Post on 07-Feb-2021
2020
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QUESTION 1
A 22-year-old professional baseball outfielder reports persistent pain in the hypothenar region when batting for
the past year. CT scan is shown in Figure A.
What is the recommended treatment?
A. pisiform excision
B. hook of hamate excision
C. carpal tunnel release
D. decompression of Guyon's canal
E. open reduction and internal fixation
QUESTION 2
Which of the following can be utilized for the purposes of immobilization?
A. a splint
B. a cast
C. an orthosis
D. all of the above
QUESTION 3
It is quite common for patients to shrug the shoulder when a sling is applied to the cast or splint. If the
aforementioned occurs and results in the sling being too short, which of the following humeral complications may
result?
A. humeral shortening
B. humerus drifting into varus deformity
C. humerus drifting into valgus deformity
D. humerus internally rotating the distal fracture fragment
QUESTION 4
Which of the following is/are function(s) of the meniscus in the knee joint? [choose all that apply]
A. Acts as a shocker absorber
B. Assists in lubricating the joint
C. Provides increase in joint stability
D. Transfer the load from the upper leg to the lower leg
FIGURE A
Candidates for the Orthopedic Physician Extender (OPE-C®) certification examination are encouraged to review the following questions in an
attempt to familiarize themselves with the exam formatting.
Note: the questions herein simply reflect the “format” and not necessarily resemble the “complexity” of the OPE exam questions.
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QUESTION 5
The following information should be used to answer question below:
AGE 66 / Female
CC Painful lesser toe callosities, difficulty with shoe wear
HPI Active patient, denies trauma, bilateral painless hallux valgus deformity since adolescence, no associated neuromuscular conditions, shoe modifications have failed to provide relief
PMH Vitiligo
PE Right foot more symptomatic 1st MTP: painless OA changes, pronation 1st TMT: painless OA changes, no hypermobility Paifull callosities between toes Painless lateral displacement of sesamoids Hallux valgus angle: 54 degrees Intermetatarsal angle: 18 degrees Normal distal metatarsal articular angle Normal hallux valgus interphalangeus angle Splayfoot deformity No lesser toe deformities No midfoot and hindfoot conditions Normal vascular status No peripheral neuropathy
Based on the extensive clinical findings provided above, what is most likely your initial clinical assessment to
review with the orthopedic surgeon?
A. 1st metacarpal stress fracture
B. Turf Toe
C. Hallux valgus deformity
D. Hallux sesamoid fracture
QUESTION 6
What fracture anomaly of the elbow can be observed in the image noted in Figure A?
A. Galeazzi Fracture
B. Monteggia
C. Posterolateral rotatory instability
D. Elbow Ulna Dislocation
FIGURE A
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QUESTION 7
A 53-year-old man reports to the office with persistent shoulder pain and difficulty with overhead activities after a
trail biking accident 6 weeks ago. He initially presented to an emergency department, where radiographs revealed
an anterior glenohumeral dislocation. He underwent uneventful closed reduction and his pain has improved but
has been consistent. He complains of night pain and persistent weakness with abduction. On examination, he has
forward elevation to 120 degrees and abduction to 100 degrees, but he demonstrates full passive ROM. He has a
positive drop-arm sign, significant weakness in supraspinatus testing, and resisted external rotation. Radiographs
reveal normal alignment with no evidence of fracture. What is the most likely cause of this patient’s persistent
deficits?
A. Axillary nerve palsy
B. Cervical herniated disk
C. Compressive brachial plexopathy
D. Humeral impaction fracture
E. Rotator cuff tear
QUESTION 8
You see a patient in the emergency room with an acute lateral patellar dislocation. Which of the following factors
is associated with the highest risk of persistent patellar instability?
A. Younger age
B. Increased Q-angle
C. Male gender
D. Previous patellar instability event
E. Amount of lateral patellar tilt
QUESTION 9
A 20-year-old male sustains a right ankle injury after landing awkwardly catching a rebound in a basketball game.
The following day he reports swelling and ecchymosis present about the lateral ankle. There is no effusion in the
knee. His area of maximal tenderness is represented by the area at the white arrow in Figure A. On physical
examination, Anterior Drawer as demonstrated in Figure B reveals 2mm of ankle translation. Squeeze Test in
Figure C is not provocative for pain. A 3-view radiograph of the ankle is normal. What is the next most appropriate
step in management?
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A. Short leg cast for 4 weeks followed by physical therapy
B. Magnetic resonance imaging of the ankle
C. Brostrom reconstruction with Gould modification
D. Functional bracing and recommend to rehabilitation department
E. Magnetic resonance imaging of the ankle with intra-articular contrast
FIGURE C FIGURE A FIGURE B
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ANSWER KEY
1-B
2-D
3-B
4-A,B,C,D
5- C
6-B
7-E
8-D
9-D
OPE sample question guide text.pdfOPE Sample Exam Questions pdf cover.pdf