Post on 13-Oct-2015
Jan. 2005
1. which of the following functional groups are tertiary hydroxyl group
A. ..B. ..C. ..D. ..E. ..
2. which of the following groups have geometrical isomers:
A. Hexane and cyclohexaneB. Pentane and penteneC. Butene and 2-ButeneD. Benzene and hexaneE. Non of the above
3. Which of the following statements concerning cytochrome enzyme are CORRECT?
I. The CYP7, CYP11, CYP27 are cytochrome enzyme responsible for cholesterol metabolism.
II. CYP3A is most common metabolizing enzyme in the body.
III. CYP3A does phase I reductive reactions.
A. I OnlyB. III OnlyC. I and II OnlyD. II And III OnlyE. All Of the above
4. The following statements are CORRECT about a muscarinic antagonist Atropine :
A. Atropine structure contain piperidine a pyridines rings.
B. Piperidine and pyrrolidineC. Pirmidine and pyrrolidineD. Quasi ring structure but not tertiary
amineE. Pyridine and Quasi rings structure.
5. If a structure of drug contain 3 sterogenic centers chiral centers, their will be how many isomers possible for this structure?
A. 8B. 21C. 3D. 2E. 12
6. 1-propanol and 2-propanol they are:
A. Conformational IsomerB. Geometric IsomerC. Constitutional IsomerD. Diasteroisomers IsomerE. Enatiomers Isomer
7. hexane and 2-methyl pentane are:
A. Conformational IsomerB. Geometric IsomerC. Constitutional IsomerD. Diasteroisomers IsomerE. Enatiomers Isomer
8. All the following statements are CORRECT about Enatiomers EXCEPT:
A. Enatiomers are optical isomers that are mirror images of another
B. Enatiomers are rotate pan of polarized light in clockwise direction are know as dextrorotatory (D) or (+)
C. Enatiomers have identical physical and chemical properties
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D. Enatiomers are rotate plan polarized light in anticlockwise direction are know as levorotatory.
E. 100% mixture of (D) or (L) Enatiomers is called racemic mixture.
9. All of the following statements are CORRECT about Diasteroisomers EXCEPT:
A. Diasteroisomers are neither mirror image no superimposible images
B. Diasteroisomers must contain at least two chiral centers
C. Diasteroisomers differ in properties such as solubility, volatility and melting point
D. Diasteroisomers contain different physical and chemical properties
E. Diasteroisomers contain non superimposible mirror images
10. Conversion of tetracycline to 4-epi tetracycline process in known as:A. IsomerizationB. EpimerizationC. ConversionD. SubstitutionE. Chemical reaction
11. D(+) Lactic acid and L (-) Lactic acid are:
A. DiasteroisomersB. EnatiomersC. Constitutional isomersD. Geometrical isomers E. Stereoisomer
12. Result of restriction around double bond a result in the following isomers:
A. DiasteroisomersB. EnatiomersC. Constitutional isomersD. Conformational isomersE. Geometrical isomers
13. Metabolic reactions that may be affected by a protein deficiency diet include:
I. Oxidative Reaction II. Hydrolysis
III. Glycine Conjugation
A. I OnlyB. III OnlyC. I and II OnlyD. II And III OnlyE. All Of the above
14. In amino acid conjugation which of the following reactions are involved:
A. Amino acid + AlcoholB. Amino acid + Amino acid C. Amino acid + GlycineD. Glycine + AlcoholE. Amino Acid + Glutamine
15. Which is strongest Base:A. ----B. ----C. ----D. ---E. ---
16. CYT P450 is :
A. Enzyme B. VitaminC. NeurotransmitterD. CatalystE. Amino acid
17. Where is the hydrolysis occur:A. B. C. D. E.
18. Where is the hydrolysis occur:
A. E
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B. EC. ED. eE. E
19. All the following are metabolic enzymes EXCEPT:
A. CYP 450B. CYP 3A4C. CYP 0D. CYP 1A4E. CYP 2A1
20. All the following are cytochrome enzymes metabolize drug xenobiotics (Biological Product) EXCEPT:
A. CYP 450B. CYP 3A4C. CYP 17D. CYP 1A4E. CYP 2A1
21. Antidepressants are metabolized by:
A. CYP 450 And CYP 1A2B. CYP 3A4 And CYP 1A2C. CYP 2D6 And CYP 1A2D. CYP 1A4 And CYP 1A2E. CYP 2A1 And CYP 1A2
22. Statins are metabolized by:
A. CYP 17B. CYP 1A2C. CYP 3AD. CYP 2A1E. CYP 450
23. Benzodiazepines Are metabolized be:
A. CYP 17B. CYP 1A2C. CYP 3AD. CYP 2A1E. CYP 450
24. Grapefruit juice inhibit the following enzyme:
A. CYP 17B. CYP 1A2C. CYP 3A4D. CYP 2A1E. CYP 450
25. Smoking induces the following Cytochrome enzyme:
A. CYP 17B. CYP 1A2C. CYP 3AD. CYP 2A1E. CYP 450
26. Which enzyme does glucourdiation reaction:
A. UDPGAB. .C. .D. .E. .
27. What characteristics of an organic compound allow it to undergo conjugation with glutathione?
A. Electrophilic functional groupsB. C. D. E.
28. Amino acids conjugation involve the following group:
A. Amino acid and glycinB. Amino acid and glutamineC. Amino acidD. Activated amino acid
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E. Amino acid and glutamine
29. Glutamine Conjugation very important in preventing toxicity of variety of drugs, toxic products are excreted as:
A. S-adonozyl transferaseB. Glutamic acidC. Mercaptoric acidD. Amino acidE. Sulfadryl groups
30. which of the following statements about drugs metabolism correct:
A. drug metabolizing enzyme are found only in liver
B. all metabolites are pharmacologically inactive
C. phase I metabolite can cross cell membrane
D. all drugs are catalyzed by cytochromeE. commonly one metabolite is excreted for
each drug administered
31. Imidazoline ring present in the following class of structure:
A. Thiazide diureticsB. COX II inhibitorsC. Direct 2 agonist (Clonidin)D. Direct 1 agonistE. Direct 2 antagonist
32. the following diuretics is most similar in chemical structure to antihypertensive daiazoxide:
A. ChlorothiazideB. FurosemideC. MannitolD. SpironolactoneE. .
33. The above reaction is :
A. OxidationB. HydrolysisC. ConjugationD. ReductionE. Sulforation
34. To protect integrity of the cell. Which of the following is most important:
A. PhospholipidsB. CYT P 450C. CYT P 410D. Lysosomal EnzymeE. Non of the above
35. Metabolism is enhanced by:
I. Passive reactionII. Excretion
III. Tubular secretion
A. I OnlyB. III OnlyC. I and II OnlyD. II And III OnlyE. All Of the above
36. Indol ring:
I. HistamineII. Serotonin
III. Tryptopahn
A. I OnlyB. III OnlyC. I and II OnlyD. II And III OnlyE. All Of the above
37. conversion of histidine to histamine is catalyzed be:
I. L.Histidine DecarboxylaseII. L.Histidine Carboxylase
III. L.Histidine Hydoxylase
A. I Only
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B. III OnlyC. I and II OnlyD. II And III OnlyE. All Of the above
38. H1 Receptors function on the following symptoms:
I. AllergiesII. Gastric secretion
III. Bronchodilation
A. I OnlyB. III OnlyC. I and II OnlyD. II And III OnlyE. All Of the above
39. the following drugs are contraindicated in first trimester of pregnancy:
I. MeclizineII. Cyclazine
III. Cetirizine
A. I OnlyB. III OnlyC. I and II OnlyD. II And III OnlyE. All Of the above
40. The following groups are essential for antihistamine pharmacological activity:
I. Aromatic and heteroaromatic rings structure
II. Tertiary amine in structure III. Chain of alkyl group in structure
A. I OnlyB. III OnlyC. I and II OnlyD. II And III OnlyE. All Of the above
41. All of the following are side effect of Atropine EXCEPT:
A. Dry mouthB. Urinary retentionC. ConstipationD. Blurred visionE. Diarrhea
42. which of the following drugs decrease stomach acid secretions, Mechanistically blocking of H2 Histamine receptors:
A. Hydroxyzine B. CetrazineC. FluxazineD. OmeprazoleE. Ranitidine
43. Serotonin
A. HistidineB. TryptophanC. DopaD. EpinephrineE.
44. Sumatriptan are medication used in migraine therapy is act on the following receptors;
A. 5HT 1DB. 5HT T2C. 5HT T3D. 5HT T4E. 5HT T5
45. What is HT , 5 HT receptors:
A. Hydroxyl amineB. 5-hydroxyl tryptamineC. 5-hydroxyl tryptophanD. E.
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46. Which of the following is COX II inhibitor:
A. AspirinB. IbuprofenC. CelocoxibD. NalaxoneE. Naltraxone
47. Aspirin is :
I. COX I inhibitorII. COX II inhibitor only
III. COX I and COX II inhibitor
A. I OnlyB. III OnlyC. I and II OnlyD. II And III OnlyE. All Of the above
48. All the following re correct side effect of Aspirin EXCEPT:
A. SalicylismB. HemorrhageC. HypoglycemiaD. NauseaE. GI irritation
49. All the following re correct side effect of enteric coated Aspirin EXCEPT:
A. SalicylismB. HemorrhageC. HyperglycemiaD. NauseaE. GI irritation
50. Misopristol CYTOTOEC is used for prevention of NSAID induced ulcers, is classified as:
I. PG III. PG IIIII. PGE1
A. I OnlyB. III OnlyC. I and II OnlyD. II And III OnlyE. All Of the above
51. What is the prevention for NSAID induced GI ulcers:
A. OmeprazoleB. ZantacC. MisopristolD. CetrizineE. Calcium hydroxide
52. The following drug is indicated to induce cervical ripening in pregnancy:
A. Latanoprost (Xalatan)B. Travoprost (Travatan)C. Bimatoprost (Lumigan)D. Misopristol (Cytotec)E. Dinoprostone
53. Which of the following PG inhibitors indicated in treatment of open angle Glaucoma?
A. Latanoprost (Xalatan)B. TimololC. Bimatoprost (Lumigan)D. Misopristol (Cytotec)E. Dinoprostone
54. PG Structure contain the following fragment in the structure:
I. Cyclopentane ring contain carbonyl and hydroxyl group
II. Long chain alkyl groupIII. Keto and hydroxyl position indicate
subscript of PG analogs
A. I OnlyB. III Only
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C. I and II OnlyD. II And III OnlyE. All Of the above
55. Which of the following is mechanism of action fro Tylenol (acetaminophen):
A. Revisable PG synthesisB. Inhibits COX I synthesisC. Inhibit COX II synthesisD. Inhibit central PG synthesisE. Irreversible inhibits PG Synthesis
56. Which of the following preparation require only written prescriptions:
A. Tylenol 1B. Tylenol 2C. Tylenol 3D. Tylenol 4E. Tylenol 3 and 4
57. Which of the following preparation require prescriptions:
A. Tylenol 1B. Tylenol 2C. Tylenol 3D. Tylenol 4E. Tylenol 2, 3 and 4
58. Which of the following drugs does not have sulfa allergy?
A. CelecoxibB. AspirinC. SulfamethoxazoleD. HydrochlorothiazideE. Cortimoxazole (TMP/SMX)
59. Which is the mechanism of action of montelukast (Singulair)
A. Leukotrines inhibitorsB. LTC4 and LTD4 inhibitorsC. Cyclooxygenase inhibitors
D. 5HT1D inhibitorsE. Antihistamines
60. Nitroglycerines are classified as:
I. NitratesII. Nitrites
III. Nitro group
A. I OnlyB. III OnlyC. I and II OnlyD. II And III OnlyE. All Of the above
61. All of the following are propionic acid derivatives EXCEPT:
A. NaproxenB. IbuprofenC. KetoprofenD. Aspirin (acetyl salicylic acid)E. Caprofen
62. Pyrazole ring is present in the following structure:
A. AspirinB. AcetaminophenC. CelocoxibD. IbuprofenE. Ketotofen
63. All the following conditions are essential for thiazide structure:
I. Sulfonamide group benzene ringII. Chloro or trifluromethyl group on
position 6III. Double bond on position 3 and 4
a. I Onlyb. III Onlyc. I and II Onlyd. II And III Onlye. All Of the above
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64. All the following drugs contain sterol in their structure, EXCEPT
A. SpiranolactoneB. EstrogenC. ProgesteroneD. AndrogenE. Stilbesterol
65. Cholesteramine is a:
A. Bile acid resinB. Water insolubleC. Water solubleD. HydrophobicE. Bind to the bile acids in the intestine
66. All of the following are LMWH EXCEPT:
A. EnoxaprinB. DalteprinC. TinzaparinD. AdreparinE. Heparin
67. Which of the following molecular structure contain quinoline structure:
A. WarfarinB. HeparinC. LMWHD. Vitamin KE. Niacin
68. Which phase I Metabolism reoccur in stomach:
A. HydroxylationB. HydrolysisC. OxidationD. ReductionE. Demethylation
69. What is similarity between hemoglobin and Cytochrome P450:
I. HemeII. Same proteins
III. Prophyrin ring
A. I OnlyB. III OnlyC. I and II OnlyD. II And III OnlyE. All Of the above
70. All of the following are antiplatelets agent EXCEPT:
A. AspirinB. TiclopidineC. Fab FragmentD. ClopidogrelE. Warfarin
71. Which of the following is produced by biotechnology methods:
I. Fab FragmentII. AltiplaseIII. tPA (Tissue Plasminogen Activators)
A. I OnlyB. III OnlyC. I and II OnlyD. II And III OnlyE. All Of the above
72. Which of the following parenteral iron dose form:
A. Ferrous SulfateB. Ferrous GluconateC. Ferrous FumarateD. Iron DextranE. Elemental Iron
73. In the oral treatment of Iron Deficiency anemia, choice of administration of iron is:
I. Elemental IronII. Iron complex form
III. Ferrous Iron
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a. I Onlyb. III Onlyc. I and II Onlyd. II And III Onlye. All Of the above
74. The correct statements about Vitamin B12 :
I. Contain prophyrin ringII. Contain cyanide ion
III. Tetravalent cobalt ion
A. I OnlyB. III OnlyC. I and II OnlyD. II And III OnlyE. All Of the above
75. An antienemic agent folic acid contain the following nucleus that bonded to folate enzyme:
I. Pteridine nucleusII. PABA
III. Glutamic acid
A. I OnlyB. III OnlyC. I and II OnlyD. II And III OnlyE. All Of the above
76. Folic acid absorbed in:
A. LiverB. GI tractC. TissueD. KidneyE. Colon
77. Folic acid deficiency Causes:
I. Megaloplastic anemiaII. Nurologic impairment
III. Microcytic anemia
A. I OnlyB. III OnlyC. I and II OnlyD. II And III OnlyE. All Of the above
78. Lack of cyanocobalamine causes:
I. Megaloplastic anemiaII. Deficiency of Vitamin B12
III. Intrinsic factor
A. I OnlyB. III OnlyC. I and II OnlyD. II And III OnlyE. All Of the above
79. Which of the following cardiovascular medications chemically classified as glycoside:
A. DigixinB. WarfarinC. NitratesD. NitritesE. Cholesteramine
80. Avoid the following vitamin while anticoagulants medication:
A. Vitamin AB. Vitamin BC. Vitamin CD. Vitamin DE. Vitamin K
81. Oral anticoagulants such as warfarin has the following properties:
I. Interfere with Vitamin K dependent coagulant factor II, VII, IX and X
II. Interfere with Vitamin K dependent coagulant factor I, II, IX and X
III. Interfere with Vitamin K dependent coagulant factor II, VII, IX and X
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A. I OnlyB. III OnlyC. I and II OnlyD. II And III OnlyE. All Of the above
82. Which of the following prolonged the clotting time of both in vivo and in vitro
I. HeparinII. LMWH
III. Warfarin
a. I Onlyb. III Onlyc. I and II Onlyd. II And III Onlye. All Of the above
83. Protamine sulfate is an anticoagulant of heparin because:
A. Chelating actionB. Acid base interactionC. Plasma protein binding displacementD. Inhibits GI absorption of heparinE. Prothrobin like activity of protamine
84. A 38 years old bus operator with history of arrhythmias suffering from seasonal rhinitis. Which of the following is the best choice for his condition:
A. MeclizineB. FexofenadieC. FamotidineD. DiphenhydramineE. Dimenhydrinate
85. Which of the following drug decrease pain associated with GERD without appreciably changing gastric pH:
A. RanitidineB. OmeprazoleC. Any H2 Antagonist
D. CisparideE. Fexofenadine
86. Which of the following bind to Carbonmonoxide
I. HemoglobinII. Myoglobin
III. Cytochrome oxidase
A. I OnlyB. III OnlyC. I and II OnlyD. II And III OnlyE. All Of the above
87. Vitamin A is a mixture of :
I. RetinolII. Retinal
III. Retinoic acid
A. I OnlyB. III OnlyC. I and II OnlyD. II And III OnlyE. All Of the above
88. The following is precursor of vitamin A:
I. RetinalII. Retinol
III. Carotenoids
a. I Onlyb. III Onlyc. I and II Onlyd. II And III Onlye. All Of the above
89. Which of the following drugs is the isomer of vitamin A:
I. Retinoic acidII. Retinol
III. Isotrentinoin
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A. I OnlyB. III OnlyC. I and II OnlyD. II And III OnlyE. All Of the above
90. Type I error (Falls Positive error):
A. Rejecting the hypothesis when H0 is Falls
B. Rejecting the null hypothesis when H0 is true
C. Accepting null hypothesis when H0 is falls
D. Accepting null hypothesis when H0 is true
91. Influenza season in Canada:
A. Start in November to AprilB. Start in December to AprilC. Start in October to AprilD. Start in September to AprilE. Start in August to April
92. Epidermology studies are carried out in the following categories:
A. Hospital patientB. Certain population and defined
geographical areaC. Pharmacy and patients of defined
geographical areaD. Certain hospital and their patientsE. Hospital doctors and infected
populations
93. All the following activities meet the criteria of primary prevention Except:
A. Tetanus vaccination for teenagersB. Measles / Mumps / Rubella (MMR)
vaccination for first timeC. Pap smear screening D. Sex educationE. .
94. 5 subjects given a single oral dose of drug have the following elimination half lives 4,5,6,6 and 9 hours, the mean half life is :
A. 5.4B. 5.0C. 4.5D. 6E. 10
95. In given data 3,5,7,9 and 7 what is the median:
A. 6B. 7C. 3D. 9E. 5
96. Normal population 99% of values fall within:
A. 3 standard DeviationsB. 2 standard DeviationsC. 1 standard DeviationsD. 4 standard DeviationsE. 5 standard Deviations
97. 5,3,8,5 and 9 days, calculate the mean:
A. 5B. 6C. 7D. 8E. 9
98. For the above Question Median is:
A. 5B. 6C. 7D. 8E. 9
99. For the above question the mode is:
A. 5
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B. 6C. 7D. 8E. 9
100. What is the standard deviation of the following numbers 3,5,4 and 8:
A. 5B. 2.1C. 8D. 51E. 10
101. 20, 23, 24, 26 and 28 standard deviation is 5 what is the percent of coefficient variation
A. 24B. 21C. 23D. 28E. 29
102. IF the standard deviation of an experiment is 2 and sample size is 8 what is the standard error of mean:
A. 0.81B. 0.71C. 0.61D. 0.51E. 0.41
103. Type II error ( error)
A. Rejecting the hypothesis when H0 is false
B. Accepting the null hypothesis when H0 is false
C. Rejecting the null hypothesis when H0 is True
D. Accepting the null hypothesis when H0 is true
104. Correct decision:
A. Rejecting the hypothesis when H0 is false
B. Accepting the hypothesis when H0 is false
C. Rejecting the hypothesis when H0 is trueD. Accepting the hypothesis when H0 is
true
105. All of the following are statistical test except:
A. Student t testB. F distribution testC. Chi-Square testD. Distribution testE. ANOVA analysis of variance
106. The 4 groups A, B, C and AB were studied to compare the quantitative hematological differences among their hemoglobin structure. The most appropriate statistical test to make determination is:
A. Paired t TestB. F test (ANOVA) (Quantitative)C. Regression analysisD. Student t testE. Chi-Square Test
107. In the clinical trial at Toronto Hospital conducted over 4 years, a specific serious side effect with a therapy X is seen in 0.5 % of the study sample in patients who receive a newly discovered drug Y. Only 0.45 % experiences the same side effects. Based on results, the minimum number of patients that would have to receive the new drug for 3 years to statistically demonstrate the prevention of one episode of the side effect in at least one patient is:
A. 1000B. 2000C. 3000D. 4000E. 5000
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108. In clinical trials conducted over 2 years, the desired clinical outcome with a new drug is achieved in 25 % of the study sample. In the patients who received a placebo, only 15 % obtain the same clinical benefit. The relative risk reduction achieved with the new drug over the period is:
A. 50%B. 100%C. 40%D. 10%E. No difference
109. When standard error compared with standard deviation (SD)
A. Its smaller than SDB. Its Bigger than SDC. Equal To SDD. Non of the above
110. Healthy human volunteers are tested in the following phase of clinical trials
I. Preclinical trialsII. Phase I testing
III. Generic drug development for ANDA submission
A. I OnlyB. III OnlyC. I and II OnlyD. II And III OnlyE. All Of the above
111. A product line extension contain the new drug and :
I. New therapeutic indicationII. New dosage strengths
III. New dosage form
A. I OnlyB. III OnlyC. I and II Only
D. II And III OnlyE. All Of the above
112. For patent expired brand drug product can be marketed as generic drug product if:
I. Therapeutically equivalentsII. Same amount of drug and same
dosage formIII. Different strengths
A. I OnlyB. III OnlyC. I and II OnlyD. II And III OnlyE. All Of the above
113. The generic product may differs with brand product:
I. ShapeII. ColorIII. Type of excipients in tablet only
A. I OnlyB. III OnlyC. I and II OnlyD. II And III OnlyE. All Of the above
114. A generic product must have the same as brand name product:
I. BioequivalentII. Rate of absorption
III. Extent of absorption
A. I OnlyB. III OnlyC. I and II OnlyD. II And III OnlyE. All Of the above
115. A test measures what it was originally designed to measure is said to have:
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A. ReliabilityB. PrecisionC. ValidityD. AccuracyE. Specificity
116. In choosing an instrument to measure the health related Quality of life, attention should be paid to the following:
I. Length of instrument (life time)II. Sensitivity and specificity of
instrumentIII. Reliability and validity of
instrument
A. I OnlyB. III OnlyC. I and II OnlyD. II And III OnlyE. All Of the above
117. A pharmacist did not counsel patent about side effect of drug, considering that patient may not take this drug, which of the following ethical principle has been violated?
A. VeracityB. BeneficentlyC. FidelityD. AutonomyE. Nonmaleficiency
118. At a significance level of p < 0.01, the null hypothesis states:
I. Null hypothesis says there is no difference between experimental and observed values
II. Null hypothesis says there is difference between experimental and observed values
III. Alternate hypothesis says there is difference between experimental and observed values
A. I Only
B. III OnlyC. I and II OnlyD. II And III OnlyE. All Of the above
119. The loading dose of drug always based on:
II. Apparent volume of distribution and desired plasma concentration
III. Plasma concentration curveIV. Fraction of free drug excreted in
urine
A. I OnlyB. III OnlyC. I and II OnlyD. II And III OnlyE. All Of the above
120. The time it take to infuse drug to reach plasma steady state concentration (Css) depends on:
I. Elimination half life of the drugII. Fraction of free drug excreted in
urineIII. Plasma concentration curve
A. I OnlyB. III OnlyC. I and II OnlyD. II And III OnlyE. All Of the above
121. A 40 years old patient weight 70 Kg needs IV infusion of amoxicillin. The desired Css of drug is 19 mg/dl.
The physician ordered antibiotic infused for 10 hours. Amoxicillin has t1/2 = 1 hour and Vd = 9L.What rate of IV is recommended for this patient? (No loading dose was given)
A. 135 mg/hrB. 936 mg/hr
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C. 1000 mg/hrD. 333 mg/hrE. 400 mg/hr
122. What is recommended loading dose in the above patient:
A. 1350 mgB. 1200 mgC. 1.350 mgD. 13.50 mgE. 135.0 mg
123. Which of the following results in a doubling of the steady state concentration of drug:
A. Tripling the rate of infusionB. Quadrupling the rate of infusionC. Doubling the rate of infusion D. Doubling the concentration of infused
drug and rate of infusionE. Doubling loading dose
124. Which of the following most closely describe as clearance rate of drug that is infused at rate of 4 mg/min and produces a steady state concentration of 6 mg/L in plasma
A. 1200 ml/minB. 667 ml/minC. 300 ml/minD. 132 ml/minE. 67 ml/min
125. Which of the following statements is correct:
A. A competitive antagonist increase ED50B. The greater the efficacy and greater the
potency of drugC. If 10 mg of drug A produces the same
response as 100 mg of drug B, drug A is more effective than B
D. Variation of response in different individual occurs with drug showing a large therapeutic response
E. In selecting drug, a drug potency is more important than efficacy
126. A drug with half life of 12 hours is administrated by continuous intravenous infusion. How long will it take for drug to reach 90 % of final steady state level
A. 80 hrsB. 20 hrsC. 40 hrsD. 100 hrsE. 24 hrs
127. Drugs that show zero order elimination kinetics is:
A. Show a constant fraction of drug elimination per unit of time
B. Decrease concentration exponentially with time
C. Have half life independent of doseD. Show plot of drug concentration versus
time, that is linearE. Zero order kinetic are more common
than first order kinetic
128. Non linear pharmacokinetic do not depend on the following
I. First order kineticII. Concentration and time
III. Michels Menten kinetics
A. I OnlyB. III OnlyC. I and II OnlyD. II And III OnlyE. All Of the above
129. Drug that show non linear model pharmacokinetics have which of the following properties:
A. All doses follow first order elimination
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B. Michels Menten kinetic are used in non linear kinetic
C. AUC increase indirectly proportional to dose
D. At steady state drug concentration increase with direct proportion to dosing rate
E. A constant ratio of drug metabolites is formed as the dose increase
130. If aspirin pH 6.5 and pKa 6.5 what is the ionization of drug is unionized?
A. 100B. 0C. 50D. 40E. 30
131. Atropine (base) solution pH is 4.5 and pKa 5.5 what percent of solution is unionized?
A. 90 %B. 91 %C. 9 %D. 1 %E. 99 %
132. Aspirin (acid) solution pH is 4.5 and pKa 5.5 what percent of solution is unionized?
A. 90 %B. 91 %C. 9 %D. 1 %E. 99 %
133. Which of the following site of GI has highest absorption of dug:
A. Large intestine B. StomachC. Small intestineD. EsophagusE. Mouth
134. Which of the following site of GI has highest absorption of drugs
A. Large intestine B. DuodenumC. JejunumD. Ileum
135. Ficks law describe the following:
I. Predicts the rate of moments of molecules across membrane
II. Predicted the percent of ionized and unionized drugs
III. Predict the absorption of drugs in epithelial cells
A. I OnlyB. III OnlyC. I and II OnlyD. II And III OnlyE. All Of the above
136. Determine the F value of a capsule AUC 20 mg / dl / hrs with 50 mg dose when I.V. of the same drug AUC is 25 mg/dl/hr with 100 mg dose :
A. 20 %B. 60 %C. 40 %D. 80 %E. 100 %
137. The following drugs are bioequivalent:
I. Drugs with the same bioavailabilityII. Drugs with same AUC
III. Drugs with same rate of absorption
A. I OnlyB. III OnlyC. I and II OnlyD. II And III OnlyE. All Of the above
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138. The following factors effects the drugs that cross into breast milk
I. Plasma protein bindingII. Partition coefficient
III. Membrane permeability
A. I OnlyB. III OnlyC. I and II OnlyD. II And III OnlyE. All Of the above
139. Albumin is major plasma protein and has strongest affinity to the following protein:
A. Acid drugsB. SC. SD. SE. S
140. Plot of log of concentration against time produces a straight line with a:
A. Slope of K/2.303B. Slop of K/t1/2C. Slope of K0D. Slope of K/2.303E. Slope of K/0.693
141. 100 mg a drug with 2 hr of half life, to eliminate 90 mg of it take how many hours?
A. 7.7B. 5.6C. 6.6D. 4.6E. 2.6
142. A drug was found to have Zero order kinetics 100 mg after 6 days 99 mg
How long it will take to eliminate the entire drug from the body?
A. 100B. 200C. 300D. 600E. 900
143. A dose was given, after 2 hrs, the plasma concentration was 64 mg, t1\2 =0.7 hr, after 7 hours from the initial dose, what is the drugs concentration?
A. 0.0 mgB. 1.0 mgC. 2.0 mgD. 3.0 mgE. 4.0 mg
144. Which of the following is used as standard to measure GFR:
A. InulinB. CreatininC. GlucoseD. InsulinE. Fructose
145. Renal clearance of inulin is used as a measurement of:
A. Active renal secretionB. Effective renal blood flowC. Rate of renal drug excretionD. GFRE. Intrinsic renal activity
146. Renal clearance of Creatinin is used as a measurement of:
A. Active renal secretionB. Effective renal blood flowC. Rate of renal drug excretionD. GFRE. Intrinsic renal activity
147. Which of the following forms of nitroglycerine that are minimally affected by the first pass effect include?
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I. SublingualII. Transdermal Patches
III. Intravenous
A. I OnlyB. III OnlyC. I and II OnlyD. II And III OnlyE. All Of the above
148. Which of he following likely t increase in elderly (Geriatric) Patients:
A. Plasma protein albumin levelB. Enzymatic metabolismC. Vd of water soluble drugsD. Vd of lipophilic drugsE. Hypervolimia
149. In dosing drugs that are primarily excreted by the kidney, one must have some idea of the patient renal function. Which of the following pharmacokinetics parameter gives the estimate of renal function:
A. BUN B. Serum CreatininC. Urine CreatininD. Creatinin clearanceE. Free water clearance
150. if the rate of elimination of drug is reduced because renal insufficiencies, the effect on drug half life and Css will be:
A. Half life and Css decreaseB. Half life and Css increaseC. Increase in Half Life and Decrease in CssD. Decreasing in Half Life but increase in
CssE. No change in both
151. Which of the following statement are correct?
I. Increase Vd increase CssII. Increase loading dose increase Css
III. Decrease in Vd increase Css
A. I OnlyB. III OnlyC. I and II OnlyD. II And III OnlyE. All Of the above
152. The difference between peak and trough concentration is greater when a drug is given at dosing intervals
A. Equal to half life of drugB. Longer than half life of drugC. Shorter than half life of drugD. Equal to CssE. Equal to half life serum creatinin
153. Lethal dose LD50 is classified as
I. Dose cause 50 % of toxic response in tests
II. Dose cause 50 % of effect response in tests
III. Dose cause 50 % of death response in tests
A. I OnlyB. III OnlyC. I and II OnlyD. II And III OnlyE. All Of the above
154. The relative bioavailability of a drug product can be determined by:
A. Comparing AUC`s and total drug urinary excretion
B. Comparing plasma concentration and total drug urinary excretion
C. Comparing elimination and plasma concentration
D. Non of the aboveE. sss
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155. The excretion of weakly acidic drug will become more rapid in alkaline urine than in acidic urine because:
A. The drug will exist primarily in ionized form which cannot easily reabsorbed
B. QC. QD. QE. Q
156. The following are bioequivalent in
Canada:
I. Same color, physical appearanceII. Same dose and same dosage form
III. Same rate and same extent
A. I OnlyB. III OnlyC. I and II OnlyD. II And III OnlyE. All Of the above
157. Sumatriptan is mainly used in migraine treatment acting as:
A. 5HT1D / 1B agonistB. GABA AC. B2 1D. EnkephelinE. Dopamine
158. The following is /are catechole amine neurotransmitter:
I. DopamineII. Nor epinephrine
III. Epinephrine
A. I OnlyB. III OnlyC. I and II OnlyD. II And III OnlyE. All Of the above
159. The following are the amino acid and neurotransmitters:
I. Glutamic acidII. Tryptophan
III. Glycine
A. I OnlyB. III OnlyC. I and II OnlyD. II And III OnlyE. All Of the above
160. All of the following are side effects symptoms of isoflurophate EXCEPT:
A. ConvulsionB. Increase HRC. MiosisD. Skeletal muscle paralysisE. Increase bronchial secretion
161. All of the following Are neuromuscular blockers EXCEPT:
A. SuccinylcholineB. Pancuronium C. AtracurimD. NicotineE. Mivcurium
162. All of the following drugs have diarrhea as side effect EXCEPT:
I. NeostigmineII. Bethanechol
III. Atropine
A. I OnlyB. III OnlyC. I and II OnlyD. II And III OnlyE. All Of the above
163. Which of the following is used in long term treatment of myasthenia Gravies
A. Neostigmine
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B. AC. AD. AE. A
164. All of the following drugs can be used in open angle and closed angle Glaucoma:
I. TimilolII. Methyldopa
III. Pilocarpine
A. I OnlyB. III OnlyC. I and II OnlyD. II And III OnlyE. All Of the above
165. Chemical mediator that is released from the end nerve of parasympathetic system :
I. AdrenalinII. Nor adrenalin
III. Acetylcholine
A. I OnlyB. III OnlyC. I and II OnlyD. II And III OnlyE. All Of the above
166. The following products can be used in smoking cessation:
I. Nicotine GumsII. Zyban
III. Buspirone
A. I OnlyB. III OnlyC. I and II OnlyD. II And III OnlyE. All Of the above
167. The following statements are correct about smoking cessation:
I. Stop smoking from the day when start using nicotine products
II. Can continue smoking for 1 to 2 weeks when non nicotine (Zyban) products
III. Start 21 mg of nicotine patches and slowly taper the dose to 14 mg after 4 -6 weeks
A. I OnlyB. III OnlyC. I and II OnlyD. II And III OnlyE. All Of the above
168. Mary 33 years old pregnant woman she smokes 1 pack a day, she is seeking your help in quitting her smoking habits, which of the following would be your recommend?
I. Suggest to use non pharmacological steps to reduce smoking habits
II. Suggest nicotine patches, to use every day
III. Suggest Zyban oral drug smoking cessation
A. I OnlyB. III OnlyC. I and II OnlyD. II And III OnlyE. All Of the above
169. Pancuronium is :
A. Ganglionic blockerB. Depolarizing NMJ blockerC. Non depolarizing NMJ blockerD. Cholinergic antagonistE. Anti cholinesterase
170. The following drug most closely resembles atropine in its pharmacological action EXCEPT
A. Acetylcholine
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B. BenzotropineC. ScopolamineD. IpratropiumE. Tropicamide
171. Which of the following drugs does not produce miosis:
A. ScopolamineB. CarbacholeC. PilocarpineD. NeostigmineE. Isoflurophate
172. Which of the following drugs with little change in heart rate but increases cardiac output. This drug indicated in CHF does not increase O2 demand.
I. IsoproteronololII. Methyldopa
III. Dobutamine
A. I OnlyB. III OnlyC. I and II OnlyD. II And III OnlyE. All Of the above
173. The following medications are used is asthma emergencies
I. AlbuterolII. Ipratropium
III. Salmeterol
A. I OnlyB. III OnlyC. I and II OnlyD. II And III OnlyE. All Of the above
174. Epinephrine is combined with local anesthetic 1 in 100,000 parts for the following effect of epinephrine
I. VasoconstrictionII. Reduced distribution of local
anesthetic in blood flowIII. Increase the localized effect
A. I OnlyB. III OnlyC. I and II OnlyD. II And III OnlyE. All Of the above
175. The action of acetylcholine in motor endoplate and in the celiac ganglia is described as:
A. Nicotinic stimulationB. Muscarinic stimulationC. Dopaminic stimulationD. Adrenergic stimulationE. Serotonin stimulation
176. Drug commonly used with local anesthetic to decrease the absorption and increase the time of action of anesthesia include:
A. Epinephrine B. Adrenaline SCC. IsoproterenolD. AminophilineE. Salmeterol
177. Which one of the following in characteristic of parasympathetic stimulation
A. Increase Heart rate B. Contraction of sphincter urinary
bladderC. Inhibition of bronchial secretionD. Miosis effect contraction of irisE. Decrease intestinal motility
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178. Which of the following statement
about the parasympathetic system is correct
A. The parasympathetic system control the secretion of adrenal medulla
B. The parasympathetic system involved in movement of food and urination and accommodation of near vision
C. Parasympathetic system uses nor epinephrine as neurotransmitter
D. Post Ganglionic fiber of parasympathetic system are long compared to sympathetic system
E. Aa
179. Which of the following is the correct action of sympathomemitic
I. Increase the drainage of aqueous humor in the eye
II. Decrease in aqueous humor in the eye
III. Increase of IOP Intra Ocular Pressure
A. I OnlyB. III OnlyC. I and II OnlyD. II And III OnlyE. All Of the above
180. adrenergic blockers causes syncope as a side effect, in order to manage syncope effect, the following precaution should be taken:
I. Take medication at bed timeII. Reduce first dose to one fourthIII. Take medication with full glass of
water
A. I OnlyB. III OnlyC. I and II OnlyD. II And III Only
E. All Of the above
181. Which of the following is atenolol side effect:
I. HypotensionII. Tremor
III. Visual disturbance
A. I OnlyB. III OnlyC. I and II OnlyD. II And III OnlyE. All Of the above
182. A patent currently on Blockers and sildenafil which of the following side effect can be seen
I. HypotensionII. Tremor
III. Visual disturbance
A. I OnlyB. III OnlyC. I and II OnlyD. II And III OnlyE. All Of the above
183. Nitrates and sildenafil cannot be used together because
I. Enhance hypotension effect of nitrates
II. Enhance hypotension effect of sildenafil
III. Enhance hypertension effect of nitrates
A. I OnlyB. III OnlyC. I and II OnlyD. II And III OnlyE. All Of the above
184. A patient currently on phenelzine Nardil for his depression disorder, he
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should avoid all of the following food EXCEPT
A. Age old cheeseB. WineC. YogurtD. OrangeE. Margarine
185. A patient currently on phenelzine Nardil for his depression disorder, he should avoid all of the following Medication EXCEPT
A. FluoxetineB. SertarlineC. FluoxamineD. MeperidineE. Amoxicillin
186. Serotonin involved in all EXCEPT:
I. Sleep disorderII. Motor activity (physical Activity)
III. Mood disorder
A. I OnlyB. III OnlyC. I and II OnlyD. II And III OnlyE. All Of the above
187. Which of the following statement are correct about Lithium
I. Lithium effect seen after two weeksII. Before lithium has effect, patient are
treated with benzodiazepine for manic depression
III. Lithium is drug of choice for manic depression
A. I OnlyB. III OnlyC. I and II OnlyD. II And III Only
E. All Of the above
188. Mary, 33 years old pregnant woman, requiring about the safer drug for hypotension condition, which of the following she can use:
I. MethyldopaII. Hydralazine
III. Labetolol
A. I OnlyB. III OnlyC. I and II OnlyD. II And III OnlyE. All Of the above
189. All of the following are the side effect of blockers EXCEPT:
A. Lower heart rateB. Lower blood pressureC. Higher blood pressureD. FatigueE. Avoid driving after medication for a few
hours
190. Mr. Brown 55 years old asthmatic patient have difficulty in urination and goes frequent urination wakes us several time in night. His blood pressure indicate 160/95 mmHg. Which of the following medication would be appropriate to treat Mr. Brown condition
A. AcebutololB. LabetololC. HydralazineD. DoxazocineE. Yohimbine
191. All of the following are side effect of antagonist EXCEPT
A. AB. A
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C. AD. Sexual dysfunctionE. Urinary retention
192. The following drugs can be used to reduce male impotency
I. SildenafilII. Yohimbine
III. Phentolamine
A. I OnlyB. III OnlyC. I and II OnlyD. II And III OnlyE. All Of the above
193. Which of the following statements are correct about TCA`s
I. TCA shows immediate effectsII. Orthostatic hypertension is common
side effectIII. All TCA shows similar therapeutic
effects
A. I OnlyB. III OnlyC. I and II OnlyD. II And III OnlyE. All Of the above
194. The following drugs can be used with caution to correct internal sphincter of bladder bed wetting
I. AmitriptylineII. Thixamine
III. Imipramine
A. I OnlyB. III OnlyC. I and II OnlyD. II And III OnlyE. All Of the above
195. The following are common side effect of TCA`s and MAO inhibitors
I. Serotonin syndromeII. Psychological and physical
dependenceIII. Postural hypotension
A. I OnlyB. III OnlyC. I and II OnlyD. II And III OnlyE. All Of the above
196. All of the following are side effects have observed in patients using antipsychotic drugs EXCEPT
A. Orthostatic hypotensionB. ConstipationC. Increase blood pressureD. Sexual dysfunctionE. Change in endocrine hormone function
197. Second generation antipsychotic such as resperidone have the following advantage over traditional antipsychotics:
I. Have high extrapyrimidal side effects than traditional antipsychotics
II. Have less weight gain side effect than traditional antipsychotics
III. Have less EPS than traditional antipsychotic
A. I OnlyB. III OnlyC. I and II OnlyD. II And III OnlyE. All Of the above
198. The following is protype of opioid
A. MorphineB. AC. A
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D. AE. A
199. The following narcotic active metabolite exhibit analgesic activity
A. MeperidineB. GlucuronideC. FentanylD. MorphineE. Codeine
200. Activation of witch of the following principal opioid receptor does NOT cause significant respiratory depression
I. MuII. Delta
III. Kappa
A. I OnlyB. III OnlyC. I and II OnlyD. II And III OnlyE. All Of the above
201. Witch of the following is / are the most common side effect of opioids:
I. ConstipationII. Respiratory depression
III. Sedation
A. I OnlyB. III OnlyC. I and II OnlyD. II And III OnlyE. All Of the above
202. Which of the following opioid has toxic metabolite that may accumulate in renal dysfunction:
A. MorphineB. MeperidineC. Methadone
D. CodeineE. Fentanyl
203. Parkinson patients are characterized by:
I. Increase ratio of dopaminergic / cholinergic activity in neostratum
II. Most commonly occurs in elderly over 40 years of age patients
III. Decrease ratio dopaminergic / cholinergic activity in neostratum
A. I OnlyB. III OnlyC. I and II OnlyD. II And III OnlyE. All Of the above
204. All of the following are withdrawal symptoms of CNS stimulant EXCEPT:
A. AnxietyB. InsomniaC. Intestinal crampsD. RestlessnessE. Craving
205. Opioid overdose presents with the following symptoms
I. Pinpoint pupilII. Coma
III. Respiratory depression
A. I OnlyB. III OnlyC. I and II OnlyD. II And III OnlyE. All Of the above
206. The following anesthetics produce paraaminobenzoic acid PABA upon metabolism :
I. General anesthetic
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II. Amide type of local anestheticsIII. Ester Type of local anesthetics
A. I OnlyB. III OnlyC. I and II OnlyD. II And III OnlyE. All Of the above
207. All of the following statement about Methadone are correct EXCEPT:
A. It is effective by oral administrationB. Has longer half life than morphineC. Has less analgesic activity than
morphineD. Has greater action on mu receptorsE. Methadone used in opioid withdrawal to
reduce withdrawal symptoms
208. Witch of the following have metabolic acidosis as side effect:
I. Carbonic anhydrase diureticsII. Potassium sparing diuretics
III. Thiazide diuretics
A. I OnlyB. III OnlyC. I and II OnlyD. II And III OnlyE. All Of the above
209. All of the following causes metabolic alkalosis EXCEPT:
A. HydrochlorothiazideB. AcetazolamideC. FurosemideD. BumetanideE. Chlorithalidone
210. Thrombocytopenia is side effect of the following drugs:
I. Hydrochlorothiazide
II. AcetazolamideIII. Furosemide
A. I OnlyB. III OnlyC. I and II OnlyD. II And III OnlyE. All of the above
211. All of the following correct about spironolactone EXCEPT:
A. It renders with distal tubular aldosterone mediated sodium, potassium exchange
B. Cause alkaline urineC. Cause hyperkalemiaD. Cause gynecomastia and menstrual
irregularities E. The principle site of action is at thick
ascending loop
212. All of the following are correct about Furosemide Except:
A. The principal site of action of this drug is on the thick ascending loop
B. It is useful in treating pulmonary edema and ascites
C. Useful in reducing cerebral edema and intracranial pressure
D. Cause metabolic alkalosis E. Cause ototoxicity
213. What are the following
characteristics of mannitol are correct:
I. Freely filtered, limits the tubular reabsorption of water
II. Useful in treatment of brain tumorIII. Cause hyperkalemia
A. I OnlyB. III OnlyC. I and II OnlyD. II And III OnlyE. All Of the above
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214. All of the following are the withdrawal symptoms of CNS stimulant EXCEPT:
A. AnxietyB. InsomniaC. Intestinal crampsD. Restless E. Craving
215. Rhabdomyolisis is the side effect of all of the following EXCEPT
A. SimavastatinB. LovastatinC. GemfibrozilD. ColestipolE. Atrovastatin
216. Which of the following is mechanism of action of ezetimibe
A. Lowering LDL,TG and increase HDL with anti-inflammatory effect
B. Inhibition of intestinal absorption of cholesterol
C. Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa antagonist that inhibit platelet aggregate
D. HMG Co A inhibitorsE. Anion exchange resin
217. Which of the following can be used in treatment of DVT
I. Warfarin II. Streptokinase
III. Heparin
A. I OnlyB. III OnlyC. I and II OnlyD. II And III OnlyE. All Of the above
218. All of the following are anti platelet agent EXCEPT
A. Fab fragments B. TiclopidineC. ClopidogrelD. AspirinE. Warfarin
219. Which of the following are produced
by biotechnicological methods:
I. Fab fragmentsII. Ateplase
III. tPA
A. I OnlyB. III OnlyC. I and II OnlyD. II And III OnlyE. All Of the above
220. Which of the following medication can be used in pulmonary edema and DVT
I. HeparinII. Warfarin
III. Streptokinase
A. I OnlyB. III OnlyC. I and II OnlyD. II And III OnlyE. All Of the above
221. In order to measure effectiveness of warfarin therapy the following monitoring test are used
I. INR must be 2-3II. Prothrombin test (PT)
III. aPTT
A. I OnlyB. III OnlyC. I and II OnlyD. II And III OnlyE. All Of the above
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222. Which of the following is / are the ischemic heart disease
A. MIB. AnginaC. ArrhythmiasD. CHFE. A and B only
223. Pulmonary edema causes Because of
I. Left sided heart failure II. Right sided heart failure
III. Ischemic condition
A. I OnlyB. III OnlyC. I and II OnlyD. II And III OnlyE. All Of the above
224. Which of the following drugs has lowering LDL, TG and increase HDL with anti inflammatory effects
A. SimavastatinB. ClopidogrelC. EzetimibeD. TicofibanE. Enoxapril
225. Which of the following side effect associated wit nitroglyceride
A. HypertensionB. Trobbing headacheC. AnemiaD. BradycardiaE. >>>
226. All of the following are used in digitalis toxicity except
A. PhenytoinB. Lidocaine
C. Fab fragmentD. QuinidineE. Potassium supplement
227. Which of the following drugs or disease induce arrhythmias
A. DiabetesB. DigitalisC. QuinidineD. LidocaineE. Hypertension
228. Which of the following not appropriate with potassium sparing diuretics:
I. CaptoprilII. Enalopril
III. Bezopril
A. I OnlyB. III OnlyC. I and II OnlyD. II And III OnlyE. All Of the above
229. All of the following statement are correct about nitroglycerin EXCPT:
A. It can cause postural hypotensionB. It can cause reflex tachycardiaC. It has first pass metabolismD. It has IV formulations and sprayE. It significantly decrease AV conduction
230. A patient with megaloblastic anemia requires Vit. B12 supplement. Which of the following is true about Vit. B12 supplement?
I. 50 mg of oral B12 supplements helps to recover his anemic condition
II. Folic acid supplement helps to acquire Vit. B12
III. Vit. B12 IV supplement helps to recover his anemic condition
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A. I OnlyB. III OnlyC. I and II OnlyD. II And III OnlyE. All Of the above
231. A patient with constipation condition may require the following ant acids:
I. Calcium anti acidsII. Al (OH)3 Anti acids
III. Mg (OH)2 Anti acids
A. I OnlyB. III OnlyC. I and II OnlyD. II And III OnlyE. All Of the above
232. Which of the following anti acids have cathartic side effects
A. Al (OH)3B. Mg (OH)2C. CaHCO3D. Sodium bicarbonateE. Non of the above
233. Alginic acid is used in the following condition:
A. Heartburn symptom reliefB. Heartburn prophylaxisC. Heartburn treatmentD. Peptic ulcer treatmentE.
239. All of the following asthmatic medications are useful in pregnancy EXCEPT:
A. 2 AgonistB. Coromolyn C. Inhaled corticosteroidsD. ThyophyllinE. Zafirlukast
240. Emphysema is characterized by:
I. Permanent enlargement of small sacs in lungs
II. Permanent damage of alveolar in lungs
III. Shortness of breath
A. I OnlyB. III OnlyC. I and II OnlyD. II And III OnlyE. All Of the above
241. All of the following pituitary hormones secreted from anterior pituitary gland EXCEPT:
A. LHB. FSHC. MSHD. ADHE. ACTH
242. All of the following statement are correct about hyperparathyroidism EXCEPT:
I. Causes deficiency of Vit. DII. Decrease Ca ion in blood
III. Increase Ca ion reabsorption from renal tubules
A. I OnlyB. III OnlyC. I and II OnlyD. II And III Only
E. All Of the above
243. Ipratropium bromide in COPD is more effective when combined with:
I. adrenergicII. Has less side effect tat atropine
III. When administrated inhalation
A. I OnlyB. III OnlyC. I and II OnlyD. II And III OnlyE. All Of the above
244. Which of the following condition limit the use of Thyophyllin in treatment of COPD:
A. Peptic ulcer diseaseB. All ageC. CHFD. DiabeticsE. All of the above
245. Corticosteroids are used in the treatment of COPD:
I. In patient who have the response to bronchodilator therapy
II. In patient with no wheezing effectIII. Before maximum Thyophyllin
therapy received
A. I OnlyB. III OnlyC. I and II OnlyD. II And III OnlyE. All Of the above
246. In hyperparathyroidism condition,
the following statements are correct EXCEPT:
A. HypercalcimiaB. High production of PTHC. Hyperphosphetemia
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D. Muscle acheE. Muscle atrophy
247. Which of the following is not the correct match:
A. Hypothyroidism --- HypocalcemiaB. Hpoparathyroidism
---HyperphosphetemiaC. Hyperparathyroidism ---
HypercalcimiaD. Hyperparathyroidism --- cause
deficiency phosphatesE. Hyperparathyroidism --- cause
deficiency of Ca ions
248. Hypocalcimia occurs in the following condition:
I. VomitingII. Hypoparathyroidism
III. Vit. D deficiency
A. I OnlyB. III OnlyC. I and II OnlyD. II And III OnlyE. All Of the above
249. Which of the following drugs does not cause hypoglycemia
A. MetforminB. RepaglinideC. AcarboseD. GlyburideE. Chlorpropamide
250. Which of the following hormones play important rules in male reproductive system?
I. FSHII. LH
III. TSH
A. I Only
B. III OnlyC. I and II OnlyD. II And III OnlyE. All Of the above
251. Which of the following statement is correct?
A. Protamine is added to insulin to decrease the rate of absorption
B. Protamine is added to insulin to increase the rate of absorption
C. Insulin can be administrated orallyD. Insulin administered IV onlyE. Insulin administrated IM only
252. Which of the following statement about oral hypoglycemic is / are correct
A. Chlorpropamide blocks insulin receptors
B. Glipizide increase glucagons secretion C. Sulfonylureas increase release of insulin
and increase sensitivity of target tissuesD.
C. TestosteroneD. LH and FSHE. GnRH
255. Hormone that increase water permeability in collecting tubules:
I. VasopressinII. Oxytocin
III. Spironolactone
A. I OnlyB. III OnlyC. I and II OnlyD. II And III OnlyE. All Of the above
256. Hormone that sustained after pregnancy:
I. EstrogenII. Progestin
III. Androgen
A. I OnlyB. III OnlyC. I and II OnlyD. II And III OnlyE. All Of the above
257. Hypothyroidism is related to the following:
I. Graves diseaseII. Hashimoto syndromeIII. I131 treatment
A. I OnlyB. III OnlyC. I and II OnlyD. II And III OnlyE. All Of the above
258. Osteoporosis is a condition of skeletal muscle fragility due to:
I. Progressive loss of bone mass
II. It occurs mainly in post menopausal women
III. Is characterized by frequent bone fractions
A. I OnlyB. III OnlyC. I and II OnlyD. II And III OnlyE. All Of the above
259. Do not lay dawn for 30 after taking aldendronate that may cause:
I. Esophageal ulcersII. Mouth ulcers
III. Stomach ulcers
A. I OnlyB. III OnlyC. I and II OnlyD. II And III OnlyE. All Of the above
260. Osteoporosis is a disease characterized by loss of bone mass and may be aggravated by:
I. CorticosteroidsII. Menopause
III. Graves disease
A. I OnlyB. III OnlyC. I and II OnlyD. II And III OnlyE. All Of the above
261. Osteoporosis is characterized by loss of bone mass and may predispose by the following factors:
I. RaceII. Family history
III. Smoking
A. I OnlyB. III Only
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C. I and II OnlyD. II And III OnlyE. All Of the above
262. Calcitonin is mainly classified as hormone liberated by thyroid gland which stimulate the release of Calcitonin?
A. HypercalcimiaB. HypocalcemiaC. HypophosphetemiaD. HyperphosphetemiaE. High concentration of Vit. D
263. The following estrogen receptor modulator (SERM) increase women bone density without increasing the risk of endometrial cancer:
I. MisopristolII. Tamoxifen
III. Ralaxifen
A. I OnlyB. III OnlyC. I and II OnlyD. II And III OnlyE. All Of the above
264. Which of the following drugs are classified as receptor modulator (SERM):
I. MisopristolII. Tamoxifen
III. Ralaxifen
A. I OnlyB. III OnlyC. I and II OnlyD. II And III OnlyE. All Of the above
265. All of the following require monitoring for methotrexate therapy EXCPT:
A. Chest X-RayB. Creatinin level
C. CBCD. Leukotrienes countsE. Liver function test
266. E Coli is the most common causative microorganism for UTI, classified as:
A. Gram +ve cocciB. Gram ve cocciC. Gram +ve bacilliD. Gram ve bacilliE. Non of the above
267. Which of the following is / are viral infection:
I. RabiesII. PoliomyelitisIII. Legiomores disease
A. I OnlyB. III OnlyC. I and II OnlyD. II And III OnlyE. All Of the above
268. Chloramphenicol is one of the drugs of choice in all EXCEPT:
A. TyphoidB. Salmonella infectionC. Meningitis when a lactam antibiotics
cannot be usedD. Rectisial infection responding to
tetracycline or in which tetracycline cannot be used
E. S. aures infection
269. Metronidalzole is first choice in all EXCEPT:
A. Bacterial infectionB. Clostridium difficile colitisC. TrichomaniasisD. Typhoid
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E. Only anaerobic bacteria
270. What is true about influenza treatment:
I. Amantadine indicated in influenza A and B
II. Rimantadine indicated in influenza A only
III. Oseltamivir indicated n influenza A and B
A. I OnlyB. III OnlyC. I and II OnlyD. II And III OnlyE. All Of the above
271. Lyme disease commonly occur in Mississippi river valley, this infection caused by:
A. Tick biteB. Mosquito biteC. Dog biteD. Human biteE. Cockroach bite
272. Which is not correct about trepenema palladium
A. Treated by penicillin GB. Causative organism of syphilisC. Spread by lymphaticD. Causative organism of typhoidE.
278. Metronidalzole indicated in the following EXCEPT:
A. C. difficileB. GiardiasisC. TrichomaniasisD. S. aureusE. Anaerobic infection only
279. All of the following are DNA virus EXCEPT:
A. AdenovirusB. Papilloma virusC. PoxyvirusD. OrthomyxovirusE. Poliovirus
280. German measles:
A. MumpsB. RubellaC. EndocarditisD. VericellaE. Zoster
281. All of the following are penicillin resistant ( lactamase ) antibiotics EXCEPT:
I. AmoxicillinII. Methicillin
III. Naficillin
A. I OnlyB. III OnlyC. I and II OnlyD. II And III OnlyE. All Of the above
282. Which of the following is acid sensitive and lactamase resistant antibiotic:
A. Amoxicillin
B. Penicillin GC. MethicillinD. OxacillinE.
A. VancomycinB. ,,C. ,,D. ,,E. ,,
287. Gonorrhea infection in male treated by:
A. VancomycinB. MetronidalzoleC. Ceftrixone IMD. Penicillin GE. Cotrimoxazole
288. Pregnant woman have UTI infection, what is the oral antibiotic?
A. AmpicillinB. TetracyclineC. CotrimoxazoleD. ClotrimazoleE. Cefadroxil
289. Aminoglycosides are indicated in:
I. Gram +ve bacterial infectionII. Gram ve bacterial infection
III. Prophylaxis in preoperative procedure
A. I OnlyB. III OnlyC. I and II OnlyD. II And III OnlyE. All Of the above
290. Sulfonamide are indicated in:
I. Gram +ve and certain gram veII. Gram ve and certain gram +ve
III. Mainly a typical bacteria
A. I OnlyB. III Only
C. I and II OnlyD. II And III OnlyE. All Of the above
291. All of the following are anti DNA viral agent EXCEPT:
A. RimantadineB. AcyclovirC. RibavirinD. FoscarnetE. Famciclovir
292. Acacia is classified as:
A. Suspending agentB. Natural emulsifying agentC. Semi synthetic emulsifying agentD. Flocculating agentE. Tablet filler
293. Rectal suppositories intended for adult use approximately weight:
A. 10 gramB. 5 gramC. 2 gramD. 1 gramE. 0.5 gram
294. In a dispensing pharmacy, pharmacist usually mix active powder with large amount of diluents by:
A. LevigationB. Geometrical dilutionC. TiturationD. SifingE. Pulverization
295. The shell of soft gelatin capsule may made by addition of plastic-like substance:
A. Polyethelenglycol PEGB. Povidone
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C. LactoseD. SorbitolE. Methyl cellulose
296. Which is the smallest size of capsule
A. 5B. 10C. 0D. 1E. 000
297. In extemporaneous preparation of suspensions, Levigation is used:
A. Reduce particle sizeB. Reduce viscosityC. Increase practical sizeD. increase sedimentation rateE. reduce sedimentation rate
298. Sterility or sterile
I. Pyrogen freeII. Particulate free
III. Pathogen free ( Microorganism free )
A. I OnlyB. III OnlyC. I and II OnlyD. II And III OnlyE. All Of the above
299. Sterile preparations of parenteral solution:
IV. Pyrogen freeV. Particulate free
VI. Pathogen free ( Microorganism free )
A. I OnlyB. III OnlyC. I and II OnlyD. II And III OnlyE. All Of the above
300. Aseptic technique include decontamination of:
I. Undesirable particlesII. Decontamination of pyrogen
III. Decontamination of pathogen
A. I OnlyB. III OnlyC. I and II OnlyD. II And III OnlyE. All Of the above
301. A vertical laminar flow hood is the best choice when preparing solution of:
A. PenicillinB. DoxacillinC. Cytotoxic agentD. Nicotine formulationE. Aminoglycosides
302. The size of HEPA used in Laminar air flow hood is:
A. 0.22 micronB. 0.33 micronC. 0.44 micronD. 0.55 micronE. 0.66 micron
303. What is the suitable form of water can be used in parenteral preparations;
I. Sterile water for injection USPII. Water for injection USP
III. Purified water USP
A. I OnlyB. III OnlyC. I and II OnlyD. II And III OnlyE. All Of the above
304. Which of he following id the output of Albuterol inhalation aerosol:
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I. Dry mistII. Wet mist
III. Stable foam
A. I OnlyB. III OnlyC. I and II OnlyD. II And III OnlyE. All Of the above
305. RXPhenol 0.5 %Cimetidine HClWater for injection USP
What is the rule of phenol in this script?
A. PreservativeB.
A. MethotrexateB. SulfasalazineC. Organic Gold compoundD. SulphapyrazoneE. Penicillamine
313. Which statement are right regarding Calcitonin
I. Its secretion stimulated during feeding, particularly of high calcium meals
II. Prevents Hypercalcimia by inhibiting the transport of calcium into extra cellular fluid and by increasing the renal clearance of Calcitonin
III. It is a vitamin D derivative
A. I OnlyB. III OnlyC. I and II OnlyD. II And III OnlyE. All Of the above
314. The level should be adjusted during treatment with allopurinol:
I. Mercapturic acidII. Theophyllin
III. Anticoagulants
A. I OnlyB. III OnlyC. I and II OnlyD. II And III OnlyE. All Of the above
315. Uricosuric agent used in gout treatment by inhibiting the uric acid reabsorption in the proximal tubules, the best example of uricosuric agent is:
A. AllopurinolB. SulphinpyrazoneC. IndomethacineD. PenicillamineE. Methotrexate
316. Oral chelating agent that used in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis is:
A. AllopurinolB. SulphinpyrazoneC. IndomethacineD. PenicillamineE. Methotrexate
317. In the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis the salicylates:
A. Stop and often reverse the progressive joint involvement
B. Specifically reverse the cause of diseaseC. Provide only analgesic effectD. Are effective because they are uricosuric
agentsE. Are more effective when given with
allopurinol
318. Importance of Vit. D in osteoporosis:
I. Increase absorption of calcium from the small intestine
II. The best Vit D analog to treat osteoporosis Calcitonin
III. Ant acids containing Al and Mg interfere with proper activity of Vit D
A. I OnlyB. III OnlyC. I and II OnlyD. II And III OnlyE. All Of the above
319. Drug that inhibit xanthine oxidase and affect the metabolism of 6-mercaptopurine:
A. SulphinpyrazoneB. AllopurinolC. PenicillamineD. PurinethilE. Celecoxib
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320. Pannus is an inflammatory exudates characterized by:
I. Syonvial cells proliferation inside of a joint
II. Normally occurs in patients with Rheumatoid arthritis
III. An immunologic complication
A. I OnlyB. III OnlyC. I and II OnlyD. II And III OnlyE. All Of the above
321. Gout characteristics include:
I. Hereditary metabolite disease marked by inflammation of the joints
II. The joints inflammation caused by precipitation of uric acid crystals
III. It is a type of osteoporosis
A. I OnlyB. III OnlyC. I and II OnlyD. II And III OnlyE. All Of the above
322. Al of the following are Allopurinol side effects, EXCEPT:
A. Increase PTB. Hypersensitivity rashesC. GIT intoleranceD. Peripheral neuritisE. Necrotizing vasculitis
323. The use of estrogen in osteoporosis;
I. Enhance calcium retention and retard bone loss
II. Useful in treatment of osteoporosis associated to menopause
III. Not effective at increased bone mass that has already been lost
A. I OnlyB. III OnlyC. I and II OnlyD. II And III OnlyE. All Of the above
324. Ant malarial drug used in the treatment o rheumatoid arthritis as DMRA drug
A. ChloroqineB. QuinineC. SulfasalazineD. HydroxychlorquineE. Primaquine
325. Correct administration of Penicillamine in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis include:
A. With mealB. In empty stomachC. With plenty of waterD. With orange juiceE. Before bed time
326. Asthmatic patient with RA with Aspirin sensitivity. The drug of choice is:
A. IbuprofenB. AcetaminophenC. Gold therapyD. AzathioprineE. Cyclophosphamide
327. Diflunisal is most likely to prescribed for the treatment of:
A. Wilsons diseaseB. Rheumatoid arthritisC. CystinuriaD. PsariasisE. Hansens disease
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328. The anti body with longest serum half life is:
A. IgAB. IgGC. IgDD. IgEE. IgM
329. T cells that are released from thymus gland into circulation are:
I. Memory B cellsII. TH cells
III. T virgin cells
A. I OnlyB. III OnlyC. I and II OnlyD. II And III OnlyE. All Of the above
330. Which type of anti bodies (immunoglobulin) can enter fetal circulation
A. IgAB. IgGC. IgDD. IgEE. IgM
331. The oxidative release of which of the following substance causes formation of toxic hypochlorous acid :
I. H2O2II. Peroxidase
III. Oxygen
A. I OnlyB. III OnlyC. I and II OnlyD. II And III OnlyE. All Of the above
332. An example of type IV hypersensitivity reactions is mediated by IgE :
I. CytotoxicityII. Bronchial constriction
III. Contact dermatitis
A. I OnlyB. III OnlyC. I and II OnlyD. II And III OnlyE. All Of the above
333. Preventive vaccine available for the following condition
I. Hepatitis BII. Influenza A
III. Influenza B
A. I OnlyB. III OnlyC. I and II OnlyD. II And III OnlyE. All Of the above
334. As a result of zwitter ion amino acid solution. In solution zwitter ion exhibit the following properties :
I. AnionicII. Cationic
III. Ampiphilic
A. I OnlyB. III OnlyC. I and II OnlyD. II And III OnlyE. All Of the above
335. DNA contain the following fragment:
A. Nucleotide with deoxyribose (sugar)B. Nucleoside with deoxyribose (sugar)C. Nucleoside with RiboseD. Nucleotide with ribose
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E. Non of the above
336. HIV viruses has special enzymes that form DNA in host, which of the following is that enzyme:
A. c DNAB. recombinant DNAC. reverse transcriptaseD. restrictive endonuleaseE.
I. Perform gastric lavageII. Administration of activated charcoal
III. Administration flumzenil, a competitive benzodiazepine antagonist
A. I OnlyB. III OnlyC. I and II OnlyD. II And III OnlyE. All Of the above
344. Salicylates toxicity of drug are treated by alkaline diuresis because:
I. Decrease absorption of salicylates II. Increase absorption of salicylates
because acid and base make neutral solution
III. Enhance salicylates excretion
A. I OnlyB. III OnlyC. I and II OnlyD. II And III OnlyE. All Of the above
345. Salicylates toxicity of drug are
treated by alkaline diuresis because:
I. Decrease absorption of salicylates II. Decrease re absorption
III. Enhance salicylates excretion
A. I OnlyB. III OnlyC. I and II OnlyD. II And III OnlyE. All Of the above
346. What is not found in deoxyribose nucleic acid
A. UracilB. AdenineC. CytosineD. GuanineE. Thyamine
347. What are the common storage land of most biotechnological products such as tPA, Streptokinase, and lyrokinase
A. Cool pace 2-8 C
348. Glycoproteins are linked to:
I. InsulinII. Gonadotropin
III. Interleukin
A. I OnlyB. III OnlyC. I and II OnlyD. II And III OnlyE. All Of the above
349. Most common antibody:
A. IgMB. IgDC. IgGD. IgEE. IgA
350. All of the following are biotechnological products EXCEPT:
A. AlteplaseB. AbciximabC. Interleukin-3D. Beta serumE. Warfarin
351. Enzyme that clears DNA at a specific site called:
I. TyrosineII. Restrictive ribonuclease
III. Restrictive endonuclease
A. I OnlyB. III Only
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C. I and II OnlyD. II And III OnlyE. All Of the above
352. Which is recombinant DNA:
I. R-DNAII. C-DNA
III. rDNA
A. I OnlyB. III OnlyC. I and II OnlyD. II And III OnlyE. All Of the above
353. Km (Michael menton constant) lower that V max:
A. First orderB. Second orderC. Zero orderD. Second order kineticE.
360. Which of the following can form free radical:
I. H2O2II. O2
III. OH
A. I OnlyB. III OnlyC. I and II OnlyD. II And III OnlyE. All Of the above
361. Which of the following vitamins contain aminolone
I. Vit. B12II. Vit. C
III. Vit. K
A. I OnlyB. III OnlyC. I and II OnlyD. II And III OnlyE. All Of the above
362. All of the following are immune system related organs EXCEPT:
A. LymphB. ThymusC. ThyroidD. AppendixE. Spleen
363. A patient with inflammation and infection his WBC count is:
A. < 4000 to 11000B. > 4000 to 11000C. Equal to 400 to 11000D.
A. TVB. RadioC. BillboardsD. FlyersE. Direct mailing
379. Drugs that are converted to salt form
I. Alter drug bioavailabilityII. Alter pharmacological effects
III. Increase potency
A. I OnlyB. III OnlyC. I and II OnlyD. II And III OnlyE. All Of the above
380. Tacrolimus is an immunosuppressant agent (FK506 or Prograft), main side effects:
I. NephrotoxicityII. Nuerotoxicity
III. Osteoporosis
A. I OnlyB. III OnlyC. I and II OnlyD. II And III OnlyE. All Of the above
381. In which type of seizure there is break in the action of patient activity for long period:
A. Tonic clonicB.
II. HumerousIII. Scapula
A. I OnlyB. III OnlyC. I and II OnlyD. II And III OnlyE. All Of the above
397. What is azotemia?
I. Excess of BUN in bloodII. Excess of creatinin clearance
III. Decrease of BUN
A. I OnlyB. III OnlyC. I and II OnlyD. II And III OnlyE. All Of the above
398. The following pathogens commonly cause travelers diarrhea:
I. E coliII. Shigella sp.
III. Bacteroid fragillis
A. I OnlyB. III OnlyC. I and II OnlyD. II And III OnlyE. All Of the above
399. The following have effectively used for prevention of traveler diarrhea
I. Ciprofloxacin and doxycyclinII. Cotrimoxazole
III. Erythromycin
A. I OnlyB. III OnlyC. I and II OnlyD. II And III OnlyE. All Of the above
400. The following have effectively used for prevention of traveler diarrhea:
I. Ciprofloxacin and doxycyclinII. CotrimoxazoleIII. Pepto - Bismol
A. I OnlyB. III OnlyC. I and II OnlyD. II and III OnlyE. All of the above
401. Which of the following most common causative organism for traveler diarrhea
A. E coliB. Aeromonas Sp.C. Salmonella Sp.D. Shigella Sp.E. Vibro cholera
402. The following unsafe food could cause traveler diarrhea
I. Cooked and unpeeled fruitsII. Fresh soft cheese
III. Fresh vegetable salad
A. I OnlyB. III OnlyC. I and II OnlyD. II and III OnlyE. All of the above
403. Preferred laxative used in elderly patients?
I. Doucsate sodium (emollient laxative)II. Lactulose
III. Glycerin suppositories
A. I OnlyB. III OnlyC. I and II OnlyD. II and III Only
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E. All of the above
404. What is the advantages of antacids over H2 Antagonists:
A. Longer duration of actionB. Antacids are indicated for treatmentC. Antacids have faster onset of actionD. Antacids have better absorptionE. Antacids have slower absorptionF. Antacids have more effectiveness
405. Which of the following counseling for permethrin 5%, indicated in scabies treatment:
I. Thoroughly, massage into skin from head to soles of feets
II. Remove cream by washingIII. Use for all family members
A. I OnlyB. III OnlyC. I and II OnlyD. II and III OnlyE. All of the above
406. Which of the following factors aggravate osteoporosis:
I. RaceII. Estrogen use oral contraceptive
III. Estrogen deficiency
A. I OnlyB. III OnlyC. I and II OnlyD. II and III OnlyE. All of the above
407. In pharmacoeconomics considerations, the following aspects is the most important:
A. PharmacistB. DoctorC. Patient
D. HospitalE. Society
408. Which is include in standard data:
I. Coefficient of varianceII. Range
III. Standard deviation
A. I OnlyB. III OnlyC. I and II OnlyD. II and III OnlyE. All of the above
409. When standard error of the mean decrease:
A. The size of the sample increaseB. The size of the sample decreaseC. The size of the sample does not changeD. Non of the above
410. The visual impulse is associated with photochemical transformation of:
A. RetinalB. RetinolC. Retinoic acidD. RhodopsinE. Non of the above
411. Pharmacist advice the patient with eye problems to see the doctor in which of the following case:
I. Red eyeII. Blurred vision
III. Ocular pain
A. I OnlyB. III OnlyC. I and II OnlyD. II and III OnlyE. All of the above
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412. Patient taking diphenhydramine as a sleep help should be advised :
I. To take tablet every dayII. To take 30 min before bed time
III. Increasing the dose will increase the induction of sleep
A. I OnlyB. III OnlyC. I and II OnlyD. II and III OnlyE. All of the above
413. When concerning the parents of a 10 years old child with a prescription for Bacterioban to treat impetigo, all should be said EXCEBT:
A. Impetigo is common among children in this age
B. S. Pyrogen is one of the agents that cause impetigo
C. Impetigo is very communicableD. Oral medication do not work in impetigo
treatment
414. A prescription contains a drug, which gives side effects to a patient. Pharmacist does not inform the patient regarding it and continue to dispense the prescription. What are the following ethical principle violated:
A. AutonomyB. BeneficencyC. JusticeD. VeracityE. Honesty
415. Ethical principal of nonmaleficiency requires:
A. Act with truthfulnessB. Act with honestyC. To do good
D. To do no harmE. Act with fairness
416. If a pharmacist dispensed a drug with different brand name than the prescription, what ethical principle is violated?
A. AutonomyB. BeneficencyC. JusticeD. VeracityE. Honesty
417. All of the following pharmacoeconomics methods used to assess in term of cost and consequences EXCEPT:
A. Cost benefit analysisB. Cost utilizing analysisC. Cost minimization analysisD. Cost of illnessE. Cost effective analysis
418. Ampicillin prescription changed to amoxicillin by doctor, this substitution is called:
A. Generic substitutionB. Pharmaceutical substitutionC. Therapeutic substitutionD. Pharmaceutical alternateE. Brand name alternate
419. a420. a421. a422. a423.
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