Chloride 1- ions are larger than
Chlorine atoms C Sodium 1+ ions are smaller
than Sodium atoms D Sodium atoms are larger
than Potassium atoms E Lithium atoms are
larger than Bromine atoms
77 Magnesium has larger value than Strontium for
which of the following properties?
A Atomic mass B Atomic radii C First
ionization energy D Ionic radii E Number of
electrons
78 Which of the following elements would be
expected to have a most common ion that is
larger than the corresponding atom?
A Na B Cl C K D Ne E Al
79 The atomic radii of F, Cl and I are 72, 99 and 133
pm respectively. Predict a value for the atomic
radii of Br from this data.
A 115 nm B 143 nm C 114 pm D 143 pm
E 125 nm
80 Ionization energies can always be described in
which of the following ways?
A Endothermic B Exothermic C None of the
above D Not enough information to tell
E They could be either endothermic or
exothermic
81 Which of the following elements has the lowest
first ionization energy?
A Be B N C Li D C E B
82 Which of the following species is the largest?
A The species with 10 electrons and 11 protons
B The species with 10 electrons and 8 protons
C The species with 10 electrons and 9 protons
D The species with 10 electrons and 10 protons
E Not possible to tell since they are isoelectronic
83 What energy change is summarized in the
following process?
O1-(g) + e- → O2-(g)
A First electron affinity of oxygen B First
ionization energy of oxygen C Second
ionization energy of oxygen D Second electron
affinity of oxygen E None of the above
ID: A
7
84 Which of the following species would be
expected to be paramagnetic?
A Mg B K C Zn2+ D Zn E Na1+
85 Which of the following properties increase as the
third period is traversed from left to right (Na to
Ar)?
A Basicity of oxides B Atomic Size
C Ionization energy D Likelihood of forming
positive ions E None of the Above
86 Which of the following elements is likely to be
the best reducing agent?
A Na B Rb C F D Cs E K
87 Which element would be expected to exhibit the
greatest difference between its second and third
ionization energies?
A P B Mg C Al D S E Cl
88 When sulfur dioxide reacts with water, what is
the product?
A sulfur trioxide B sulfurous acid C sulfuric
acid D sulfur hydroxide E None of the above
89 Which period 2 element has a first ionization
energy that is lower than expected due to mutual
repulsion of electrons within a p orbital?
A Li B O C Be D B E C
90 Which of the following would form oxides that
would be expected to be most acidic?
A Al B Mg C S D K E Na
91 Which of the following species would have the
largest ionization energy?
A Sr1+ B Mg2+ C Mg1+ D Na E K
92 Which of the following describes the energy
change associated with the process, Na(g) →
Na1+(g) + e-?
A First Electron Affinity B Electronegativity
C None of the Above D Second Ionization
Energy E First Ionization Energy
93 Consider the elements of group I. All of the
following properties increase down the group,
EXCEPT;
A Number of electron shells occupied
B Number of elecrons C Ionic Size D First
Ionization Energy E Atomic Size
94 Which of the following elements is likely to be
the best oxidizing agent?
A Sodium B Iodine C Astatine D Bromine
E Chlorine
95 A group 2 element will form an ion that can be
described as which of the following when
compared to its parent atom?
A Not enough information to tell B None of
the above C The same size D Bigger
E Smaller
96 A molecule with a central atom exhibiting sp3d2
hybridization could have which of the following
atomic geometry/geometries?
A only tetrahedral B only octahedral and
square planar C only octahedral D octahedral,
square planar, and square pyramidal E none of
these
97 At room temperature and pressure, bromine is a
liquid that consists of diatomic molecules. Which
statement is consistent with these observations?
A there are weak attractions between the atoms
in a bromine molecule B bromine is a polar
molecule C bromine is very electronegative
D there are weak attractive forces between
bromine molecules in liquid bromine
E bromine’s covalent bonds are weak
98 In which of the following are the intermolecular
forces listed from weakest to strongest?
A London, hydrogen, dipole-dipole
B dipole-dipole, London, hydrogen C London,
dipole-dipole, hydrogen D hydrogen,
dipole-dipole, London E hydrogen, London,
dipole-dipole
ID: A
8
99 Which of the following compounds would you
expect to evaporate most quickly from indentical
containers at identical temperatures?
A C7H15NH2 B C7H15OH C C7H16
D C6H13COOH E C5H12
100 Which of the following is NOT trigonal planar?
A nitrate ion B boron trichloride
C phosphorus trichloride D sulfur trioxide
E carbonate ion
101 What is the most likely bond angle for F-S-F in
SF6?
A 104.5 degrees B 120 degrees C 109.5
degrees D 107.5 degrees E 90 degrees
102 Which of the following compounds will NOT
exhibit hydrogen bonding between its molecules?
A HCl B NH3 C HF D H2O E None of
these
103 Which one of the following bonds would be most
polar?
A N-O B Br-Br C F-H D O-Cl E O=O
104 In which of the following pairs are the two items
NOT correctly related?
A octahedral and six bonded pairs B sp and
104.5 degrees C linear and 180 degrees D sp2
and trigonal planar E sp3 and 109.5 degrees
105 Which of the following pairs have the same
atomic geometry?
A NH3 and PF5 B BF3 and NH3 C CO32- and
BF3 D PF5 and SF6 E H2O and NH3
106 Which one of these cations has the greatest
ability to polarize an anion?
A Mg2+ B Al3+ C Na1+ D Ca2+ E Cs1+
107 Which of these molecules is polar?
A CO2 B HCN C O2 D BF3 E SF6
108 Which of the following molecules is NOT linear
in terms of its atom geometry?
A H2O B H2 C CO2 D I31- E I2
109 Which of the following ionic compounds would
have the most covalent character?
A NaCl B CaCl2 C RbCl D CsCl E MgCl2
110 Which of the following accounts for the fact that
the boiling point of Hydrogen fluoride (19.5
Celsius) is significantly higher than that of
hydrogen chloride (- 84 Celsius) despite the fact
that HCl is the larger molecule?
A HF has greater London dispersion forces than
HCl B None of these C HF has intermolecular
hydrogen bonds D HCl has greater London
dipersion forces than HF E HCl has
intermolecular hydrogen bonds
111 Which of the following covalent species would
one expect to have the greatest ionic character?
A HI B HBr C HF D HCl E H2
112 In which of the following species would one
expect to find a pi bond?
A N2 B Cl2 C H2 D I2 E F2
113 What type of hybridization would you expect
around the S atom in SF51-?
A sp3 B sp2 C sp D sp3d E sp3d2
ID: A
9
114 Which of the following statements is true in
reference to diagram X above?
A The reaction is endothermic since the products
have a lower enthalpy than the reactants B The
reaction is endothermic since the products have a
higher enthalpy than the reactants C The
reaction is exothermic since the products have a
lower enthalpy than the reactants D The
reaction is exothermic since the products have a
higher enthalpy than the reactants E ∆H for the
reaction is zero
115 In the diagrams above, which reaction(s) have
endothermic activation energies?
A X only B Y only C Y and Z only D X
and Z only E None of these answers
116 In the diagrams above, which diagram represents
the most exothermic reaction?
A X only B Y only C Y and Z D X and Z
E Z only
117 Which of the following always has a negative
value for a reaction or process that occurs
spontaneously?
A ∆G B ∆H C ∆S D Specific Heat Capacity
E Activation Energy
118 Which of the following is a measure of the
change in order or disorder of a system?
A ∆G B ∆H C ∆S D Specific Heat Capacity
E Activation Energy
119 In a reaction where entropy decreases, it is found
that the reaction has a positive ∆G, but becomes
spontaneous as the temperature decreases. Which
of the following is true?
A ∆H & ∆S are both positive B ∆H & ∆S are
both negative C ∆H is negative & ∆S is positive
D ∆H is positive & ∆S is negative E ∆G & ∆S
are both equal to zero
120 A reaction that is non-spontaneous at a given
temperature becomes spontaneous at a higher
temperature. Which of the following statements
must be true?
A ∆H & ∆S are both positive B ∆H & ∆S are
both negative C ∆H is negative & ∆S is positive
D ∆H is positive & ∆S is negative E ∆G & ∆S
are both equal to zero
121 What are the signs of ∆H and ∆S for a reaction
that is spontaneous at all temperatures?
A ∆H & ∆S are both positive B ∆H & ∆S are
both negative C ∆H is negative & ∆S is positive
D ∆H is positive & ∆S is negative E None of
these
ID: A
10
122 Which of the following terms must be negative in
order for a reaction to be spontaneous?
A ∆H B ∆S C Temperature D ∆G
E Activation Energy
123 Which of the following changes involves the
largest increase in entropy?
A liquid propanol evaporating to become
propanol gas B Graphite being turned into
diamond C condensation of water vapor into
liquid water D formation of ice crystals in
liquid water E dissolving of a soluble salt in
liquid water.
124 When burning a solid hydrocarbon, which set of
values would be most likely?
A Negative ∆H, Negative ∆S, Negative ∆G
B Negative ∆H, Negative ∆S, Positive ∆G
C Negative ∆H, Positive ∆S, Negative ∆G
D Positive ∆H, Negative ∆S, Negative ∆G
E None of these
125 Which of the following equations represents the
standard enthalpy of formation for Iron (III)
Fluoride?
A Fe(s) + 3F(g) → FeF3(s) B Fe(g) + 3F(g) → FeF3(s)
C Fe(s) + 1.5F2(g) → FeF3(s) D Fe(s) + F2(g) →
FeF3(s) E Fe(g) + 1.5F2(g) → FeF3(s)
126 Which of the following equations represents both
the standard enthalpy of formation of zinc oxide
and the standard enthalpy of combustion of zinc
metal?
A Zn(s) + 0.5 O2(g) → ZnO(s) B Zn(g) + 0.5 O2(g)
→ ZnO(s) C Zn(s) + O(g) → ZnO(s) D 2 Zn(s) +
O2(g) → 2 ZnO(s) E Zn(g) + O(g) → ZnO(s)
127 Compare the process of freezing water and the
combustion of ethane (C2H6) gas in terms of
entropy changes.
A Freezing water has a positive entropy change
and combustion of ethane has a negative entropy
change. B Freezing water and combustion of
ethane both have a positive entropy change.
C Freezing water has a negative entropy change
and combustion of ethane has a positive entropy
change. D Freezing water and combustion of
ethane both have a negative entropy change.
E Not enough information is given
Short Answer
These questions will be represented as multiple choice on the final.
128 Calculate the molar concentration of the
carbonate ion in a 0.500 M H2CO3 solution.
By choosing two of the following reaction types
from the list below, classify each of the following
reactions in two ways.
Reaction types: precipitation, acid-base,
REDOX (oxidation and reduction), single
displacement, double displacement,
combination, decomposition, combustion.
129 2CH3OH(g) + 3O2(g) → 2CO2(g) + 4H2O(l)
130 2KOH(aq) + NiCO3(aq) → K2CO3(aq) +
Ni(OH)2(s)
131 2Na(s) + Br2(l) → 2NaBr(s)
132 2Al(s) + 3H2SO4(aq) → Al2(SO4)3(aq) + H2(g)
133 According to the Bronsted-Lowry model of acids
and bases, acids are defined as hydrogen ion
_________ and bases are defined as hydrogen
ion ____________.
ID: A
11
134 Calculate [Fe2+] and [PO43-] that would be found
in a 1.000 M iron (II) phosphate solution.
135 Solid hydroxides are dissolved in water to form
aqueous solutions. 0.5579% of Hydroxide A
dissociates into OH- ions and 0.8950% of
Hydroxide B dissociates into OH- ions. What
would you predict about the relative conductivity
of these two basic solutions?
136 Hydrofluoric acid only partially ionizes in
aqueous solution. HF has electrical conductivity
properties that indicate it should be described as
137 Iodine has what oxidation number in IO21-?
138 The metal found in the coordination complex
[CoP3]7- has what oxidation number?
139 Glucose (C6H12O6) is a molecular compound that
is soluble in water. An aqueous solution of
glucose has electrical conductivity properties that
indicate it should be described as
140 Write an overall equation for the formation of the
ionic compound calcium chloride, then write two
half equations and identify the redox process for
each half reaction.
141 Construct half equations and use them to
balance the full equation AlCl3 + I2 → Cl2 +
AlI3
142 Ammonium nitrate is an ionic compound that is
soluble in water. An aqueous solution of
NH4NO3 has electrical conductivity properties
that indicate it should
143 NaOH completely ionizes in aqueous solution.
This would indicate a solution of sodium
hydroxide will
144 What is the oxidation number of bromine in
BrO3?
145 A flexible balloon is filled with 3.00 moles of
nitrogen gas and occupies 5.00 liters of space. If
half of the gas molecules are removed, the
balloon will now occupy how many liters of
space?
146 Under what conditions do the assumptions of the
ideal gas law begin to break down?
147 If 5.49 L of a gas at 338 K is transferred to a 14.3
L container under constant pressure, the
temperature of the resulting gas would be
148 A mixture of gases at constant temperature
included equal numbers of moles of each of the
following: carbon dioxide, helium, neon, and
nitrogen. Which gas has the lowest urms?
149 365 K is equal to how many degrees Celsius?
150 What volume is occupied by 0.500 moles of an
ideal gas at STP?
151 A gas held at STP is found to have a mass of 64
grams and occupies a volume of 44.8 liters under
these conditions. What is the identity of the gas?
152 If a 253 mL sample of a gas at 2.45 atm is
transferred to a 50.6 mL container at constant
temperature, the resulting gas pressure would be
153 A 363 mL flask contains a gas at 172.2 kPa
pressure and has a temperature of –9.970 °C. If
the flask was put in an ice bath which reduced
the gas temperature by 57.00 °C, what will the
new pressure of this gas be?
154 A gas is collected over water at a temperature
where the vapor pressure is known to be 16.0
mmHg. The total pressure in the container is 778
mmHg. What is the pressure of the gas being
collected?
ID: A
12
155 Assuming ideal behavior at STP, what is the
density of Krypton? (density = mass/volume)
156 A mixture of 2.00 moles of nitrogen gas and 8.00
moles of oxygen gas are held under conditions of
standard temperature and pressure. What is the
partial pressure of nitrogen in this sample?
157 Convert 1890 torr into mmHg.
158 Which atom geometry is associated with sp3
hybridization?
159 Iodine is a molecular solid. What type of
intramolecular bonding is present in an I2
molecule?
160 How many possible resonance structures can be
drawn for the SO3 molecule?
161 Iodine is a molecular solid. What type of
intermolecular forces are present in I2(s)?
162 How many valence electrons are there in the
species CO32-?
163 What is the total number of LONE pairs of
electrons in the Lewis diagrams for BI3?
164 What accounts for the fact that the carbonate ion
exhibits carbon-oxygen bond lengths that are
intermediate in length between a single
carbon-oxygen bond and a double carbon-oxygen
bond?
165 The enthalpy of combustion of methanol
(CH3OH) is -711 kJ mol-1. What mass of
methanol must be completely burned in oxygen
in order to release 71.1 kJ of energy?
166 The standard enthalpy of combustion of
hydrogen gas requires how many moles of
oxygen gas?
167 The standard enthalpy change for the formation
of sulfur dioxide is = Q kJ mol-1. The standard
enthalpy change for the formation of sulfur
trioxide is = R kJ mol-1. What would be the
enthalpy change for the reaction of two moles of
SO2 with oxygen to produce two moles of SO3?
168 The Bond Energy terms for H-H, Cl-Cl and H-Cl
are 440, 240 and 430 kJ mol-1 respectively.
Calculate the ∆H for the reaction between
hydrogen and chlorine gas to produce two moles
of hydrogen chloride gas.
169 The standard enthalpies of formation for ethene
(C2H4), water (H2O) and ethanol (C2H5OH) are
+52, -286 and -277 kJ mol-1 respectively.
Calculate ∆H for the reaction: Ethene + Water →
Ethanol
170 Consider the decomposition of solid calcium
carbonate to produce carbon dioxide gas and
solid calcium oxide. What can be deduced about
the change in entropy in this reaction?
171 The equation that represents the standard
enthalpy of combustion of propane (C3H8)
produces how many moles of products?
172 The standard enthalpies of combustion for
methylbenzene (C7H8), carbon and hydrogen are
-3910, -394, and -286 kJ mol-1 respectively.
Calculate ∆Hf for methylbenzene in kJ mol-1.
173 A metal has a specific heat capacity of 0.899 J g-1
K-1. How much energy is required to raise the
temperature of 2.00 kg of the metal by 80K?
174 1.93 x 1024 molecules of SiO2 would have what
mass in grams? (1 pt)
.
ID: A
13
175 What is the molality of an aqueous solution of a
compound with a molar mass of 60.0 g/mol that
has a density of 1.38 g/mL and a molarity of 2.44
mol L-1? (2 pts)
.
176 Answer the following questions about BeC2O4(s)
and its hydrate.
(a) Calculate the mass percent of carbon in the
hydrated form of the solid that has the formula
BeC2O4 • 3H2O (2 pts)
(b) When heated to 220.°C, BeC2O4 • 3H2O(s)
dehydrates completely as represented below:
BeC2O4 • 3H2O(s) → BeC2O4(s) + 3H2O(g)
If 3.21 g of BeC2O4 • 3H2O(s) is heated to
220.°C, calculate the mass of BeC2O4(s) formed.
(2 pts)
.
177 28.0 g of nitrogen gas reacts with 5.00 g of
hydrogen gas to produce ammonia (NH3).
(a) Which substance is the limiting reactant? (3
pts)
(b) how many grams of the excess reactant will
be present after the reaction is completed? (2 pts)
(c) how many grams of ammonia are produced?
(2 pts)
.
178 Glucose is an organic molecule composed of C,
H, and O. A 1.802 gram sample of glucose is
burned in air to form 2.641 grams of CO2 and
1.081 grams of water.
(a) How many moles of carbon and hydrogren
must be present in the original sample of
glucose? (2 pts)
(b) What is the mass of oxygen in the original
sample? (2 pts)
(c) What is the percentage composition of
glucose? (1 pt)
(d) What is the empirical formula of glucose? (3
pts)
(e) If the true molar mass of glucose is 180.16 g
mol-1, what is the molecular formula? (2 pts)
.
ID: A
14
179 Asample of solid calcium carbonate was added to
100 mL of a 1.50 mol L-1 HNO3 solution
according to the reaction below.
CaCO3(s) + 2HNO3 → CaNO3(aq) + CO2(g) +
H2O(l)
(a) After this reaction was complete, the resulting
solution was acidic. 50.0 mL of a 1.00 mol L-1
NaOH solution was required to completely
neutralize the excess acid. How many moles of
nitric acid were neutralized by the sodium
hydroxide according to the reaction below? (2
pts)
HNO3 + NaOH → NaNO3(aq) + H2O(l)
(b) Since the moles that were neutralized in the
second reaction are equal to the moles that
remained after the initial reaction, how many
moles of nitric acid were lost in the initial
reaction? (2 pts)
(c) Based upon the moles of nitric acid lost,
determine the number of grams of CaCO3(s) that
were added to the initial sample of acid. (2 pts)
.
180 A student is attempting to perform the classic
demonstration of potassium iodide reacting with
lead (II) nitrate.
(a) What mass of potassium iodide would the
student need to prepare 200.0 mL of an aqueous
0.5000 M KI solution? Describe the steps
necessary to prepare this solution. (2 pts)
(b) The student wants to prepare 175.0 mL of an
aqueous 1.500 M Pb(NO3)2 solution from a 6.000
M stock solution. What volume of the stock
solution must be diluted? (1 pt)
(c) Write a balanced chemical equation for the
exchange reaction that produces aqueous KNO3
and the yellow precipitate, PbI2. (1 pt)
(d) Determine the mass of PbI2 that would form
from these starting solutions. (3 pts)
(e) When the student performs the demonstration,
he dries and measures the precipitate in a
dessicator. If 19.95 grams of PbI2 formed, what
is the percentage yield of this reaction? (1 pt)
.
ID: A
1
AP Chem - Topic 1 Test
Answer Section
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1 ANS: B PTS: 1
2 ANS: A PTS: 1
3 ANS: E PTS: 1
4 ANS: D PTS: 1
5 ANS: A PTS: 1
6 ANS: B PTS: 1
7 ANS: B PTS: 1
8 ANS: C PTS: 1
9 ANS: C PTS: 1
10 ANS: D PTS: 1
11 ANS: C PTS: 1
12 ANS: B PTS: 1
13 ANS: E PTS: 1
14 ANS: C PTS: 1
15 ANS: C PTS: 1
16 ANS: D PTS: 1
17 ANS: D PTS: 1
18 ANS: A PTS: 1
19 ANS: C PTS: 1
20 ANS: D PTS: 1
21 ANS: C PTS: 1
22 ANS: A PTS: 1 OBJ: 2APe, 2APf
23 ANS: C PTS: 1 OBJ: 2APv, 2APw
24 ANS: D PTS: 1 OBJ: 2APp, 2APq
25 ANS: D PTS: 1 OBJ: 2APx, 2APw
26 ANS: B PTS: 1 OBJ: 2APt
27 ANS: E PTS: 1 OBJ: 2APv, 2APr, 2APw
28 ANS: B PTS: 1 OBJ: 2APh
29 ANS: D PTS: 1 OBJ: 2APd
30 ANS: C PTS: 1 OBJ: 2APl
31 ANS: B PTS: 1 OBJ: 2APl
32 ANS: D PTS: 1 OBJ: 2APl
33 ANS: B PTS: 1 OBJ: 2APs
ID: A
2
34 ANS: B PTS: 1 OBJ: 2APg
35 ANS: C PTS: 1 OBJ: 2APe, 2APf
36 ANS: A PTS: 1 OBJ: 2APv, 2APr, 2APw
37 ANS: E PTS: 1 OBJ: 2APu
38 ANS: A PTS: 1 OBJ: 2APh
39 ANS: D PTS: 1 OBJ: 2APc, 2APd
40 ANS: B PTS: 1 OBJ: 2APn
41 ANS: E PTS: 1 OBJ: 2APm
42 ANS: B PTS: 1 OBJ: 3APn
43 ANS: B PTS: 1 OBJ: 3APd
44 ANS: E PTS: 1 OBJ: 3APe
45 ANS: A PTS: 1 OBJ: 3APg, 3APh
46 ANS: D PTS: 1 OBJ: 3APg, 3APm
47 ANS: B PTS: 1 OBJ: 3APf
48 ANS: C PTS: 1 OBJ: 3APi, 3APj
49 ANS: E PTS: 1 OBJ: 3APn, 3Apm
50 ANS: B PTS: 1 OBJ: 3APe
51 ANS: C PTS: 1 OBJ: 3APg
52 ANS: E PTS: 1 OBJ: 3APf
53 ANS: A PTS: 1 OBJ: 3APe
54 ANS: E PTS: 1 OBJ: 3APe
55 ANS: A PTS: 1 OBJ: 3APf
56 ANS: D PTS: 1 OBJ: 2APr, 3APh
57 ANS: C PTS: 1 OBJ: 3APd
58 ANS: D PTS: 1 OBJ: 3APh
59 ANS: A PTS: 1 OBJ: 3APd
60 ANS: B PTS: 1 OBJ: 3APk
61 ANS: D PTS: 1 OBJ: 3APa
62 ANS: A PTS: 1 OBJ: 3APd
63 ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: 1 OBJ: AP5p
NOT: activity series
64 ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: 1 OBJ: AP6b, AP6j
NOT: temp conversions, Urms
65 ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: 1 OBJ: AP6i
NOT: kinetic theory
66 ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: 1 OBJ: AP6c
NOT: understand combined gas law
67 ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: 1 OBJ: AP6f, AP6i
NOT: kinetic theory, Dalton's Law (implications)
ID: A
3
68 ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: 1 OBJ: AP6c
NOT: combined gas law
69 ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: 1 OBJ: AP6k
NOT: identify Graham's Law
70 ANS: D
smallest MM has greatest effusion rate
PTS: 1 DIF: 1 OBJ: AP6j NOT: Urms
71 ANS: E PTS: 1 OBJ: AP7d NOT: atomic radius
72 ANS: E PTS: 1 OBJ: AP7b NOT: ionization energy trend
73 ANS: D PTS: 1 OBJ: AP7a, AP7b
NOT: successive ionization energies, ion formation
74 ANS: D PTS: 1 OBJ: AP7d NOT: comparing atomic radius
75 ANS: D PTS: 1 OBJ: AP7a, Ap7b
NOT: successive ionization energies, ion formation
76 ANS: D PTS: 1 OBJ: AP7d NOT: atomic and ionic radius
77 ANS: C PTS: 1 OBJ: AP7b, AP7d NOT: comparing trends (vertically)
78 ANS: B PTS: 1 OBJ: AP7d NOT: ionic radius vs. atomic radius
79 ANS: C PTS: 1 OBJ: AP7d, AP1h NOT: unit prefixes, atomic radii
80 ANS: A PTS: 1 OBJ: AP7b NOT: energy change of ionization
81 ANS: C PTS: 1 OBJ: AP7b NOT: ionization energy
82 ANS: B PTS: 1 OBJ: AP7d
83 ANS: D PTS: 1 OBJ: AP7b NOT: electron affinity equation
84 ANS: B PTS: 1 OBJ: AP7f NOT: dia- and paramagnetism
85 ANS: C PTS: 1 OBJ: AP7b, AP7d NOT: trend comparison
86 ANS: D PTS: 1 OBJ: AP7e NOT: chemical trends
87 ANS: B PTS: 1 OBJ: AP7b, AP7a
NOT: successive ionization energies, ion formation
88 ANS: B PTS: 1 OBJ: AP7e, AP2s NOT: chemical trends, naming acids
89 ANS: B PTS: 1 OBJ: AP7c NOT: trend exceptions
90 ANS: C PTS: 1 OBJ: AP7e NOT: chemical trends
91 ANS: B PTS: 1 OBJ: AP7b
NOT: ionization energy (comparing atoms/ions)
92 ANS: E PTS: 1 OBJ: AP7b NOT: ionization equation
93 ANS: D PTS: 1 OBJ: AP7b, AP7d NOT: comparing group trends
94 ANS: E PTS: 1 OBJ: AP7e NOT: chemical trends
95 ANS: E PTS: 1 OBJ: AP7d NOT: atomic vs. ionic radius
96 ANS: D PTS: 1 OBJ: AP8d, AP8i NOT: VSEPR, hybridization
97 ANS: D PTS: 1 OBJ: AP8a, AP8h
NOT: bonding vs. IMF, IMF types/strength/states
ID: A
4
98 ANS: C PTS: 1 OBJ: AP8h NOT: IMF types/strengths
99 ANS: E PTS: 1 OBJ: AP8h NOT: IMF types, strengths, states
100 ANS: C PTS: 1 OBJ: AP8c, AP8d, AP2s
NOT: Lewis structures, VSEPR, naming
101 ANS: E PTS: 1 OBJ: AP8c, AP8d NOT: Lewis structures, VSEPR
102 ANS: A PTS: 1 OBJ: AP8h NOT: IMF types
103 ANS: C PTS: 1 OBJ: AP8g NOT: bond polarity
104 ANS: B PTS: 1 OBJ: AP8d, AP8i NOT: VSEPR, hybridization
105 ANS: C PTS: 1 OBJ: AP8c, d NOT: Lewis structures, VSEPR
106 ANS: B PTS: 1 OBJ: AP8e NOT: bond character
107 ANS: B PTS: 1 OBJ: AP8g NOT: Molecular Polarity
108 ANS: A PTS: 1 OBJ: AP8c, d NOT: Lewis structures, VSEPR
109 ANS: E PTS: 1 OBJ: AP8e, AP8f NOT: bond character, electronegativity
110 ANS: C PTS: 1 OBJ: AP8h NOT: IMF types, strengths, states
111 ANS: C PTS: 1 OBJ: AP8e, AP8f NOT: bond character, electronegativity
112 ANS: A PTS: 1 OBJ: AP8i NOT: Valence Bond Theory
113 ANS: E PTS: 1 OBJ: AP8c, d, i
NOT: hybridization (Lewis structures, VSEPR)
114 ANS: C PTS: 1 OBJ: AP9a NOT: endo/exothermic processes
115 ANS: E PTS: 1 OBJ: AP9a NOT: endo/exothermic processes
116 ANS: C PTS: 1 OBJ: AP9a NOT: endo/exothermic processes
117 ANS: A PTS: 1 OBJ: AP9g NOT: Gibbs free energy
118 ANS: C PTS: 1 OBJ: AP9f NOT: entropy
119 ANS: B PTS: 1 OBJ: AP9c, AP9f, AP9g
NOT: enthalpy, entropy, gibbs free energy
120 ANS: A PTS: 1 OBJ: AP9c, AP9f, AP9g
NOT: enthalpy, entropy, gibbs free energy
121 ANS: C PTS: 1 OBJ: AP9c, AP9f, AP9g
NOT: enthalpy, entropy, gibbs free energy
122 ANS: D PTS: 1 OBJ: AP9g NOT: gibbs free energy
123 ANS: A PTS: 1 OBJ: AP9f NOT: entropy
124 ANS: C PTS: 1 OBJ: AP9c, AP9f, AP9g
NOT: enthalpy, entropy, gibbs free energy
125 ANS: C PTS: 1 OBJ: AP9b NOT: enthalpy of formation
126 ANS: A PTS: 1 OBJ: AP9b NOT: enthalpy of formation & combustion
ID: A
5
127 ANS: D
freezing goes from liquid (high entropy) to solid (low entroy)
2C2H6(g) + 7O2(g) -> 4CO2(g) + 6H2O(l)
9 moles of gas become 4 moles of gas and 6 moles of liquid
PTS: 1 OBJ: AP9f NOT: entropy
SHORT ANSWER
128 ANS:
0.500 M
PTS: 1 DIF: 1 OBJ: AP5c
NOT: calculate ion concentrations in aqueous solution
129 ANS:
redox & combustion
PTS: 1 DIF: 1 OBJ: AP5o NOT: identifying reaction types
130 ANS:
acid-base & double displacement
PTS: 1 DIF: 1 OBJ: AP5o NOT: identifying reaction types
131 ANS:
combination & redox
PTS: 1 DIF: 1 OBJ: AP5o NOT: identifying reaction types
132 ANS:
redox & single displacement
PTS: 1 DIF: 1 OBJ: AP5o NOT: identifying reaction types
133 ANS:
donors, acceptors
PTS: 1 DIF: 1 OBJ: AP5g, AP5h
NOT: define acids and bases in terms of H+ transfers
134 ANS:
3.000 M Fe2+ and 2.000 M PO43-
PTS: 1 DIF: 2 OBJ: AP5c
NOT: calculate ion concentrations in aqueous solution, crossbalancing/naming
135 ANS:
B conducts electricity better than A
PTS: 1 DIF: 2 OBJ: AP5i
NOT: comparing electrolyte ability by % ionization
ID: A
6
136 ANS:
a weak electrolyte
PTS: 1 DIF: 1 OBJ: AP5b NOT: electrolyte prediction, weak acid
137 ANS:
+3
PTS: 1 OBJ: AP5m NOT: determine oxidation #s within a compound (polyatomic ion)
138 ANS:
+2
PTS: 1 OBJ: AP5m NOT: determine oxidation #s within a compound (complex ion)
139 ANS:
a non-electolyte
PTS: 1 DIF: 1 OBJ: AP5b NOT: electrolyte prediction, molecular
140 ANS:
Ca + Cl2 → CaCl2, Ca → Ca2+ + 2e- (oxidation), Cl2 + 2e- → Cl1- (reduction)
PTS: 3 DIF: 3 OBJ: AP5l, AP5n
NOT: writing half reactions, identifying oxidation/reduction
141 ANS:
6Cl1- → 3Cl2 + 6e-, 3I2 + 6e- → 6I1- , 2AlCl3 + 3I2 → 3Cl2 + 2AlI3
3Cl1- → Cl2 + e-
6Cl1- → 3Cl2 + 6e-
I2 + e- → 3I1-
3I2 + 6e- → 6I1-
2AlCl3 + 3I2 → 3Cl2 + 2AlI3
PTS: 1 DIF: 2 OBJ: AP5n NOT: writing and balancing half reactions
142 ANS:
conduct electricity well
PTS: 1 DIF: 1 OBJ: AP5b NOT: electrolyte prediction, ionic
143 ANS:
conduct electricity well
PTS: 1 DIF: 1 OBJ: AP5b NOT: electrolyte prediction, strong base
144 ANS:
+6
PTS: 1 OBJ: AP5m
NOT: determine oxidation #s within a compound (oxygen compound)
ID: A
7
145 ANS:
2.50
PTS: 1 DIF: 1 OBJ: AP6c NOT: avogadro's law
146 ANS:
high pressure and low temperature
PTS: 1 DIF: 1 OBJ: AP6e NOT: Real gas behaviors
147 ANS:
880 K
5.49
338
14.3
PTS: 1 DIF: 1 OBJ: AP6c NOT: charles's law
148 ANS:
CO2
PTS: 1 DIF: 1 OBJ: AP6j NOT: Urms
149 ANS:
92.0 °C
PTS: 1 DIF: 1 OBJ: AP6b NOT: convert K to C
150 ANS:
11.2 L
PTS: 1 DIF: 1 OBJ: AP6h, AP6g NOT: molar volume @ STP
151 ANS:
oxygen
PTS: 1 DIF: 1 OBJ: AP6d, AP6g NOT: MM ideal gas las, STP
152 ANS:
12.3 atm
PTS: 1 DIF: 1 OBJ: AP6c NOT: boyle's law
153 ANS:
134.9 kPa
T2 = –66.97 °C
PTS: 1 DIF: 2 OBJ: AP6c, AP6b NOT: gay lussac's law, Temp conversion
154 ANS:
762 mmHg
PTS: 1 DIF: 1 OBJ: AP6f NOT: dalton's law of PP
ID: A
8
155 ANS:
3.74 x 10-3 kg per liter
MM = 83.798
V = 22.4 L
d = 3.74 g/L
PTS: 1 DIF: 1 OBJ: AP6h NOT: density from MM and molar volume
156 ANS:
0.200 atm
2 mol N2 / 10 mol total * 1.00 atm @ STP
PTS: 1 DIF: 2 OBJ: AP6f NOT: Dalton's Law of PP
157 ANS:
1890
760 mmHg
760 torr
PTS: 1 DIF: 1 OBJ: AP6a NOT: convert between pressure units
158 ANS:
tetrahedral
PTS: 1 OBJ: AP8i, AP8d NOT: hybridization, VSEPR
159 ANS:
covalent bonds
PTS: 1 OBJ: AP8g, h, a NOT: IMF types, polarity, bonding vs. IMF
160 ANS:
3
PTS: 1 OBJ: AP8c NOT: Lewis Structures
161 ANS:
London dispersion forces
PTS: 1 OBJ: AP8g, h, a NOT: IMF types, molecule polarity, bonding vs. IMF
162 ANS:
24
PTS: 1 OBJ: AP8c NOT: Lewis Structures
163 ANS:
9
PTS: 1 OBJ: AP8c NOT: Lewis Structures
ID: A
9
164 ANS:
resonance
PTS: 1 OBJ: AP8c NOT: resonance
165 ANS:
3.2 g
-71.1 kJ (1 mol / -711 kJ)(32.05 g / 1 mol) = 3.205 g
PTS: 1 OBJ: AP9b NOT: enthalpy of combustion, dimensional analysis
166 ANS:
0.5
PTS: 1 OBJ: AP9b NOT: enthalpy of combustion
167 ANS:
2R - 2Q
PTS: 1 OBJ: AP9b, AP9c NOT: enthalpy of combustion, Hess's Law
168 ANS:
-180
PTS: 1 OBJ: AP9e NOT: BET
169 ANS:
-43
PTS: 1 OBJ: AP9c NOT: Hess's Law
170 ANS:
∆S > 0
PTS: 1 OBJ: AP9f NOT: entropy
171 ANS:
7
PTS: 1 OBJ: AP9b, AP4b, AP4d
NOT: combustion reaction, writing balanced equations
172 ANS:
+8
PTS: 1 OBJ: AP9b, AP4b, AP4d
NOT: combustion reaction, writing balanced equations
173 ANS:
143.84 kJ
PTS: 1 OBJ: AP9d NOT: Calorimetry
ID: A
10
174 ANS:
1.93 x 1024 molec (1 mol / 6.022 x 1023 molec)(60.08 g / mol) = 193 g SiO2
PTS: 1 DIF: 1 OBJ: AP4d, AP4g
175 ANS:
(2 pts, 1 for setup shown, 1 for molality given)
2.44 mol / L (1 L / 1000 mL) (1 mL / 1.38 g) (1000 g / 1 kg) = 1.77 mol / kg
PTS: 2 OBJ: AP4k
176 ANS:
(a) (2 pts)
Determine the total mass of 1 mole of the crystal including 3 moles of water (1 pt)
molar mass = ( 9.01 )+ ( 12.01 x 2 ) + ( 16.00 x 4 ) + ( 18.02 x 3 )=151.09 g/mol
Now determine the % mass considering 2 moles of C atoms present. (1 pt)
% C = (( 12.01 x 2 ) / 151.09)*100 = 15.9
(b) (2 pts)
Find the % mass of the salt from the molar mass. (1 pt)
hydrated molar mass: 151.09 g/mol
salt molar mass (anhydrous): 97.03 g/mol
(97.03 / 151.09) *100 = 64.22% salt
Multiply the sample mass by the % salt. (1 pt)
3.21 g (64.22%) = 2.06 g
PTS: 4 DIF: 2 OBJ: 4APb, 4APl NOT: AP 2000 3a, 3b(i)
ID: A
11
177 ANS:
(a) (1 pt for moles present)
28.0 g N2 (1 mol / 28.02 g) = 1.00 mol N2 present
5.00 g H2 (1 mol / 1.01 g) = 2.48 mol H2 present
(1 pt for mole ratio)
1 mol N2 (3 mol H2 / 1 mol N2) = 3 mol H2 required
(1 pt for correct comparison)
3 mol H2 required > 2.48 mol H2 present, H2 is limiting reactant.
(b) (1 pt for ICE box/substruction)
2.48 mol H2 (1 mol N2 / 3 mol H2) = 0.827 mol N2 reacted
I 1.00 mol N2
C -0.827 mol N2
E 0.173 mol N2 remains
(1 pt for molar mass conversion)
0.173 mol N2 (28.02 g N2 / mol N2) = 4.85 g N2 remain
(c) (1 pt using ice box or stoichiometry)
2.48 mol H2 (2 mol NH3 / 3 mol H2) = 1.65 mol NH3 produced
(1 pt for molar mass conversion)
1.65 mol NH3 (17.04 g / mol) = 28.1 g NH3 produced
PTS: 7 DIF: 3 OBJ: 4APg, 4APf, 4APm
NOT: AP 2003b 2a
ID: A
12
178 ANS:
(a) (2 pts, 1 for each full conversion)
2.641 g CO2 (1 mol / 44.01 g)(1 mol C / 1 mol CO2) = 0.06000 mol C
1.081 g H2O (1 mol / 18.02 g)(2 mol H / 1 mol H2O) = 0.1200 mol H
(b) (2 pts, 1 for mass conversions, 1 for subtraction)
0.06000 mol C (12.01 g / 1 mol) = 0.7206 g C
0.1200 mol H (1.008 g / 1 mol) = 0.1210 g H
1.802 g glucose - 0.7206 g C - 0.1210 g H = 0.9604 g O
(c) (1 pt)
39.99% C, 6.71% H, 53.30% O
(d) (3 pt, 1 for finding moles of O, 1 for dividing by the smallest & getting whole # ratio, 1 for formula)
0.9604 g O (1 mol / 16.00 g) = 0.06003 mol O
Carbon has the fewest moles, so divide each # moles out:
C (0.06000 / 0.06000) = 1
H (0.1200 / 0.06000) = 2
O (0.06003 / 0.06000) = 1
CH2O is the empirical formula
(e) (2 pt, 1 for finding the factor, 1 for writing the molecular formula)
180.16 g mol-1 (Actual MM)/ 30.03 g mol-1 (Empirical MM) = 6
C6H12O6 is the molecular formula
PTS: 10 DIF: 3 OBJ: 4APe, 4APf, 4APg, 4APb (c), 4APc (d,e)
NOT: combustion analysis
ID: A
13
179 ANS:
(a) (1pt, molarity equation)
(0.0500L)(1.00 mol L-1) = 0.0500 mol NaOH reacted
(1pt, mole ratio)
0.0500 mol NaOH (1 mol HNO3 / 1 mol NaOH) = 0.0500 mol HNO3 reacted
(b) (1 pt, molarity equation)
(.100 L)(1.50 M) = 0.150 mol HNO3 initially
(1 pt, ICE box or subtraction)
HNO3
I .150
C .100 mol HNO3 lost
E .0500
(c) (1 pt, mole ratio)
0.100 mol HNO3 (1 mol CaCO3 / 2 mol HNO3) = 0.0500 mol CaCO3 lost
since CaCO3 is used up, this is also the initial amount of moles CaCO3.
(1 pt, molar mass)
0.0500 mol CaCO3 (100.09 g CaCO3 / 1 mol CaCO3) = 5.00 g CaCO3
PTS: 6 DIF: 3 OBJ: 4APf, 4APg, 4APh
NOT: AP Worksheet 4f
ID: A
14
180 ANS:
(a) (2 pts, 1 for molarity equation, 1 for molar mass)
(0.2000L)(0.5000 mol L-1) = 0.1000 mol KI
0.1000 mol KI (166.00 g / mol) = 16.60 g KI
(b) (1 pt for dilution)
(6.000 M)(V1) = (1.500 M)(175.0 mL)
V1 = 43.75 mL of 6.000 M Pb(NO3)2
(c) (1 pt for balanced equation)
2KI(aq) + Pb(NO3)2(aq) -> PbI2(s) + 2KNO3(aq)
(d) (3 pts, 1 for mol Pb(NO3)2, 1 for evidence of limiting reagent, 1 for g PbI2 formed)
(0.1750 L)(1.500 mol L-1) = 0.2625 mol Pb(NO3)2
0.1000 mol KI (1 mol Pb(NO3)2 / 2 mol KI) = 0.05000 mol Pb(NO3)2 required.
KI is limiting
0.1000 mol KI (1 mol PbI2 / 2 mol KI) = 0.05000 mol PbI2 (461.01 g /mol ) = 23.05 g PbI2
(e) (1 pt for % yield)
(19.95 g / 23.05 g) *100 = 86.55%
PTS: 8 OBJ: AP4a f g j m n